00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of excessive thirst and urination for...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of excessive thirst and urination for the past two weeks. Upon conducting various tests, it was determined that he has diabetes insipidus due to a hormone deficiency. Which gland is responsible for producing and releasing this hormone into the bloodstream?

      Your Answer: Posterior pituitary

      Explanation:

      ADH and oxytocin are secreted by the posterior pituitary.

      When a person has diabetes insipidus, their kidneys are unable to concentrate urine due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or resistance to its action. This results in the production and excretion of a large volume of diluted urine.

      The posterior pituitary, also known as the neurohypophysis, is the back part of the pituitary gland and is involved in the endocrine system. Unlike the anterior pituitary, it is not glandular and has a direct neural connection to the hypothalamus. It releases oxytocin and vasopressin/ADH directly into the bloodstream.

      The pituitary gland is a small gland located within the sella turcica in the sphenoid bone of the middle cranial fossa. It weighs approximately 0.5g and is covered by a dural fold. The gland is attached to the hypothalamus by the infundibulum and receives hormonal stimuli from the hypothalamus through the hypothalamo-pituitary portal system. The anterior pituitary, which develops from a depression in the wall of the pharynx known as Rathkes pouch, secretes hormones such as ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, GH, and prolactin. GH and prolactin are secreted by acidophilic cells, while ACTH, TSH, FSH, and LH are secreted by basophilic cells. On the other hand, the posterior pituitary, which is derived from neuroectoderm, secretes ADH and oxytocin. Both hormones are produced in the hypothalamus before being transported by the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - At which of the following anatomical locations does the common peroneal nerve bifurcate...

    Correct

    • At which of the following anatomical locations does the common peroneal nerve bifurcate into the superficial and deep peroneal nerves?

      Your Answer: At the lateral aspect of the neck of the fibula

      Explanation:

      The point where the common peroneal nerve is most susceptible to injury is at the neck of the fibula, where it divides into two branches.

      The common peroneal nerve originates from the dorsal divisions of the sacral plexus, specifically from L4, L5, S1, and S2. This nerve provides sensation to the skin and fascia of the anterolateral surface of the leg and dorsum of the foot, as well as innervating the muscles of the anterior and peroneal compartments of the leg, extensor digitorum brevis, and the knee, ankle, and foot joints. It is located laterally within the sciatic nerve and passes through the lateral and proximal part of the popliteal fossa, under the cover of biceps femoris and its tendon, to reach the posterior aspect of the fibular head. The common peroneal nerve divides into the deep and superficial peroneal nerves at the point where it winds around the lateral surface of the neck of the fibula in the body of peroneus longus, approximately 2 cm distal to the apex of the head of the fibula. It is palpable posterior to the head of the fibula. The nerve has several branches, including the nerve to the short head of biceps, articular branch (knee), lateral cutaneous nerve of the calf, and superficial and deep peroneal nerves at the neck of the fibula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      77.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her GP with a four-week history of dysphagia,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her GP with a four-week history of dysphagia, anorexia and weight loss. She has had a hoarse voice for several months.

      She has a 40 pack-year smoking history, starting from the age of 16 years. She drinks 30 units a week in the form of binge drinking beer over the weekend. She admits to having a very poor diet consisting mostly of fish and chips. She is noted to have a body mass index of 38kg/m².

      The GP refers her under a two-week wait for suspicion of oesophageal cancer.

      What risk factors contributed to her increased likelihood of developing this disease?

      Your Answer: Nitrosamines

      Explanation:

      Exposure to nitrosamines is a known risk factor for the development of oesophageal and gastric cancer, particularly squamous cell carcinoma of the oesophagus. Nitrosamines are present in high levels in cigarette smoke, which is a significant source of exposure for this patient. Binge drinking of beer can also lead to high levels of nitrosamine exposure. Additionally, nitrosamines can be found in certain fried foods, such as fish and chips, as well as some cheeses.

      Aflatoxin, which is produced by Aspergillus species, is another known risk factor for cancer. Specifically, it increases the risk of developing hepatocellular carcinoma.

      Aniline dyes, which are commonly used in industrial dyeing and the rubber industry, have been linked to an increased risk of developing transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder.

      Asbestos, which was once widely used in insulation, building materials, and construction, is a well-known carcinogen that increases the risk of developing mesothelioma and bronchial cancers.

      Understanding Carcinogens and Their Link to Cancer

      Carcinogens are substances that have the potential to cause cancer. These substances can be found in various forms, including chemicals, radiation, and viruses. Aflatoxin, which is produced by Aspergillus, is a carcinogen that can cause liver cancer. Aniline dyes, on the other hand, can lead to bladder cancer, while asbestos is known to cause mesothelioma and bronchial carcinoma. Nitrosamines are another type of carcinogen that can cause oesophageal and gastric cancer, while vinyl chloride can lead to hepatic angiosarcoma.

      It is important to understand the link between carcinogens and cancer, as exposure to these substances can increase the risk of developing the disease. By identifying and avoiding potential carcinogens, individuals can take steps to reduce their risk of cancer. Additionally, researchers continue to study the effects of various substances on the body, in order to better understand the mechanisms behind cancer development and to develop new treatments and prevention strategies. With continued research and education, it is possible to reduce the impact of carcinogens on human health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A previously healthy 8-year-old girl comes to the GP with a recent onset...

