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Question 1
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You are evaluating a 23-year-old man who has just been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. He works as a software engineer and has no other medical conditions. What should be his initial target for HbA1c?
Your Answer: 48 mmol/mol
Explanation:Managing Type 1 Diabetes: NICE Guidelines
The management of type 1 diabetes is a complex process that involves the collaboration of various healthcare professionals. It is crucial to monitor the condition regularly as it can reduce life expectancy by 13 years and lead to micro and macrovascular complications. In 2015, NICE released guidelines on the diagnosis and management of type 1 diabetes, which provide valuable information for clinicians caring for patients with this condition.
One of the key recommendations is to monitor HbA1c levels every 3-6 months, with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower for adults. However, other factors such as daily activities, comorbidities, and history of hypoglycemia should also be considered. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is also essential, with a minimum of four tests per day, including before meals and bedtime. Blood glucose targets should be between 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day.
NICE recommends multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens as the preferred choice for adults with type 1 diabetes, rather than twice-daily mixed insulin regimens. Rapid-acting insulin analogues should be used before meals instead of rapid-acting soluble human or animal insulins. Metformin may also be considered if the patient’s BMI is 25 kg/m² or higher.
In summary, managing type 1 diabetes requires a comprehensive approach that considers various factors. NICE guidelines provide a useful framework for clinicians to ensure optimal care for their patients with type 1 diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 2
Correct
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A 28-year-old female patient visits her GP for a routine check-up after her initial cervical smear. She has no medical history, no family history of gynaecological cancers, and no known allergies to medications. She is currently taking the progesterone-only pill. The results of her smear test indicate:
Positive for HPV
Low-grade dyskaryosis cytology
What is the next course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Colposcopy referral
Explanation:If a patient’s cervical cancer screening shows a positive result for high-risk HPV (hrHPV) and cytological abnormalities, they should be referred for a colposcopy. This is because HPV increases the risk of developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and abnormal cytology indicates the need for further investigation. If the sample is inadequate, a repeat test should be offered in 3 months. However, there is no situation in which a patient is asked to return for a repeat test in 6 months. If the patient is hrHPV negative, they would be returned to normal recall as the NHS now follows an HPV first system. If the patient is hrHPV positive but has normal cytology, they would be invited for a repeat test in 12 months to assess for resolution of HPV or for further increased surveillance before considering a colposcopy. It would be inappropriate to reassure the patient and return them to normal recall if they are hrHPV positive and have dyskaryosis.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A newborn boy is born via emergency caesarean section at 42 weeks and 5 days due to fetal tachycardia and thick meconium-stained amniotic fluid. The mother received intrapartum antibiotics as she was known to be colonized with group B streptococcus. The infant presents with cyanosis, tachypnea, and chest wall retraction. A chest X-ray reveals patchy infiltrates and atelectasis. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Meconium aspiration syndrome
Explanation:Transient tachypnoea of the newborn does not exhibit cyanosis or chest X-ray changes. Preterm deliveries are usually associated with surfactant deficiency.
Understanding Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
Meconium aspiration syndrome is a condition that affects newborns and causes respiratory distress due to the presence of meconium in the trachea. This condition typically occurs in the immediate neonatal period and is more common in post-term deliveries, with rates of up to 44% reported in babies born after 42 weeks. The severity of the respiratory distress can vary, but it can be quite severe in some cases.
There are several risk factors associated with meconium aspiration syndrome, including a history of maternal hypertension, pre-eclampsia, chorioamnionitis, smoking, or substance abuse. These risk factors can increase the likelihood of a baby developing this condition. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to monitor newborns closely for signs of respiratory distress.
Overall, meconium aspiration syndrome is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. With proper management and treatment, however, most babies are able to recover fully and go on to lead healthy lives. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with this condition, healthcare providers can help ensure that newborns receive the care they need to thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
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A 55-year-old man, who lives alone, complains of pain in his right knee. He finds it difficult to walk long distances. A recent knee radiograph showed signs of osteoarthritis (OA). Examination revealed mild medial joint line tenderness and stable ligaments. His body mass index (BMI) is 25.
What would be the treatment of choice for this patient?Your Answer: Paracetamol with topical NSAIDs
Explanation:Management Strategies for Osteoarthritis
Osteoarthritis (OA) is a common condition that affects the joints, causing pain and stiffness. There are various management strategies for OA, including pharmacological and non-pharmacological approaches.
Paracetamol with Topical NSAIDs
The first-line management strategy for knee and hand OA is to use paracetamol with topical NSAIDs, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.Oral NSAIDs
Oral NSAIDs should be used with caution in the elderly and those with renal disease. Topical NSAIDs are preferred in the first instance. If they are ineffective, oral NSAIDs may be used at the lowest effective dose, for the shortest period of time, and with a protein pump inhibitor co-prescribed.Oral NSAIDs with Gastric Protection
Oral NSAIDs can be given with gastric protection if topical NSAIDs plus paracetamol provide insufficient analgesia. However, it is not the first-line recommendation for relief of pain in osteoarthritis.Arthrodesis of the Knee Joint
Surgical management of OA is typically with joint replacement. Surgery may only be considered in those patients in whom non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures have proved ineffective and there is severe pain with functional limitation.Weight Loss and Physiotherapy
Weight loss and physiotherapy are part of the non-pharmacological management for OA. However, weight loss is only appropriate in those with a BMI of over 25 (overweight or obese). Physiotherapy and gentle exercise should be recommended to all patients with OA, regardless of age, pain severity, co-morbidity, or disability.Management Strategies for Osteoarthritis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
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A 39-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of intense, stabbing pain in her right flank that spreads to her groin. The pain comes and goes but is excruciating, reaching a severity of 10/10 at its peak. A pregnancy test yields negative results, while a urine dip shows positive for nitrites, leukocytes, and blood.
What test should be conducted to properly diagnose the condition?Your Answer: Non-contrast CTKUB
Explanation:When a patient presents with symptoms of renal colic, such as severe pain that radiates from the loin to the groin, a non-contrast CT-KUB is the preferred imaging test to detect any renal calculi and ensure there is no obstruction caused by them. In cases where an infected, obstructing stone is suspected, urgent nephrostomy may be necessary. Abdominal x-rays are not reliable for detecting calculi and should not be used as an indication for this type of investigation. A CT abdomen and pelvis is unnecessary and may expose the patient to unnecessary radiation. A CTKUB with contrast is also not recommended as it may mask the appearance of calculi. While ultrasound can be used to detect renal calculi, CT is more accurate and is now recommended as the first-line investigation. In cases where infection is suspected, CT is superior in assessing the anatomy and identifying any potential obstruction or collection that may require invasive intervention, such as nephrostomy insertion.
The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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During your assessment of a 55-year-old patient admitted to the medical ward, you observe a rash on her legs. The rash has a lace-like pattern in a purple color and does not disappear when touched. It is located on the lower legs. The patient has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus and reports experiencing this rash on and off in the past, often triggered by cold weather. What is the most probable diagnosis for this rash?
Your Answer: Livedo reticularis
Explanation:Understanding Livedo Reticularis
Livedo reticularis is a skin condition characterized by a purplish, non-blanching, reticulated rash. This occurs when the capillaries become obstructed, leading to swollen venules. The most common cause of this condition is idiopathic, meaning that the cause is unknown. However, it can also be caused by various underlying medical conditions such as polyarteritis nodosa, systemic lupus erythematosus, cryoglobulinaemia, antiphospholipid syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome, and homocystinuria.
It is important to note that livedo reticularis is not a disease in itself, but rather a symptom of an underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of progressive hearing loss in both ears. What is the MOST probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Presbycusis
Explanation:Common Causes of Hearing Loss: A Brief Overview
Hearing loss can be caused by a variety of factors, including age, infection, genetic predisposition, and growths in the ear. Here are some common causes of hearing loss:
Presbyacusis: This is an age-related hearing loss that affects sounds at high frequency. It is the most likely diagnosis in cases of hearing loss in older adults.
Otitis externa: This is inflammation of the external ear canal, which can cause pain, discharge, and conductive deafness.
Cholesteatoma: This is a destructive and expanding growth consisting of keratinising squamous epithelium in the middle ear and/or mastoid process. It can cause ear discharge, conductive deafness, and other symptoms.
Ménière’s disease: This is a condition that causes sudden attacks of tinnitus, vertigo, a sensation of fullness in the ear, and fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss.
Otosclerosis: This is a form of conductive hearing loss that often occurs in early adult life. It can also cause tinnitus and transient vertigo.
If you are experiencing hearing loss, it is important to see a healthcare professional for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 8
Correct
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A 30-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department with a two-day history of fever, headache, vomiting, and seizures. She has no significant medical history or allergies. Upon CT head examination, hypodensity of the left temporal lobe is identified, while a lumbar puncture reveals lymphocytes at 57 cells/µL (0-5 cells/µL), protein at 92 mg/100 mL (15-60 mg/100 mL), and glucose at 66 mg/100 mL (50-80 mg/100 mL). Serum blood glucose is normal. A brain MRI is subsequently performed, revealing prominent swelling and increased signal of the left temporal lobe and insular cortex. What is the urgent medication that must be initiated in this patient?
Your Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:In cases of encephalitis caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV), urgent administration of IV aciclovir (which is effective against HSV) is necessary. Amantadine, which is used to manage influenza, is not appropriate. Cefotaxime, which is often used for suspected meningococcal disease, is also not appropriate. Fluconazole, an anti-fungal medication, is not appropriate as encephalitis is unlikely to be caused by a fungal infection.
Encephalitis: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Encephalitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the brain. It presents with symptoms such as fever, headache, psychiatric symptoms, seizures, and vomiting. Focal features such as aphasia may also be present. Peripheral lesions like cold sores are not related to the presence of HSV encephalitis. HSV-1 is responsible for 95% of cases in adults, and it typically affects the temporal and inferior frontal lobes.
To diagnose encephalitis, cerebrospinal fluid analysis is done, which shows lymphocytosis and elevated protein. PCR for HSV, VZV, and enteroviruses is also performed. Neuroimaging may reveal medial temporal and inferior frontal changes, such as petechial hemorrhages, but it is normal in one-third of patients. MRI is a better diagnostic tool. EEG may show lateralized periodic discharges at 2 Hz.
The treatment for encephalitis involves intravenous aciclovir, which should be started in all cases of suspected encephalitis. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in preventing complications and improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Correct
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An emergency buzzer sounds on the coronary care unit and you are the first doctor to respond. A healthcare assistant on an observation round has found a 72-year-old man unresponsive. You perform a head tilt and chin lift and check for a carotid pulse for 10 seconds while listening for breath sounds, but you detect neither.
Telemetry attached to the patient shows sinus rhythm at a rate of 110 bpm. The crash team is being summoned, and the crash trolley is being brought to the bedside. You are unaware of any DNACPR orders.
What is the most appropriate initial step?Your Answer: Start chest compressions at a rate of 30:2
Explanation:For a patient in cardiac arrest with a non-shockable rhythm (pulseless-electrical activity), the recommended ratio of chest compressions to ventilation is 30:2. Therefore, the initial action should be to start chest compressions at this rate. Administering 1 mg adrenaline or 300 mg amiodarone is inappropriate as the first step. Adrenaline may be given once chest compressions have started. Amiodarone is only indicated for patients in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Delivering a single synchronised DC shock or three quick successive stacked unsynchronised DC shocks followed by 2 minutes of 30:2 compressions is incorrect for a patient in PEA, as these are only appropriate for a shockable rhythm while on telemetry.
The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 10
Correct
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A 21-year-old student is brought by his flatmates to the University Health Service with headache, neck stiffness and a petechial rash. There is a history of infection with Neisseria meningitidis four and ten years earlier. He is immediately referred to the local general hospital.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 14.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 310 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 190 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Lumbar puncture: neutrophils +++
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Membrane attack complex (MAC) formation deficiency
Explanation:Overview of Complement Deficiencies and Associated Infections
Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) Formation Deficiency
MAC is the final stage of complement activation that leads to the formation of a hole in the bacterial cell membrane, causing cell lysis. Patients with MAC formation deficiency are prone to recurrent bacterial infections, particularly with Neisseria meningitidis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae.C1 Deficiency
Deficiencies of components of the classical pathway (C1, C2, and C4) are associated with immune complex diseases such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and an increased risk for bacterial infection. C2 deficiency is associated with an increased risk for bacterial infection, while C3 deficiency increases the risk for infections by encapsulated organisms (e.g., pneumococci, Haemophilus, and meningococci).C2 Deficiency
Deficiencies of components of the classical pathway (C1, C2, and C4) are associated with immune complex diseases such as SLE and an increased risk for bacterial infection. C2 deficiency is associated with an increased risk for bacterial infection, while C3 deficiency increases the risk for infections by encapsulated organisms (e.g., pneumococci, Haemophilus, and meningococci).C4 Deficiency
Deficiencies of components of the classical pathway (C1, C2, and C4) are associated with immune complex diseases such as SLE and an increased risk for bacterial infection. C2 deficiency is associated with an increased risk for bacterial infection, while C3 deficiency increases the risk for infections by encapsulated organisms (e.g., pneumococci, Haemophilus, and meningococci).Immunoglobulin A (IgA) Deficiency
IgA deficiency results in autoimmune diseases, respiratory infections, urinary tract infections, and gastrointestinal infections. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 11
Correct
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You assess a 27-year-old woman who presents with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. She had an IUD inserted as emergency contraception two weeks ago after having unprotected intercourse 6 days prior. The pain is described as severe dysmenorrhoea and is more pronounced in the right iliac fossa. She has been experiencing continuous bleeding for the past 6 days, whereas her normal menstrual cycle lasts 28 days with 4 days of bleeding. She has no issues with eating or drinking. On examination, her temperature is 36.5ºC, and her blood pressure is 104/68 mmHg. There is mild tenderness in the right iliac fossa with no guarding. Urine dip shows no abnormalities, and urine hCG is negative. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Side-effects of IUD
Explanation:The woman’s symptoms are most likely caused by the intrauterine device (IUD), which is known to increase the intensity and discomfort of periods. Ectopic pregnancy and miscarriage are unlikely as the pregnancy test was negative. A urinary tract infection is also unlikely as the urine dip was normal. Although appendicitis should be considered, it does not explain the vaginal bleeding, and the woman’s normal appetite, lack of fever, and mild examination results do not support this diagnosis.
Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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A 32-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of constant fatigue. He wakes up feeling tired and unrefreshed. He has type II diabetes and is taking metformin. His body mass index is 40 kg/m2. Blood tests come back normal. The doctor suspects obstructive sleep apnoea.
What is the most suitable assessment tool to be utilized in primary care to assist in determining the appropriate referral?Your Answer: Epworth Sleepiness Scale
Explanation:Different Sleep Assessment Tools and Their Uses
There are various tools used to assess sleep in individuals, each with its own specific purpose. The Epworth Sleepiness Scale is commonly used in the UK to diagnose obstructive sleep apnoea syndrome by measuring an individual’s perception of sleepiness. The Insomnia Severity Index, on the other hand, is used to assess insomnia in adults and monitor treatment response. The Stanford Sleepiness Scale is a quick assessment tool used to measure alertness throughout the day, while the Pittsburgh Sleep Quality Index is used to evaluate sleep quality over a month, particularly in patients with psychiatric illness. Lastly, the Sleep Quality Scale assesses the subjective effect of poor sleep on the patient. Understanding the different uses of these tools can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment of sleep disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 13
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of dysmenorrhoea and deep dyspareunia that she has been experiencing for the past 4 years. She reports severe pain during her menstrual cycle and feels nauseous. Additionally, she mentions that she and her partner have been trying to conceive for 2 years without any success. What could be the possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Endometriosis
Explanation:Endometriosis is characterized by pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, dyspareunia, and subfertility. The main indicators of this condition are cyclic abdominal pain and deep dyspareunia, which may be accompanied by fertility issues. Unlike endometriosis, pelvic inflammatory disease does not typically cause pain during menstruation. A bicornuate uterus, which is a congenital anomaly resulting in a heart-shaped uterus, is associated with a higher risk of recurrent miscarriages. Cervical carcinomas are usually accompanied by abnormal bleeding, such as post-coital and inter-menstrual bleeding, but they are unlikely to have been present for as long as three years.
Understanding Endometriosis
Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.
First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.
It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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A father brings his 4-month-old baby who is currently breastfed to your clinic. He reports that the baby sometimes rejects feeds, frequently vomits, and cries for extended periods after feeds. The baby's weight was at the 50th percentile during birth but has now dropped to the 40th percentile. What advice should you give?
Your Answer: Trial of Gaviscon
Explanation:According to NICE, breastfed infants who experience frequent regurgitation accompanied by significant distress should be given a trial of alginate therapy (such as Gaviscon) after each feed for a period of 1-2 weeks. If symptoms persist, a 4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor (such as oral omeprazole) or a histamine-2 receptor antagonist (such as oral ranitidine) should be administered. If symptoms continue despite these treatments, it may be necessary to refer the infant to a paediatrician. For bottle-fed infants with reflux, thickened feeds are recommended.
Understanding Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux in Children
Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.
Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not being overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. Proton pump inhibitors are not recommended unless the child is experiencing unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Ranitidine, previously used as an alternative to PPIs, has been withdrawn from the market due to the discovery of carcinogens in some products. Prokinetic agents should only be used with specialist advice.
Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. In severe cases where medical treatment is ineffective, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for parents and caregivers to understand the symptoms and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in children to ensure the best possible outcomes for their little ones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents with a swollen, erythematous finger and right axillary tenderness, 24 hours after being bitten by his pet dog.
Which of the following is the best treatment?Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:Antibiotics for Dog Bite Infections: Recommended and Not Recommended Options
Dog bites can lead to infections caused by various micro-organisms, including anaerobic mouth flora and bacteria. Co-amoxiclav, a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid, is the recommended antibiotic for dog bite-related infections, as it is effective against the most likely organisms. Fluconazole, an antifungal agent, is not indicated for such infections, as fungal micro-organisms in dogs usually cause only superficial skin rashes. Metronidazole, although effective against anaerobic bacteria, is not recommended for dog bite-related infections, except for patients allergic to penicillin. Aciclovir is not used for dog bite-related infections, as it is restricted to treating varicella-zoster and herpes zoster. Flucloxacillin, although recommended for skin infections, is not active against anaerobic bacteria and is not recommended for dog bite-related infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 16
Correct
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A 30-year-old male presents with a bilateral high-stepping gait. He is typically healthy, works as a personal trainer, and enjoys rock climbing in his free time. During the examination, there is bilateral weakness of dorsiflexion (3/5) and slightly decreased sensation over the dorsal aspect of his feet. The compression of which nerve do you suspect is responsible for his symptoms, possibly caused by his high rock climbing boots?
Your Answer: Common fibular nerve
Explanation:Damage to the common peroneal nerve can result in weakened dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot. The nerve runs laterally through the popliteal fossa and over the neck of the fibula before entering the medial compartment of the leg. This area is susceptible to compression or injury, leading to sensory and motor impairments. In this case, the individual’s tight abseiling boots have been compressing their common peroneal nerve.
Understanding Common Peroneal Nerve Lesion
A common peroneal nerve lesion is a type of nerve injury that often occurs at the neck of the fibula. This nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve, which divides into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. The most notable symptom of this type of nerve damage is foot drop, which is characterized by weakness or paralysis of the muscles that lift the foot.
In addition to foot drop, other symptoms of a common peroneal nerve lesion may include weakness in foot dorsiflexion and eversion, as well as the extensor hallucis longus muscle. Sensory loss may also occur over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg, and there may be wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles.
Overall, understanding the symptoms of a common peroneal nerve lesion can help individuals recognize and seek treatment for this type of nerve injury. With proper care and management, it may be possible to improve symptoms and prevent further damage to the affected nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female presents to her GP with a 4-week history of bilateral shoulder pain. She also experiences stiffness in her shoulders in the morning which improves throughout the day. She reports feeling generally fatigued. No other joints are affected. The patient has a history of osteoarthritis in her left knee.
During examination, the patient's observations are normal. There is no swelling or redness in the shoulders, and she has a full range of motion bilaterally. Upper limb power is 5/5 bilaterally with normal sensation.
Based on the patient's history and examination, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteoarthritis
Correct Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are suggestive of polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR), which is a common inflammatory condition in older adults. The sudden onset of pain and stiffness in the shoulders and hips, along with systemic symptoms such as fatigue and anorexia, are typical of PMR. Osteoarthritis, fibromyalgia, hypothyroidism, and adhesive capsulitis are less likely diagnoses, as they do not typically present with acute onset of symptoms or systemic involvement. However, it is important to rule out hypothyroidism by checking thyroid function. Frozen shoulder may cause shoulder pain and stiffness, but it is usually associated with restricted range of motion and does not typically cause systemic symptoms.
Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic to inquire about the whooping cough vaccine. She mentions that her friend, who also sees the same GP, received the vaccine at 32 weeks of pregnancy. She wants to know if she can get the vaccine at this stage of her pregnancy.
Your Answer: She can have the vaccine now
Explanation:Pregnant women at 16-32 weeks are given the option to receive the pertussis vaccine.
Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.
Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.
Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.
To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.
Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.
Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Correct
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The phlebotomist in a pediatric clinic sustains a needlestick injury while drawing blood from a child who is known to have HIV. After thoroughly washing the wound, what is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Refer to Emergency Department + oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks
Explanation:Oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks is used as post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV.
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to an infectious disease. The type of PEP given depends on the specific disease and the circumstances of the exposure.
For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG) or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used.
For hepatitis B, if the source is HBsAg positive, a booster dose of the HBV vaccine should be given to known responders. Non-responders require hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and a booster vaccine. If the source is unknown, known responders may receive a booster dose of the HBV vaccine, while known non-responders require HBIG and a vaccine. Those in the process of being vaccinated should have an accelerated course of the HBV vaccine.
For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given.
For HIV, the risk of transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. Low-risk incidents such as human bites generally do not require PEP. However, for high-risk incidents, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. It is important to note that the risk of transmission varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman from Nigeria complains of fatigue, back pain and excessive thirst. Her ESR is elevated and she has normocytic/normochromic anemia.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Distinguishing Multiple Myeloma from Other Bone Diseases
Multiple Myeloma: A Malignant Disease of Plasma Cells
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects the plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is more common in black Africans and rare in Asians, with a median age of onset over 60. Patients may not show any symptoms and are often diagnosed through routine blood tests. However, they are more susceptible to infections and may have low white blood cell counts. Elevated levels of ESR and CRP are almost always present. Diagnosis is confirmed when two out of three of the following are present: paraproteinaemia or Bence Jones protein, radiological evidence of lytic bone lesions, and an increase in bone marrow plasma cells. Patients may experience bone pain, lethargy, thirst, and anaemia, which are all signs of multiple myeloma.
Calcium Pyrophosphate Arthropathy: Shedding of Crystals into Joints
Calcium pyrophosphate arthropathy, also known as pseudogout, is caused by the shedding of calcium pyrophosphate crystals into the joint. It typically presents as an acute-onset monoarticular arthritis, usually in the knee or wrist. The joint will be hot, red, tender, and swollen. Rhomboid-shaped crystals that are weakly positively birefringent under polarised light will be visible in synovial fluid.
Osteoporosis: Fragility Fractures
Osteoporosis is characterised by fragility fractures, such as vertebral crush fractures, Colles fractures, and fractures of the proximal femur. It is uncommon in men at this age, unless associated with hypogonadism. Anaemia and elevated ESR are not seen in osteoporosis.
Osteoarthritis: Joint Pain and Stiffness
Osteoarthritis presents with joint pain, stiffness, and reduced function. The weight-bearing joints, such as the hip and knee, and the small joints of the hand are commonly affected. Patients do not experience symptoms such as thirst and lethargy, which are due to hypercalcaemia. Blood biochemistry is normal in osteoarthritis.
Paget’s Disease of Bone: Bone Remodelling
Paget’s disease of the bone is rare in individuals under 40 years old. It is characterised by bone pain, deformity, fragility fractures, and complications from nerve compression
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents to clinic with increasing breathlessness, weight loss and peripheral oedema over the past 2 months. His family are concerned that he has also become a bit more confused over the past week.
His past history includes hypertension and a 35 pack-year smoking history. An echocardiogram from last year showed good biventricular contraction.
His blood tests show the following:
Haemoglobin (Hb) 150 g/L
Platelets 230 * 109/L (150 - 400)
White cell count (WCC) 4.6 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 124 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 2.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 62 µmol/L (55 - 120)
C reactive protein (CRP) 6 mg/L (< 5)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Lung cancer
Explanation:Investigation for lung cancer should be considered in a long-term smoker with a history of weight loss and breathlessness, as SIADH is a common endocrine complication of small cell lung cancer. If the patient has not had a normal echo recently, right-sided heart failure may be a more likely explanation for their symptoms. While COPD and pulmonary fibrosis can also cause breathlessness, they would not account for the peripheral oedema and hyponatraemia.
SIADH is a condition where the body retains too much water, leading to low sodium levels in the blood. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including malignancies such as small cell lung cancer, neurological conditions like stroke or meningitis, infections such as tuberculosis or pneumonia, and certain drugs like sulfonylureas and SSRIs. Other causes may include positive end-expiratory pressure and porphyrias. Treatment for SIADH involves slowly correcting the sodium levels to avoid complications like central pontine myelinolysis. This can be done through fluid restriction, the use of demeclocycline to reduce responsiveness to ADH, or the use of ADH receptor antagonists. It is important to note that certain drugs, such as glimepiride and glipizide, have been reported to cause SIADH according to the BNF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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A 21-year-old female presents for a follow-up after a medical termination of pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation. She is considering getting a Nexplanon implant. When is it appropriate to insert Nexplanon in this situation?
Your Answer: Immediately
Explanation:Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.
There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 23
Correct
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A 26-year-old man undergoes a routine medical examination and is found to have 3+ haematuria. This is confirmed on microscopy and on a second urinalysis 9 months later. He recalls experiencing two episodes of red urine in the past year, both of which occurred during upper respiratory tract infections. There is no family history of renal disease. He has no oedema but his blood pressure is 150/100 mmHg. His plasma creatinine level is 65 μmol/l (reference range 53–106 μmol/l). What is the most likely finding on a renal biopsy?
