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  • Question 1 - Samantha is 89-years-old and has been admitted to hospital for being 'off-legs'. She...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is 89-years-old and has been admitted to hospital for being 'off-legs'. She is usually fit and well, walking 3 miles a day. Her only past medical history is of osteoarthritis in her hands for which she takes regular paracetamol with omeprazole for gastro-protection. Samantha's daughter reports that Samantha has become gradually more confused over the preceding weeks. She has a NEWs (national early warning score) of 0. Her U&Es are reported back as:

      Na+ 134 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Mg 2+ 0.5 mmol/L (0.85 - 1.10)

      Her renal function is at her baseline. What is the most appropriate initial management plan?

      Your Answer: Withhold regular medications and begin slow fluid replacement with 500ml NaCl over 12 hours

      Correct Answer: Withhold regular medications and begin electrolyte replacement with a magnesium infusion

      Explanation:

      The primary step in managing hypomagnesaemia caused by proton pump inhibitors is to discontinue the medication. The next step is to slowly replace the lost magnesium through infusion. Although dehydration is a common cause of hospitalization in elderly patients, it is not the case with George, who has normal renal function and a NEWs score of 0. Therefore, magnesium replacement is the most appropriate solution.

      While potassium replacement and cardiac monitoring may be necessary, administering potassium orally before magnesium replacement is unlikely to be effective in correcting the electrolyte imbalance. Additionally, there is no mention of discontinuing George’s regular medications, which are likely the underlying cause of the electrolyte disturbance.

      A fluid challenge of 500ml is appropriate for patients in shock, but George does not exhibit any signs of shock. Given his age, a smaller fluid challenge may be more appropriate.

      Although urosepsis is a common cause of confusion in the elderly, George does not exhibit any symptoms of a urinary tract infection and has a NEWs score of 0. Therefore, the electrolyte disturbance is more likely to be the cause of his confusion.

      Administering a magnesium infusion before potassium replacement is necessary because magnesium deficiency can worsen potassium loss. While holding George’s medications is appropriate, fluid replacement may not be necessary. Administering the fluid over 12 hours seems excessive for someone without known cardiac or renal disease.

      Understanding Hypomagnesaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the blood. There are several causes of this condition, including the use of certain drugs such as diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitelman’s and Bartter’s can also lead to hypomagnesaemia. The symptoms of this condition may be similar to those of hypocalcaemia, including paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, and arrhythmias.

      When the magnesium level drops below 0.4 mmol/L or when there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. For magnesium levels above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts are prescribed in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts. It is important to note that hypomagnesaemia can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      88
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old diabetic male patient arrives at the clinic with worries about his...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old diabetic male patient arrives at the clinic with worries about his erectile dysfunction. Can you explain the mechanism of action of sildenafil?

      Your Answer: Nitric oxide donor

      Correct Answer: Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor

      Explanation:

      A phosphodiesterase type V inhibitor is what sildenafil is.

      Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors

      Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.

      Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.

      Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.

      Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15
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  • Question 3 - A 21-year-old male comes to the emergency department with a complaint of vomiting...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old male comes to the emergency department with a complaint of vomiting fresh blood after a 72-hour drinking binge. He denies regular alcohol abuse.

      During the examination, his pulse is found to be 92 beats per minute and his blood pressure is 146/90 mmHg.

      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Mallory-Weiss tear

      Explanation:

      Causes of Gastrointestinal Bleeding

      Gastrointestinal bleeding can be caused by various factors, including Mallory-Weiss tears, aortoduodenal fistula, Meckel’s diverticulum, oesophageal varices, and peptic ulcers. Mallory-Weiss tears occur in the gastro-oesophageal junction due to forceful or prolonged coughing or vomiting, often after excessive alcohol intake or epileptic convulsions. This can result in vomiting bright red blood or passing blood per rectum. Aortoduodenal fistula is caused by erosion of the duodenum into the aorta due to tumour or previous repair of the aorta with a synthetic graft. Meckel’s diverticulum, which occasionally occurs in the ileum, may contain ectopic gastric mucosa, leading to rectal bleeding. Oesophageal varices are dilated venous collaterals that result from portal hypertension in patients with liver cirrhosis. Finally, peptic ulcers are the most common cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeds, with mucosal erosions developing due to non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, steroids, or prolonged alcohol abuse. Despite the potential severity of these conditions, bleeding usually stops spontaneously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old woman, who has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, is planning to...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman, who has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, is planning to undergo a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. What pre-operative imaging is necessary?

