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Question 1
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden, painless loss of vision in her right eye. On examination, fundoscopy reveals a pale retina with a cherry-red spot at the macula in her right eye. Her left eye is normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Central retinal-artery occlusion (CRAO)
Explanation:Differentiating Eye Conditions: A Brief Overview
Central retinal-artery occlusion (CRAO) is characterized by a sudden loss of vision due to the lack of blood supply to the inner layer of the retina. On fundoscopy, the retina appears pale with a ‘cherry-red spot’ at the macula.
Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is the most common cause of irreversible vision loss in the developed world. However, deterioration in vision is usually gradual in AMD unless there is a retinal haemorrhage, which would be seen on fundoscopy.
Central retinal-vein occlusion (CRVO) results in retinal hypoxia and is characterized by tortuous vessels, retinal-vein engorgement, haemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and optic disc swelling.
Glaucoma is a progressive optic neuropathy that can result in irreversible loss of nerve fibres if left untreated. On fundoscopy, you may see ‘cupping of the optic disc or an increased cup-to-disc ratio.
Retinal detachment refers to the separation of the inner layers of the retina from the underlying retinal pigment epithelium. It may present with four Fs: floaters, flashing lights (photopsia), field loss, and fall in visual acuity. Retinal detachment is one of the most time-critical eye emergencies encountered in the emergency setting.
In summary, understanding the different presentations and fundoscopic findings of these eye conditions is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to the diabetes clinic for a follow-up appointment. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) approximately 8 years ago and is currently taking gliclazide and atorvastatin. He has a history of bladder cancer, which was successfully treated 2 years ago. The patient recently tried metformin, but discontinued it due to gastrointestinal side-effects. He works as an accountant, does not smoke, and has a BMI of 31 kg/m². His annual blood work reveals the following results:
- Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/l
- Potassium (K+): 4.1 mmol/l
- Urea: 4.3 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 104 µmol/l
- HbA1c: 62 mmol/mol (7.8%)
What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's diabetes?Your Answer: Add sitagliptin
Explanation:Due to his history of bladder cancer and obesity, pioglitazone is not recommended and contraindicated. Instead, sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, is the most suitable option. Exenatide, which typically leads to weight loss, is beneficial for obese individuals with diabetes, but it does not meet the NICE criteria for body mass index of 35 kg/m².
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 3
Correct
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A 10-year-old child receives primary immunisation against hepatitis B. What should be checked four months later to ensure an adequate response to immunisation?
Your Answer: Anti-HBs
Explanation:While a minimum of 10 mIU/ml is considered sufficient to provide protection against infection, it is recommended to attain anti-HBs levels exceeding 100 mIU/ml.
Interpreting hepatitis B serology is an important skill that is still tested in medical exams. It is crucial to keep in mind a few key points. The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its presence for one to six months implies acute disease. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization, and is negative in chronic disease. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and persisting IgG anti-HBc. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication.
To illustrate, if someone has been previously immunized, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B more than six months ago but are not a carrier, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now a carrier, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive. If HBsAg is present, it indicates an ongoing infection, either acute or chronic if present for more than six months. On the other hand, anti-HBc indicates that the person has caught the virus, and it will be negative if they have been immunized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a patient who is experiencing double vision. When looking straight ahead, the patient's right eye drifts downward and outward. When attempting to look to the left, the patient cannot move the right eye inward, and the double vision becomes more severe. When looking to the right, the angle of the squint is reduced. What is the probable underlying issue?
Your Answer: Left 6th nerve palsy
Correct Answer: Right 3rd nerve palsy
Explanation:Third Nerve Palsy: Symptoms and Causes
Third nerve palsy is a condition that affects the eye and is characterized by a downward and outward deviation of the eye, ptosis, and sometimes a dilated pupil. The condition can be caused by various factors, including diabetes mellitus, vasculitis such as temporal arteritis and SLE, uncal herniation through tentorium if raised ICP, posterior communicating artery aneurysm, and cavernous sinus thrombosis. In some cases, the condition may be a false localizing sign.
Weber’s syndrome is a type of third nerve palsy that is caused by midbrain strokes and is characterized by an ipsilateral third nerve palsy with contralateral hemiplegia. Other possible causes of third nerve palsy include amyloid and multiple sclerosis. The term false localizing sign is usually associated with sixth nerve palsies, but it may be used for a variety of neurological presentations.
