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  • Question 1 - What are the products of VLDL digestion by lipoprotein lipase in peripheral tissues?...

    Correct

    • What are the products of VLDL digestion by lipoprotein lipase in peripheral tissues?

      Your Answer: Low density lipoprotein (LDL) and free fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Different types of lipoproteins carry lipids and cholesterol throughout the body. Chylomicrons transport dietary lipids, VLDLs transport liver-synthesized lipids, LDLs carry cholesterol, and HDLs transport cholesterol back to the liver for breakdown. Fatty acids are broken down by pancreatic lipase and absorbed as free fatty acids and monoglycerides, which are then reformed into triglycerides and packaged into chylomicrons. The liver processes chylomicron remnants and liposomes into various lipoprotein forms, including VLDL and LDL. Apolipoproteins are proteins that bind to lipids to form lipoproteins. HDL particles remove cholesterol from circulation and transport it back to the liver. Oxidized LDL is harmful to the body and promotes atherosclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes and Addison's disease presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes and Addison's disease presents with a two-month history of increasing fatigue and shortness of breath during physical activity. She is currently using a progesterone-only oral contraceptive and taking hydrocortisone 10 mg twice daily and fludrocortisone 100 µg per day. Her glycaemic control has been reasonable, with a last HbA1c of 65 mmol/mol (20-46), and she is receiving mixed insulin twice daily. On examination, she appears pale. A full blood count reveals the following results: haemoglobin 52 g/L (120-160), MCV 115 fL (80-96), WCC 4.2 ×109/L (4-11), platelets 126 ×109L (150-400), and MCH 32 pg (28-32). The blood film shows multilobed nuclei in neutrophils and macrophages. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Megaloblastic Anemia and Pernicious Anemia

      This patient is suffering from a macrocytic anemia, specifically a megaloblastic anemia, which is characterized by multilobed nuclei. The most probable cause of this condition is a deficiency in vitamin B12, which is commonly associated with pernicious anemia. Pernicious anemia is part of the autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome, which is linked to other autoimmune disorders such as Addison’s disease, type 1 diabetes, Sjögren’s disease, and vitiligo. Although there are other potential causes of macrocytosis, none of them are evident in this patient. Hypothyroidism, for example, does not cause megaloblastic anemia, only macrocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 3 - A 19-year-old Afro-Caribbean male with sickle cell disease complains of right upper abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old Afro-Caribbean male with sickle cell disease complains of right upper abdominal pain and exhibits tenderness upon palpation. What diagnostic test should be performed to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      Pigment Gallstones and High Haem Turnover

      In cases of chronic haemolysis, such as sickle cell disease or thalassaemia, the presence of unconjugated bilirubin in bile can lead to the formation of pigment gallstones. These stones are black in color and are caused by the precipitation of calcium bilirubinate from solution. The high concentration of unconjugated bilirubin in bile is a result of the increased turnover of haemoglobin. This can cause pain and discomfort for the patient. It is important to manage the underlying condition causing the high haem turnover to prevent the formation of pigment gallstones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 4 - The risk of contracting a viral infection through a blood transfusion can vary...

    Incorrect

    • The risk of contracting a viral infection through a blood transfusion can vary greatly. What is the estimated risk of hepatitis B transmission in the United Kingdom, for instance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 per 1 million donations

      Explanation:

      Infective Risks of Blood Transfusion

      Blood transfusions carry the risk of transmitting viral infections such as hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV. The likelihood of infection varies depending on the source of the donation and the type of testing used. In the UK, the risk of contracting hepatitis B from a blood transfusion is approximately 1 in 1.3 million donations. The risks for HIV and hepatitis C are even lower, at 1 in 6.5 million and 1 in 28 million donations, respectively. It is important for healthcare professionals to have a comprehensive of these risks when obtaining consent from patients for blood transfusions. Adequate knowledge and communication can help patients make informed decisions about their healthcare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old man comes to you seeking advice. He had a splenectomy ten...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to you seeking advice. He had a splenectomy ten years ago after a cycling accident and has been in good health since. However, a friend recently told him that he should be receiving treatment for his splenectomy. He is currently not taking any medication.

      What would you recommend to him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumococcal vaccination

      Explanation:

      Asplenic Patients and the Importance of Vaccination

      Asplenic patients are individuals who have had their spleen removed, leaving them at risk of overwhelming bacterial infections, particularly from pneumococcus and meningococcus. To prevent such infections, it is recommended that these patients receive the Pneumovax vaccine two weeks before surgery or immediately after emergency surgery. This vaccine should be repeated every five years. Additionally, influenzae vaccination is also recommended to prevent super added bacterial infections.