Your Answer: Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy
Explanation:Common Kidney Diseases and Their Clinical Features
Immunoglobulin A (IgA) Nephropathy, Kimmelstiel Wilson Lesions, Cast Nephropathy, Minimal Change Disease, and Thin Basement Membranes are some of the common kidney diseases that affect people. Each of these diseases has unique clinical features that help in their diagnosis.
IgA Nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It is characterized by predominant IgA deposition in the glomerular mesangium. Clinical features range from asymptomatic haematuria to rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.
Kimmelstiel–Wilson Lesions, also known as nodular glomerulosclerosis, is a complication of diabetes mellitus. It is characterized by the formation of nodules of hyaline material in regions of glomerular capillary loops in the glomerulus.
Cast Nephropathy, also known as myeloma cast nephropathy, is the formation of urinary casts in the renal tubules from free immunoglobulin light chains, causing intratubular obstruction and damage, which leads to renal failure in the context of multiple myeloma.
Minimal Change Disease, also known as lipoid nephrosis or nil disease, arises from a histopathologic lesion in the glomerulus and is characterized by intense proteinuria leading to oedema and intravascular volume depletion.
Thin Basement Membranes is a group of inherited heterogeneous disorders involving the basement membranes of the kidney and frequently affecting the cochlea and eye as well. It is characterized by splitting and lamellation of the glomerular basement membrane.
In conclusion, understanding the clinical features of these common kidney diseases is crucial in their diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 62-year-old man visits his doctor with a complaint of ‘bulging blue veins’ on his legs. During the examination, you observe the presence of twisted, enlarged veins, along with brown patches of pigmentation and rough, flaky patches of skin. The diagnosis is varicose veins.
Which vein is commonly affected in this condition?Your Answer: Long saphenous vein
Explanation:Understanding the Venous System and Varicose Veins
Varicose veins are a common condition that affects the superficial venous system. The long saphenous vein, which ascends the medial side of the leg and passes anteriorly to the medial malleolus of the ankle, is the most common cause of varicose veins. However, it is important to consider alternative diagnoses for limb swelling, such as deep vein thrombosis, which could occur in the popliteal vein, part of the deep venous system.
The cephalic vein, although superficial, is an upper limb vein and is not likely to be affected by varicose veins. Similarly, insufficiencies in the deep venous system, such as the femoral vein, contribute to chronic venous insufficiency but do not cause varicose veins.
Another main vein in the superficial venous system is the short saphenous vein, which ascends the posterior side of the leg and passes posteriorly to the lateral malleolus of the ankle. Insufficiency in this vein can also cause varicose veins, but it is not the most likely distribution.
Understanding the different veins in the venous system and their potential for insufficiency can help in the diagnosis and treatment of varicose veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant complains of worsening acne that is causing her distress. Despite using topical benzyl peroxide, she has noticed limited improvement. During examination, non-inflammatory lesions and pustules are observed on her face. What would be the most suitable next course of action?
Your Answer: Topical retinoid
Correct Answer: Oral erythromycin
Explanation:If treatment for acne is required during pregnancy, oral erythromycin is a suitable option, as the other medications are not recommended.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.
The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.
Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 3-year-old child with a history of atopic eczema presents to the clinic. The child's eczema is typically managed well with emollients, but the parents are worried as the facial eczema has worsened significantly overnight. The child now has painful blisters clustered on both cheeks, around the mouth, and on the neck. The child's temperature is 37.9ºC. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:IV antivirals are necessary for the treatment of eczema herpeticum, which is a severe condition.
Understanding Eczema Herpeticum
Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children with atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The infection can be life-threatening, which is why it is important to seek medical attention immediately.
During examination, doctors typically observe monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions that are usually 1-3 mm in diameter. Due to the severity of the infection, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir treatment. It is important to understand the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly to prevent any complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl has been found to be regularly skipping school, frequently arguing with other students and has been caught smoking on several occasions. Her general practitioner suspects a diagnosis of conduct disorder. She has already been diagnosed with anxiety disorder. She is not currently on any medications.
Given the new suspected diagnosis of conduct disorder, what is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?Your Answer: Refer for cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Management of Conduct Disorder: Interventions and Referrals
Conduct disorder is a psychiatric condition characterized by persistent patterns of aggressive and antisocial behavior. The management of conduct disorder involves a combination of pharmacological and psychosocial interventions. Here are some of the key interventions and referrals for managing conduct disorder:
Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT): CBT techniques are used as part of the psychosocial interventions for conduct disorder. These techniques are considered as part of the first-line management of conduct disorder.
Methylphenidate: Methylphenidate is a medication that is used in the treatment of ADHD, which is often a coexisting condition with conduct disorder. This medication should only be initiated and coordinated by a specialist in secondary care (such as CAMHS).
Antidepressant Medications: Antidepressant medications should not be the first line in the management of conduct disorder, particularly with no coexisting health conditions. If there were depressive symptoms, these medications could be considered but are generally avoided in this age group.
Psychosocial Interventions: Psychosocial interventions are important in the management of conduct disorder. These include child-focussed programmes, multimodal interventions and parent training programmes. These interventions would be considered first-line management for conduct disorder if there was not the co-existing complicating factor of ADHD.
Referral to Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS): Patients presenting with symptoms of conduct disorder with a significant complicating factor should be referred to CAMHS for specialist assessment. These factors include mental health problems, neurodevelopmental disorder, learning disability or difficulty, and substance misuse. However, if the patient has already been referred to CAMHS, re-referral would not be necessary.
Managing Conduct Disorder: Interventions and Referrals
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 28
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with metastatic lung cancer visits the general practice clinic complaining of lethargy and nausea. His full blood count, thyroid function test, calcium and liver function tests all come back normal. However, his urea and electrolytes reveal significant hyponatraemia, while the rest of the results are normal. He has a reduced plasma osmolality and increased urine osmolality. He is haemodynamically stable and euvolaemic.
What is the most probable diagnosis from the options below?Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Abnormal Urine Osmolality: A Brief Overview
Abnormal urine osmolality can be indicative of various underlying conditions. Here are some of the possible causes and how to differentiate them:
Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)
SIADH is characterized by excessive secretion of ADH, leading to hyperosmolar urine and low plasma osmolality. It can be caused by central nervous system disorders, malignancies, and drugs. Treatment involves fluid restriction and addressing the underlying cause.Cranial Diabetes Insipidus
This condition is caused by the hypothalamus not producing enough vasopressin, resulting in extreme thirst and polyuria. However, urine osmolality is reduced, not elevated.Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by the kidneys becoming resistant to the effect of vasopressin/ADH, leading to large volumes of dilute urine with reduced osmolality. Causes include electrolyte imbalances, medications, and renal tubular acidosis.Addison’s Disease
This condition is characterized by reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. Deficiency of mineralocorticoid leads to increased sodium excretion from the kidneys, resulting in hyponatremia associated with hyperkalemia. However, in this case, the patient has normal potassium levels.Primary Polydipsia
This condition is caused by excessive water drinking despite no physiological stimulus, resulting in dilute polyuria. However, in this patient, the urine osmolality is concentrated, making this diagnosis unlikely. A fluid deprivation test can help confirm or rule out this condition.In summary, abnormal urine osmolality can be indicative of various underlying conditions, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the correct diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 29
Correct
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A 64-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease visits his GP complaining of erectile dysfunction. What medication would make prescribing sildenafil contraindicated?
Your Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:Sildenafil, a PDE 5 inhibitor, should not be taken with nitrates or nicorandil as it can enhance the vasodilating effects of these medications.
Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors
Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.
Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.
Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.
Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old baby girl is brought to her General Practitioner by her mother. She had a runny nose for two days and has had a cough for three days. She has not been feeding as much as usual.
On examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C. Her respiratory rate is slightly raised. On auscultation of the chest, she has a widespread wheeze and crepitations. Her other observations are within normal limits.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Viral upper respiratory tract infection
Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis
Explanation:Distinguishing between respiratory illnesses in children: A guide
When a child presents with respiratory symptoms, it can be difficult to determine the underlying cause. Here, we will discuss the key features of several common respiratory illnesses in children and how to differentiate between them.
Bronchiolitis is characterized by coryzal symptoms followed by a persistent cough, tachypnea, chest recession, and wheezing or crepitations on auscultation. A low-grade fever and reduced feeding may also be present.
Croup is a viral upper airway infection that causes a barking cough, predominantly inspiratory stridor, hoarse voice, intercostal or sternal indrawing, fever, and coryzal symptoms.
Asthma typically presents with shortness of breath, cough, wheeze, and chest tightness, and is more common in children over two years old.
Acute epiglottitis is an insidious but rapidly progressive airway emergency that causes fever, sore throat, odynophagia, muffled voice, dysphagia, dyspnea, respiratory distress, dysphonia, and stridor. The child may sit in a tripod position to maximize airway opening.
A viral upper respiratory tract infection may cause coryzal symptoms, cough, and fever, but crepitations on auscultation would not be expected.
By understanding the key features of these respiratory illnesses, healthcare providers can make a more accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 31
Correct
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A 78-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a cough that has been producing green sputum and shortness of breath for the past three days. During the examination, the GP detects the presence of rhonchi. The patient's vital signs are stable. Given his medical history of type 2 diabetes, which is being managed with metformin, and heart failure, for which he is taking ramipril, bisoprolol, and furosemide, the GP suspects acute bronchitis. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Oral doxycycline
Explanation:Antibiotics may be prescribed for acute bronchitis if the patient has co-existing co-morbidities or is at high risk of complications. NICE guidelines advise against the use of antibiotics for those who are not systemically very unwell and not at high risk of complications. However, if the patient is very unwell or at risk of complications, antibiotics should be offered. In this case, the patient’s age, diabetes, and heart failure put him at high risk, so antibiotics should be offered in accordance with NICE guidelines. While local guidelines should be consulted, NICE recommends oral doxycycline as the first-line treatment. Inhaled bronchodilators should not be offered unless the patient has an underlying airway disease such as asthma. Oral flucloxacillin is not commonly used for respiratory tract infections, and IV co-amoxiclav is not necessary in this stable patient who can be managed without admission.
Acute bronchitis is a chest infection that typically resolves on its own within three weeks. It occurs when the trachea and major bronchi become inflamed, leading to swollen airways and the production of sputum. The primary cause of acute bronchitis is viral infection, with most cases occurring in the autumn or winter. Symptoms include a sudden onset of cough, sore throat, runny nose, and wheezing. While most patients have a normal chest examination, some may experience a low-grade fever or wheezing. It is important to differentiate acute bronchitis from pneumonia, which presents with different symptoms and chest examination findings.
Diagnosis of acute bronchitis is typically based on clinical presentation, but CRP testing may be used to determine if antibiotic therapy is necessary. Management involves pain relief and ensuring adequate fluid intake. Antibiotics may be considered for patients who are systemically unwell, have pre-existing health conditions, or have a CRP level between 20-100mg/L. Doxycycline is the recommended first-line treatment, but it cannot be used in children or pregnant women. Alternatives include amoxicillin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 32
Correct
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A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a possible allergic reaction to seafood he ate at a restaurant. He administered his adrenaline autoinjector and received an additional dose of intramuscular adrenaline from the paramedics.
Upon examination, his temperature is 37.8ºC, heart rate is 130 beats/min, and blood pressure is 88/50 mmHg. He has a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min and oxygen saturation of 93% on room air.
What is the next course of action in managing this patient?Your Answer: Intravenous adrenaline infusion
Explanation:For patients with refractory anaphylaxis, which is characterized by persistent respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems despite receiving 2 doses of intramuscular adrenaline, the recommended next step is to start an intravenous adrenaline infusion. Administering further intramuscular adrenaline is not recommended. Intravenous chlorphenamine and hydrocortisone are also no longer recommended in the updated guidelines for anaphylaxis management.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.
The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.
Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 33
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of daily abdominal bloating and cramps for the last 3 weeks. During the examination, the doctor palpates a small pelvic mass. What is the most suitable next test to perform?
Your Answer: CA125 level
Explanation:If females over 50 experience bloating and abdominal cramps, it is important to consider the possibility of ovarian cancer. The recommended course of action is to conduct a serum CA125 test. If the results show elevated levels, an abdominal and pelvic ultrasound should be scheduled. This information is based on NICE CG122 guidelines.
Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 34
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman complains of right elbow discomfort for a few weeks. Upon examination, there is tenderness on the lateral aspect of the forearm and pain on passive extension of the wrist, with the elbow fully extended. What is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Tennis elbow
Explanation:Tennis elbow is inflammation of the wrist extensor tendon at the insertion site into the lateral epicondyle, causing elbow pain that radiates down the forearm. Cubital tunnel syndrome is compression of the ulnar nerve at the elbow, causing sensory changes and weakness of hand muscles. Carpal tunnel syndrome is compression of the median nerve at the wrist, causing paraesthesia and motor deficits in the first three digits. Golfer’s elbow is inflammation of the wrist flexor tendon at the site of insertion into the medial epicondyle, causing elbow pain that radiates into the forearm. Olecranon bursitis is inflammation of the bursa overlying the olecranon process, causing a swelling that may be tender or painless.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 35
Correct
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You are evaluating a young patient in primary care who has a significant family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1. Although genetic testing has confirmed an abnormal genetic profile, the patient has not yet presented with any clinical manifestations of the condition. What is the genetic term used to describe conditions where the genotype is abnormal, but the phenotype remains normal?