In summary, third nerve palsy is a condition that affects the eye and can be caused by various factors. Weber’s syndrome is a specific type of third nerve palsy that is caused by midbrain strokes and is characterized by an ipsilateral third nerve palsy with contralateral hemiplegia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient visits the clinic as she has not had a menstrual period for 5 months. She has had regular periods since she was 12 years old. After conducting a negative urinary pregnancy test, the doctor ordered some blood tests. The results are as follows:
FSH 4.2 IU/L (4.5 - 22.5)
LH 0.5 IU/L (0.5 - 50.0)
Oestradiol 110 pmol/L (100 - 1000)
Testosterone 1.2 nmol/L (0.8-3.1)
Prolactin 280 IU/mL (60-600)
T4 11.5 pmol/l (9-18)
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Premature ovarian failure
Correct Answer: Hypothalamic amenorrhoea
Explanation:If a woman experiences secondary amenorrhoea and has low levels of gonadotrophins, it suggests that the cause is related to the hypothalamus. High levels of gonadotrophins would indicate premature ovarian failure, while high levels of LH and androgens would suggest polycystic ovarian syndrome. Normal levels of prolactin and thyroxine have been observed in this woman.
Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management
Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.
There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.
The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She reports having 'IBS' and experiencing occasional episodes of abdominal pain, bloating, and loose stools for the past two years. However, her symptoms have worsened significantly over the past two weeks. She is now having 3-4 watery, grey, 'frothy' stools per day, along with increased abdominal bloating, cramps, and flatulence. She also feels that she has lost weight based on the fit of her clothes. The following blood tests are ordered:
Hb 10.9 g/dl
Platelets 199 * 109/l
WBC 7.2 * 109/l
Ferritin 15 ng/ml
Vitamin B12 225 ng/l
Folate 2.1 nmol/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:The key indicators in this case are the presence of anaemia and low levels of ferritin and folate, which are all typical of coeliac disease. The description of the diarrhoea also matches the usual symptoms, although some patients may have stools that are visibly fatty.
While irritable bowel syndrome is a common condition, it is unlikely to be the cause in this case due to the abnormal blood test results. Low levels of ferritin and folate would not typically be associated with IBS or gastroenteritis. Even if the patient had menorrhagia, this would not explain the low folate levels, although it could account for the anaemia and low ferritin.
Coeliac disease is much more common than Crohn’s disease, with a prevalence that is around 100 times higher. In an exam scenario, there would typically be more clues pointing towards a diagnosis of Crohn’s disease, such as the presence of mouth ulcers.
Understanding Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.
To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, sudden weight loss, and autoimmune thyroid disease. Other conditions associated with coeliac disease include irritable bowel syndrome, dermatitis herpetiformis, and type 1 diabetes. First-degree relatives of patients with coeliac disease should also be screened.
Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, lactose intolerance, and enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine. In rare cases, coeliac disease may lead to esophageal cancer or other malignancies.
Overall, understanding coeliac disease is crucial for early diagnosis and management of the condition. Screening for coeliac disease in patients with relevant symptoms and conditions can help prevent complications and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 7
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman reports to her community midwife with complaints of failure to lactate, lethargy, dizziness upon standing, and weight loss after a difficult childbirth complicated by placental abruption. What blood test results are expected?
Your Answer: Decreased cortisol; normal aldosterone
Explanation:Interpreting Cortisol and Aldosterone Levels in Sheehan’s Syndrome
Sheehan’s syndrome is a condition that results in hypopituitarism, causing reduced production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and secondary adrenal insufficiency. This can lead to decreased cortisol levels, which can cause postural hypotension. However, aldosterone levels remain normal as they are not dependent on pituitary function.
In rare cases of adrenal adenoma, increased levels of both cortisol and aldosterone may occur, but this does not fit the clinical picture of Sheehan’s syndrome. Similarly, decreased levels of both cortisol and aldosterone would be indicative of primary adrenal insufficiency, which is not the case here.
An unusual result would be increased cortisol levels with decreased aldosterone levels, which does not fit the clinical picture of hypocortisolism in Sheehan’s syndrome. Conversely, decreased cortisol levels with increased aldosterone levels would also be an unusual result, as aldosterone levels are not typically affected in Sheehan’s syndrome.