      While oral penicillin is recommended for children, its long-term use in adults is a topic of debate. However, current guidance suggests that splenectomized patients should receive both antibiotic prophylaxis and appropriate immunization. It is crucial to take these preventative measures to protect asplenic patients from potentially life-threatening infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old patient presents with the following full blood count (FBC) result: Hb...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with the following full blood count (FBC) result: Hb 105 g/L (130-180), RBC 4.5 ×1012/L, Hct 0.353 (0.4-0.52), MCV 75 fL (80-96), MCH 32.5 pg (28-32), Platelets 325 ×109/L (150-400), WBC 7.91 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 6.15 ×109/L (1.5-7.0), Lymphocytes 1.54 ×109/L (1.5-4.0), Monocytes 0.33 ×109/L (0-0.8), Eosinophils 0.16 ×109/L (0.04-0.4), Basophils 0.08 ×109/L (0-0.1), Others 0.14 ×109/L. What would be the most appropriate initial investigation for this FBC result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ferritin concentration

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of FBC Results

      When analyzing a full blood count (FBC), a microcytosis with low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and anaemia (low Hb) is indicative of iron deficiency anaemia. To confirm this, a ferritin test should be requested, followed by an investigation into the source of blood loss if iron deficiency is confirmed. If faecal occult blood is positive, an endoscopy may be necessary. On the other hand, macrocytic anaemia with elevated MCV is caused by folate and B12 deficiency, while hypothyroidism is associated with elevated MCV. While a bone marrow biopsy can also show iron deficiency, it is an invasive procedure and is not necessary in a primary care setting. Therefore, interpreting FBC results requires a thorough of the different types of anaemia and their associated causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 7 - What is the appropriate management for a 65-year-old woman with confusion, profuse sweating,...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate management for a 65-year-old woman with confusion, profuse sweating, bluish discoloration of toes and fingertips, and a petechial rash on the left side of her anterior abdominal wall, who has a history of dysuria and was prescribed antibiotics by her GP three days ago, and is now found to have disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) based on her blood results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood cross-match, urine output monitoring, 500 ml 0.9% saline stat, serum lactate measurement, blood and urine cultures, empirical IV antibiotics and titration of oxygen to ≥94%

      Explanation:

      Managing DIC in a Patient with Septic Shock: Evaluating Treatment Options

      When managing a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), it is important to consider the underlying condition causing the DIC. In the case of a patient with septic shock secondary to a urinary tract infection, the sepsis 6 protocol should be initiated alongside pre-emptive management for potential blood loss.

      While a blood cross-match is sensible, emergency blood products such as platelets are unwarranted in the absence of acute bleeding. Activated protein C, previously recommended for DIC management, has been removed from guidelines due to increased bleeding risk without overall mortality benefit.

      Anticoagulation with low molecular weight heparin is unnecessary at this time, especially when given with blood products, which are pro-coagulant. Tranexamic acid and platelet transfusions are only warranted in the presence of severe active bleeding.

      Prophylactic dose unfractionated heparin may be a good management strategy in the presence of both thrombotic complications and increased bleeding risk, but should be given at a treatment dose if deemed necessary. Ultimately, managing the underlying septic shock is the best way to manage DIC in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 8 - What is true regarding the production of pooled plasma derivatives? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is true regarding the production of pooled plasma derivatives?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The end product is a freeze dried product

      Explanation:

      Preparation of Plasma Derivatives

      The preparation of plasma derivatives, such as factor VIII, involves pooling several thousand plasma donations, typically 20,000 or 5,000 kg of plasma at a time. To avoid the risk of vCJD, pooled plasma has been sourced from outside the UK since 1999. The process includes several chemical steps, including ethanol extraction, chromatography, and viral inactivation, resulting in a freeze-dried product. These products have a long shelf life of several months to years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 9 - A 10-year-old girl injures her leg while playing soccer at the park. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl injures her leg while playing soccer at the park. Her mother takes her to the emergency doctor at their GP clinic later that day as the bleeding has not stopped. The cut is not very big and is on the girl's calf. They immediately applied pressure to the wound and then a bandage, however on examination the wound is still bleeding a little bit. The girl's mother knows that there is a bleeding disorder in her family.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this patient, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give desmopressin and tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Bleeding Disorders: Haemophilia A and Von Willebrand Disease

      Haemophilia A, a genetic bleeding disorder affecting men, is characterized by a propensity to bleed with minor injuries. Diagnosis is made through a prolonged APTT on a background of normal PT and bleeding time. Treatment for minor bleeds includes desmopressin and tranexamic acid, while major bleeds require infusion with recombinant factor 8. Fresh-frozen plasma and platelets are used in major trauma as replacement therapy, while heparin is an anticoagulant and should be avoided. Von Willebrand factor is given once the diagnosis of Von Willebrand disease is confirmed. Children with severe haemophilia A should receive prophylactic infusion of factor 8 at least once a week until physical maturity, and those undergoing elective surgery or pregnant women will require prophylactic treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 10 - A 67-year-old man presented with fever and body ache for 6 months. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presented with fever and body ache for 6 months. His blood tests revealed a haemoglobin level of 110 g/l and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of 121 mm in the first hour. Serum protein electrophoresis revealed an M band in the gamma globulin region with a total IgG level of 70 g/l. Bone marrow biopsy shows plasma cells in the marrow of 11%. A skeletal survey reveals no abnormalities. Other blood tests revealed:
      Test Parameter Normal range
      Calcium 2.60 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Creatinine 119 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Phosphate 1.30 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.6 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Lactate dehydrogenase 399 IU/l 100–190 IU/l
      His body weight was 80 kg.
      What is his condition better known as?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smouldering myeloma