Your Answer: Low penetrance
Explanation:When a condition has low genetic penetrance, it may not show many clinical signs or symptoms, and the patient may appear normal, despite having an abnormal genetic profile. This is because the severity of the phenotype is determined by the penetrance of the genotype. If the condition has high penetrance, the phenotype is more likely to be expressed, resulting in more signs and symptoms.
Autosomal Dominant Diseases: Characteristics and Complicating Factors
Autosomal dominant diseases are genetic disorders that are inherited from one parent who carries the abnormal gene. In these diseases, both homozygotes and heterozygotes manifest the disease, and both males and females can be affected. The disease is passed on to 50% of children, and it normally appears in every generation. The risk remains the same for each successive pregnancy.
However, there are complicating factors that can affect the expression of the disease. Non-penetrance is a phenomenon where an individual carries the abnormal gene but does not show any clinical signs or symptoms of the disease. For example, 40% of individuals with otosclerosis do not show any symptoms despite carrying the abnormal gene. Another complicating factor is spontaneous mutation, where a new mutation occurs in one of the gametes. This can result in the disease appearing in a child even if both parents do not carry the abnormal gene. For instance, 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents.
In summary, autosomal dominant diseases have distinct characteristics such as their inheritance pattern and the fact that affected individuals can pass on the disease. However, complicating factors such as non-penetrance and spontaneous mutation can affect the expression of the disease and make it more difficult to predict its occurrence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 36
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman has been diagnosed with pertussis. She came to the doctor's office after a child at her workplace daycare tested positive for whooping cough. She has been experiencing an on-and-off cough with occasional vomiting for the past 18 days. Assuming the patient has no allergies, what is the best course of treatment for this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Azithromycin
Explanation:Azithromycin or clarithromycin are recommended as first-line antibiotics for non-pregnant adults with whooping cough if the cough onset is within 21 days. Erythromycin can be used for pregnant adults. Co-amoxiclav and doxycycline are not recommended, and co-trimoxazole can be used off-label if macrolides are contraindicated or not tolerated. Antibiotics are preferred over supportive treatment within 21 days of presentation.
Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.
Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.
Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.
To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.
Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.
Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 37
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman attends her first antenatal appointment at 10 weeks’ gestation. This is her second pregnancy. She has a history of hypertension and is taking medication for it. She is offered antenatal screening for chromosomal abnormalities, including Down syndrome.
Which of the following tests is used in antenatal screening for Down syndrome?Your Answer: Nuchal thickness
Explanation:Prenatal Screening Tests for Fetal Abnormalities
During pregnancy, various screening tests are conducted to detect any fetal abnormalities. One such test is the measurement of nuchal thickness, which is the fluid-filled sac between the back of the neck and the skin. An increase in thickness is associated with a decreased chance of normal birth and can detect 60-70% of Down syndrome cases. Other screening tests include measuring pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A (PAPP-A), b-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG), E3, and α-fetoprotein (AFP). Low PAPP-A, in combination with free β-hCG, is 65% accurate in diagnosing Down syndrome. The biparietal diameter (BPD) is the diameter across the skull and is associated with neurodevelopmental outcomes. Dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate is an adrenal androgen that is not influenced by pregnancy. Ultrasound assessment for herniation of the dural sac is used to screen for spina bifida. Utero-placental Doppler is used to identify at-risk women for pre-eclampsia and intrauterine growth restriction but is not useful in detecting Down syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 38
Correct
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A 60-year-old man with a 20-year history of treatment with antipsychotic medications for bipolar disorder complains of the onset of writhing tongue and finger movements.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?Your Answer: Tardive dyskinesia
Explanation:Understanding Movement Disorders Associated with Anti-Psychotic Medication
Anti-psychotic medication can cause a range of movement disorders, including tardive dyskinesia, akathisia, and Parkinsonism. Tardive dyskinesia is a common side-effect of long-term treatment with anti-psychotics, but can also occur with minimal doses. It is characterized by choreoathetoid movements, often starting in the fingers and tongue and becoming more generalized. Treatment is often unsuccessful, but may involve switching to a different medication or using agents such as tetrabenazine or benzodiazepines. Akathisia is an inner feeling of motor restlessness, with voluntary movements such as pacing or rocking. Parkinsonism is characterized by resting tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. These movement disorders can be mistaken for other conditions such as Huntington’s or Wilson’s disease, but the association with anti-psychotic medication and the specific symptoms make tardive dyskinesia a more likely option. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients on anti-psychotic medication for these potential side-effects and adjust treatment as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 39
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with recurrent, foul-smelling discharge from her right ear and decreased hearing on that side. She has been experiencing these episodes every few months, but now notices the discharge on most days. During childhood, she frequently swam and had grommet insertion for glue ear, which fell out when she was around 10 years old. She has no significant medical history and takes only the combined oral contraceptive pill.
After conducting hearing tests, the following results were obtained:
- Rinne's test (right side): bone conduction > air conduction
- Rinne's test (left side): air conduction > bone conduction
- Weber's test: lateralisation to the right
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cholesteatoma
Explanation:The patient is experiencing a conductive hearing loss on the right side, as evidenced by Rinne’s test showing bone conduction > air conduction in the affected ear and Weber’s test lateralizing to the right ear. The most likely diagnosis is cholesteatoma, which is associated with recurrent ear discharge and glue ear. Cholesteatoma occurs when squamous epithelium forms pockets on the tympanic membrane, leading to cyst-like growths that produce keratin and slough over time. This causes erosion in the middle ear, creating an environment for anaerobic bacterial growth.
Acoustic neuroma, on the other hand, causes sensorineural hearing loss, which is characterized by air conduction > bone conduction in both ears and Weber test lateralizing to the unaffected ear. It is associated with dizziness and typically causes unilateral hearing loss. As the tumor grows, patients may develop neurological symptoms that can be predicted by the affected cranial nerves.
Otitis externa is an acute infection of the outer ear that can cause conductive hearing loss, but as the patient has a chronic history and lacks ear pain, this diagnosis is less likely. Otosclerosis, which presents with progressive conductive hearing loss and tinnitus, is an autosomal dominant trait that typically affects individuals aged 20-40 years with a family history of early-onset hearing loss. As it does not typically present with smelly ear discharge, other diagnoses should be considered first.
Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness
Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.
On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.
To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 40
Correct
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A 48-year-old man is admitted with right-sided pneumonia. According to the patient he has been unwell for 3–4 days with malaise, fever, cough and muscular pain. He also has a rash on his abdomen and neck pain. He was previously fit and has not travelled abroad. He is a plumber and also keeps pigeons. According to his wife, two of his favourite pigeons died 2 weeks ago.
Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for his pneumonia?Your Answer: Chlamydia psittaci
Explanation:Psittacosis is a disease caused by the bacterium Chlamydia psittaci, which is typically transmitted to humans through exposure to infected birds. Symptoms include fever, cough, headache, and sore throat, as well as a characteristic facial rash. Diagnosis is confirmed through serology tests, and treatment involves the use of tetracyclines or macrolides. Mycoplasma pneumoniae is another bacterium that can cause atypical pneumonia, with symptoms including fever, malaise, myalgia, headache, and a rash. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia, while Legionella pneumophila can cause Legionnaires’ disease, which presents with fever, cough, dyspnea, and systemic symptoms. Coxiella burnetii is the bacterium responsible for Q fever, which can be transmitted by animals and arthropods and presents with non-specific symptoms. In the scenario presented, the patient’s history of exposure to infected birds and the presence of a rash suggest a diagnosis of psittacosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 41
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents with weight loss and anaemia. She has no significant medical history. Upon examination, she has massive splenomegaly and pale conjunctivae. Her full blood count shows a Hb of 10.9 g/dl, platelets of 702 * 109/l, and a WCC of 56.6 * 109/l. Leucocytosis is noted on her film, with all stages of granulocyte maturation seen. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia
Explanation:Massive splenomegaly can be caused by myelofibrosis, chronic myeloid leukemia, visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar), malaria, and Gaucher’s syndrome. Among these, chronic myeloid leukemia is the most probable diagnosis, as it is the most common cause.
Understanding Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia and its Management
Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome in more than 95% of patients. This chromosome is formed due to a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, resulting in the fusion of the ABL proto-oncogene and the BCR gene. The resulting BCR-ABL gene produces a fusion protein that has excessive tyrosine kinase activity.
CML typically affects individuals between 60-70 years of age and presents with symptoms such as anaemia, weight loss, sweating, and splenomegaly. The condition is also associated with an increase in granulocytes at different stages of maturation and thrombocytosis. In some cases, CML may undergo blast transformation, leading to acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) or acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).
The management of CML involves various treatment options, including imatinib, which is considered the first-line treatment. Imatinib is an inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase associated with the BCR-ABL defect and has a very high response rate in the chronic phase of CML. Other treatment options include hydroxyurea, interferon-alpha, and allogenic bone marrow transplant. With proper management, individuals with CML can lead a normal life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 42
Correct
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An 81-year-old woman presents to the cardiology clinic for a routine follow-up appointment. She has a history of ischaemic heart disease after experiencing a myocardial infarction 3 years ago. Although she denies chest pain, she reports an increase in shortness of breath during physical activity. Upon examination, her vital signs are normal, but there is mild pitting edema up to the knees bilaterally. An echocardiogram reveals mild left ventricular impairment with an estimated ejection fraction of 45%. What is the initial treatment plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol and ramipril
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for patients with heart failure with reduced LVEF is a combination of a beta blocker and an ACE inhibitor. In this case, bisoprolol and ramipril are the appropriate medications to prescribe. The patient’s symptoms, medical history, and reduced left ventricular ejection fraction support this treatment plan. Amlodipine and ramipril, bisoprolol and amlodipine, and bisoprolol and furosemide are not recommended as initial treatments for heart failure with reduced LVEF.
Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 43
Correct
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A 65-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to self-neglect and suspected neurological event causing motor function loss. Upon examination, he presents with hypothermia and weakness on the right side. The patient reports discontinuing his regular medications and experiencing dizziness, restlessness, and electric shock sensations throughout his body. Which medication cessation is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Paroxetine
Explanation:Discontinuation syndrome, characterized by dizziness, electric shock sensations, and anxiety, is a common occurrence when SSRIs are abruptly stopped. This is why it is recommended to gradually taper off the medication. The patient in this scenario stopped their medication abruptly due to a suspected neurological event, leading to the onset of discontinuation syndrome. Atorvastatin, bisoprolol, and gabapentin are not typically associated with these symptoms when stopped abruptly.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 44
Correct
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You are on a GP placement and seeing a 44-year-old woman with a history of depression. She has recently gone through a divorce and admits to having thoughts of taking an overdose. She has never attempted suicide before, but feels like she has no other options. She has the pills at home and is considering taking them. She denies any substance abuse. What is the appropriate course of action in this situation?
Your Answer: Speak to the CRISIS team
Explanation:This scenario requires you to demonstrate your ability to evaluate and handle a patient who is contemplating suicide. The patient in question has several risk factors, including being male, having a history of depression, recently going through a separation, and expressing a desire to end his life in the future. It is crucial to respond appropriately in this situation. The most suitable team to evaluate and manage this patient is the CRISIS team, who can provide urgent assessment and care.
The other options are not as effective. Transferring the patient to the Emergency Department would only delay the referral to the crisis team. CAMH, which stands for child and adolescent mental health, is not the appropriate team to handle this case. It is not within your professional scope to initiate relationship counseling. Given the patient’s numerous risk factors, it would not be safe to discharge him without a psychiatric evaluation.
In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 45
Correct
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You are a foundation year 2 Doctor on your GP placement. Your first appointment is 6-year-old Jack. His mother has brought him to see you as he has had a cold over the past 6 days and now has developed a productive cough with green sputum. On examination you hear bilateral crackles at the base of his lungs and there is dullness to percussion at the left base. All basic observations are within normal limits. You diagnose a lower respiratory tract infection and decide to prescribe some antibiotics. Jack has no allergies.
What is the first line antibiotic you would prescribe for Jack?Your Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:For children without a penicillin allergy, amoxicillin is the primary treatment for pneumonia according to the 2011 guidelines from the British Thoracic Society. If the initial treatment is ineffective, macrolides may be added. Macrolides are recommended if Mycoplasma or Chlamydia is suspected. Co-amoxiclav is suggested for pneumonia associated with influenza.
Pneumonia is a common illness in children, with S. pneumoniae being the most likely cause of bacterial pneumonia. The British Thoracic Society has published guidelines for the management of community acquired pneumonia in children. According to these guidelines, amoxicillin is the first-line treatment for all children with pneumonia. Macrolides may be added if there is no response to first-line therapy, or if mycoplasma or chlamydia is suspected. In cases of pneumonia associated with influenza, co-amoxiclav is recommended. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure effective treatment and management of pneumonia in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 46
Correct
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A 57-year-old accountant has presented to her GP with a 5-day history of heartburn, nausea and a metallic taste in her mouth. She has a good appetite and has lost 2kg in the last month. She has a past medical history of hypertension, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and osteoporosis. She takes amlodipine 5mg OD, risedronate 35 mg OD and lansoprazole 30 mg OD.
On examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender and there are no palpable masses. Her observations are normal.
What is the most appropriate management for this patient from the following options?Your Answer: Urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
Explanation:An urgent referral is warranted when weight loss is a prominent symptom in dyspepsia.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.