Therefore, when interpreting cortisol and aldosterone levels in a patient with suspected Sheehan’s syndrome, it is important to consider the expected pattern of decreased cortisol levels with normal aldosterone levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 8
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns of feeling constantly overheated and experiencing early menopause. Her husband has also noticed a swelling in her neck over the past few weeks. During the examination, her pulse is recorded at 90/minute, and a small, painless goitre is observed. The doctor orders blood tests, which reveal the following results: TSH < 0.05 mu/l, Free T4 24 pmol/l, Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies 102 IU/mL (< 35 IU/mL), and ESR 23 mm/hr. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Based on the presence of thyrotoxic symptoms, goitre, and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies, the likely diagnosis is
Graves’ Disease: Common Features and Unique Signs
Graves’ disease is the most frequent cause of thyrotoxicosis, which is commonly observed in women aged 30-50 years. The condition presents typical features of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. However, Graves’ disease also exhibits specific signs that are not present in other causes of thyrotoxicosis. These include eye signs, such as exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia, as well as pretibial myxoedema and thyroid acropachy. The latter is a triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation.
Autoantibodies are also present in Graves’ disease, including TSH receptor stimulating antibodies in 90% of patients and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 75% of patients. Thyroid scintigraphy can also aid in the diagnosis of Graves’ disease, as it shows diffuse, homogenous, and increased uptake of radioactive iodine.
Overall, Graves’ disease presents with both typical and unique features that distinguish it from other causes of thyrotoxicosis. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 9
Correct
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Which of the following statements about saxagliptin is true?
Your Answer: It is a DPP-4 inhibitor
Explanation:Saxagliptin: A DPP-4 Inhibitor for Type 2 Diabetes Treatment
Saxagliptin is an oral hypoglycaemic drug that belongs to the dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor class. Its mechanism of action involves slowing down the breakdown of incretin hormones, which stimulates insulin production and reduces gluconeogenesis in the liver. Compared to sitagliptin, saxagliptin has a shorter half-life. It is safe to use in patients with mild to moderate renal impairment, but should be avoided in severe cases. Saxagliptin is recommended as first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes in combination with other drugs or as initial monotherapy if metformin is contraindicated or not tolerated. However, its use during pregnancy and breastfeeding should be avoided due to potential toxicity. Regular monitoring of renal function is necessary before and during saxagliptin treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents with haematuria, left flank pain and fatigue. Physical examination reveals a mass in the left flank. Blood tests show hypochromic anaemia.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Renal cell carcinoma (RCC)
Explanation:Common Kidney Disorders and Their Symptoms
Renal cell carcinoma (RCC), renal tract calculi, autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD), renal amyloidosis, and reflux nephropathy are some of the common kidney disorders. RCC is the most prevalent type of kidney cancer in adults, and it may remain asymptomatic for most of its course. Renal tract calculi cause sudden onset of severe pain in the flank and radiating inferiorly and anteriorly. ADPKD is a multisystemic disorder characterised by cyst formation and enlargement in the kidney and other organs. Renal amyloidosis is caused by extracellular and/or intracellular deposition of insoluble abnormal amyloid fibrils that alter the normal function of tissues. Reflux nephropathy is characterised by renal damage due to the backflow of urine from the bladder towards the kidneys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female complains of a burning sensation on the anterolateral aspect of her right thigh. The doctor suspects meralgia paraesthetica. Which nerve is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Anterior cutaneous nerve of thigh
Correct Answer: Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
Explanation:A possible cause of burning pain in the thigh is compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve, which can lead to a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. Meralgia paraesthetica, a condition characterized by burning pain in the thigh, may result from compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh.
Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica
Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by paraesthesia or anaesthesia in the distribution of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN). It is caused by entrapment of the LFCN, which can be due to various factors such as trauma, iatrogenic causes, or neuroma. Although not rare, it is often underdiagnosed.
The LFCN is a sensory nerve that originates from the L2/3 segments and runs beneath the iliac fascia before exiting through the lateral aspect of the inguinal ligament. Compression of the nerve can occur anywhere along its course, but it is most commonly affected as it curves around the anterior superior iliac spine. Meralgia paraesthetica is more common in men than women and is often seen in those aged between 30 and 40.