    Correct

    • A previously healthy 8-year-old girl comes to the GP with a recent onset limp. She experiences tenderness in her right leg during all hip movements. Blood tests reveal no abnormalities. An MRI scan shows an irregular femoral head. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic Osteonecrosis of the Femoral Head in Children

      Idiopathic osteonecrosis of the femoral head, also known as Perthes disease, is a condition that primarily affects boys between the ages of 5 and 11. It is characterized by pain in the hip during movement and difficulty bearing weight. Unlike septic arthritis, the child is not systemically unwell. The cause of Perthes disease is unknown, although trauma may sometimes be a contributing factor.

      Examination findings can help localize the pathology to the hip, and irregularities in the femoral head may be visible on x-ray. However, MRI is the preferred imaging modality. Treatment options depend on the extent of the affected area. If less than 50% of the head is affected, bed rest and analgesia may be sufficient. If more than 50% is affected, surgery may be necessary.

      Other conditions that can cause a limping child include caisson disease, septic arthritis, sickle cell disease, and slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE). However, each of these conditions has distinct characteristics that can help differentiate them from Perthes disease. For example, caisson disease is associated with nitrogen decompression sickness after diving, while SUFE tends to occur in teenagers and involves a fracture through the growth plate with a displaced femoral head.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 58-year-old man presents with left-sided hemiparesis and a CT scan reveals a...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents with left-sided hemiparesis and a CT scan reveals a right-sided stroke. Blood tests indicate high LDL cholesterol levels. To prevent secondary cerebrovascular disease, you initiate atorvastatin therapy. What is the mechanism of action of this lipid-lowering treatment?

      Your Answer: Glycogen phosphorylase inhibitor

      Correct Answer: HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      HMG-CoA reductase is the enzyme that limits the rate of cholesterol synthesis, and statins are commonly used to inhibit its activity.

      Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes

      Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.

      For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.

      Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.

      The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.

      Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      69
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old woman reports a gradual onset of numbness and tingling that extends...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman reports a gradual onset of numbness and tingling that extends from her heel to the first three toes over the past six months. She experiences increased symptoms when pressure is applied to the area behind the medial malleolus for thirty seconds.

      Which foot movement is likely to worsen this patient's discomfort?

      Your Answer: Extension of the toes

      Correct Answer: Plantarflexion of the foot

      Explanation:

      The structures that pass behind the medial malleolus can be remembered using the mnemonic Tom, Dick and Very Nervous Harry which stands for Tibialis posterior, flexor Digitorum longus, posterior tibial Artery, posterior tibial Vein, tibial Nerve and flexor Hallucis longus.

      The patient in this case is experiencing tarsal tunnel syndrome which is characterized by numbness and tingling along the distribution of the posterior tibial nerve. Tinel’s test, which involves tapping on the area behind the medial malleolus, can help diagnose nerve compression.

      The abductor hallucis muscle is responsible for abducting the big toe and its tendon does not pass through the tarsal tunnel. Dorsiflexion of the foot is primarily performed by the tibialis anterior muscle, while the tibialis posterior tendon runs through the tarsal tunnel. Extension of the big toe is performed by the extensor hallucis brevis and longus muscles, while extension of the toes is primarily performed by the extensor digitorum longus muscle. The big toe can be extended independently from the other toes due to the action of the extensor hallucis muscles.

      Anatomy of the Ankle Joint

      The ankle joint is a type of synovial joint that is made up of the tibia and fibula superiorly and the talus inferiorly. It is supported by several ligaments, including the deltoid ligament, lateral collateral ligament, and talofibular ligaments. The calcaneofibular ligament is separate from the fibrous capsule of the joint, while the two talofibular ligaments are fused with it. The syndesmosis is composed of the antero-inferior tibiofibular ligament, postero-inferior tibiofibular ligament, inferior transverse tibiofibular ligament, and interosseous ligament.

      The ankle joint allows for plantar flexion and dorsiflexion movements, with a range of 55 and 35 degrees, respectively. Inversion and eversion movements occur at the level of the sub talar joint. The ankle joint is innervated by branches of the deep peroneal and tibial nerves.

      Reference:
      Golano P et al. Anatomy of the ankle ligaments: a pictorial essay. Knee Surg Sports Traumatol Arthrosc. 2010 May;18(5):557-69.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old male is referred to the medical assessment unit by his physician...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male is referred to the medical assessment unit by his physician to investigate the possibility of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) after presenting with a fever of 38.5ºC. His recent urea and electrolyte results indicate declining kidney function, with a creatinine level three times higher than his usual baseline. What is the pathophysiology underlying TTP?

      Your Answer: A deficiency of von Willebrand factor

      Correct Answer: Failure to cleave von Willebrand factor normally

      Explanation:

      The absence of a plasma protease responsible for breaking down ultra-large multimers of von Willebrand factor (vWF) is the cause of TTP. This results in the accumulation of unusually large vWF multimers in the plasma of TTP patients. It is important to note that autoimmune destruction of red blood cells is a different form of autoimmune hemolytic anaemia and is not related to TTP. Similarly, autoimmune destruction of platelets is seen in ITP, not TTP.

      Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura: Understanding its Pathogenesis, Features, and Causes

      Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a rare condition that typically affects adult females. Its pathogenesis involves the abnormal formation of large and sticky multimers of von Willebrand’s factor, which causes platelets to clump within vessels. In TTP, there is a deficiency of ADAMTS13, a metalloprotease enzyme that breaks down these large multimers. This deficiency leads to the formation of microemboli, resulting in fluctuating neuro signs, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and renal failure. TTP overlaps with haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS).