      Explanation:

      Smouldering myeloma is a stage between monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance (MGUS) and myeloma. To diagnose this condition, the patient must have a monoclonal protein in the serum of at least 30 g/l and monoclonal plasma cells of at least 10% in bone marrow or tissue biopsy, but no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients with smouldering myeloma should be closely monitored as they are at high risk of developing symptomatic myeloma.

      Multiple myeloma is a malignant neoplasm where there is clonal proliferation of plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to the secretion of a monoclonal antibody and light immunoglobulin chains that cause organ damage. Patients with multiple myeloma present with various symptoms, including lethargy, bone pain, pathological fractures, renal impairment, amyloidosis, and pancytopenia due to marrow infiltration. To diagnose multiple myeloma, the patient must have a monoclonal antibody in serum and/or urine, clonal plasma cells of at least 10% on bone marrow biopsy, and evidence of end-organ damage.

      MGUS is a condition where low levels of paraprotein are detected in the blood, but they are not causing clinically significant symptoms or end-organ damage. To diagnose MGUS, the patient must have a monoclonal protein in the serum of less than or equal to 30 g/l, monoclonal plasma cells of less than or equal to 10% in bone marrow or tissue biopsy, and no evidence of end-organ damage.

      Non-secretory myeloma is a rare variant of multiple myeloma where the bone marrow findings and end-organ damage are similar to myeloma, but there is no detectable monoclonal protein in the serum or urine. This makes it difficult to diagnose.

      Plasma cell leukemia is a rare and aggressive form of multiple myeloma characterized by high levels of plasma cells circulating in the peripheral blood. It can occur as a primary condition or a secondary leukaemic transformation of multiple myeloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 5-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 5-month history of night sweats and weight loss. He has no history of cough, shortness of breath or foreign travel. He denies any back or joint pain. He is normally fit and well, except for high blood pressure for which he takes enalapril. He continues to drink ten units of alcohol per week.
      On examination, he is noted to have cervical and groin lymphadenopathy, with an enlarged spleen. The remainder of the examination and observations are normal.
      Which of the following is most likely to be used in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rituximab

      Explanation:

      The patient in question is displaying symptoms of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, including night sweats, weight loss, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. While other symptoms may include pruritus, fever, and shortness of breath, the most common treatment for progressive non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a combination chemotherapy called R-CHOP, which includes rituximab. Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody used for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis. The other options, including infliximab, lenalidomide, radiotherapy, and rifampicin, are used for different conditions such as Crohn’s disease, multiple myeloma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and tuberculosis, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 12 - A middle-aged woman presents with increasing fatigue and daytime exhaustion that is starting...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman presents with increasing fatigue and daytime exhaustion that is starting to affect her work as a receptionist. She has been referred to the gynaecology clinic for evaluation of menorrhagia. What results would you anticipate on her complete blood count (CBC)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin - low, MCV - reduced

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Blood Results for Anaemia: Understanding the Relationship between Haemoglobin and MCV

      When interpreting blood results for anaemia, it is important to understand the relationship between haemoglobin and mean corpuscular volume (MCV). A low haemoglobin and reduced MCV may indicate iron deficiency anaemia secondary to menorrhagia, which is a common cause of microcytosis. Treatment for this would involve managing the underlying menorrhagia and supplementing with iron. On the other hand, a low haemoglobin and raised MCV may indicate macrocytic anaemia, commonly associated with vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. It is important to note that a normal haemoglobin with a reduced MCV or a normal haemoglobin and MCV is unlikely in cases of significant symptoms and abnormal bleeding. Understanding these relationships can aid in the diagnosis and management of anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 13 - A 70-year-old man presents with melaena and an INR of 8. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with melaena and an INR of 8. He is currently taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, as well as antihypertensive medication and cholesterol-lowering agents. He recently received antibiotics from his GP for a cough. Which medication is the likely culprit for his elevated INR?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Medications that Interfere with Warfarin and Increase INR

      Certain medications can affect the duration of warfarin’s effects in the body by interfering with the cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liver. This can cause the INR to increase or decrease rapidly, making patients who are on a stable warfarin regimen vulnerable. To remember the drugs that inhibit cytochrome P450 and increase the effects of warfarin, the mnemonic O-DEVICES can be helpful.