Patients with meralgia paraesthetica typically experience burning, tingling, coldness, or shooting pain, as well as numbness and deep muscle ache in the upper lateral aspect of the thigh. Symptoms are usually aggravated by standing and relieved by sitting. The condition can be mild and resolve spontaneously or severely restrict the patient for many years.
Diagnosis of meralgia paraesthetica can be made based on the pelvic compression test, which is highly sensitive. Injection of the nerve with local anaesthetic can also confirm the diagnosis and provide relief. Ultrasound is effective both for diagnosis and guiding injection therapy. Nerve conduction studies may also be useful. Overall, understanding meralgia paraesthetica is important for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a 7-day history of mucopurulent anal discharge, bloody stool and pain during defecation. She denies any recent travel and has not experienced any vomiting episodes.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gonorrhoea
Explanation:Sexually Transmitted Infections: Differential Diagnosis
Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a common cause of morbidity worldwide. When evaluating a patient with symptoms suggestive of an STI, it is important to consider a broad differential diagnosis. Here are some common STIs and their clinical presentations:
Gonorrhoea: This is a purulent infection of the mucous membranes caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men, symptoms include urethritis, acute epididymitis, and rectal infection. A diagnosis can be made by identifying typical Gram-negative intracellular diplococci after a Gram stain.
Crohn’s disease: This is an inflammatory bowel disease that presents with prolonged diarrhea, abdominal pain, anorexia, and weight loss. It is not consistent with a typical STI presentation.
Candidiasis: This is a fungal infection caused by yeasts from the genus Candida. It is associated with balanitis, presenting with penile pruritus and whitish patches on the penis.
Salmonella infection: This is often transmitted orally via contaminated food or beverages. Symptoms include a severe non-specific febrile illness, which can be confused with typhoid fever. There is nothing in this clinical scenario to suggest Salmonella infection.
Chancroid: This is a bacterial STI caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. It is characterised by painful necrotising genital ulcers and inguinal lymphadenopathy.
In summary, a thorough differential diagnosis is important when evaluating patients with symptoms suggestive of an STI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents for follow-up. He was diagnosed with angina pectoris and is currently prescribed aspirin 75mg once daily, simvastatin 40 mg once daily, and atenolol 100 mg once daily. If his angina symptoms are not adequately managed with this regimen, what would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Add nicorandil
Correct Answer: Add a long-acting dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker
Explanation:When beta-blockers fail to control angina, it is recommended to supplement with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker that has a longer duration of action.
Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 14
Correct
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You are assisting in the care of a 65-year-old man who has been hospitalized for chest pain. He has a medical history of hypertension, angina, and is a current smoker of 20 cigarettes per day. Upon admission, blood tests were conducted in the Emergency Department and revealed the following results:
- Na+ 133 mmol/l
- K+ 3.3 mmol/l
- Urea 4.5 mmol/l
- Creatinine 90 µmol/l
What is the most likely cause of the electrolyte abnormalities observed in this patient?Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide therapy
Explanation:Hyponatraemia and hypokalaemia are caused by bendroflumethiazide, while spironolactone is linked to hyperkalaemia. Smoking would only be significant if the patient had lung cancer that resulted in syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion, but there is no evidence of this in the given scenario.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While loop diuretics are better for reducing overload, thiazide diuretics have a role in the treatment of mild heart failure. Bendroflumethiazide was commonly used for managing hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.
Like any medication, thiazide diuretics have potential adverse effects. Common side effects include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, and hypercalcaemia. Gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence are also possible. Rare adverse effects include thrombocytopaenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
To manage hypertension, current NICE guidelines recommend using thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide or chlortalidone as first-line treatment. If blood pressure is not adequately controlled, a calcium channel blocker or ACE inhibitor can be added. If blood pressure remains high, a thiazide-like diuretic can be combined with a calcium channel blocker or ACE inhibitor. In some cases, a beta-blocker or aldosterone antagonist may also be added. Regular monitoring and adjustment of medication is necessary to ensure optimal blood pressure control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic with symptoms of urticarial rash, angioedema, and wheezing. According to her mother, she had recently attended her younger sister's party and had been assisting in inflating balloons. What could be the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Latex allergy
Explanation:Latex allergy often presents as a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, which can lead to anaphylaxis. In such cases, it is crucial to administer adrenaline promptly and follow standard anaphylaxis management protocols.
Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is responsible for anaphylaxis and atopy, such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II, or cytotoxic hypersensitivity, happens when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface. This type of reaction is associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, Goodpasture’s syndrome, and other conditions. Type III, or immune complex hypersensitivity, occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes. This type of reaction is responsible for serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, and extrinsic allergic alveolitis. Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity, is T-cell mediated and is responsible for tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, allergic contact dermatitis, and other conditions.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is associated with Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important in diagnosing and treating various conditions. Proper identification of the type of reaction can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 16
Correct
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A 30-year-old female arrives at the Emergency Department after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol. What is the most significant indicator of an ongoing high risk of suicide?
Your Answer: Made efforts to avoid herself being found by friends and family
Explanation:Although deliberate self-harm is more prevalent among females, completed suicide is more prevalent among males.
Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors
Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.
If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old with type 2 diabetes is found to have new vessel formation on the optic disc on fundoscopy.
Which of the following is the best intervention?Your Answer: Tighter control of HbA1c
Correct Answer: Laser treatment
Explanation:Managing Diabetic Retinopathy: Treatment Options and Risk Factors
Diabetic retinopathy is a common complication of diabetes that can lead to blindness if left untreated. Laser photocoagulation is a non-invasive treatment option that has a high success rate and low complication rate. Focal laser photocoagulation is used to treat specific microaneurysms, while a grid pattern of laser burns is applied for non-specific leakage. Other important factors in managing diabetic retinopathy include controlling blood pressure, optimizing cholesterol levels, and maintaining HbA1c levels in the 6-7% range. Patients with diabetes should also be monitored for other ophthalmic complications, such as glaucoma and neuropathies. Risk factors for diabetic retinopathy include age at diabetes onset, serum triglyceride and total cholesterol levels, serum creatinine levels, and hypertension. Early detection and treatment of diabetic retinopathy can prevent blindness and improve long-term outcomes for patients with diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 26-year-old male is admitted with acute severe asthma. The initial treatment of 100% oxygen, nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulisers and IV hydrocortisone is initiated. However, there is no improvement. What should be the next step in management?
Your Answer: IV magnesium sulphate
Explanation:The routine use of non-invasive ventilation in asthmatics is not supported by current guidelines.
Management of Acute Asthma
Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.
Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting betaâ‚‚-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a dense left-sided hemiparesis that has been ongoing for 10 hours. A CT scan of the head reveals a hypodense area in the right middle cerebral artery territory, and he is admitted to the hyper-acute stroke unit for further treatment. He is given 300mg of aspirin. While in the hospital, an ECG shows an irregularly irregular rhythm with no p waves. The patient inquires about ways to decrease the risk of future strokes. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Start anticoagulation with a DOAC after 4 weeks
Correct Answer: Start anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) after 2 weeks
Explanation:Managing Atrial Fibrillation Post-Stroke
Atrial fibrillation is a significant risk factor for ischaemic stroke, making it crucial to identify and treat the condition in patients who have suffered a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA). However, before starting any anticoagulation or antiplatelet therapy, it is important to rule out haemorrhage. For long-term stroke prevention, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend warfarin or a direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor. The timing of when to start treatment depends on whether it is a TIA or stroke. In the case of a TIA, anticoagulation for AF should begin immediately after imaging has excluded haemorrhage. For acute stroke patients, anticoagulation therapy should be initiated after two weeks in the absence of haemorrhage. Antiplatelet therapy should be given during the intervening period. However, if imaging shows a very large cerebral infarction, the initiation of anticoagulation should be delayed.
Overall, managing atrial fibrillation post-stroke requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and imaging results. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent future strokes and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 53-year-old male smoker presents to the emergency department with a sore throat that has been bothering him for a day. He reports feeling generally unwell and has a hoarse voice, but no cough. He has been unable to swallow for the past three hours and is spitting out saliva. During examination, he has a temperature of 38ºC and trismus. There are no obvious abnormalities in his oropharynx, and his tonsils appear normal. Additionally, he has bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Immediate ENT evaluation
Explanation:If a patient presents with acute sore throat but no visible signs in the oropharynx, and experiences severe symptoms such as difficulty swallowing, sepsis, or trismus, it is crucial to seek urgent evaluation from an ENT specialist. This is because these symptoms may indicate a deeper airway infection, such as supraglottitis, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, the patient should not be discharged without a thorough examination, including flexible nasendoscopy. If supraglottitis is diagnosed, treatment should involve IV antibiotics, IV dexamethasone, and adrenaline nebulizers. The patient should be closely monitored in an airway monitored bed, such as in an ENT ward or ICU if necessary.
