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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman who is 9 weeks pregnant presents for a review of her booking bloods. Her haemoglobin level is 105 g/L and the mean cell volume (MCV) is 70 fL, which is below the normal range of 77-95 fL. What is the best course of action in this situation?
Your Answer: No treatment needed, Hb is within normal range for pregnancy
Correct Answer: Oral iron tablets
Explanation:The management of anaemia in pregnancy involves different cut off values for Hb levels depending on the trimester. For first trimester anaemia with Hb less than 110 g/L, the recommended first step is a trial of oral iron tablets. Further investigations are only necessary if there is no rise in Hb after 2 weeks. Parenteral iron is only used if oral iron is not effective or tolerated. Blood transfusion is not appropriate at this level of Hb without active bleeding.
During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum.
If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman presents for her first antenatal appointment following a positive pregnancy test. She has no significant medical or family history and reports no smoking or alcohol consumption. Her BMI is 30.9kg/m², blood pressure is within normal limits, and a urine dipstick is unremarkable. What tests should be offered to her?
Your Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 20-24 weeks
Correct Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) at 24-28 weeks
Explanation:Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency department by his parents. He has no past medical history of note.
In his parents' absence, he reveals that he took an overdose of paracetamol after a fight with his girlfriend, but did not intend to end his life.
What is the most reliable indicator of the extent of liver damage?Your Answer: INR
Explanation:Management of Paracetamol Overdose
Paracetamol overdose is a common occurrence that requires prompt management. The first step is to check the paracetamol level four hours after ingestion and compare it against the Rumack-Matthew nomogram. If a large dose (more than 7.5 g) was ingested and/or the patient presents within eight hours of ingestion, gastric lavage may be necessary, and oral charcoal should be considered. N-acetylcysteine or methionine should be administered, and bowel movements should be monitored hourly.
It is crucial to check the INR 12 hourly and look out for signs of poor prognosis, which may indicate the need for transfer to a liver unit. These signs include an INR greater than 2.0 within 48 hours or greater than 3.5 within 72 hours of ingestion, creatinine greater than 200 µmol/L, blood pH less than 7.3, signs of encephalopathy, and hypotension (SBP less than 80 mmHg).
It is important to note that liver enzymes are not a reliable indicator of the degree of hepatocellular damage. Instead, synthetic function, as determined by INR or PT, is the best indicator. Proper management of paracetamol overdose can prevent severe liver damage and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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As a Foundation Year 2 in general practice, you see a 35-year-old diabetic woman who complains of numbness and tingling in some of her fingers in her right hand. During examination, you observe that she has reduced sensation in her thumb, index and middle fingers in this hand. She also has some weakness in these fingers when she tries to flex them and make a fist, and there is some thenar muscle wasting. Her pulse is 80 bpm with a normal volume, and otherwise her skin, joints and bones appear totally normal.
What is the most likely condition that she is suffering from?Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Hand and Wrist Conditions: Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Other Possibilities
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition where the median nerve is compressed, leading to symptoms such as tingling, numbness, altered sensation, and pain in the thumb, index finger, and half of the middle finger. This condition can be caused by various risk factors, including obesity, overuse of hand and wrist, wrist trauma, and pregnancy. Diagnosis can be made through tests such as Tinel’s and Phalen’s tests, and treatment options range from conservative measures to surgical intervention.
Other possible hand and wrist conditions include radial nerve palsy, peripheral neuropathy, cubital tunnel syndrome, and rheumatoid arthritis. Radial nerve palsy presents with wrist drop and an inability to extend the wrist, while peripheral neuropathy typically affects both upper and lower limbs in a glove and stocking distribution of anesthesia. Cubital tunnel syndrome is caused by entrapment of the ulnar nerve and affects the ring and fifth finger, while rheumatoid arthritis tends to be symmetrical and affects the small joints of the hand. Understanding these conditions and their unique features can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 23-year-old female undergoes a laparoscopic appendicectomy and is extubated without any issues. However, she fails to make any respiratory effort and needs to be re-intubated and ventilated. After being closely monitored in the intensive care unit, all observations are normal. She is successfully weaned off the ventilator 24 hours later. What is the complication that occurred?
Your Answer: Suxamethonium apnoea
Explanation:A small portion of the population has an autosomal dominant mutation that results in a deficiency of a specific acetylcholinesterase in the plasma. This enzyme is responsible for breaking down suxamethonium, which terminates its muscle relaxant effect. As a result, the effects of suxamethonium are prolonged, and the patient requires mechanical ventilation and observation in the intensive care unit until the effects wear off.
Respiratory depression caused by opioid toxicity is unlikely to be severe enough to cause no respiratory effort under the monitored conditions of an anesthetic. Misplacement of the endotracheal tube can lead to hypoxia, respiratory acidosis, and potentially a pneumothorax on the same side as the tube placement, with collapse on the opposite side. A propofol overdose can cause a drop in blood pressure. Malignant hyperpyrexia is characterized by an increase in temperature, blood pressure, muscle spasms, type II respiratory failure, metabolic acidosis, and arrhythmias.
Muscle relaxants are drugs that can be used to induce paralysis in patients undergoing surgery or other medical procedures. Suxamethonium is a type of muscle relaxant that works by inhibiting the action of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. It is broken down by plasma cholinesterase and acetylcholinesterase and has the fastest onset and shortest duration of action of all muscle relaxants. However, it can cause adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia, malignant hyperthermia, and lack of acetylcholinesterase.