      Your Answer: Anteroposterior and lateral cervical spine radiographs

      Explanation:

      Although rare, atlantoaxial subluxation is a significant complication of rheumatoid arthritis due to its potential to cause cervical cord compression. To prevent this, preoperative screening using anteroposterior and lateral cervical spine radiographs is essential. This screening ensures that the patient is fitted with a C-spine collar and that their neck is not hyperextended during intubation. While hand radiographs aid in diagnosis, they are not required before surgery. Although not necessary for screening, CT scans of the cervical spine may be beneficial if any abnormalities are detected.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a condition that can lead to various complications beyond joint pain and inflammation. These complications can affect different parts of the body, including the respiratory system, eyes, bones, heart, and immune system. Some of the respiratory complications associated with RA include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, and bronchiolitis obliterans. Eye-related complications may include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, scleritis, and corneal ulceration. RA can also increase the risk of osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, infections, and depression. Less common complications may include Felty’s syndrome and amyloidosis.

      It is important to note that these complications may not affect all individuals with RA and the severity of the complications can vary. However, it is essential for individuals with RA to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent or address any complications that may arise. Regular check-ups and monitoring of symptoms can help detect and manage any complications early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      124.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - In the treatment of autoimmunity and prevention of rejection after solid organ transplantation,...

    Incorrect

    • In the treatment of autoimmunity and prevention of rejection after solid organ transplantation, various immunosuppressant drugs are used. Despite their effectiveness, these drugs have unwanted side effects that increase the risk of infection and malignancy. However, specific side effects are associated with each drug due to their unique mechanism of action. What is the immunosuppressant drug that is commonly linked to hirsutism and gingival hypertrophy in patients? Also, is there any age group that is more susceptible to these side effects?

      Your Answer: Sirolimus

      Correct Answer: Ciclosporin

      Explanation:

      Ciclosporin’s Side Effects and Decreased Popularity as a Transplantation Maintenance Therapy

      Ciclosporin is a medication that is commonly linked to gingival hypertrophy and hirsutism. These side effects can be unpleasant for patients and may lead to decreased compliance with the medication regimen. Additionally, ciclosporin is not as effective as tacrolimus at inhibiting calcineurin, which is a key factor in preventing transplant rejection. As a result, ciclosporin is becoming less popular as a maintenance therapy for transplantation. Physicians are increasingly turning to other medications that have fewer side effects and are more effective at preventing rejection. While ciclosporin may still be used in some cases, it is no longer considered the first-line treatment for transplantation maintenance therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A new medication, Vilastem, has been developed to improve nausea in elderly patients...

    Incorrect

    • A new medication, Vilastem, has been developed to improve nausea in elderly patients with terminal cancer. It has recently gained marketing approval but a new side effect is identified via the yellow card scheme.

      What phase of drug development does this represent?

      Your Answer: Phase 3

      Correct Answer: Phase 4

      Explanation:

      The Phases of Drug Testing

      New drugs undergo a series of studies known as phases 0-4. Phase 0 is a pre-clinical study that involves animals and/or cells. Phase 1 is the first testing on humans and usually involves healthy volunteers. Phase 2 involves patients with the relevant disease, while phase 3 involves thousands of patients to prove the drug’s effectiveness and safety. If the drug passes phase 3, the company can apply for regulatory approval to market the drug. Phase 4 is post-regulatory monitoring, where companies review the drug’s performance and assess any risk of side effects in a particular population. The yellow card system is also used to report any new or rare side effects. Each phase serves a specific purpose in ensuring the safety and effectiveness of new drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found collapsed on the streets. She appears confused, ataxic, and is slurring her speech. The patient is very emotional and does not respond to any questions. The initial assessment reveals tachycardia and hypertension. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score = 13 (E4V4M5). An ABCDE approach is taken to stabilize the patient, and an arterial blood gas (ABG) and blood test are carried out.