      TTP can be caused by various factors, including post-infection (e.g., urinary, gastrointestinal), pregnancy, drugs (such as ciclosporin, oral contraceptive pill, penicillin, clopidogrel, and acyclovir), tumours, SLE, and HIV. It is essential to identify the underlying cause of TTP to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

      In summary, TTP is a rare condition that affects adult females and is caused by the abnormal formation of large and sticky multimers of von Willebrand’s factor. Its features include fluctuating neuro signs, microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and renal failure. TTP can be caused by various factors, and identifying the underlying cause is crucial for proper treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      65.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of weakness and sensory loss on the right side of his body that started 2 hours ago. He reports difficulty walking due to more pronounced leg weakness than arm weakness, but denies any changes in vision or speech. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension and is currently taking metformin and ramipril for these conditions.

      Imaging is immediately performed, and treatment for his condition is initiated.

      What is the likely location of the lesion based on the given information?

      Your Answer: Right middle cerebral artery

      Correct Answer: Left anterior cerebral artery

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the left anterior cerebral artery. The patient is experiencing a stroke on the right side of their body, with the lower extremity being more affected than the upper. This indicates that the anterior cerebral artery is affected, specifically on the left side as the symptoms are affecting the right side of the body.

      The other options are incorrect. If the middle cerebral artery was affected, the upper extremities would be more affected than the lower. If the right anterior cerebral artery was affected, the left side of the brain would be affected. If the right middle cerebral artery was affected, there would be more weakness in the upper extremities and the left side of the body would be affected.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      55.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A healthy 56-year-old woman attends her flexible sigmoidoscopy as part of the UK's...

    Correct

    • A healthy 56-year-old woman attends her flexible sigmoidoscopy as part of the UK's national screening program. While performing the procedure, the surgeon observes and biopsies several polyps for further analysis. Additionally, the patient has multiple hyperpigmented macules on her lips.

      During her follow-up visit, the patient is informed that the type of polyp found in her bowel increases her risk of developing cancers in other parts of her body.

      What is the name of the benign colorectal tumor that the patient has?

      Your Answer: Peutz-Jeghers polyps

      Explanation:

      Understanding Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome

      Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by the presence of numerous hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract, particularly in the small bowel. In addition, patients with this syndrome may also have pigmented freckles on their lips, face, palms, and soles.

      While the polyps themselves are not cancerous, individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have an increased risk of developing other types of gastrointestinal tract cancers. In fact, around 50% of patients will have died from another gastrointestinal tract cancer by the age of 60 years.

      Common symptoms of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome include small bowel obstruction, which is often due to intussusception, as well as gastrointestinal bleeding. Management of this condition is typically conservative unless complications develop. It is important for individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome to undergo regular screening and surveillance to detect any potential cancerous growths early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      293.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are requested to evaluate a 65-year-old cattle farmer who complains of nonspecific...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 65-year-old cattle farmer who complains of nonspecific discomfort in the right upper quadrant. He denies any gastrointestinal symptoms but reports feeling generally unwell. Upon physical examination, the liver edge is palpable 6 cm below the costal margin and he has no fever.

      An ultrasound is ordered and reveals a solitary large cyst in the liver. Due to the cyst's size, the decision is made to perform surgical resection in conjunction with optimal medical therapy.

      What is the most probable causative organism responsible for this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Echinococcus granulosus

      Explanation:

      On ultrasound, hepatic cysts are detected in a sheep farmer.

      Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What characteristic could serve as a reliable indicator of prognosis for a patient...

    Incorrect

    • What characteristic could serve as a reliable indicator of prognosis for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)?

      Your Answer: Male gender

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Factors in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia

      Younger patients with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) have a better prognosis than older patients. In fact, the cure rate in children is around 90%, while it is less than 40% in adults. Additionally, male patients tend to fare worse than females, and they require a longer maintenance dose of chemotherapy (3 years versus 2 years). Interestingly, the Philadelphia chromosome, which is an effective treatment target in chronic myeloid leukemia, is actually a poor prognostic marker in ALL. Finally, higher white cell counts are associated with adverse outcomes, particularly if the count exceeds 100 ×106/ml.

      Overall, these prognostic factors can help clinicians predict the likelihood of a successful outcome in patients with ALL. By taking these factors into account, healthcare providers can tailor treatment plans to each patient’s individual needs and improve their chances of a positive outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      67.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old male patient is diagnosed with appendicitis and requires an appendicectomy. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient is diagnosed with appendicitis and requires an appendicectomy. The surgical procedure begins with a 5cm incision at McBurney's point. What is the first structure that will be encountered during the dissection?

      Your Answer: Internal oblique muscle

      Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The rectus sheath is located more medially than the external oblique, which is encountered first. The external oblique muscle is the most superficial muscle of the abdominal wall and originates from the 5th to 12th ribs. It inserts into the linea alba, pubic tubercle, and anterior half of the iliac crest by passing inferomedially. The muscle is innervated by the thoracoabdominal nerves (T7-T11) and subcostal nerves.

      Muscles and Layers of the Abdominal Wall

      The abdominal wall is composed of various muscles and layers that provide support and protection to the organs within the abdominal cavity. The two main muscles of the abdominal wall are the rectus abdominis and the quadratus lumborum. The rectus abdominis is located anteriorly, while the quadratus lumborum is located posteriorly.