      Omeprazole, disulfiram, erythromycin, valproate, isoniazide, cimetidine and ciprofloxacin, ethanol (acutely), and sulphonamides are the drugs that can interfere with warfarin’s effects. These drugs can increase the INR, which can lead to bleeding complications. Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients who are taking warfarin and any of these medications closely to ensure that their INR remains within the therapeutic range. Patients should also inform their healthcare providers of any new medications they are taking to avoid potential interactions with warfarin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 14 - A 31-year-old man presented with weakness and fatigue. On examination, he was emaciated...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man presented with weakness and fatigue. On examination, he was emaciated with a body weight of 40 kg. Blood tests revealed abnormalities including low haemoglobin, low MCV, low MCH, high platelet count, low albumin, and low calcium. His peripheral blood showed Howell-Jolly bodies. To which department should this patient be referred?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastroenterology Department

      Explanation:

      Specialty Departments and Diagnosis of Coeliac Disease

      The patient presents with microcytic, hypochromic anaemia, Howell-Jolly bodies, and splenic dysfunction, along with low albumin and calcium suggestive of malabsorption and emaciation. The most likely diagnosis is coeliac disease, which can be confirmed by antibody tests and a duodenal biopsy in the Gastroenterology department. Haematology can investigate the abnormal blood count, but treatment is not within their scope. Chronic kidney or liver disease is less likely, and there are no neurological symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 15 - A 75-year-old woman comes in with a swollen and hot right calf. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman comes in with a swollen and hot right calf. She had undergone a right knee arthroscopy and had been immobile for a while. She only takes paracetamol and codeine for osteoarthritis as needed. An above-knee deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is detected on ultrasound, which is her first DVT. What is the recommended treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Three months of apixaban

      Explanation:

      Management of Deep Vein Thrombosis and Pulmonary Embolism

      Apixaban and rivaroxaban are the preferred medications for treating deep vein thrombosis (DVT), except for patients with renal impairment or antiphospholipid syndrome. Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) and warfarin are alternative options for those who cannot take apixaban or rivaroxaban. Thrombolysis is used to manage pulmonary embolism (PE) in patients with haemodynamic instability.

      The duration of anticoagulation treatment depends on the type of DVT. For provoked DVTs, which have an identifiable cause, treatment is recommended for at least three months. After this period, the risks and benefits of continuing anticoagulation treatment must be assessed to determine further treatment. For unprovoked DVTs, which have no identifiable cause, treatment is recommended for at least six months. After this period, a risk and benefit assessment is required to determine further treatment.

      NICE has provided a helpful visual summary to assist in the management of DVT and PE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 16 - A 55-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right leg, five days after having a cholecystectomy. Upon examination, the right leg is swollen, tender, and warm, while the left leg appears normal. What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Venous Dopplers

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Deep Vein Thrombosis

      This patient is showing typical symptoms of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). While you may not have access to the necessary investigations in your practice, it is important to have knowledge of secondary care investigations and their appropriate use, as highlighted in the latest MRCGP curriculum statement. Venous Dopplers are the most likely test to confirm the diagnosis, while a venogram is considered the gold standard.

      DVTs should be treated with anticoagulation, typically with the use of DOACs due to the potential risk of embolisation. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat DVTs to prevent complications such as pulmonary embolism. As a healthcare professional, it is important to stay up-to-date with the latest guidelines and recommendations for the diagnosis and treatment of DVTs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 17 - The most common error in transfusion according to the SHOT (serious hazards of...

    Incorrect

    • The most common error in transfusion according to the SHOT (serious hazards of transfusion) analysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wrong identification or mislabelling of patient or sample

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Transfusion Errors

      Mislabelling of samples, requests, or misidentifying recipients are the most frequent causes of transfusion errors. This was confirmed by the SHOT study, which examined transfusion errors and near-misses in a nationwide audit in the United Kingdom. Although other errors, such as cross-match errors, incorrect storage, and transfusion reactions due to undetected antibodies, do occur, they are infrequent.

      In summary, the SHOT study found that the most common causes of transfusion errors are related to labelling and identification. Therefore, it is crucial to implement strict protocols and procedures to ensure that samples and requests are correctly labelled and recipients are accurately identified to prevent these errors from occurring. While other errors may occur, they are rare and can be mitigated through proper training and adherence to established guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 18 - As a part of a haematology rotation, a final-year medical student is asked...