Sore throat is a term used to describe various conditions such as pharyngitis, tonsillitis, and laryngitis. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, throat swabs and rapid antigen tests should not be routinely carried out for patients with a sore throat. Pain relief can be managed with paracetamol or ibuprofen, and antibiotics are not typically necessary. However, in cases where there is marked systemic upset, unilateral peritonsillitis, a history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, or when three or more Centor criteria are present, antibiotics may be indicated. The Centor and FeverPAIN scoring systems can be used to determine the likelihood of isolating Streptococci. If antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin or clarithromycin (for penicillin-allergic patients) can be given for a 7 or 10 day course. It is worth noting that a single dose of oral corticosteroid may reduce the severity and duration of pain, although this has not yet been incorporated into UK guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 21
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe and constant abdominal pain. She experienced some vaginal bleeding an hour ago, but it has mostly subsided, leaving only a small amount of bloody discharge. Upon obstetric examination, her uterus is firm, woody, and extremely tender. She appears pale and clammy, with a pulse of 102 bpm and a blood pressure of 98/65 mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Placental abruption
Explanation:Antepartum hemorrhage can be caused by placental abruption, which may result in vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, and a firm or woody uterus. In some cases, the bleeding may be concealed, and the fetus may be difficult to feel or hear. It is important to note that young and healthy women may not show signs of shock until they have lost a significant amount of blood. Contractions during labor typically come in waves and do not cause a woody or tender uterus or low blood pressure. Placenta previa is another common cause of antepartum hemorrhage, but it is usually painless.
Placental Abruption: Causes, Symptoms, and Risk Factors
Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.
The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.
In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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A 75-year-old man came to the clinic with painless, blurry vision in his right eye. He reported no other ocular symptoms and had a history of bilateral cataract surgery five years ago. What is the most probable reason for his vision impairment?
Your Answer: Posterior capsule opacification
Explanation:Blurred vision years after cataract surgery may be caused by posterior capsule opacification, which can occur even after the cataract has been removed and an artificial lens has been implanted.
Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.
Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.
In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.
Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is discovered to have an amniotic fluid volume of 440 ml. What is not included in the list of possible diagnoses?
Your Answer: Intrauterine growth restriction
Correct Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
Explanation:Oligohydramnios is indicated by an amniotic fluid volume of 440ml, while polyhydramnios is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula.
Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.
There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male visits his GP complaining of pain in his foot and lower limb that worsens at night. He reports that the pain alleviates when he dangles his leg over the bed's edge. Upon further inquiry, he mentions experiencing 'pins and needles' in his fingers, which feel cold. The patient has no medical history but is a heavy smoker, consuming 25 cigarettes per day. What is the probable diagnosis based on the given information?
Your Answer: Peripheral vascular disease
Correct Answer: Buerger's disease
Explanation:Buerger’s disease (thromboangiitis obliterans) is the likely diagnosis for a young male smoker experiencing symptoms similar to limb ischaemia. This non-atherosclerotic vasculitis primarily affects medium-sized arteries and is most common in young male smokers. Symptoms include cold sensation or paraesthesia in the limbs or fingers, rest pain, and possible ulceration or gangrene. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis and peripheral vascular disease are important differentials to consider, but unlikely in this case. Sickle cell anaemia and vitamin B12 deficiency are also less likely explanations for the symptoms.
Understanding Buerger’s Disease
Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a type of vasculitis that affects the small and medium-sized blood vessels. This condition is strongly linked to smoking and can cause a range of symptoms, including extremity ischemia, intermittent claudication, ischaemic ulcers, superficial thrombophlebitis, and Raynaud’s phenomenon.
Individuals with Buerger’s disease may experience reduced blood flow to their limbs, which can lead to pain, numbness, and tingling sensations. This can make it difficult to walk or perform other activities, and may even result in the development of ulcers or sores on the skin.