      The remaining abdominal wall is made up of three muscular layers, each passing from the lateral aspect of the quadratus lumborum to the lateral margin of the rectus sheath. These layers are muscular posterolaterally and aponeurotic anteriorly. The external oblique muscle lies most superficially and originates from the 5th to 12th ribs, inserting into the anterior half of the outer aspect of the iliac crest, linea alba, and pubic tubercle. The internal oblique arises from the thoracolumbar fascia, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 2/3 of the inguinal ligament, while the transversus abdominis is the innermost muscle, arising from the inner aspect of the costal cartilages of the lower 6 ribs, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 1/3 of the inguinal ligament.

      During abdominal surgery, it is often necessary to divide either the muscles or their aponeuroses. It is desirable to divide the aponeurosis during a midline laparotomy, leaving the rectus sheath intact above the arcuate line and the muscles intact below it. Straying off the midline can lead to damage to the rectus muscles, particularly below the arcuate line where they may be in close proximity to each other. The nerve supply for these muscles is the anterior primary rami of T7-12.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old Hispanic man visits his GP for a blood pressure check-up. As...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old Hispanic man visits his GP for a blood pressure check-up. As he experienced ankle swelling with amlodipine, the GP recommends trying bendroflumethiazide. Can you explain the mechanism of action of this diuretic?

      Your Answer: Inhibits the sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter

      Correct Answer: Inhibits the sodium-chloride transporter

      Explanation:

      Thiazides and thiazide-like drugs, such as indapamide, work by blocking the Na+-Cl− symporter at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule, which inhibits sodium reabsorption. Bendroflumethiazide is a thiazide diuretic that prevents the absorption of sodium and chloride by inhibiting the sodium-chloride transporter, resulting in water remaining in the tubule through osmosis. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that is used to reduce intracranial pressure after a head injury. Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist, while furosemide acts on the thick ascending loop of Henle to prevent the reabsorption of potassium, sodium, and chloride. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is used to treat acute angle closure glaucoma.

      Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.

      Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.

      It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute chest pain that...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute chest pain that is radiating to his left shoulder. He has a medical history of a previous transient ischaemic attack three years ago and is currently taking aspirin 75mg OD.

      Upon initial assessment, an ECG reveals ST-segment elevation in V1-V3. The patient undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention with a drug-eluting stent and is stable post-procedure. His treatment plan includes ramipril, ticagrelor, simvastatin, and atenolol.

      What is the mechanism of action of the newly prescribed antiplatelet medication?

      Your Answer: Inhibit the binding of ADP to platelets

      Explanation:

      Ticagrelor and clopidogrel have a similar mechanism of action in inhibiting ADP binding to platelet receptors, which prevents platelet aggregation. In patients with STEMI who undergo percutaneous coronary intervention with a drug-eluting stent, dual antiplatelet therapy, beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, and anti-hyperlipidemic drugs are commonly used for secondary management.

      Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa complex is a fibrinogen receptor found on platelets that, when activated, leads to platelet aggregation. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors, such as abciximab, bind to this receptor and prevent ligands like fibrinogen from accessing their binding site. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonists, like eptifibatide, compete with ligands for the receptor’s binding site, blocking the formation of thrombi.

      Dipyridamole inhibits platelet cAMP-phosphodiesterase, leading to increased intra-platelet cAMP and decreased arachidonic acid release, resulting in reduced thromboxane A2 formation. It also inhibits adenosine reuptake by vascular endothelial cells and erythrocytes, leading to increased adenosine concentration, activation of adenyl cyclase, and increased cAMP production.

      ADP receptor inhibitors, such as clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine, work by inhibiting the P2Y12 receptor, which leads to sustained platelet aggregation and stabilization of the platelet plaque. Clinical trials have shown that prasugrel and ticagrelor are more effective than clopidogrel in reducing short- and long-term ischemic events in high-risk patients with acute coronary syndrome or undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention. However, ticagrelor may cause dyspnea due to impaired clearance of adenosine, and there are drug interactions and contraindications to consider for each medication. NICE guidelines recommend dual antiplatelet treatment with aspirin and ticagrelor for 12 months as a secondary prevention strategy for ACS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      39.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You are on the ward and notice that an elderly patient lying supine...

    Incorrect

    • You are on the ward and notice that an elderly patient lying supine in a monitored bed is hypotensive, with a blood pressure of 90/70 mmHg and tachycardic, with a heart rate of 120 beats/minute.

      You adjust the bed to raise the patient's legs by 45 degrees and after 1 minute you measure the blood pressure again. The blood pressure increases to 100/75 and you prescribe a 500mL bag of normal saline to be given IV over 15 minutes.

      What physiological association explains the increase in the elderly patient's blood pressure?

      Your Answer: Preload is inversely proportional to stroke volume

      Correct Answer: Venous return is proportional to stroke volume

      Explanation:

      Fluid responsiveness is typically indicated by changes in cardiac output or stroke volume in response to fluid administration. However, the strength of cardiac muscle contraction is influenced by adrenaline and noradrenaline, which enhance cardiac contractility rather than Starling’s law.

      Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.

      Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.

      Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are clerking a 45-year-old patient on the neurosurgery ward who is scheduled...