For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is experiencing insomnia and is prescribed temazepam. What is the mechanism of action of temazepam?
Your Answer: Inhibits the effect gamma-aminobutyric acid
Correct Answer: Enhances the effect of gamma-aminobutyric acid
Explanation:The primary inhibitory neurotransmitter, GABA, is amplified by benzodiazepines.
Benzodiazepines are drugs that enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which inhibits brain activity. They are used for various purposes, including sedation, anxiety relief, muscle relaxation, and seizure prevention. However, patients can develop a tolerance and dependence on these drugs, so they should only be prescribed for a short period of time. When withdrawing from benzodiazepines, it is important to do so gradually to avoid withdrawal symptoms, which can include insomnia, anxiety, and seizures. Barbiturates are another type of drug that affect GABA, but they work differently than benzodiazepines by increasing the duration of chloride channel opening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 48
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman attends her booking appointment with the community midwife. She is at 14 weeks gestation in her second pregnancy. She has no underlying medical conditions.
Which of the following haemodynamic changes is most likely to present in this patient?Your Answer: A 10 mmHg drop in diastolic blood pressure (BP) during the second trimester
Explanation:Physiological Changes in Cardiovascular System During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, the cardiovascular system undergoes significant changes to accommodate the growing fetus. These changes include a drop in diastolic blood pressure by 10 mmHg during the second trimester, circulating blood volume increases by approximately 50%, leading to a dilutional ‘physiological anaemia’ and cardiac output increases most sharply throughout the first trimester.
During pregnancy, heart rate progressively increases until reaching a peak in the third trimester. The overall change in heart rate represents approximately a 20–25% increase from baseline. However, a grade 2/6 diastolic murmur at the mitral area and pulsus alternans are not typical findings in a healthy pregnancy. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these physiological changes to properly monitor and manage the health of pregnant individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 49
Correct
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A 20-year-old male returns from Ghana and presents with a fever of 40°C. He reports having bloody stools prior to this. Upon examination, he displays abdominal distension, hepatosplenomegaly, and rose spots on his abdomen. Unfortunately, he passes away before receiving empirical treatment due to bowel perforation, leading to severe sepsis. What is the causative organism responsible for this type of pathology?
Your Answer: Salmonella typhi
Explanation:Infections caused by Salmonella typhi can result in the development of rose spots on the abdomen. While these spots are also associated with C.psittaci infections, they are more commonly seen in cases of typhoid fever. Giardiasis typically does not cause such severe and sudden symptoms, while syphilis is characterized by the presence of painless chancres. Staphylococcus aureus infections, on the other hand, typically result in rapid onset of symptoms, including violent vomiting.
Enteric fever, also known as typhoid or paratyphoid, is caused by Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi respectively. These bacteria are not normally found in the gut and are transmitted through contaminated food and water or the faecal-oral route. The symptoms of enteric fever include headache, fever, and joint pain, as well as abdominal pain and distension. Constipation is more common in typhoid than diarrhoea, and rose spots may appear on the trunk in some patients. Complications can include osteomyelitis, gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation, meningitis, cholecystitis, and chronic carriage. Chronic carriage is more likely in adult females and occurs in approximately 1% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 50
Correct
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A mother is referred to a paediatric gynaecologist with her 12-year-old daughter. Her daughter is extremely short for her age, is deaf in both ears and has shown no signs of pubertal development. On examination, the clinician notes neck webbing, a high arched palate and low-set ears. He suspects that the child may have Turner syndrome.
Which of the following chromosomal abnormalities best describes Turner syndrome?Your Answer: 45,XO
Explanation:Understanding Turner Syndrome: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Turner Syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects females and is caused by the absence of an entire sex chromosome or a partial deletion of the X chromosome. The normal female karyotype is 46XX, but in Turner Syndrome, it is 45X or 46XdelXp. This condition affects 1 in 2500 female births and is associated with various clinical features such as dwarfism, sexual infantilism, neck webbing, and streak gonads. Other associated stigmata include shield chest, high arched palate, low-set ears, lymphoedema, deafness, coarctation of the aorta, and pigmented moles.
Mosaicism is common in Turner Syndrome, which means that the severity of the condition can vary from person to person. Girls with Turner Syndrome are infertile and require hormone replacement therapy until menopause. Treatment aims to achieve normal pubertal progression through estradiol replacement therapy.
In conclusion, understanding Turner Syndrome is crucial for early diagnosis and management of the condition. With proper treatment and support, individuals with Turner Syndrome can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old businessman comes to the clinic complaining of watery, non-bloody diarrhea, anorexia, and abdominal bloating that has been going on for 10 days. He recently returned from a trip to India and his symptoms started 3 days after his return. Upon examination, he has dry mucous membranes but normal skin turgor and no fever. What is the probable organism responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Escherichia coli
Correct Answer: Giardia lamblia
Explanation:The symptoms experienced by the patient, such as bloating and watery diarrhoea lasting for an extended period, suggest that the cause of their illness is Giardiasis rather than the more typical culprit, Escherichia coli, which is commonly associated with travellers’ diarrhoea.
Understanding Giardiasis
Giardiasis is a condition caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some individuals may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In severe cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may occur. Diagnosis can be made through stool microscopy, stool antigen detection assay, or PCR assays. Treatment typically involves the use of metronidazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 52
Correct
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An 80-year-old man presents with a 2-week history of profuse loose stools and severe abdominal pain over the past 2 days. He has lost his appetite and is only tolerating small amounts of fluid over the past 24 hours. On examination, his heart rate is 118 bpm, respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min, temperature 38.1ºC and blood pressure is 104/74 mmHg. Significant left iliac fossa tenderness is noted. The patient is urgently admitted, and a stool culture confirms Clostridium difficile infection and severe colitis without perforation on imaging. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Oral vancomycin AND IV metronidazole
Explanation:The treatment for life-threatening C. difficile infection involves administering vancomycin orally and metronidazole intravenously.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.
To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 53
Correct
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A 21-year-old man is brought to his GP by his mother, who reports a six-month history of weight loss, apathy and poor self-care. He withdrew from college soon after starting his course, and now spends most of his time alone in his room playing video games. He has recently accused his mother of trying to poison him. During the interview, he appears suspicious and hesitant to speak with you.
What is the most probable cause of this presentation?Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for the patient in this vignette is schizophrenia. Early symptoms of schizophrenia can include social withdrawal and behavioral changes, which may go unnoticed before the onset of delusions and hallucinations. The patient’s belief that his mother is trying to poison him needs to be explored to confirm whether it is an actual delusion. While illicit drug use can cause psychotic symptoms similar to schizophrenia, the gradual onset and progression of symptoms in this case suggest a diagnosis of schizophrenia rather than amphetamine misuse. Depression can also cause delusions, but depressive delusions are usually congruent with the mood and tend to have themes of guilt or hopelessness. The combination of symptoms presented in this vignette cannot be safely explained by normal teenage behavior. While schizotypal disorder can resemble schizophrenia, it does not have the characteristic symptoms seen in this vignette.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 54
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in her left breast. She has recently lost approximately 1.5 stone in weight by attending a weight loss program. During the examination, a firm lump is detected in her left breast that is not mobile but not attached to the underlying muscle. She recalls being hit by a squash ball in this area a few months ago. What is the probable reason for her lump?
Your Answer: Fat necrosis
Explanation:When a woman presents with a breast lump, fat necrosis should be considered as a possible diagnosis if there is a history of trauma to the area. This condition typically presents as a firm lump that may be accompanied by bruising. Fibroadenomas, on the other hand, are more commonly seen in younger women and present as a mobile but firm lump that can be easily moved during examination. Breast cysts are fluid-filled masses that may be detected if they are large enough and can fluctuate or transilluminate. Breast abscesses are typically seen in breastfeeding women and present as a hot, tender swelling. While breast cancer is unlikely based on the clinical history, all women with a breast lump should be referred to a specialist for confirmation of diagnosis through triple assessment. It is important to note that intentional weight loss, as in this case, should not be considered a factor in the diagnosis.
Understanding Fat Necrosis of the Breast
Fat necrosis of the breast is a condition that affects up to 40% of cases and is often caused by trauma. This condition can be mistaken for breast cancer due to its physical features, such as a mass that may initially increase in size. It is important to understand that fat necrosis is not cancerous and can be treated with proper care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 55
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl attends surgery with a rash on her legs and buttocks. She has been unwell with a cough and cold for one week. The rash is purpuric, macular and symmetrical to both buttocks and legs, and is non-blanching.
Which of the following is the likely cause?
Select the SINGLE cause from the list below.Your Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP)
Explanation:Henoch-Schönlein Purpura: A Common Childhood Vasculitis
Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a common vasculitis of childhood that affects small vessels. It typically occurs in children, with 50% of cases in under-5s. The exact cause of the immune-mediated vasculitis is unknown, but it commonly follows a viral or streptococcal upper respiratory tract infection (URTI). Classic features include a non-blanching rash (palpable purpura, usually of the lower limbs), abdominal pain, arthralgia, and renal involvement/glomerulonephritis.
Possible complications of HSP include glomerulonephritis and renal failure, gastrointestinal bleed/intussusception, and pulmonary hemorrhage. Treatment is usually supportive, and the condition is self-limiting in most patients.
Other conditions, such as intertrigo, meningococcal disease, slapped cheek disease, and systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), may present with similar symptoms but have distinct differences. For example, intertrigo affects skinfolds, meningococcal disease presents with red flags such as fever and headache, slapped cheek disease has a facial rash that precedes a rash on the limbs, and SLE typically has vague and insidious systemic symptoms before skin changes.
Investigations for HSP include bloods, blood pressure monitoring, and urinalysis. Treatment usually involves observation and monitoring, with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs used for pain relief and sometimes corticosteroids given.
In summary, HSP is a common childhood vasculitis that presents with a non-blanching rash, abdominal pain, arthralgia, and renal involvement. It often follows a recent illness such as an upper respiratory tract infection and is usually self-limiting. Other conditions may present with similar symptoms but have distinct differences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 56
Correct
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A 30-year-old female comes to the surgery complaining of painless rectal bleeding that has been going on for 2 weeks. Upon inspection of the perineum and rectal examination, there are no notable findings. However, proctoscopy reveals haemorrhoidal cushions located at the left lateral and right anterior position. What is the crucial aspect of management?
Your Answer: Fibre supplementation
Explanation:In certain studies, it has been demonstrated that fibre supplementation is equally effective to injection sclerotherapy.
Understanding Haemorrhoids
Haemorrhoids are a normal part of the anatomy that contribute to anal continence. They are mucosal vascular cushions found in specific areas of the anal canal. However, when they become enlarged, congested, and symptomatic, they are considered haemorrhoids. The most common symptom is painless rectal bleeding, but pruritus and pain may also occur. There are two types of haemorrhoids: external, which originate below the dentate line and are prone to thrombosis, and internal, which originate above the dentate line and do not generally cause pain. Internal haemorrhoids are graded based on their prolapse and reducibility. Management includes softening stools through dietary changes, topical treatments, outpatient procedures like rubber band ligation, and surgery for large, symptomatic haemorrhoids. Acutely thrombosed external haemorrhoids may require excision if the patient presents within 72 hours, but otherwise can be managed with stool softeners, ice packs, and analgesia.
Overall, understanding haemorrhoids and their management is important for individuals experiencing symptoms and healthcare professionals providing care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 57
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a one week history of cough and increasing shortness of breath over the past 48 hours. She also reports fever, headache, anorexia, and chills. Upon examination, she appears slightly pale and confused. Her vital signs reveal a pulse of 136/min, blood pressure of 96/64 mmHg, respiratory rate of 32/min, and oxygen saturation of 89% on room air. Lung auscultation reveals reduced breath sounds in the left lower lung with some coarse crackles. Blood cultures are taken and the patient is cannulated. High flow oxygen is administered and a fluid challenge is ordered by the nurse. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Prescribe broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics
Explanation:If the patient’s condition worsens, ITU may be consulted. However, before referring the patient, it is important to determine if she has already received basic sepsis care. Although studies have explored the use of steroids in sepsis, they are not presently recommended due to an increase in mortality.
Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. Instead, the Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognize sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, and septic shock as a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favor.
To manage sepsis, it is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of the infection and support the patient regardless of the cause or severity. However, if any red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started immediately. This includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.
NICE released its own guidelines in 2016, which focus on the risk stratification and management of patients with suspected sepsis. For risk stratification, NICE recommends using red flag and amber flag criteria. If any red flags are present, the sepsis six should be started immediately. If any amber flags are present, the patient should be closely monitored and managed accordingly.
To help identify and categorize patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasizing the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 58
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to the Sexual Health Clinic with a thick green discharge from his penis. Culture of the discharge is positive for Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?
Your Answer: High-dose intramuscular ceftriaxone
Explanation:The preferred treatment for gonococcal infections is a single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone, with the dosage based on the patient’s weight. This medication is highly effective against susceptible N. gonorrhoeae and more effective than oral cephalosporins. A test of cure is necessary after treatment to ensure the infection has been cleared. Ciprofloxacin should only be used if the organism’s susceptibility to the antibiotic is known. Dual antibiotic use is no longer recommended, but presumptive treatment for chlamydia may be administered if the patient’s sexual history or symptoms suggest co-infection. Intravenous antibiotics are not necessary for uncomplicated cases, but severe cases of pelvic inflammatory disease may require hospitalization and intravenous antibiotics. Penicillin is not indicated for gonorrhoea treatment due to high antimicrobial resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 59
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of right-sided neck pain and left-sided sensorimotor disturbance. Shortly after the neck pain had begun, she had noted that her right eyelid was ‘drooping’ and that she had developed weakness and altered sensation in her left arm and leg. She had recently visited a physiotherapist for neck pain after a fall. Examination reveals right Horner syndrome, and weakness and sensory disturbance on the left-hand side, with a left extensor plantar response.