      The results of the blood test are as follows:
      - pH 7.28
      - pCO2 3.6 kPa
      - pO2 11.4 kPa
      - HCO3- 20 mmol/L
      - Na+ 132 mmol/L
      - K+ 4.1 mmol/L
      - Chloride 94 mmol/L
      - Glucose 4.1 mmol/L
      - Urea 7.7 mmol/L
      - Ethanol 20 mmol/L ( <17.4 mmol/L)
      - Serum osmolality 301 mOsm/kg (275-295 mOsm/kg)

      Note: The estimated serum osmolality can be calculated as 2 x (Na+ + K+) + urea + glucose + (ethanol/4). Normal osmolar gap = -3 to 10. Normal anion gap = 10-18 mmol/L (assuming K+ is used as part of the calculation).

      What is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Acute ethanol intoxication

      Correct Answer: Ethylene glycol toxicity

      Explanation:

      A patient presenting with a metabolic acidosis, low pH, low bicarbonate, and partial respiratory compensation should have their anion gap calculated to determine the cause. In this case, the anion gap is raised, indicating a possible toxic alcohol ingestion. The serum osmolality should also be measured, and the expected serum osmolarity calculated. If the difference between the two is high, it indicates an abnormal, unmeasured solute, known as the osmolar gap. In this case, the osmolar gap is raised, further supporting the diagnosis of ethylene glycol poisoning. Other potential causes, such as methanol, renal failure, diabetic ketoacidosis, and lactic acidosis, can be ruled out based on the patient’s presentation and laboratory results. It is important to note that ethanol ingestion may be present in cases of ethylene glycol poisoning, but it alone would not explain the symptoms. Ethylene glycol is commonly found in antifreeze and can be used as a method of attempted suicide.

      Understanding Ethylene Glycol Toxicity and Its Management

      Ethylene glycol is a type of alcohol commonly used as a coolant or antifreeze. Its toxicity is characterized by three stages of symptoms. The first stage is similar to alcohol intoxication, with confusion, slurred speech, and dizziness. The second stage involves metabolic acidosis with high anion gap and high osmolar gap, as well as tachycardia and hypertension. The third stage is acute kidney injury.

      In the past, ethanol was the primary treatment for ethylene glycol toxicity. It works by competing with ethylene glycol for the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase, which limits the formation of toxic metabolites responsible for the haemodynamic and metabolic features of poisoning. However, in recent times, fomepizole, an inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase, has become the first-line treatment preference over ethanol. Haemodialysis also has a role in refractory cases.

      Overall, understanding the stages of ethylene glycol toxicity and the changing management options is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide effective treatment and prevent further harm to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      188.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 70-year-old woman has been diagnosed with a malignant lesion in the medial...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman has been diagnosed with a malignant lesion in the medial part of her left breast. To which one of the following lymph node groups is this site most likely to drain?

      Your Answer: Internal thoracic

      Explanation:

      Lymph Nodes and Their Locations in the Body

      Lymph nodes are small, bean-shaped structures that play a crucial role in the immune system. They filter lymphatic fluid and trap harmful substances, such as bacteria and cancer cells. Here are some of the lymph nodes found in the body and their locations:

      Internal Thoracic: These nodes are located parallel to the internal thoracic artery and vein, draining the medial part of the breast. Metastasis of breast cancer in these nodes can lead to reduced long-term survival.

      Coeliac: Found in the abdomen, these nodes drain the stomach, duodenum, spleen, pancreas, and biliary tract.