    Incorrect

    • As a part of a haematology rotation, a final-year medical student is asked to give a PowerPoint presentation to the team about a 20-year-old patient who presented with sickle-cell crisis.
      With regard to sickle-cell disease, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aplastic crisis can be precipitated by parvovirus B19

      Explanation:

      Understanding Aplastic Crisis and Sickle-Cell Disease

      Aplastic crisis is a condition of transient bone marrow failure that can be precipitated by parvovirus B19, Epstein–Barr virus (EBV), or Streptococcus. In sickle-cell disease, aplastic crisis is usually caused by parvovirus B19 and is characterized by reticulocytopenia, symptomatic anemia, and the presence of parvovirus immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies. It is managed by monitoring and symptomatic relief with blood transfusion until normal erythrocyte function returns. Aplastic crisis is most common in individuals of Mediterranean descent.

      Sickle-cell disease is most common in individuals of Black Afro-Caribbean descent and, to a lesser extent, in individuals of Mediterranean or Middle Eastern descent. It occurs as a result of the production of an abnormal beta (β) chain in haemoglobin, caused by a mutation that changes adenine to thymine in the sixth codon of the β chain gene. This results in the formation of HbS, which circulates in the blood and forms polymers in the deoxygenated state, causing sickling of red blood cells. The resulting blood film shows elongated, thin, sickled red blood cells, target cells, and Howell–Jolly bodies.

      Splenomegaly is most usually seen in childhood, as most children with sickle-cell disease have a splenic infarction event in late childhood and develop hyposplenism. Spherocytes, on the other hand, are abnormal red blood cells with a spherical shape, seen on the blood film of spherocytosis, a form of haemolytic anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 19 - A 14-year-old boy with thalassaemia major, receiving regular blood transfusions, has been added...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy with thalassaemia major, receiving regular blood transfusions, has been added to the transplant waiting list for chronic heart failure. What is the probable reason for his heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transfusion haemosiderosis

      Explanation:

      Complications of Blood Transfusions: Understanding the Risks

      Blood transfusions are a common medical intervention used to treat a variety of conditions, from severe bleeding to anaemia. While they can be life-saving, they also carry certain risks and potential complications. Here are some of the most common complications associated with blood transfusions:

      Transfusion haemosiderosis: Repeated blood transfusions can lead to the accumulation of iron in the body’s organs, particularly the heart and endocrine system. This can cause irreversible heart failure if left untreated.

      High-output cardiac failure: While anaemia on its own may not be enough to cause heart failure, it can exacerbate the condition in those with reduced left ventricular systolic dysfunction.

      Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction: This occurs when there is a mismatch between the major histocompatibility antigens on blood cells, such as the ABO system. It can cause severe intravascular haemolysis, disseminated intravascular coagulation, renal failure, and shock, and has a high mortality rate if not recognized and treated quickly.

      Pulmonary oedema: While rare in patients with normal left ventricular systolic function, blood transfusions can cause fluid overload and pulmonary oedema, which can exacerbate chronic heart failure.

      Transfusion-related bacterial endocarditis: While rare, bacterial infections can occur from blood transfusions. Platelet pools, which are stored at room temperature, have a slightly higher risk of bacterial contamination that can cause fulminant sepsis.

      Understanding the potential complications of blood transfusions is important for both patients and healthcare providers. By recognizing and addressing these risks, we can ensure that blood transfusions remain a safe and effective treatment option for those who need them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance. He has planned a long-distance...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance. He has planned a long-distance trip to Australia and is worried about the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). He has no significant medical history and is in good health.
      What is the best advice to offer him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No aspirin, ankle exercises, aisle seat and no alcohol

      Explanation:

      Venous Thromboembolism Prophylaxis for Long-Haul Flights

      When it comes to preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) during long-haul flights, the approach varies depending on the patient’s risk level. For low-risk patients without history of VTE, cardiac disease, major illness, or recent surgery, NICE recommends avoiding long periods of immobility by taking an aisle seat, performing ankle exercises, and wearing loose-fitting clothing. It’s also important to stay hydrated and avoid alcohol.

      Moderate to high-risk patients, on the other hand, may benefit from compression stockings, especially if they have a history of VTE, cardiac disease, varicose veins, or are pregnant or postpartum. High-risk patients with thrombophilia, cancer, or recent surgery requiring general anesthesia should also consider compression stockings.

      While some sources recommend a single dose of aspirin for VTE prophylaxis during long-haul flights, current NICE guidelines do not recommend this approach. Instead, patients should focus on staying mobile, wearing compression stockings if necessary, and staying hydrated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 21 - What is the diagnostic tool for beta thalassaemia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the diagnostic tool for beta thalassaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Beta Thalassaemia

      Beta thalassaemia can be diagnosed through the presence of mild microcytic anaemia, target cells on the peripheral blood smear, and a normal red blood cell count. However, the diagnosis is confirmed through the elevation of Hb A2, which is demonstrated by electrophoresis. In beta thalassaemia patients, the Hb A2 level is typically around 4-6%.

      It is important to note that in rare cases where there is severe iron deficiency, the increased Hb A2 level may not be observed. However, it becomes evident with iron repletion. Additionally, patients with the rare delta-beta thalassaemia trait do not exhibit an increased Hb A2 level.

