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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old child is brought to the Emergency Department with a displaced supracondylar fracture. It necessitates manipulation using procedural sedation.
What would be the most appropriate option?Your Answer: Morphine
Correct Answer: Midazolam
Explanation:Procedural Sedation: Comparing the Benefits and Risks of Different Drugs
Procedural sedation is a common practice in medical procedures to reduce pain and anxiety in patients. However, choosing the right drug for sedation can be challenging as each drug has its own benefits and risks. In this article, we will compare the benefits and risks of different drugs commonly used for procedural sedation.
Midazolam is a drug used for mild to moderate pain levels. It can be administered orally or intranasally and has fewer side effects than other drugs. On the other hand, ketamine is an excellent choice for procedural sedation, especially in children. It has powerful analgesic and sedative effects and can be administered intranasally, reducing the need for invasive interventions. However, ketamine has side effects such as tachycardia, hypertension, muscle twitching, rash, laryngospasm, apnea, vomiting, and recovery agitation.
Morphine is helpful for pain management but is not suitable for procedural sedation due to respiratory depression. Propofol is a general anesthetic agent with a longer half-life than midazolam and ketamine. It can adversely affect hemodynamic status, making midazolam a better choice for sedation. Finally, lorazepam is primarily used for managing agitation and not procedural sedation.
In conclusion, choosing the right drug for procedural sedation requires careful consideration of the patient’s condition and the benefits and risks of each drug. Midazolam and ketamine are commonly used for procedural sedation, but each has its own benefits and risks that should be carefully evaluated before administration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 57-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and blurred vision that started 1 day ago. He reports no pain when touching his scalp or eating and chewing food. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which he manages with metformin. He also mentions that his uncle died of brain cancer, and he is worried that he may have the same condition.
During the examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. Dilated fundoscopy reveals some arterioles narrower than others, with venules being compressed by arterioles. There is optic disc swelling in both eyes, with some exudates lining up like a star at the macula. Additionally, there are some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages.
His vital signs are as follows: heart rate 80 bpm, blood pressure 221/119 mmHg, oxygen saturation 98% on room air, respiratory rate 14 per minute, and temperature 37 °C.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy
Explanation:Diagnosis of Hypertensive Retinopathy: A Case Study
The patient in question presented with a highly raised blood pressure and complained of headache and blurring of vision. Fundoscopy revealed typical features of hypertensive retinopathy, including bilateral optic disc swelling. Although the patient had a family history of intracranial space-occupying lesions, there were no accompanying symptoms such as early-morning vomiting and weight loss, making this diagnosis unlikely. Additionally, there was no evidence of drusen or choroidal neovascularisation, ruling out age-related macular degeneration. The absence of scalp tenderness and jaw claudication made giant-cell arthritis an unlikely diagnosis as well. Finally, the lack of new vessels at the disc and elsewhere ruled out proliferative diabetic retinopathy. In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms and fundoscopy findings point towards a diagnosis of hypertensive retinopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 67-year-old male presents to eye casualty with partial loss of vision in his left eye. Upon further questioning, he reports that he has also had a temporal headache for around 2 weeks and has felt generally unwell. He denies any jaw pain when chewing but does have some scalp tenderness. Blood tests are taken which show an ESR of 65mm/hr.
He has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes and he smokes 20 cigarettes per day.
What is the most appropriate initial management for the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: IV methylprednisolone
Explanation:Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.
Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father with bruising after a fall. During assessment, it is noted that she has a global developmental delay. She walks with difficulty, has some fine motor skills, and is playing with toys during the consultation. There are bruises on her back, right elbow, and right thigh, at different stages of healing.
Her father reports that these bruises are from her being clumsy for the past few months and he himself once had bruising which required oral steroids and thinks she has developed the same condition.
What would be the most appropriate next step in her management?Your Answer: Coagulation screen and coagulopathy testing
Correct Answer: Immediately contact safeguarding lead
Explanation:The presence of multiple bruises at different stages of healing in an infant who has been brought a few months after the injuries occurred should raise suspicion of non-accidental injury. This is because it is unlikely for a child to have so many bruises from clumsiness alone. A delayed presentation may also suggest non-accidental injury. Therefore, the correct course of action is to immediately contact the safeguarding lead. While coagulation screen and coagulopathy testing may be performed later, they are not the first priority. Similarly, oral prednisolone is not the first-line treatment for children with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) and is not relevant in this case. The priority is to assess the infant for non-accidental injury.
Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms
Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to intervene and protect the child. One possible indicator of abuse is when a child discloses abuse themselves. However, there are other factors that may point towards abuse, such as an inconsistent story with injuries, repeated visits to A&E departments, delayed presentation, and a frightened, withdrawn appearance known as frozen watchfulness.