    Correct

    • You are clerking a 45-year-old patient on the neurosurgery ward who is scheduled to undergo a pituitary tumour removal surgery. During your conversation, the patient inquires about the procedure. As you are aware, the neurosurgeon gains access to the pituitary gland through the patient's nasal cavity, specifically through one of the paranasal sinuses. Can you identify which of the paranasal sinuses is situated on the roof of the posterior nasal cavity, below the pituitary gland?

      Your Answer: Sphenoid sinus

      Explanation:

      Paranasal Air Sinuses and Carotid Sinus

      The paranasal air sinuses are air-filled spaces found in the bones of the skull. They are named after the bone in which they are located and all communicate with the nasal cavity. The four paired paranasal air sinuses are the frontal sinuses, maxillary sinuses, ethmoid air cells, and sphenoid sinuses. The frontal sinuses are located above each eye on the forehead, while the maxillary sinuses are the largest and found in the maxillary bone below the orbit. The ethmoidal air cells are a collection of smaller air cells located lateral to the anterior superior nasal cavity, while the sphenoid sinuses are found in the posterior portion of the roof of the nasal cavity.

      On the other hand, the carotid sinus is not a paranasal air sinus. It is a dilatation of the internal carotid artery, located just beyond the bifurcation of the common carotid artery. It contains baroreceptors that enable it to detect changes in arterial pressure.

      Overall, understanding the location and function of these sinuses and the carotid sinus is important in various medical procedures and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      69.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You are evaluating a 67-year-old woman with breast cancer in an oncology center...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 67-year-old woman with breast cancer in an oncology center who is experiencing decreased sensation in her fingers and toes. She has just commenced vincristine therapy and is curious if her symptoms could be related to the medication.

      During which phase of the cell cycle does this drug exert its action?

      Your Answer: Anaphase

      Correct Answer: Metaphase

      Explanation:

      During metaphase, Vincristine, a dimeric catharanthus alkaloid, binds to tubulin and disrupts microtubules in actively dividing cells. This action makes it an effective treatment for cancers such as leukaemias, lymphomas, and advanced-stage breast cancer. However, its use is limited by its neurotoxicity, which mainly manifests as peripheral neuropathy. Vincristine’s toxicity affects small sensory fibres and causes axonal neuropathy due to the disruption of microtubules within axons and interference with axonal transport. Paraesthesia in the fingertips and feet is usually the earliest symptom experienced by patients, and almost all patients experience some degree of neuropathy.

      Mitosis: The Process of Somatic Cell Division

      Mitosis is a type of cell division that occurs in somatic cells during the M phase of the cell cycle. This process allows for the replication and growth of tissues by producing genetically identical diploid daughter cells. Before mitosis begins, the cell prepares itself during the S phase by duplicating its chromosomes. The phases of mitosis include prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and cytokinesis. During prophase, the chromatin in the nucleus condenses, and during prometaphase, the nuclear membrane breaks down, allowing microtubules to attach to the chromosomes. In metaphase, the chromosomes align at the middle of the cell, and in anaphase, the paired chromosomes separate at the kinetochores and move to opposite sides of the cell. Telophase occurs when chromatids arrive at opposite poles of the cell, and cytokinesis is the final stage where an actin-myosin complex in the center of the cell contacts, resulting in it being pinched into two daughter cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 48-year-old patient attends the diabetic clinic with an HbA1c of 58mmol/mol. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old patient attends the diabetic clinic with an HbA1c of 58mmol/mol. Despite his efforts to lose weight, his blood sugar levels remain high. You adjust his metformin dosage and schedule a follow-up appointment in 4 months. During the consultation, he confides in you about his difficulty in achieving and maintaining an erection, which has caused strain in his relationship. To address this issue, you prescribe a course of sildenafil. How does sildenafil improve erectile function?

      Your Answer: Increased penile blood flow due to vasodilation through a decrease in cGMP

      Correct Answer: Increased penile blood due to vasodilation through an increase in cGMP

      Explanation:

      PDE 5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, promote vasodilation by elevating the levels of cGMP. Sildenafil works by inhibiting the cGMP-specific phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5) enzyme, which is responsible for breaking down cGMP in the corpus cavernosum surrounding the penis. Sexual stimulation triggers the release of nitric oxide (NO) from nerve terminals and endothelial cells, leading to the synthesis of cGMP in smooth muscle cells. This results in the relaxation of penile arteries and corpus cavernosal smooth muscle, leading to increased blood flow and penile erection. By enhancing the amount of cGMP, sildenafil improves erectile function. This is achieved by reducing intracellular calcium concentration, which causes smooth muscle relaxation. The other options are incorrect because vasoconstriction, corpus cavernosal smooth muscle contraction, and increased intracellular calcium concentration would worsen erectile dysfunction.

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which organ is in direct contact with the left kidney's anterior surface without...

    Correct

    • Which organ is in direct contact with the left kidney's anterior surface without being separated by peritoneum?

      Your Answer: Pancreas

      Explanation:

      Retroperitoneal Structures in Proximity to the Left Kidney

      The retroperitoneal structures that are in direct contact with the anterior surface of the left kidney include the pancreas, adrenal gland, and colon. While the pancreas is the only structure commonly listed as retroperitoneal, it is important to note that the adrenal gland and colon also share this classification and are located in close proximity to the left kidney.

      According to Gray’s Anatomy of the Human Body, which focuses on the urinary organs, the location and relationship of these structures is important for medical professionals. By knowing the retroperitoneal structures in proximity to the left kidney, doctors can better diagnose and treat conditions that may affect these organs.