Superficial thrombophlebitis, or inflammation of the veins close to the surface of the skin, is another common symptom of Buerger’s disease. This can cause redness, swelling, and tenderness in the affected area.
Raynaud’s phenomenon, which is characterized by the narrowing of blood vessels in the fingers and toes, is also associated with Buerger’s disease. This can cause the affected areas to turn white or blue and feel cold and numb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 35-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of an itchy rash on the flexural surface of both his arms that has been present for 1 week. On examination, the rash appears polygonal and shiny with a white lines pattern on the surface. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: No further testing required, start treatment
Explanation:Diagnostic Testing for Lichen Planus: Understanding Skin Patch Testing, Skin Prick Testing, and RAST
Lichen planus is a clinical diagnosis that can be made based on the characteristic appearance of the rash. However, in some cases, a biopsy may be helpful if the presentation is atypical. The diagnosis is typically made without the need for further testing, and treatment can be started promptly.
Skin patch testing and skin prick testing are not useful for diagnosing lichen planus, as they are mainly used for different types of hypersensitivity reactions. Skin patch testing is used for contact dermatitis and other type IV hypersensitivity reactions, while skin prick testing is used for type I hypersensitivity reactions, such as food allergies and pollen allergies.
Radioallergosorbent testing (RAST) is also unsuitable for diagnosing lichen planus, as it is used to determine the amount of immunoglobulin E (IgE) that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. RAST is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (such as pollen), and wasp/bee venom.
In summary, diagnostic testing is not typically required for lichen planus, as it can be diagnosed clinically. Skin patch testing, skin prick testing, and RAST are not useful for diagnosing lichen planus and are mainly used for different types of hypersensitivity reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 3-month history of diarrhoea and intermittent abdominal pain. He has also noticed blood mixed with his stools over the past week. He is referred to secondary care where he has a colonoscopy and is diagnosed with Crohn’s disease.
Which of the following medications would be used to induce remission in this patient with a first presentation of Crohn’s disease?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.Your Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can cause a range of symptoms, including abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. There are several treatment options available for patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the severity of their symptoms and the stage of their disease.
Prednisolone is a commonly used corticosteroid for patients with a first presentation of Crohn’s disease or a single inflammatory exacerbation within a 12-month period. Azathioprine may be added to glucocorticoid treatment to induce remission if there are more than two exacerbations in a 12-month period or difficulty in tapering the glucocorticoid dose. Infliximab is recommended for adults with severe active Crohn’s disease who have not responded to or are intolerant to conventional therapy.
Mesalazine, an aminosalicylate, may be used for a first presentation of Crohn’s disease if glucocorticoids are contraindicated or not tolerated. It may also be used in addition to oral steroid treatment. Methotrexate should not be used as a monotherapy to induce remission. Instead, corticosteroids are the first-line treatment for inducing remission in patients with a first presentation of Crohn’s disease. If an adjuvant treatment is required, azathioprine or mercaptopurine can be taken with the corticosteroid. If these medications cannot be tolerated, methotrexate may be added instead.
In summary, the treatment options for Crohn’s disease vary depending on the severity of the disease and the patient’s response to previous treatments. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old woman who is sexually active presents to her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of dysuria and abdominal pain. A urine dipstick test is positive for leukocytes and a pregnancy test is negative. The GP prescribes a course of trimethoprim, but the patient returns one week later with persistent symptoms. Despite negative results from a high vaginal swab and urine culture taken during the first visit, what is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis
Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of a Female Patient with Dysuria and Abdominal Pain
A female patient presents with dysuria and abdominal pain, but a negative urine culture and lack of response to trimethoprim suggest an alternative diagnosis to urinary tract infection. Here are some possible differential diagnoses:
Chlamydia trachomatis: This sexually transmitted micro-organism can cause cervicitis, salpingitis, endometritis, and urethritis. Many carriers are asymptomatic, but nucleic acid amplification can diagnose the infection from a urine sample, endocervical or vulvovaginal swab.
Trichomonas vaginalis: This protozoan causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection that commonly presents with abnormal vaginal discharge, odour, itching, burning, soreness, and dyspareunia. Abdominal pain and dysuria are not typical symptoms.
Escherichia coli: This bacterium is the most common cause of uncomplicated UTIs, but negative urine cultures and trimethoprim resistance suggest an alternative diagnosis.