Which of the following is the most likely clinical diagnosis?Your Answer: Carotid artery dissection
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Neck Pain and Stroke Syndrome
Carotid artery dissection, lateral medullary infarction, posterior fossa space-occupying lesion, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and venous sinus thrombosis are all potential causes of neck pain and stroke syndrome in a young patient. Carotid artery dissection is a tear in one of the carotid arteries that can occur spontaneously or following trauma. Symptoms may include vague headache, facial and neck pain, meiosis, ptosis, focal limb weakness, and cranial nerve palsies. Lateral medullary infarction is usually due to occlusion of the intracranial vertebral artery or the posterior inferior cerebellar artery and may present with vestibulocerebellar symptoms, ipsilateral Horner syndrome, sensory symptoms, and ipsilateral bulbar muscle weakness. Posterior fossa space-occupying lesions are more common in children and may cause symptoms due to raised intracranial pressure and brainstem/cerebellum compression. Subarachnoid hemorrhage presents with a sudden-onset, severe headache, while venous sinus thrombosis usually presents with progressive headache, nausea, vomiting, and seizures. Hemiplegia may occur in both posterior fossa space-occupying lesions and venous sinus thrombosis, but Horner syndrome does not occur in either. A thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of neck pain and stroke syndrome in a young patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 60
Correct
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A 32-year-old man visits his doctor because he has been experiencing sweaty palms and his colleagues have noticed a change in his facial appearance. He also reports difficulty driving due to difficulty seeing the sides of his visual fields.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acromegaly
Explanation:Endocrine Disorders and Their Clinical Presentations
Acromegaly, Cushing’s syndrome, hyperprolactinaemia, hyperthyroidism, and multiple sclerosis are all endocrine disorders that can present with various clinical features. Acromegaly is caused by excess growth hormone secretion and can lead to enlarged hands, coarse facial features, and bitemporal hemianopia. Cushing’s syndrome may present with central obesity, muscle atrophy, and osteoporosis, but visual dysfunction is not typical. Hyperprolactinaemia can cause amenorrhoea or oligomenorrhoea, infertility, and galactorrhoea, but this presentation more closely fits with acromegaly. Hyperthyroidism may present with weight loss, tremor, and heat intolerance, but bitemporal hemianopia is not typical. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic inflammatory demyelination of the central nervous system and can present with various symptoms, but this patient’s presentation does not fit with features of multiple sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 61
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman with diagnosed irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is currently taking loperamide, movicol and hyoscine butylbromide (Buscopan) for management. However, she is still experiencing bloating and abdominal pain.
What would be the next treatment option from the list below?Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant (eg amitriptyline)
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common functional gastrointestinal disorder that affects 10-20% of the population, with women being more susceptible than men. It is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits without any specific organic pathology. Diagnosis is based on the presence of symptoms for at least 6 months, and physical examination and investigations are used to exclude other differential diagnoses.
Management of IBS involves psychological support and dietary measures, such as fibre supplementation, low FODMAP diets, increased water intake, and avoiding trigger foods. Pharmacological treatment is adjunctive and should be directed at symptoms. Antispasmodics, antidiarrhoeals, and antidepressants may have a positive effect on symptoms. However, the choice of medication should be based on the nature and severity of symptoms, with the option of single or combination medication determined by the predominant symptom(s).
It is important to note that certain medications, such as aspirin and NSAIDs, can worsen IBS symptoms, and laxatives like lactulose should be discouraged. Patients should be made aware of these potential risks and advised accordingly. Overall, a multidisciplinary approach involving healthcare professionals and patients is essential for the effective management of IBS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 62
Correct
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A 65-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a dense left-sided hemiparesis that has been ongoing for 10 hours. A CT scan of the head reveals a hypodense area in the right middle cerebral artery territory, and he is admitted to the hyper-acute stroke unit for further treatment. He is given 300mg of aspirin. While in the hospital, an ECG shows an irregularly irregular rhythm with no p waves. The patient inquires about ways to decrease the risk of future strokes. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Start anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) after 2 weeks
Explanation:Managing Atrial Fibrillation Post-Stroke
Atrial fibrillation is a significant risk factor for ischaemic stroke, making it crucial to identify and treat the condition in patients who have suffered a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA). However, before starting any anticoagulation or antiplatelet therapy, it is important to rule out haemorrhage. For long-term stroke prevention, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend warfarin or a direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor. The timing of when to start treatment depends on whether it is a TIA or stroke. In the case of a TIA, anticoagulation for AF should begin immediately after imaging has excluded haemorrhage. For acute stroke patients, anticoagulation therapy should be initiated after two weeks in the absence of haemorrhage. Antiplatelet therapy should be given during the intervening period. However, if imaging shows a very large cerebral infarction, the initiation of anticoagulation should be delayed.
Overall, managing atrial fibrillation post-stroke requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and imaging results. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent future strokes and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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Which of the following may be linked to a higher risk of venous thromboembolism?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Correct Answer: Behcet's syndrome
Explanation:Venous Thromboembolism: Common Risk Factors
Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While there are many factors that can increase the risk of VTE, some are more common than others. These include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation. Other general risk factors include advancing age, obesity, family history of VTE, immobility, hospitalization, anaesthesia, and the use of central venous catheters. Underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and antiphospholipid syndrome can also increase the risk of VTE. Additionally, certain medications like the combined oral contraceptive pill, hormone replacement therapy, raloxifene, tamoxifen, and antipsychotics have been shown to be risk factors.
It is important to note that while these factors can increase the risk of VTE, around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 64
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman presents to gastroenterology clinic with severe ulcerative colitis. Before starting azathioprine to improve her symptoms, what potential contraindications should be ruled out?
Your Answer: Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency (TPMT)
Explanation:Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 65
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after being hit on the side of his head by a cricket ball during a match. According to his teacher, he initially fell to the ground and complained of a sore head. However, he got up after two minutes, claimed to feel fine, and resumed playing. Unfortunately, after 30 minutes, he suddenly collapsed and lost consciousness. What kind of injury is he likely to have suffered?
Your Answer: Extradural haematoma
Explanation:Extradural (epidural) hematoma – Head injury with a lucid interval
Types of Traumatic Brain Injury
Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. Intra-cranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.
Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 66
Correct
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A 35-year-old HIV positive man comes to your travel clinic seeking advice on vaccinations for his upcoming trip. He is currently on antiretroviral therapy and his most recent CD4 count is 180 cells/mm³. He has no other medical conditions and is feeling well.
Which vaccines should be avoided in this individual?Your Answer: Tuberculosis (BCG)
Explanation:Patients who are HIV positive should not receive live attenuated vaccines like BCG. Additionally, immunocompromised individuals should avoid other live attenuated vaccines such as yellow fever, oral polio, intranasal influenza, varicella, and measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR). This information is sourced from uptodate.
Types of Vaccines and Their Characteristics
Vaccines are essential in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their characteristics to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Live attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to immunocompromised patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, including rabies and hepatitis A, are safe for everyone. Toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, use inactivated toxins to generate an immune response. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, such as pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus, use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins to make them more immunogenic. Influenza vaccines come in different types, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. Hepatitis B vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto aluminium hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology. Understanding the different types of vaccines and their characteristics is crucial in making informed decisions about vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 67
Correct
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A 42-year-old man with schizophrenia is brought to the clinic by one of his caregivers. He is currently taking clozapine and procyclidine. The caregiver reports that he seems more fatigued than usual and generally not feeling well. She also suspects that he may have gained weight. What is the most crucial examination to conduct?
Your Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:Monitoring FBC is crucial to detect agranulocytosis/neutropenia, a potentially fatal adverse reaction of clozapine. Additionally, patients taking this medication often experience weight gain.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 68
Correct
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Which of the following medications does not lead to galactorrhea?
Your Answer: Bromocriptine
Explanation:Bromocriptine is used to treat galactorrhoea, not to induce it.
Understanding Prolactin and Galactorrhoea
Prolactin is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is regulated by various physiological factors. Dopamine is the primary inhibitor of prolactin release, and dopamine agonists like bromocriptine can be used to manage galactorrhoea. Galactorrhoea is a condition characterized by the production of breast milk in individuals who are not breastfeeding. It is important to distinguish the causes of galactorrhoea from those of gynaecomastia, which is the enlargement of male breast tissue.
Excess prolactin can lead to different symptoms in men and women. Men may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhoea, while women may have amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Several factors can cause raised prolactin levels, including prolactinoma, pregnancy, oestrogens, stress, exercise, sleep, acromegaly, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and primary hypothyroidism. Additionally, certain medications like metoclopramide, domperidone, phenothiazines, haloperidol, SSRIs, and opioids can also increase prolactin levels.
In summary, understanding prolactin and its effects on the body is crucial in diagnosing and managing conditions like galactorrhoea. Identifying the underlying causes of raised prolactin levels is essential in providing appropriate treatment and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 69
Correct
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A 54-year-old man with a history of untreated hypertension had a heart attack and received coronary stenting. He was prescribed multiple medications and his blood test results showed:
Na+ 140 mmol/l
K+ 6.2 mmol/l
Which of the following antihypertensive drugs could be causing this result?Your Answer: Enalapril
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is caused by ACE inhibitor.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.
ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.
Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 70
Correct
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A 35-year-old man complains of pain in his left ear. He was using cotton buds to clean his ears earlier today and experienced a sharp pain during the process. He now has slightly reduced hearing in his left ear. The patient reports no discharge and is in good health otherwise.
All of the patient's vital signs are normal. Upon examination of the left ear, a small perforation in the tympanic membrane is observed. There is no discharge or redness in the ear, and the ear canal is dry. The cranial nerve examination is unremarkable.
What is the next best course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Reassure patient and review in 4 weeks
Explanation:If a patient has an uncomplicated tympanic membrane perforation that is dry, they can be managed with watchful waiting for a month without needing to see an ENT specialist. These perforations can occur due to various reasons such as blunt trauma, penetrating injuries, or barotrauma. Typically, the perforation will heal on its own within 4-8 weeks. However, patients should schedule a follow-up appointment after 4 weeks to ensure that the perforation is healing properly. If the patient experiences increasing ear pain, discharge, or worsening hearing loss, they should see their GP. During the examination, the patient should undergo a full examination, including otoscopy, cranial nerve examination, and Rinne/Weber tests. If there are any cranial nerve deficits, the patient should discuss them with an ENT specialist. Patients should keep their ears clean and dry, and topical antibiotics are not recommended for clean, dry perforations. If there are any signs of infection or contamination, topical antibiotics may be given. In cases where the patient has more complex issues such as temporal bone fractures or slowly healing perforations, they may need to be reviewed by an ENT specialist in an emergency clinic. If the perforation does not heal, surgical intervention may be necessary.
Perforated Tympanic Membrane: Causes and Management
A perforated tympanic membrane, also known as a ruptured eardrum, is a condition where there is a tear or hole in the thin tissue that separates the ear canal from the middle ear. The most common cause of this condition is an infection, but it can also be caused by barotrauma or direct trauma. When left untreated, a perforated tympanic membrane can lead to hearing loss and increase the risk of otitis media.
In most cases, no treatment is needed as the tympanic membrane will usually heal on its own within 6-8 weeks. During this time, it is important to avoid getting water in the ear. However, if the perforation occurs following an episode of acute otitis media, antibiotics may be prescribed. This approach is supported by the 2008 Respiratory tract infection guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).
If the tympanic membrane does not heal by itself, myringoplasty may be performed. This is a surgical procedure where a graft is used to repair the hole in the eardrum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 71
Correct
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A 30-year-old presents to the emergency department following an altercation. He reports being involved in a physical altercation while under the influence of alcohol at a bar. His recollection of the event is unclear, but he recalls being hit in the face and bitten on his hand. Upon examination, there is significant bruising around the left eye and a bite wound on the outer aspect of the left hand. What antibiotic should be administered for the bite?
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:When it comes to treating human bites, it is recommended to use co-amoxiclav, which is also used for treating animal bites. This medication is effective in targeting the primary organisms that are commonly associated with human bites, such as Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Eikenella, Corynebacterium, and other anaerobes. It is important to note that even if there are no visible signs of infection, antibiotics should still be prescribed.
Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management
Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.
To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.
In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 72
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding croup is true?
Your Answer: Most commonly caused by parainfluenza viruses
Explanation:The majority of croup cases are caused by parainfluenza virus, and it is recommended to avoid throat examination as it may lead to airway obstruction.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 73
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of pain in his left eye. Upon examination, the sclera appears red and the cornea is hazy with a dilated pupil. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma
Explanation:Should red eye be attributed to glaucoma or uveitis?
Glaucoma is characterized by intense pain, haloes, and a partially dilated pupil, while uveitis is indicated by a small, fixed oval pupil and ciliary flush.Understanding the Causes of Red Eye
Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:
Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.
Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.
Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.
Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.
Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.
Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.
By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 74
Correct
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A 27-year-old man presents to the Genitourinary Medicine Clinic with an 8-day history of dysuria and creamy urethral discharge. He has never had urethral discharge before and is very concerned. His past medical history includes childhood asthma and he is otherwise well with no allergies. During the consultation, he discloses that he had unprotected sexual intercourse two weeks ago.
On examination, his observations are within normal limits. His abdomen is soft and nontender with no palpable lymphadenopathy. There are no visible rashes. High urethral swabs are taken which show the presence of Gram-negative diplococci.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Ceftriaxone
Explanation:Common Antibiotics Used in the Treatment of Sexually Transmitted Infections
Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a common health concern worldwide. Antibiotics are often used in the treatment of STIs, but the choice of antibiotic depends on the specific infection. Here are some common antibiotics used in the treatment of STIs:
Ceftriaxone: This antibiotic is used to treat gonorrhoea, a sexually transmitted disease caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Symptoms include urethral or vaginal discharge and dysuria. The current British Society for Sexual Health and HIV guidelines recommend a single dose of intramuscular ceftriaxone for the treatment of gonorrhoea.
Azithromycin: This antibiotic is used to treat chlamydia, the most common sexually transmitted disease. Chlamydia may be asymptomatic or cause symptoms such as mucoid or mucopurulent urethral discharge and dysuria.
Benzylpenicillin: This antibiotic is used to treat syphilis, a sexually transmitted infection caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum. The disease has three stages of infection – primary, secondary and tertiary.
Doxycycline: This antibiotic is also used to treat chlamydia or syphilis, but it is not used in the treatment of gonorrhoea.
Metronidazole: This antibiotic is used to treat bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis. Neither infection is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have an STI, as early diagnosis and treatment can prevent complications and transmission to others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 75
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She is currently 28 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications thus far. During her booking appointment, her blood pressure was 112/78 mmHg, but today it has increased to 146/94 mmHg. Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, the following results were obtained:
Protein negative
Leucocytes negative
Blood negative
What is the most suitable characterization of her situation?Your Answer: Gestational hypertension
Explanation:Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 76
Correct
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In the UK, which malignancy is most frequently diagnosed in women?
Your Answer: Breast cancer
Explanation:Most Common Cancers in Women in the UK
Breast cancer is the most frequently diagnosed cancer in women in the UK, with approximately 54,800 cases in 2014. Lung cancer follows as the second most common cancer in women, with around 21,600 cases diagnosed in the same year. Bowel cancer ranks third, with approximately 18,400 cases diagnosed in 2014. Uterine cancer is the fourth most common cancer in women, with around 9,300 cases diagnosed. Leukaemia is the eleventh most common cancer in women, with approximately 3,800 cases diagnosed in 2014. These statistics are according to Cancer Research UK.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 77
Correct
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A middle-aged man presents with a round, slowly enlarging erythema on his thigh. He also complains of joint discomfort and fatigue. Lyme disease is suspected.
Which of the following is the most appropriate laboratory test to confirm this diagnosis?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate laboratory test from the list below.Your Answer: Anti-Borrelia burgdorferi titre
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Lyme Disease: Understanding the Results
Lyme disease is a common illness caused by the spirochaete B. burgdorferi, transmitted to humans via tick bites. Serologic testing is the most frequently used diagnostic tool, but false positives and negatives are common. The enzyme immunoassay (EIA) or enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) is the first step, followed by a western blot if necessary. However, serologic results cannot distinguish active from inactive disease. Antinuclear antibodies and rheumatoid factor test results are negative in B. burgdorferi infection. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is usually elevated but is not specific to detect infection. Culture of joint fluids can rule out gout and pseudogout, but detection of B. burgdorferi DNA in synovial fluid is not reliable. Blood cultures are impractical. Understanding the limitations of these tests is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of Lyme disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 78
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Endocrinology Clinic with bruising, striae, acne and hirsutism.
On examination, the patient appears lethargic and depressed, with centripetal obesity and demonstrable proximal myopathy. Her blood pressure is 165/106 mmHg
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal values
Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 2.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Random glucose 8.2 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
A low-dose dexamethasone test and a 24-hour urinary cortisol test are ordered.
Which of the following is the most common cause of Cushing syndrome?Your Answer: Iatrogenic
Explanation:Understanding the Different Causes of Cushing Syndrome
Cushing syndrome is a condition that occurs when the body is exposed to high levels of cortisol for an extended period. There are several different causes of Cushing syndrome, including iatrogenic, pituitary-dependent, ectopic ACTH secretion, primary adrenal disorder, and pseudo-Cushing’s syndrome.
The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is iatrogenic, which is related to the use of corticosteroid medication. This risk is higher in people who take oral corticosteroids, but it can also affect those who misuse inhaled or topical corticosteroids.
Pituitary-dependent Cushing’s disease is a much rarer cause of Cushing syndrome that arises from a pituitary tumour. Ectopic ACTH secretion is a very rare cause of Cushing syndrome that arises due to ACTH secretion from a carcinoid tumour.
Primary adrenal disorder is an unusual cause of Cushing syndrome that arises from primary hypercortisolism. Finally, pseudo-Cushing’s syndrome describes hypercortisolism arising as a result of a separate condition, such as malnutrition or chronic alcoholism, resulting in the same phenotype and biochemical abnormalities of Cushing syndrome.
Understanding the different causes of Cushing syndrome is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 79
Correct
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A 62-year-old non-smoker with no significant medical history presents to their GP with a cough producing green sputum, fatigue, and shortness of breath that has lasted for several days. During chest examination, coarse crackles are heard in the lower right zone. The patient's observations are as follows: respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation of 97% on air, heart rate of 80 beats per minute, blood pressure of 110/75 mmHg, temperature of 38.1ºC, and an abbreviated mental test score of 10/10. The patient is not on any regular medication and has no allergies. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Discharge with oral amoxicillin
Explanation:The recommended first-line antibiotic for patients with low severity community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is oral amoxicillin. Therefore, it is appropriate to discharge this patient with oral amoxicillin as they present with symptoms of CAP, including a new cough, temperature, purulent sputum, and focal chest signs. While a chest x-ray could confirm the diagnosis, it is not usually necessary for suspected CAP managed in primary care. The patient’s CRB-65 score is 0, indicating that they can be managed in the community. Hospitalization may be required for patients with higher scores or clinical factors that increase the risk of complications, but this is not the case for this patient. Discharge with oral clarithromycin or doxycycline is not appropriate as there is no indication that amoxicillin is unsuitable as the first-line antibiotic.
Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. The use of a point-of-care CRP test can help guide antibiotic therapy. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Treatment for low-severity community acquired pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate and high-severity cases may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution timeframes and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 80
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to surgery by his father who has noticed a number of small 'spots' and 'bruises' on his legs that have developed over the past 2-3 days. He initially thought this was due to an allergy but it has not gone away. His son is described as being well apart from a cough he's had for the past 2 weeks.
On examination, he is apyrexial with a heart rate of 98/min. Examination of his ears, throat and chest is normal. There is no neck stiffness or abdominal masses. A number of petechiae are seen around his chest area as well as purpura on his lower legs and arms.
What is the most appropriate action?Your Answer: Admit immediately to paediatrics
Explanation:If a child develops purpura suddenly, it is crucial to refer them for urgent investigations to rule out meningococcal disease and ALL. Although petechiae may occur in viral infections or due to increased pressure in the superior vena cava, purpura is never a normal finding in children. Therefore, immediate admission is necessary to exclude any serious underlying condition. In case of suspicion of meningococcal septicaemia, antibiotics should be administered parenterally without delaying transfer.
Understanding Purpura: Causes and Symptoms
Purpura is a medical condition characterized by bleeding into the skin from small blood vessels, resulting in a non-blanching rash. It is often caused by low platelets, but it can also be associated with bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease. In addition to the rash, smaller petechiae may also be present, which are tiny red or purple spots on the skin.
It is crucial to recognize purpura as it can indicate the presence of serious underlying diseases. In children, a new purpuric rash should be treated as an emergency and investigated immediately, as it may be a sign of meningococcal septicaemia or acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. If meningococcal septicaemia is suspected, parenteral antibiotics should be given before transfer.
The causes of purpura can vary depending on the age group. In children, it can be caused by meningococcal septicaemia, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, congenital bleeding disorders, immune thrombocytopenic purpura, Henoch-Schonlein purpura, or non-accidental injury. In adults, it can be caused by immune thrombocytopenic purpura, bone marrow failure (secondary to leukaemias, myelodysplasia, or bone metastases), senile purpura, drugs (quinine, antiepileptics, antithrombotics), or nutritional deficiencies (vitamins B12, C, and folate).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 81
Correct
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An 80-year-old man has been experiencing recurrent falls due to orthostatic hypotension. Despite trying conservative measures such as increasing fluid and salt intake, reviewing medications, and wearing compression stockings, he still experiences dizziness upon standing. What medication options are available to alleviate his symptoms?
Your Answer: Fludrocortisone
Explanation:Fludrocortisone and midodrine are two medications that can be used to treat orthostatic hypotension. However, doxazosin, a medication used for hypertension, can actually worsen orthostatic hypotension. Prochlorperazine is used for vertigo and isoprenaline and dobutamine are not used for orthostatic hypotension as they are ionotropic agents used for patients in shock.
Fludrocortisone works by increasing renal sodium reabsorption and plasma volume, which helps counteract the physiological orthostatic vasovagal reflex. Its effectiveness has been supported by two small observational studies and one small double-blind trial, leading the European Society of Cardiology to give it a Class IIa recommendation.
To manage orthostatic hypotension, patients should be educated on lifestyle measures such as staying hydrated and increasing salt intake. Vasoactive drugs like nitrates, antihypertensives, neuroleptic agents, or dopaminergic drugs should be discontinued if possible. If symptoms persist, compression garments, fludrocortisone, midodrine, counter-pressure manoeuvres, and head-up tilt sleeping can be considered.
Understanding Syncope: Causes and Evaluation
Syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness caused by a sudden decrease in blood flow to the brain. This condition is characterized by a rapid onset, short duration, and complete recovery without any medical intervention. It is important to note that syncope is different from other causes of collapse, such as epilepsy. To better understand syncope, the European Society of Cardiology has classified it into three categories: reflex syncope, orthostatic syncope, and cardiac syncope.
Reflex syncope, also known as neurally mediated syncope, is the most common cause of syncope in all age groups. It can be triggered by emotional stress, pain, or other situational factors such as coughing or gastrointestinal issues. Orthostatic syncope occurs when there is a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing up, and it is more common in older patients. Cardiac syncope is caused by heart-related issues such as arrhythmias, structural abnormalities, or pulmonary embolism.
To evaluate syncope, doctors may perform a series of tests, including a cardiovascular examination, postural blood pressure readings, ECG, carotid sinus massage, tilt table test, and 24-hour ECG monitoring. These tests help to identify the underlying cause of syncope and determine the appropriate treatment plan. By understanding the causes and evaluation of syncope, patients and healthcare providers can work together to manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 82
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?
Your Answer: Rabies
Correct Answer: Mumps
Explanation:Live attenuated vaccines include BCG, MMR, oral polio, yellow fever, and oral typhoid.
Types of Vaccines and Their Characteristics
Vaccines are essential in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their characteristics to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Live attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to immunocompromised patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, including rabies and hepatitis A, are safe for everyone. Toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, use inactivated toxins to generate an immune response. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, such as pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus, use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins to make them more immunogenic. Influenza vaccines come in different types, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. Hepatitis B vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto aluminium hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology. Understanding the different types of vaccines and their characteristics is crucial in making informed decisions about vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 83
Correct
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An 80-year-old male presents to the low-risk chest pain clinic with intermittent substernal chest pains. The pain typically comes on with exertion and improves with rest. A trial of GTN has been given by his GP which helps with his pain. He is a known ex-smoker of 35 pack-years. He has no diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, hypertension, and no family history of coronary artery disease.
During examination, his observations are stable. On auscultations of his chest, his first and second heart sounds are audible with no added sounds and his lungs are clear.
What investigation should be prioritized given his risk for coronary artery disease?Your Answer: Contrast-enhanced coronary CT angiography
Explanation:The preferred initial diagnostic test for individuals with stable chest pain suspected to be caused by coronary artery disease is a CT coronary angiogram with contrast enhancement.
Assessment of Patients with Suspected Cardiac Chest Pain
When it comes to assessing patients with suspected cardiac chest pain, NICE has updated its guidelines in 2016. For patients presenting with acute chest pain, immediate management of suspected acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is crucial. This includes administering glyceryl trinitrate and aspirin 300 mg, but not other antiplatelet agents like Clopidogrel outside of the hospital. Oxygen therapy should not be routinely given, but only if sats are less than 94%. Referral depends on the timing of chest pain and ECG results. For patients presenting with stable chest pain, NICE defines anginal pain as constricting discomfort in the front of the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms, precipitated by physical exertion, and relieved by rest or GTN in about 5 minutes. Non-invasive functional imaging is recommended for patients in whom stable angina cannot be excluded by clinical assessment alone. Examples of non-invasive functional imaging include myocardial perfusion scintigraphy with single photon emission computed tomography (MPS with SPECT), stress echocardiography, first-pass contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance (MR) perfusion, or MR imaging for stress-induced wall motion abnormalities.