Physical presentations of child abuse can also be a sign of abuse. These may include bruising, fractures (especially metaphyseal, posterior rib fractures, or multiple fractures at different stages of healing), torn frenulum (such as from forcing a bottle into a child’s mouth), burns or scalds, failure to thrive, and sexually transmitted infections like Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas. It is important to be aware of these signs and symptoms and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl has a 3 cm-diameter patch of alopecia in the left parietal region with another smaller similar area nearby. The skin in the patch is itchy and the few remaining hairs seem to have fallen out near the scalp surface. Her father has noticed that the area of alopecia is spreading. There is no itching of the right scalp and there is no rash elsewhere on her body.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Trichotillomania
Correct Answer: Tinea capitis
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Hair Loss: A Guide
Hair loss can be a distressing experience, but it is important to identify the underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. Here are some common causes of hair loss and their distinguishing features:
Tinea Capitis: This fungal infection can cause abnormal scalp skin and alopecia. The affected area may be scaly or inflamed, and broken hairs do not taper at the base.
Alopecia Areata: This autoimmune disease results in circular areas of hair loss without scaling, inflammation, or broken hair.
Discoid Lupus Erythematosus: This condition causes red, scaly patches that leave white scars and permanent hair loss due to scarring alopecia.
Psoriasis: Thick scaling on the scalp may cause mild hair loss, but it does not result in permanent balding. Psoriasis may also be present elsewhere on the body.
Trichotillomania: Hair pulling disorder does not cause abnormalities to the scalp skin.
By understanding the distinguishing features of these causes of hair loss, prompt and appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent permanent hair loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 23-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of redness and itching on his face and hands. He has been to another GP for similar issues in the past two years and has been on sick leave from his job as a builder. He is currently receiving benefits and is in the process of making an insurance claim for loss of earnings. He mentions that there was one ointment that worked for him, but he has not been able to find it again. On examination, there are no visible skin lesions or rash. The patient appears unconcerned and requests that his GP sign his insurance claim paperwork. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Malingering
Explanation:Somatoform Disorders, Malingering, and Munchausen’s Syndrome
Somatoform disorders are characterized by the unconscious drive to produce illness and the motivation to seek medical attention. On the other hand, malingering involves a conscious effort to fake or claim a disorder for personal gain, such as financial compensation. Meanwhile, Munchausen’s syndrome is a chronic condition where patients have a history of multiple hospital admissions and are willing to undergo invasive procedures.
In somatoform disorders, patients are not intentionally faking their symptoms. Instead, their unconscious mind is producing physical symptoms as a way to cope with psychological distress. This can lead to a cycle of seeking medical attention and undergoing unnecessary tests and procedures. In contrast, malingering is a deliberate attempt to deceive medical professionals for personal gain. Patients may exaggerate or fabricate symptoms to receive compensation or avoid legal consequences.
Munchausen’s syndrome is a rare condition where patients repeatedly seek medical attention and undergo invasive procedures despite having no actual medical condition. This behavior is driven by a desire for attention and sympathy from medical professionals. Patients with Munchausen’s syndrome may go to great lengths to maintain their deception, including intentionally harming themselves to produce symptoms.
In summary, somatoform disorders, malingering, and Munchausen’s syndrome are all conditions that involve the production or faking of physical symptoms. However, the motivations behind these behaviors differ. these conditions can help medical professionals provide appropriate care and support for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 55-year-old male with a long history of smoking presents with a complaint of haemoptysis. Upon examination, muscle wasting and hypertension are observed. Further testing reveals elevated urine free cortisol, elevated ACTH, and non-suppressible cortisol following high dose dexamethasone testing. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ectopic ACTH producing lung cancer
Explanation:Ectopic ACTH Production and Associated Tumours
Patients with Cushing’s syndrome and non-suppressible cortisol levels may have ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) secretion, which is commonly associated with small cell lung cancer. Other tumours that may cause ectopic ACTH production include those of the thymus, pancreas, thyroid, and adrenal gland. Unlike typical hypercortisolism symptoms, patients with ectopic ACTH production may experience polyuria, polydipsia, oedema, muscle wasting, fatigue, hypertension, and hypokalaemia.
Laboratory tests can confirm excessive cortisol production and lack of dexamethasone suppression of morning cortisol levels. Plasma ACTH levels greater than 200 pg/mL may indicate ectopic ACTH production and prompt a search for an underlying malignancy, particularly a primary lung or pancreatic tumour. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate the possibility of ectopic ACTH production in patients with Cushing’s syndrome and non-suppressible cortisol levels, as it may indicate an underlying tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following drugs is the most suitable to prescribe during the initial trimester of pregnancy for the given indication?
Your Answer: Epilepsy: sodium valproate
Correct Answer: Emesis: cyclizine
Explanation:Pregnant women may experience complications due to poorly controlled thyroid disease, which can increase perinatal mortality and cause a ‘thyroid storm’ in the mother. Propylthiouracil is the preferred antithyroid drug as it is less likely to cross the placenta compared to carbimazole.