Atracurium is another type of muscle relaxant that is a non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug. It usually has a duration of action of 30-45 minutes and may cause generalised histamine release on administration, which can produce facial flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. Unlike suxamethonium, atracurium is not excreted by the liver or kidney but is broken down in tissues by hydrolysis. Its effects can be reversed by neostigmine.
Vecuronium is also a non-depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug that has a duration of action of approximately 30-40 minutes. Its effects may be prolonged in patients with organ dysfunction as it is degraded by the liver and kidney. Similarly, its effects can be reversed by neostigmine.
Pancuronium is a non-depolarising neuromuscular blocker that has an onset of action of approximately 2-3 minutes and a duration of action of up to 2 hours. Its effects may be partially reversed with drugs such as neostigmine. Overall, muscle relaxants are important drugs in medical practice, but their use requires careful consideration of their potential adverse effects and appropriate monitoring of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman complains of epigastric pain, vomiting and weight loss. The surgeon suspects gastric cancer and sends her for endoscopy. Where is the cancer likely to be located?
Your Answer: Pylorus
Correct Answer: Cardia
Explanation:Location of Gastric Cancers: Changing Trends
Gastric cancers can arise from different parts of the stomach, including the cardia, body, fundus, antrum, and pylorus. In the past, the majority of gastric cancers used to originate from the antrum and pylorus. However, in recent years, there has been a shift in the location of gastric cancers, with the majority now arising from the cardia. This change in trend highlights the importance of ongoing research and surveillance in the field of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 60-year-old man with a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. He is currently taking ramipril, pioglitazone, metformin, simvastatin, and acarbose. During previous examinations, he has been found to have microalbuminuria and a decreasing eGFR. His most recent eGFR measurement was 29 ml/minute/1.73 m2. He has an average build and height.
Which medication should be discontinued?Your Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Using eGFR to Determine Dose Adjustments in Renal Impairment
Published information on the effects of renal impairment on drug elimination often uses creatinine clearance as a measure of glomerular filtration rate. However, in patients of average build and height, laboratories may report estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) based on the modification of diet in renal disease (MDRD) formula. This can be used to determine appropriate dose adjustments for medications.
The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends avoiding metformin if the eGFR is less than 30 ml/minute/1.73 m2 due to the risk of lactic acidosis. This is a serious condition that can occur when metformin accumulates in the body due to impaired renal function. By using eGFR to guide dose adjustments, healthcare providers can help prevent adverse drug reactions and ensure safe and effective medication use in patients with renal impairment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old farmer presented with progressive dyspnoea. He had a dry cough and exercise intolerance. On examination, few crackles were found in the upper zones of both lungs. Surgical lung biopsy was done which was reported as:
Interstitial inflammation, chronic bronchiolitis, and two foci of non-necrotizing granuloma.
What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?Your Answer: Histiocytosis X
Correct Answer: Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Explanation:Differentiating Lung Disorders: Histological Features
Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis: This lung disorder is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to mouldy hay or other organic materials. A farmer is likely to develop this condition due to exposure to such materials. The histological triad of hypersensitivity pneumonitis includes lymphocytic alveolitis, non-caseating granulomas, and poorly formed granulomas.
Aspergillosis: This lung disorder is rarely invasive. In cases where it is invasive, lung biopsy shows hyphae with vascular invasion and surrounding tissue necrosis.
Sarcoidosis: This lung disorder of unknown aetiology presents with non-caseating granuloma. Schumann bodies, which are calcified, rounded, laminated concretions inside the non-caseating granuloma, are found in sarcoidosis. The granulomas are formed of foreign body giant cells. Within the giant cells, there are star-shaped inclusions called asteroid bodies.
Histiocytosis X: This lung disorder presents with scattered nodules of Langerhans cells. Associated with it are eosinophils, macrophages, and giant cells. The Langerhans cells contain racket-shaped Birbeck granules.
Tuberculosis: This lung disorder typically has caseating granulomas in the lung parenchyma. There is also fibrosis in later stages. Ziehl–Neelsen staining of the smear reveals acid-fast bacilli (AFB) in many cases. Vasculitic lesions can also be found.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Correct
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A 25-year-old male blood donor presents with the following blood results:
Bilirubin 41 µmol/L
ALP 84 U/L
ALT 23 U/L
Albumin 41 g/L
Dipstick urinalysis normal
He has been experiencing symptoms of a cold, including a runny nose and dry cough. What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Gilbert's syndrome
Explanation:Gilbert’s syndrome is typically characterized by a rise in bilirubin levels in response to physiological stress. Therefore, it is likely that a 22-year-old male with isolated hyperbilirubinemia has Gilbert’s syndrome. Dubin-Johnson and Rotor syndrome, which both result in conjugated bilirubinemia, can be ruled out based on a normal dipstick urinalysis. Viral infections are often responsible for triggering a bilirubin increase in individuals with Gilbert’s syndrome.
Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain situations such as intercurrent illness, exercise, or fasting. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.
To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. The exact mode of inheritance for Gilbert’s syndrome is still a matter of debate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Medicine
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Question 10
Correct
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Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) is recommended by NICE for which clinical conditions?
Your Answer: In a catatonic patient
Explanation:Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) should only be considered as a treatment option for individuals with severe major depressive disorder that is potentially life-threatening, and where other treatments have been ineffective. It is also recommended for those experiencing catatonia or a prolonged/severe manic episode.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.
Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.
Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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