      In summary, while the pancreas is commonly listed as the only retroperitoneal structure in contact with the left kidney, it is important to also consider the adrenal gland and colon in this classification. the location and relationship of these structures is crucial for medical professionals in providing effective care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      57.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old postmenopausal woman visits the clinic to discuss her bone densitometry results....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old postmenopausal woman visits the clinic to discuss her bone densitometry results. She has a history of hypertension and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Her BMI is 22.1 kg/m² and physical examination is unremarkable. Serum calcium, phosphorus concentrations, and serum alkaline phosphatase activity are within the reference ranges. The bone densitometry shows low bone density consistent with osteoporosis. What medication was most likely prescribed to inhibit osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, and resulted in no further loss of bone mineral density on repeat bone densitometry 1 year later?

      Your Answer: Romosozumab

      Correct Answer: Risedronate

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates, such as alendronate and risedronate, are used to treat osteoporosis by preventing bone resorption through the inhibition of osteoclasts. These drugs are taken up by the osteoclasts, preventing them from adhering to the bone surface and continuing the resorption process.

      Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that works by binding to the receptor activator of nuclear factor kappa-B ligand (RANK-L), which blocks the interaction between RANK-L and RANK, ultimately reducing bone resorption.

      Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that has estrogen-like effects on bone, leading to decreased bone resorption and improved bone density.

      Romosozumab is a monoclonal antibody that inhibits the action of sclerostin, a regulatory factor in bone metabolism, ultimately leading to increased bone formation.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.

      The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency department with a one-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency department with a one-week history of increasing fatigue, nosebleeds, and swollen gums. The admitting physician suspects the possibility of acute leukemia and seeks consultation with their senior colleague. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: A diagnosis of acute leukaemia could be confirmed if >10% blasts were identified in either his peripheral blood or in his bone marrow

      Correct Answer: He is more likely to be cured than if he was diagnosed with a chronic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Leukaemia Types and Prognosis

      As with high-grade lymphomas, acute leukaemias have a higher chance of being cured than chronic leukaemias. However, chronic leukaemias such as CLL may not require treatment at the time of diagnosis and may not cause death for many years. Acute leukaemias, on the other hand, have a higher initial mortality rate.

      The diagnosis of acute leukaemia can be made if the blasts account for more than 20% of the bone marrow or peripheral blood, or if there is a blast count with a recognized cytogenetic abnormality associated with AML. Gum hypertrophy is more commonly associated with AML, especially acute monocytic leukaemia.

      Females generally have a better prognosis than males when it comes to acute leukaemias. ALL most commonly arises from B-lymphocyte populations, while AML arising from pre-existing conditions such as the myeloproliferative neoplasms is associated with a poorer prognosis than that arising de novo.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      39.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A toddler has been admitted following a prolonged chest infection. Recurrent chest and...

    Incorrect

    • A toddler has been admitted following a prolonged chest infection. Recurrent chest and gastrointestinal infections have plagued the child in their first two years of life. Blood antibody titres have revealed reduced levels of IgA, IgG, and IgE, while IgM is three times higher than normal. The patient is currently awaiting gene sequencing results to confirm the suspected diagnosis.

      Which gene mutations are responsible for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HLA-B

      Correct Answer: CD40

      Explanation:

      Hyper IgM syndrome is caused by mutations in the CD40 gene, which affects the ability of B cells to produce immunoglobulin A, G, and E. While the production of IgM is still possible, the process of switching to other antibodies is impaired due to a lack of activated T-cells. This results in increased susceptibility to infections during early childhood. Treatment options include regular immunoglobulin, antibiotics, and granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (GCS-F).

      Overview of Primary Immunodeficiency Disorders

      Primary immunodeficiency disorders are conditions that affect the immune system’s ability to fight off infections and diseases. These disorders can be classified based on which component of the immune system is affected. Neutrophil disorders, for example, are caused by a lack of NADPH oxidase, which reduces the ability of phagocytes to produce reactive oxygen species. This leads to recurrent pneumonias and abscesses, particularly due to catalase-positive bacteria and fungi. B-cell disorders, on the other hand, are caused by defects in B cell development, resulting in low antibody levels and recurrent infections. T-cell disorders are caused by defects in T cell development, leading to recurrent viral and fungal diseases. Finally, combined B- and T-cell disorders are caused by defects in both B and T cell development, resulting in recurrent infections and an increased risk of malignancy. Understanding the underlying defects and symptoms of these disorders is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      40.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old woman comes to the doctor complaining of a headache and fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to the doctor complaining of a headache and fever that has lasted for 3 days. She mentions that she recently returned from a backpacking trip to Indonesia where she was exposed to insect bites while hiking. She did not receive any travel immunisation or prophylaxis and is only taking paracetamol from a nearby pharmacy. Her blood pressure and pulse are normal, but her temperature is 38ºC. During the examination, a maculopapular rash is found on her trunk with some areas unaffected. There is no tenderness or organomegaly in her abdomen, and her lungs sound clear. The Giemsa stain of her thick and thin blood films did not show any parasites, but the dengue NS1 antigen test was positive.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this 45-year-old woman?