Hypertension during pregnancy can be pre-existing or pregnancy-induced. Pre-existing hypertension occurs when the blood pressure is already high before pregnancy or 20 weeks’ gestation, or the woman is already taking antihypertensive medication. Primary hypertension is the most common cause. Complications may include worsening hypertension and a sixfold increased risk of pre-eclampsia. Pregnancy-induced hypertension occurs when the blood pressure becomes high after 20 weeks’ gestation. It may be due to transient hypertension or pre-eclampsia. Pre-eclampsia can lead to maternal complications such as pulmonary oedema, renal failure, liver failure, DIC, HELLP syndrome, CVA, and eclampsia. Fetal complications may include IUGR, hypoxia, preterm birth, and placental abruption. ACE inhibitors should not be used to treat hypertension during pregnancy as they are teratogenic and affect fetal urine production. Labetalol is the drug of choice, but methyldopa and nifedipine are suitable alternatives.
Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common condition affecting up to 7% of pregnant women.
Harmful Drugs and Medical Conditions for Developing Fetuses
During pregnancy, certain drugs and medical conditions can harm the developing fetus. These harmful substances and conditions are known as teratogens. Some of the teratogens that can cause harm to a developing fetus include ACE inhibitors, alcohol, aminoglycosides, carbamazepine, chloramphenicol, cocaine, diethylstilbesterol, lithium, maternal diabetes mellitus, smoking, tetracyclines, thalidomide, and warfarin.
ACE inhibitors can cause renal dysgenesis and craniofacial abnormalities in the fetus. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to craniofacial abnormalities. Aminoglycosides can cause ototoxicity, while carbamazepine can cause neural tube defects and craniofacial abnormalities. Chloramphenicol can cause grey baby syndrome, and cocaine can lead to intrauterine growth retardation and preterm labor.
Diethylstilbesterol can cause vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma, while lithium can cause Ebstein’s anomaly (atrialized right ventricle). Maternal diabetes mellitus can cause macrosomia, neural tube defects, polyhydramnios, preterm labor, and caudal regression syndrome. Smoking during pregnancy can lead to preterm labor and intrauterine growth retardation. Tetracyclines can cause discolored teeth, while thalidomide can cause limb reduction defects. Finally, warfarin can cause craniofacial abnormalities in the fetus.
It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to these harmful substances and conditions to ensure the healthy development of their fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant presents to the labour suite with sporadic contractions. She had noticed a mucous plug in her underwear earlier in the day. Upon examination, she appears to be breathing heavily and experiencing some discomfort. The cardiotocography is normal and progressing smoothly. During a vaginal examination, her cervix is estimated to be dilated at 2 cm. What phase of labour is she currently in?
Your Answer: Latent 2nd stage
Correct Answer: Latent 1st stage
Explanation:The correct stage of labour for a woman with a cervix that is just beginning to ripen and dilate is the latent phase of the 1st stage. This stage is characterized by a cervix dilation of 0-3 cm. The active phase of the 1st stage, which is characterized by a cervix dilation of 3-10 cm and more regular contractions, is not applicable in this scenario. The active 2nd stage is also not a descriptive stage of labour, as it only refers to the general stage that ends with the expulsion of the foetus.
Labour is divided into three stages, with the first stage beginning from the onset of true labour until the cervix is fully dilated. This stage is further divided into two phases: the latent phase and the active phase. The latent phase involves dilation of the cervix from 0-3 cm and typically lasts around 6 hours. The active phase involves dilation from 3-10 cm and progresses at a rate of approximately 1 cm per hour. In primigravidas, this stage can last between 10-16 hours.
During this stage, the baby’s presentation is important to note. Approximately 90% of babies present in the vertex position, with the head entering the pelvis in an occipito-lateral position. The head typically delivers in an occipito-anterior position.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with complaints of worsening back pain and stiffness over the past 5 months. He denies experiencing leg pain, loss of bladder or bowel control, or weakness in his lower extremities. The patient reports that the stiffness in his back tends to improve throughout the day. Upon examination, the physician notes mild tenderness directly over the lumbar spine and decreased range of motion with hip flexion. The patient has normal muscle strength in his lower extremities and intact sensation. X-ray results reveal sacroiliitis, vertebral squaring, and a ‘bamboo spine’. Which of the following is most likely associated with this patient’s condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Positive human leukocyte antigen HLA-B27
Explanation:Understanding Autoimmune Disorders: Differentiating Between Ankylosing Spondylitis, SLE, and Rheumatoid Arthritis
Autoimmune disorders can be difficult to diagnose due to their overlapping symptoms. However, certain laboratory tests can help differentiate between them.
One such test is the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-B27, which is associated with ankylosing spondylitis. This autoimmune disorder primarily affects men and is characterized by back stiffness that improves throughout the day, sacroiliitis, and a bamboo spine on radiography.
On the other hand, positive antinuclear antibodies and anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies are associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Patients with SLE may experience joint pain, skin rashes, and organ involvement.
Lastly, positive anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (CCP) antibodies are associated with rheumatoid arthritis. This autoimmune disorder is characterized by joint pain, swelling, and stiffness, and can lead to joint deformities if left untreated.
In summary, understanding the specific laboratory tests associated with different autoimmune disorders can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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