      Infraclavicular: Also known as the deltopectoral group, these nodes are located below the clavicle and receive lymph from the lateral side of the upper limb.

      Supraclavicular: These nodes are found above the clavicles and receive lymph from the chest and abdomen.

      Tracheobronchial: These nodes drain the trachea and bronchi and can be affected in lung malignancy and inflammatory conditions of the lung.

      Understanding the locations of lymph nodes can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast
      38.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old known cardiopath is brought to hospital by ambulance, complaining of chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old known cardiopath is brought to hospital by ambulance, complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. He looks pale and is very sweaty. Examination reveals a blood pressure of 80/55 mmHg, pulse of 135 bpm, SpO2 of 93% and bibasal wet crackles in the chest, as well as peripheral oedema. Peripheral pulses are palpable. A previous median sternotomy is noted. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals regular tachycardia, with QRS complexes of uniform amplitude, a QRS width of 164 ms and a rate of 135 bpm.
      What is the most important step in management?

      Your Answer: IV furosemide and oxygen

      Correct Answer: DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Management of Ventricular Tachycardia in a Patient with Ischaemic Heart Disease

      When faced with a patient with a broad-complex tachycardia, it is important to consider ventricular tachycardia as the most common cause, particularly in patients with a history of ischaemic heart disease. In a haemodynamically unstable patient with regular ventricular tachycardia, the initial step is to evaluate for adverse signs or symptoms. If present, the patient should be sedated and synchronised DC shock should be administered, followed by amiodarone infusion and correction of electrolyte abnormalities. If there are no adverse signs or symptoms, amiodarone IV and correction of electrolyte abnormalities should begin immediately.

      Other management options, such as primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), IV magnesium, aspirin and clopidogrel, IV furosemide, and oxygen, may be indicated depending on the underlying cause of the ventricular tachycardia, but DC cardioversion is the most important step in a haemodynamically unstable patient. Diuretics are not indicated in a hypotensive patient, and improving cardiac function is the key to clearing fluid from the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      144.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old woman presents at 18 weeks’ gestation, seeking advice. She was collecting...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents at 18 weeks’ gestation, seeking advice. She was collecting her son from school the other day when the teacher alerted the parents that a few children had developed ‘slapped cheek syndrome’. One of those children was at her house with his parents for dinner over the weekend.
      She is concerned she may have been infected and is worried about her baby. She had all her paediatric vaccinations, as per the National Health Service (NHS) schedule.
      Which of the following should be the next step in the investigation of this patient?

      Your Answer: Parvovirus B19 immunoglobulin G (IgG) and immunoglobulin M (IgM) serology

      Explanation:

      Serology Testing for Parvovirus B19 and Rubella During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, it is important to investigate exposure to certain viruses, such as parvovirus B19 and rubella, as they can have detrimental effects on the fetus. Serology testing for immunoglobulin G (IgG) and immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibodies is used to determine if a patient has had a previous infection or if there is a recent or acute infection.

      Parvovirus B19 is a DNA virus that commonly affects children and can cause slapped cheek syndrome. If a patient has had significant exposure to parvovirus B19, IgG and IgM serology testing is performed. A positive IgG and negative IgM result indicates an old infection, while a negative IgG and IgM result requires repeat testing in one month. A positive IgM result indicates a recent infection, which requires further confirmation and referral to a specialist center for fetal monitoring.

      Varicella IgG serology is performed if there was exposure to chickenpox during pregnancy. A positive result indicates immunity to the virus, and no further investigation is required.

      Rubella IgG and IgM serology is used to investigate exposure to rubella during pregnancy. A positive IgG indicates previous exposure or immunity from vaccination, while a positive IgM indicates a recent or acute infection.

      In conclusion, serology testing is an important tool in investigating viral exposure during pregnancy and can help guide appropriate management and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      41.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (0/4) 0%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Breast (1/1) 100%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Passmed