      In summary, the diagnosis of beta thalassaemia can be suggested through certain symptoms and blood tests, but it is confirmed through the measurement of Hb A2 levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 22 - A 54-year-old white woman without past medical history presents with pallor, shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old white woman without past medical history presents with pallor, shortness of breath, palpitations and difficulty balancing.
      On examination, her vitals are heart rate 110 bpm at rest and 140 bpm on ambulation, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 18 breaths/minute, temperature 37 ° C and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. She is pale. Her lungs are clear to auscultation; her heart rate is regular without murmurs, rubs or gallops; her abdomen is soft and non-tender; she is moving all extremities equally, and a stool guaiac test is heme-negative. Her gait is wide and she has difficulty balancing. She has decreased sensation to fine touch in her feet. Her mini-mental status exam is normal.
      Blood work shows:
      Haematocrit: 0.19 (0.35–0.55)
      Mean cell volume: 110 fl (76–98 fl)
      White blood cell count: 5 × 109/l (4–11 × 109/l)
      Which one of the following findings would most likely lead to the correct diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies

      Explanation:

      Causes and Symptoms of Vitamin B12 Deficiency

      Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to macrocytic anaemia and neurological symptoms. The most common cause of this deficiency is the presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibodies. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the absorption of dietary vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum. Without it, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed, leading to deficiency and anaemia. Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include fatigue, lethargy, dyspnoea on exertion, and neurological symptoms such as peripheral loss of vibration and proprioception, weakness, and paraesthesiae. If left untreated, it can lead to hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and demyelination of the spinal cord, causing ataxia.

      Diagnosis can be made with a vitamin B12 level test, which reveals anaemia, often pancytopenia, and a raised MCV. A blood film reveals hypersegmented neutrophils, megaloblasts, and oval macrocytes. Treatment involves replacement of vitamin B12.

      Other possible causes of vitamin B12 deficiency include intestinal tapeworm, which is rare, and gastrointestinal malignancy, which causes iron deficiency anaemia with a low MCV. Destruction of the anterior and lateral horns of the spinal cord describes anterolateral sclerosis (ALS), which is characterised by progressive muscle weakness and would not cause anaemia or loss of sensation. Enlargement of the ventricles on head CT indicates hydrocephalus, which could explain the wide-based gait but not the anaemia and other symptoms. A haemoglobin A1c of 12.2% is associated with diabetes, which could explain decreased peripheral sensation to fine touch but would not be associated with megaloblastic anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 23 - A 17-year-old male patient comes in with a history of fevers, night sweats,...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old male patient comes in with a history of fevers, night sweats, and a weight loss of 20 pounds over the course of several months. Upon conducting a CT scan, mediastinal lymphadenopathy is discovered, and a biopsy is performed. The genetic analysis of the lesion reveals a translocation between chromosomes 14 and 18. What protein is expected to be overexpressed due to this translocation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: bcl-2

      Explanation:

      Follicular lymphoma is a prevalent type of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma that results from a chromosomal translocation between chromosome 14 and chromosome 18. This translocation causes the bcl-2 protein, which is anti-apoptotic, to be moved to the IgH promoter region, leading to overproduction of bcl-2. Consequently, abnormal B cells undergo clonal proliferation and are protected from apoptosis. Follicular lymphoma affects both genders equally, and its incidence increases with age. The disease typically presents with painless adenopathy that progresses over time. Systemic symptoms, such as fevers, night sweats, and weight loss, may occur later in the disease progression and can be associated with anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and lymphocytosis. Diagnosis requires a lymph node biopsy to demonstrate the expansion of follicles filling the node and chromosomal analysis of cells from bone marrow aspiration to detect t(14:18). Chemotherapy is the primary treatment, and rituximab, a monoclonal antibody against the CD20 protein found on B cells, is often used in combination with other agents. In Burkitt’s lymphoma, c-myc overexpression is caused by a translocation between chromosomes 8 and 14, while chronic myeloid leukaemia results from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, forming the Philadelphia chromosome. Ewing’s sarcoma is caused by a translocation between chromosomes 11 and 12, leading to the formation of the fusion protein Ewsr1-fli1, which causes aberrant transcription of genes regulating cell growth and development. In a small subset of follicular lymphoma patients, translocations involving the bcl-6 gene and protein are found, which may increase the risk of transformation to a more aggressive form.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner after suffering from several miscarriages...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner after suffering from several miscarriages and is afraid her husband will leave her. The patient gave the history of bruising even with minor injuries and several spontaneous miscarriages. On examination, the patient is noted to have a rash in a butterfly distribution on the nose and cheeks. Tests reveal 1+ proteinuria only.
      What is the most likely cause of her main concern?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Antiphospholipid Syndrome (APLS) and its Link to Recurrent Spontaneous Abortions

      When a young woman experiences multiple spontaneous abortions, it may indicate an underlying disorder. One possible cause is antiphospholipid syndrome (APLS), a hypercoagulable state with autoantibodies against phospholipid components. This disorder can lead to recurrent spontaneous abortions during the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, and approximately 9% of APLS patients also have renal abnormalities.