      Your Answer: Oseltamivir

      Correct Answer: Intravenous fluid administration and analgesia

      Explanation:

      The patient’s travel history and positive dengue NS1 antigen test confirm that she has dengue fever, a viral infection transmitted by mosquitoes. Symptoms include fever, headache, and a maculopapular rash. Treatment is entirely symptomatic, with fluid resuscitation and analgesia. Malaria is unlikely given the short incubation period and negative blood film results. Antivirals are not currently available for dengue. As the patient does not display warning signs or hemodynamic instability, blood transfusion is not necessary. Analgesia alone is insufficient, and fluid replacement is required to manage symptoms.

      Understanding Dengue Fever

      Dengue fever is a viral infection that can lead to viral haemorrhagic fever, which includes diseases like yellow fever, Lassa fever, and Ebola. The dengue virus is an RNA virus that belongs to the Flavivirus genus and is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito. The incubation period for dengue fever is seven days.

      Patients with dengue fever can be classified into three categories: those without warning signs, those with warning signs, and those with severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever). Symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache (often retro-orbital), myalgia, bone pain, arthralgia (also known as ‘break-bone fever’), pleuritic pain, facial flushing, maculopapular rash, and haemorrhagic manifestations such as a positive tourniquet test, petechiae, purpura/ecchymosis, and epistaxis. Warning signs include abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, persistent vomiting, and clinical fluid accumulation (ascites, pleural effusion). Severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever) is a form of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) that results in thrombocytopenia and spontaneous bleeding. Around 20-30% of these patients go on to develop dengue shock syndrome (DSS).

      Typically, blood tests are used to diagnose dengue fever, which may show leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and raised aminotransferases. Diagnostic tests such as serology, nucleic acid amplification tests for viral RNA, and NS1 antigen tests may also be used. Treatment for dengue fever is entirely symptomatic, including fluid resuscitation and blood transfusions. Currently, there are no antivirals available for the treatment of dengue fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 26-year-old man falls and lands on a manhole cover, resulting in an...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man falls and lands on a manhole cover, resulting in an injury to his anterior bulbar urethra. Where is the likely location for the accumulation of extravasated urine?

      Your Answer: Deep perineal space

      Correct Answer: Connective tissue of the scrotum

      Explanation:

      The section of the urethra located between the perineal membrane and the membranous layer of the superficial fascia is tightly bound to the ischiopubic rami. This prevents urine from leaking backwards as the two layers are seamlessly connected around the superficial transverse perineal muscles.

      Lower Genitourinary Tract Trauma: Types of Injury and Management

      Lower genitourinary tract trauma can occur due to blunt trauma, with most bladder injuries associated with pelvic fractures. However, these injuries can easily be overlooked during trauma assessment. Up to 10% of male pelvic fractures are associated with urethral or bladder injuries.

      Urethral injuries mainly occur in males and can be identified by blood at the meatus in 50% of cases. There are two types of urethral injury: bulbar rupture, which is the most common and often caused by straddle-type injuries such as bicycles, and membranous rupture, which can be extra or intraperitoneal and commonly caused by pelvic fractures. Penile or perineal oedema/hematoma and displacement of the prostate upwards during PR examination are also signs of urethral injury. An ascending urethrogram is used for investigation, and management involves surgical placement of a suprapubic catheter.

      External genitalia injuries, such as those to the penis and scrotum, can be caused by penetration, blunt trauma, continence- or sexual pleasure-enhancing devices, and mutilation.

      Bladder injuries can be intra or extraperitoneal and present with haematuria or suprapubic pain. A history of pelvic fracture and inability to void should always raise suspicion of bladder or urethral injury. Inability to retrieve all fluid used to irrigate the bladder through a Foley catheter also indicates bladder injury. IVU or cystogram is used for investigation, and management involves laparotomy if intraperitoneal and conservative treatment if extraperitoneal.

      In summary, lower genitourinary tract trauma can result in urethral or bladder injuries, which can be identified through various signs and symptoms. Proper investigation and management are crucial for successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old man is hospitalized after experiencing haematemesis. Upon examination, his prothrombin time...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is hospitalized after experiencing haematemesis. Upon examination, his prothrombin time is found to be elevated. What could be a possible reason for this anomaly?

      Your Answer: Low molecular weight heparin therapy

      Correct Answer: Chronic liver disease

      Explanation:

      The inheritance of Haemophilia A and B is crucial in identifying individuals who are at risk of developing the condition. Haemophilia A and B are genetic disorders that are inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor VIII, while haemophilia B is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor IX.

      On the other hand, haemophilia C, which is caused by a deficiency in clotting factor XI, is primarily inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. In X-linked recessive conditions like haemophilia B, males are more likely to be affected than females. This is because males only need one abnormal copy of the gene, which is carried on the X chromosome, to be affected.

      Females, on the other hand, can be carriers of the condition if they carry one normal and one abnormal copy of the gene. While carriers can have clotting abnormalities, these are usually milder than those seen in affected individuals. Men cannot pass the condition to their sons, but they will pass on the abnormal X chromosome to all their daughters, who will be carriers.

      Female carriers can pass on the condition to around half their sons, and half their daughters will be carriers. Females can only be affected if they are the offspring of an affected male and a carrier female. In summary, the inheritance of haemophilia A and B is crucial in identifying individuals who are at risk of developing the condition. It also helps in providing appropriate genetic counseling and management for affected individuals and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic with an ulcerated mass located at...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to the clinic with an ulcerated mass located at the anal verge. Upon biopsy, the histology reveals squamous cell carcinoma. Which virus infection is most likely to have played a role in the development of this condition?