Candida albicans: This fungus can cause vulvovaginal thrush, which may present with dysuria and vulval pruritus, but not abdominal pain. A high vaginal swab can diagnose the infection.
Bacterial vaginosis: This overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina affects vaginal pH and causes a fishy smelling discharge, but not abdominal pain or dysuria. A high vaginal swab can diagnose the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 28
Correct
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Male infertility is most commonly associated with which of the following?
Your Answer: Varicocele
Explanation:Male Reproductive Conditions: Varicocele, Spermatocele, BPH, Hydrocele, and Testicular Cancer
Male infertility can be caused by deficiencies in sperm formation, concentration, or transportation. One common condition that can lead to infertility is varicocele, which is a dilatation of the veins in the scrotum. Although varicoceles are present in 15% of the male population, they are considered the most common correctable cause of infertility. Varicoceles may lead to impaired testicular function and can progress over time, but repair can improve semen parameters and fertility.
Spermatocele, on the other hand, is a benign cystic accumulation of sperm that arises from the epididymis and is not associated with male infertility. Treatment is usually not recommended in men of reproductive age due to the risk of epididymal damage.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a histological diagnosis characterized by prostate enlargement, but it is not associated with male infertility. In patients with spinal cord injury, infertility may be related to functional failure of the prostate gland and hyperactivation of the immune system.
Hydrocele is a fluid collection within the scrotum or along the spermatic cord, but it is not associated with male infertility. Testicular cancer, the most common solid malignant tumor in young men, is also not directly associated with infertility, but surgical resection may lead to retrograde ejaculation and other fertility issues.
The initial evaluation of male infertility should be rapid, non-invasive, and cost-effective, as most conditions can be diagnosed with history, physical examination, and hormonal and semen analysis alone. Further studies can be ordered if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 65-year-old man is scheduled for an elective knee replacement and presents to the orthopaedic surgery ward. He has osteoarthritis and hypertension and is currently being treated for an episode of giant cell arteritis that occurred four months ago with 20 mg prednisolone daily. This will be his first surgery and he is feeling anxious about the anaesthetic. What is the most crucial medication to prescribe before the operation?
Your Answer: Hydrocortisone
Explanation:Patients who are on chronic glucocorticoid therapy, such as prednisolone for the treatment of conditions like giant cell arteritis, may require hydrocortisone supplementation before undergoing surgery. This is because long-term use of glucocorticoids can suppress the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis, which can lead to inadequate adrenal gland response during times of stress, such as surgery. The amount of hydrocortisone required depends on the type of surgery being performed, with minor procedures under local anesthesia not requiring supplementation. For moderate to major surgeries, 50mg to 100mg of hydrocortisone should be given before induction, followed by additional doses every 8 hours for 24 hours. Diazepam should not be routinely given to control anxiety, and there is no indication that this patient requires additional medications for her hypertension preoperatively. Instead, the patient may benefit from speaking with someone who can provide reassurance about the procedure.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 30
Correct
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A 55-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of weakness in his right leg for the past three days. During the examination, it was observed that there was a weakness in the right knee flexion, but the knee extension was intact. Additionally, there was a weakness in the dorsal and plantar flexion of the right ankle, as well as the right flexor hallucis longus. The right ankle jerk was lost, but the knee-jerk was intact, and the plantar response was downgoing. Based on the most probable nerve that is damaged in this patient, what are the nerve roots that supply this nerve?
Your Answer: L4-5, S1-3
Explanation:The sciatic nerve is innervated by spinal nerves L4-5, S1-3. The patient exhibits weakness in all muscle groups below the knee, with an intact knee jerk but weak ankle jerk, indicating damage to the sciatic nerve. The iliohypogastric nerve is supplied by T12-L1, while the genitofemoral nerve is supplied by L1-2.
Understanding Sciatic Nerve Lesion
The sciatic nerve is a major nerve in the body that is supplied by the L4-5, S1-3 vertebrae. It divides into two branches, the tibial and common peroneal nerves, which supply the hamstring and adductor muscles. A sciatic nerve lesion can cause paralysis of knee flexion and all movements below the knee, as well as sensory loss below the knee. However, knee jerk reflexes remain intact while ankle and plantar reflexes are lost.
There are several causes of sciatic nerve lesions, including fractures of the neck of the femur, posterior hip dislocation, and trauma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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