      Other potential causes of recurrent spontaneous abortions include poorly controlled diabetes, nephritic syndrome, dermatomyositis, and anatomic defects like a bicornuate uterus. However, the examination and test results in this case suggest a systemic etiology, making APLS a strong possibility.

      Diagnosing systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which can also cause nephritic or nephrotic syndrome, requires meeting at least 4 out of 11 criteria established by the American Rheumatism Association (ARA).

      Understanding these potential causes and their links to recurrent spontaneous abortions can help healthcare providers identify and treat underlying disorders in women of reproductive age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency assessment...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency assessment unit with concerns of fluid leakage from her vagina. Upon examination, her pad is saturated with what appears to be amniotic fluid. What component of the fluid may indicate premature rupture of membranes (PROM)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha fetoprotein

      Explanation:

      Using Biomarkers to Detect Premature Rupture of Membranes

      Premature rupture of membranes (PROM) can be difficult to diagnose in some cases. In 2006, a study was conducted to determine if measuring certain biomarkers in vaginal fluid could be used as an indicator of membrane rupture. The study found that alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) had the highest accuracy in predicting PROM, with a specificity and sensitivity of 94%. This suggests that AFP could be used as a marker in cases where diagnosis is uncertain.

      In addition to AFP, other biomarkers have been identified for different purposes. Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a tumor marker for colon cancer, while cancer antigen 125 (CA125) is a tumor marker for ovarian cancer. By measuring these biomarkers, doctors can detect the presence of cancer and monitor its progression. Overall, biomarkers have proven to be a valuable tool in diagnosing and monitoring various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 26 - A 60-year-old man comes to his doctor with complaints of night sweats and...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to his doctor with complaints of night sweats and unintended weight loss. He has a medical history of axillary lymphadenopathy. The doctor suspects that he may have non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. What is the most probable test to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Excisional biopsy of an enlarged lymph node

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Investigations for Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

      Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system. There are several diagnostic investigations that can be used to diagnose this condition.

      Excisional Biopsy of an Enlarged Lymph Node: This is the most common diagnostic investigation for suspected non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. It involves removing all of the abnormal tissue from an enlarged lymph node.

      Computed Tomography (CT) of the Chest, Neck, Abdomen, and Pelvis: CT scanning can indicate features suggestive of lymphoma, such as lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. However, it cannot provide a tissue diagnosis.

      Core Needle Biopsy of an Enlarged Lymph Node: If a surgical excisional biopsy is not appropriate, a core needle biopsy can be performed. However, if this does not reveal a definite diagnosis, then an excisional biopsy should be undertaken.

      Full Blood Count: A full blood count can be a helpful first-line investigation if a haematological malignancy is suspected, but it is not sufficient to be diagnostic for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

      Protein Electrophoresis and Urine Bence-Jones Protein: Protein electrophoresis can be helpful in screening for multiple myeloma, but it is not helpful for diagnosing non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

      In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic investigations can be used to diagnose non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma. However, excisional biopsy remains the gold standard for diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 27 - These results were obtained on a 65-year-old male:
    Hb 110 g/L (120-170)
    RBC 4.8 ×1012/L...

    Incorrect

    • These results were obtained on a 65-year-old male:
      Hb 110 g/L (120-170)
      RBC 4.8 ×1012/L (4.2-5.8)
      Hct 0.365 (0.37-0.49)
      MCV 75 fL (82-98)
      MCH 33.2 pg (28-33)
      Platelets 310 ×109/L (140-450)
      WBC 8.21 ×109/L (4.5-11)
      Neutrophils 6.45 ×109/L (1.8-7.5)
      Lymphocytes 1.23 ×109/L (1.0-4.5)
      Monocytes 0.28 ×109/L (0-0.8)
      Eosinophils 0.18 ×109/L (0.02-0.5)
      Basophils 0.09 ×109/L (0-0.1)
      Others 0.18 ×109/L -

      What could be the possible reason for these FBC results in a 65-year-old male?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal blood loss

      Explanation:

      Microcytic Anaemia in a 63-Year-Old Female

      A Full Blood Count (FBC) analysis has revealed that a 63-year-old female is suffering from microcytic anaemia, which is characterized by low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and low haemoglobin (Hb) levels. This type of anaemia is typically caused by iron deficiency, which is often the result of blood loss. However, in this case, menorrhagia can be ruled out as the patient is postmenopausal. Therefore, the most likely cause of the microcytic anaemia is peptic ulceration. It is important to note that pernicious anaemia or folate deficiency can cause macrocytosis, which is characterized by elevated MCV levels. Proper diagnosis and treatment are necessary to address the underlying cause of the microcytic anaemia and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 28 - A 67-year-old man was admitted with pain in the left groin. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man was admitted with pain in the left groin. He had fallen from his chair, after which the pain started. He was unable to walk and his left leg was externally rotated. X-rays revealed a neck of femur fracture. He lives alone in a flat and is a vegetarian. His past medical history includes shortness of breath, body itching and occasional swelling of legs. His blood tests revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      Haemoglobin 120 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Calcium 3.5 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Phosphate 1.52 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 184 mm/h 0–15 mm/h
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Multiple Myeloma in a Patient with Pathological Fracture

      A man has sustained a pathological fracture after a minor trauma, which is likely due to lytic bone lesions. He also presents with anemia, raised calcium, and ESR, all of which are consistent with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma. This is further supported by his age group for presentation.

      Other possible diagnoses, such as osteoporosis, vitamin D deficiency, acute leukemia, and malignancy with metastasis, are less likely based on the absence of specific symptoms and laboratory findings. For example, in osteoporosis, vitamin D and phosphate levels are normal, and ESR and hemoglobin levels are not affected. In vitamin D deficiency, calcium and phosphate levels are usually normal or low-normal, and ESR is not raised. Acute leukemia typically presents with systemic symptoms and normal serum calcium levels. Malignancy with metastasis is possible but less likely without preceding symptoms suggestive of an underlying solid tumor malignancy.

      In summary, the patient’s clinical presentation and laboratory findings suggest a diagnosis of multiple myeloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 29 - A middle-aged patient is newly diagnosed with a bleeding disorder after complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged patient is newly diagnosed with a bleeding disorder after complaining of heavy periods. She presents with a prolonged APTT and bleeding time, but normal indices. The patient reports a family history of bleeding disorders on her mother's side. She denies any prior history of bleeding or bruising after minor surgical procedures. What is the most likely bleeding disorder in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: von Willebrand’s disease

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis in this scenario is von Willebrand’s disease, which is the most common hereditary bleeding disorder caused by a defective von Willebrand factor. This protein plays a crucial role in haemostasis by assisting in platelet adhesion and stabilising coagulation factor VIII. A deficiency in von Willebrand factor prolongs bleeding time and APTT, but does not affect platelet counts or PT. It is more pronounced in women and may present with menorrhagia. Treatment involves administration of recombinant von Willebrand factor. Haemophilia A, Bernard-Soulier syndrome, Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia, and vitamin K deficiency are other bleeding disorders with different causes and blood test results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 30 - A 10-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy has been brought to the paediatric Emergency Department by...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy has been brought to the paediatric Emergency Department by his parents, both of whom are known to suffer from sickle cell disease. They have brought him in to see you because they are worried he has developed ‘septicaemia’. Upon further questioning, he reveals that he has developed extreme fatigue, shortness of breath on exertion, coryzal symptoms and bleeding gums, all over the last two days.
      Upon examination, you note an erythematosus rash on both cheeks, a small purpuric rash on the left arm, pale conjunctivae, pale skin and well-perfused peripheries. Brudzinski’s sign is negative.
      You take some basic observations, which are as follows:
      Temperature: 37.8 ˚C
      Heart rate: 100 bpm (normal 55–85 bpm)
      Respiratory rate: 20 breaths/min (normal 12–18 breaths/min)
      Blood pressure: 130/86 mmHg (lying), 132/84 mmHg (standing)
      Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
      His initial investigation findings are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal
      White cell count (WCC) 11.4 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 3800 × 106/l 3000–5800 × 106/l
      Lymphocytes 7200 × 106/l 1500–3000 × 106/l
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 84 g/dl 135–175 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume
      (MCV) 94 fl 76–98 fl
      Platelets 200 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Given the likely diagnosis, how should the patient be managed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cross-match, giving blood as soon as it is available

      Explanation:

      The patient in question is at a high risk of sickle cell disease due to their ethnicity and family history. They are showing signs of parvovirus B19 infection, which is causing bone marrow failure and a decrease in erythropoiesis. This condition, known as aplastic crisis, is usually managed conservatively but may require a blood transfusion if the patient is experiencing symptomatic anemia. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is not recommended in this case as it will not address the patient’s severe anemia. IV ceftriaxone and a lumbar puncture would be the correct initial management for meningococcal disease, but it is not the most likely diagnosis in this case. Oral benzylpenicillin and transfer to a pediatric ward is also not recommended as it is not the correct management for meningococcal disease and is not relevant to the patient’s condition. While sepsis is a possible differential diagnosis, the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms is a viral infection causing aplastic crisis in a patient with sickle cell disease. Therefore, the appropriate management would be to investigate for viral infection and provide supportive therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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