      Your Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus 1

      Correct Answer: Human papillomavirus 16

      Explanation:

      Contracting human papillomavirus 16 increases the likelihood of developing intra epithelial dysplasia in the anal skin, which in turn raises the risk of developing invasive cancer.

      Understanding Oncoviruses and Their Associated Cancers

      Oncoviruses are viruses that have the potential to cause cancer. These viruses can be detected through blood tests and prevented through vaccination. There are several types of oncoviruses, each associated with a specific type of cancer.

      The Epstein-Barr virus, for example, is linked to Burkitt’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, post-transplant lymphoma, and nasopharyngeal carcinoma. Human papillomavirus 16/18 is associated with cervical cancer, anal cancer, penile cancer, vulval cancer, and oropharyngeal cancer. Human herpes virus 8 is linked to Kaposi’s sarcoma, while hepatitis B and C viruses are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma. Finally, human T-lymphotropic virus 1 is linked to tropical spastic paraparesis and adult T cell leukemia.

      It is important to understand the link between oncoviruses and cancer so that appropriate measures can be taken to prevent and treat these diseases. Vaccination against certain oncoviruses, such as HPV, can significantly reduce the risk of developing associated cancers. Regular screening and early detection can also improve outcomes for those who do develop cancer as a result of an oncovirus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      47.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - What type of cell is responsible for the production of gastric acid in...

    Incorrect

    • What type of cell is responsible for the production of gastric acid in the stomach?

      Your Answer: Mucous cell

      Correct Answer: Parietal cell

      Explanation:

      Types of Cells and Their Functions in the Body

      There are different types of cells in the body that perform specific functions. One of these is the Amine Precursor Uptake and Decarboxylation (APUD) cells, which are endocrine cells that secrete hormones such as gastrin and cholecystokinin. These hormones aid in the digestion process. Another type of cell is the Chief cells, which produce pepsinogen to help break down food in the stomach. Kupffer cells, on the other hand, are a specialized form of macrophage found in the liver. They play a crucial role in removing bacteria and other harmful substances from the blood. Lastly, mucous cells produce mucous, which helps protect and lubricate the body’s internal organs. the functions of these different types of cells is important in maintaining overall health and wellness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      42.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 20-year-old man is in a motorway accident at high speed, resulting in...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man is in a motorway accident at high speed, resulting in a head injury. He is taken to the hospital, where he is intubated and ventilated, and a CT scan of his head is performed.

      The scan reveals that a portion of the cerebral hemisphere is being pushed downwards towards the brainstem. The radiologist describes this as 'uncal herniation'.

      What is the dura mater structure through which the brain is herniating?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal cave

      Correct Answer: Tentorium cerebelli

      Explanation:

      The tentorium cerebelli separates the occipital lobes from the cerebellum and is a frequent site for brain herniation. The falx cerebelli separates the hemispheres of the cerebellum. The falx cerebri separates the cerebral hemispheres and subfalcine herniation may occur with asymmetrical swelling of the brain. The sella diaphragm is a small dural structure within the sella turcica and is not associated with catastrophic symptoms. The trigeminal cave covers the trigeminal nerve and is not a site for brain herniation.

      The Three Layers of Meninges

      The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

      The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

      The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      61.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A pediatrician is considering whether or not to prescribe a new medication for...

    Incorrect

    • A pediatrician is considering whether or not to prescribe a new medication for a young patient.

      Upon researching, the pediatrician discovers that a reputable medical journal had rejected a well-conducted study that found no significant difference between the medication and a placebo.

      However, the same journal later published a study that showed positive results for the medication.

      What type of bias is demonstrated in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Publication bias

      Explanation:

      Publication bias refers to the tendency of journals to prioritize the publication of studies with positive results, leading to the failure to publish valid studies that show negative or uninteresting results. In this case, the original study was not published due to its negative outcome.

      Expectation bias, on the other hand, occurs when observers unconsciously report or measure data in a way that supports the expected outcome of the study. This is only a concern in non-blinded trials.

      Selection bias arises when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the study’s outcome.

      The Hawthorne effect is a phenomenon where a group alters its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied.

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnoses the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You are seeking participants for a study of a novel anti-diabetic medication. The...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeking participants for a study of a novel anti-diabetic medication. The trial excludes patients with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) below 60 ml/min and requires individuals with a diabetes duration of no more than three years. What is accurate regarding this clinical study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All patients have to be given, understand and sign their informed consent

      Explanation:

      Informed Consent in Clinical Trials

      Clinical trials are conducted to test the safety and efficacy of new investigational agents. Before a patient can participate in a clinical trial, they must be given informed consent. This process involves detailing the potential benefits, risks, and adverse events associated with the investigational therapy. The patient must sign the informed consent form before beginning the therapy.

      All clinical trials must adhere to the declaration of Helsinki, which outlines ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects. Patients can only receive reasonable expenses for participating in a clinical trial, and not a premium. Clinical trial waivers are not acceptable, and entry into a study is based on both potential efficacy and safety.

      In summary, informed consent is a crucial aspect of clinical trials. It ensures that patients are fully aware of the potential risks and benefits of the investigational therapy before they begin treatment. Adherence to ethical principles and guidelines is also essential to ensure the safety and well-being of study participants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurological System (3/3) 100%
Haematology And Oncology (1/6) 17%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
General Principles (1/6) 17%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (1/3) 33%
Gastrointestinal System (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular System (3/3) 100%
Respiratory System (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/2) 50%
Renal System (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Passmed