In summary, assessing patients with suspected cardiac chest pain requires immediate management for acute chest pain and referral based on timing and ECG results. For stable chest pain, NICE defines anginal pain and recommends non-invasive functional imaging for patients in whom stable angina cannot be excluded by clinical assessment alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 84
Correct
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A 45-year-old man with a chronic history of back pain visits his GP with complaints of left eye pain and sensitivity to light. Upon examination, the pupil appears small and oval-shaped, accompanied by ciliary congestion. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:It is possible that his chronic back pain is related to HLA-B27, which is often associated with anterior uveitis. As for his red eye, it could be indicative of either glaucoma or uveitis. Glaucoma typically presents with severe pain, haloes, and a semi-dilated pupil, while uveitis is characterized by a small, fixed oval pupil and ciliary flush.
Understanding the Causes of Red Eye
Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:
Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.
Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.
Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.
Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.
Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.
Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.
By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 85
Correct
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A 50-year-old obese man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents at the clinic for a review. He is currently asymptomatic but his recent annual blood tests have shown slightly abnormal liver function tests. The results are as follows:
- Bilirubin: 20 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP: 104 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT: 53 u/L (3 - 40)
- γGT: 58 u/L (8 - 60)
- Albumin: 38 g/L (35 - 50)
A liver ultrasound was conducted and reported fatty changes. All other standard liver screen bloods, including viral serology, are normal. The patient's alcoholic intake is within recommended limits. What is the most appropriate next test to perform?Your Answer: Enhanced liver fibrosis blood test
Explanation:For patients with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease who exhibit characteristics such as obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus, it is recommended to conduct an enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) test to aid in the diagnosis of liver fibrosis. According to NICE guidelines, if NAFLD is discovered incidentally, an ELF blood test should be conducted to evaluate for the presence of more advanced liver disease.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 86
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman had a recent acute myocardial infarction (MI).
Which medication has been proven to reduce mortality after an MI?Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Medications for Post-Myocardial Infarction Patients
Post-myocardial infarction (MI) patients require specific medications to prevent further cardiovascular disease and improve their overall health. One of the most important drugs to offer is a beta-blocker, such as bisoprolol, as soon as the patient is stable. This medication should be continued for at least 12 months after an MI in patients without left ventricular systolic dysfunction or heart failure, and indefinitely in those with left ventricular systolic dysfunction. While beta-blockers can reduce mortality and morbidity for up to a year after an MI, recent studies suggest that continuing treatment beyond a year may not provide any additional benefits. Other medications, such as amiodarone, isosorbide mononitrate, and nicorandil, offer symptom relief but do not reduce mortality or morbidity. Calcium-channel blockers, like diltiazem, may be considered for secondary prevention in patients without pulmonary congestion or left ventricular systolic dysfunction if beta-blockers are contraindicated or discontinued. However, current guidelines recommend offering all post-MI patients an ACE inhibitor, dual antiplatelet therapy, beta-blocker, and statin to improve their long-term health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 87
Incorrect
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You are urgently called to the ward where you encounter a 54-year-old woman in ventricular tachycardia. The patient had a syncopal episode while walking to the restroom with nursing staff and currently has a blood pressure (BP) of 85/56 mmHg. Although she is oriented to time, place, and person, she is experiencing dizziness. What is the most suitable approach to managing this patient's ventricular tachycardia?
Your Answer: Unsynchronised DC cardioversion
Correct Answer: Synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ventricular Tachycardia
Ventricular tachycardia is a serious cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt treatment. The Resuscitation Council tachycardia guideline recommends immediate synchronised electrical cardioversion for unstable patients with ventricular tachycardia who exhibit adverse features such as shock, myocardial ischaemia, syncope, or heart failure. Synchronised cardioversion is preferred over unsynchronised cardioversion as it reduces the risk of causing ventricular fibrillation or cardiac arrest.
In the event that synchronised cardioversion fails to restore sinus rhythm after three attempts, a loading dose of amiodarone 300 mg IV should be given over 10-20 minutes, followed by another attempt of cardioversion. However, in an uncompromised patient with tachycardia and no adverse features, the first-line treatment involves amiodarone 300 mg as a loading dose IV, followed by an infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours.
It is important to note that digoxin and metoprolol are not appropriate treatments for ventricular tachycardia. Digoxin is used in the treatment of atrial fibrillation, while metoprolol is a β blocker that should be avoided in patients with significant hypotension, as it can further compromise the patient’s condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old G3P0+2 woman comes for a routine antenatal check at 14 weeks gestation to her general practitioner. She has a medical history of treatment-resistant schizophrenia, epilepsy, hypertension, antiphospholipid syndrome, and dyslipidemia. Her current medications include lamotrigine, labetalol, atorvastatin, low molecular weight heparin, and clozapine. Additionally, she has started taking nitrofurantoin for a urinary tract infection. What medication should be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin
Explanation:Statin therapy is not recommended during pregnancy
The correct statement is that all statins, including atorvastatin, are not recommended during pregnancy due to potential risks to the developing fetus. While there is no conclusive evidence of teratogenicity, there have been reports of adverse outcomes such as intrauterine growth restriction and fetal demise in women taking statins during the first trimester. Lipophilic statins like atorvastatin can cross the placenta and reach similar concentrations in both the mother and fetus.
Clozapine is not a contraindication during pregnancy, as it is an atypical antipsychotic used to treat schizophrenia that is unresponsive to other medications. While caution is advised when using clozapine during pregnancy, it is not considered a contraindication.
Lamotrigine is also not contraindicated during pregnancy, as it is generally considered safe for use in pregnant women. Unlike many other antiepileptic drugs, lamotrigine has not been associated with an increased risk of congenital malformations.
Low-molecular-weight-heparin is also not contraindicated during pregnancy, and is often prescribed for women with antiphospholipid syndrome to prevent blood clots. This medication does not cross the placenta and is considered safe for use during pregnancy.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.
Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A young adult woman complains that her mother interferes in every aspect of her life and tries to control her. The woman no longer speaks to her parents or eats meals with them. The mother has increased her efforts to maintain control.
Which of the following conditions could arise from this situation?Your Answer: Narcissistic personality disorder
Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Psychological Disorders and Family Dynamics
Family dynamics can play a role in the development of certain psychological disorders. Anorexia nervosa, for example, may be linked to attempts to regain control and self-esteem through food restriction and weight loss. Dissociative identity disorder, on the other hand, is associated with severe childhood trauma, particularly sexual abuse. Narcissistic personality disorder is characterised by exaggerated feelings of self-importance and a strong need for approval from others. Schizophrenia may be influenced by highly expressed emotions within the family. Separation anxiety disorder, however, does not seem to be present in the given vignette. Understanding the relationship between family dynamics and psychological disorders can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 90
Correct
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A 45-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent has been diagnosed with hypertension after ruling out secondary causes. What is the best initial medication for treatment?
Your Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:For black African or African-Caribbean patients newly diagnosed with hypertension, a calcium channel blocker should be added as first-line treatment instead of ACE inhibitors, which have shown lower effectiveness in this population.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 91
Correct
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A 30-year-old man is diagnosed with Addison’s disease.
What should be prescribed in combination with hydrocortisone to benefit him?Your Answer: Fludrocortisone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Addison’s Disease
Addison’s disease is a condition in which the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones. To manage this condition, patients are typically given replacement therapy with both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid medications. Fludrocortisone is a common mineralocorticoid medication used in this treatment. However, dexamethasone, aspirin, and both types of contraceptive pills have no role in the treatment of Addison’s disease. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old student presents with four days of right otalgia, discharge and reduced hearing. There is no significant past medical history, and she is systemically well. She never had any similar symptoms before.
On examination, there is an inflamed auditory canal and a small amount of debris, the tympanic membrane appears to be normal.
What is the best initial management for this patient?Your Answer: Start oral amoxicillin
Correct Answer: Start topical antibiotic and steroid
Explanation:Management of Otitis Externa: Recommended Actions and Guidelines
Otitis externa is a common condition that affects the outer ear canal. The management of this condition depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Here are some recommended actions and guidelines for managing otitis externa:
1. Start topical antibiotic and steroid: This is recommended for patients with acute otitis externa who present with more severe inflammation. The treatment should last for seven days.
2. Start topical acetic acid 2% spray: This is recommended for patients with mild otitis externa who do not have hearing loss or discharge.
3. Refer to ENT urgently: This is not part of initial management but should be considered for patients with chronic diffuse otitis externa when treatment is prolonged beyond two to three months.
4. Start oral amoxicillin: Oral antibiotics are rarely indicated for otitis externa. They should only be considered for patients with severe infection or at high risk of severe infection.
5. Take an ear swab and start topical antibiotic: Ear swab is not recommended as first-line management. It should only be done if there is no response to initial treatment or in recurrent infections.
In summary, the management of otitis externa depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Following these recommended actions and guidelines can help improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 93
Correct
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A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner having been feeling unwell for a few days with a persistent cough.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 130 g/l 120–160 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 18 × 109/l 4.5–11.0 × 109/l
Neutrophils 12 × 109/l 2.0–7.5 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 450 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
A blood film shows atypical lymphocytes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute bacterial infection
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Abnormal Full Blood Count Results
When a patient presents with abnormal full blood count (FBC) results, it is important to consider a range of potential diagnoses. In this case, the patient has neutrophilia and atypical lymphocytes, indicating an acute bacterial infection. Other potential diagnoses, such as chronic myeloid leukaemia, tuberculosis, cytomegalovirus infection, and pregnancy, can be ruled out based on the absence of key symptoms and blood film findings. Clinical prediction scores can be used to aid in antibiotic stewardship. It is important to consider all potential diagnoses and conduct further testing as needed to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male presents with progressive weakness and fatigue over the past year. He reports difficulty achieving and maintaining an erection with his new partner, which is a new symptom for him. Laboratory tests reveal elevated ferritin levels. The patient is started on a treatment plan that involves regular phlebotomies.
What is the most effective way to monitor the patient's response to treatment?Your Answer: Ferritin and serum transferrin
Correct Answer: Ferritin and transferrin saturation
Explanation:To monitor treatment in haemochromatosis, the most effective combination of iron tests is ferritin and transferrin saturation. These tests can track the response to treatment by measuring total iron stores and the amount of serum iron bound to proteins in the blood. However, serum transferrin and serum iron are not reliable indicators of treatment response as they fluctuate throughout the day and are affected by diet and phlebotomies. Therefore, using ferritin and serum transferrin or serum iron would not be the most useful combination for monitoring haemochromatosis. Similarly, using serum iron and serum transferrin together would not provide any insight into treatment monitoring. The most appropriate and effective combination is ferritin and transferrin saturation.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy with Perl’s stain. A typical iron study profile in a patient with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC.
The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis. It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 95
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of chest pain that occurs during physical activity and is relieved with rest. She has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and asthma, drinks 8 units of alcohol per week, and has never smoked. Her vital signs are within normal limits and an ECG shows sinus rhythm. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for preventing future episodes, considering the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:To prevent angina attacks, the first-line treatment is either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker. If a person experiences chest pain that feels like squeezing during physical activity but goes away with rest, it is likely stable angina. Having high cholesterol levels increases the risk of developing this condition. A normal electrocardiogram (ECG) indicates that there is no ongoing heart attack.
Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 96
Correct
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You have just received a 70-year-old man into the resuscitation room who had a witnessed collapse after complaining of chest pain. There was no pulse, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) was performed at the scene. CPR is ongoing upon patient arrival in the Emergency Department. Pulse check demonstrates no palpable central pulse, and there is no respiratory effort. A 3-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrates no coordinated electrical activity or recognisable complexes, looking very much like a wandering flat line.
What is the most appropriate management of this patient?Your Answer: 1 mg of adrenaline 1 : 10 000 intravenously (IV), and continue CPR
Explanation:Managing Cardiac Arrest: Correct and Incorrect Approaches
When dealing with a patient in cardiac arrest, it is crucial to follow the correct management protocol. In the case of a patient in asystole, CPR 30:2 (compressions: ventilations) should be initiated, along with 1 mg of adrenaline 10 ml of 1:10 000 IV every other cycle of CPR. Direct current (DC) shock is not indicated for asystole. Adrenaline 1:1000 IM is not appropriate for cardiac arrest situations, as it is used in anaphylaxis. External pacing is unlikely to be successful in the absence of P-wave asystole. Atropine is indicated in severe bradycardia, not asystole. It is essential to follow the correct approach to manage cardiac arrest effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 97
Correct
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You are assessing a 55-year-old man who has been admitted with pneumonia. His medical history indicates that he consumes approximately 70-80 units of alcohol per week. Which medication would be the most suitable to administer to prevent the onset of alcohol withdrawal symptoms?
Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 98
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman collapses during a hypertension clinic. She is not breathing and a carotid pulse cannot be felt. What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to ventilation?
Your Answer: 30:02:00
Explanation:The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 99
Correct
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A 50-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of malaise, yellowing sclera, and increasing abdominal girth. He admits to drinking 80 cl of whisky daily and has had several unsuccessful attempts at community detoxification. The patient has a medical history of liver cirrhosis. During the examination, a significantly distended abdomen with a shifting dullness and an enlarged mass in the right upper quadrant are observed.
What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for this patient?Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:For patients with ascites caused by liver cirrhosis, it is recommended to prescribe an aldosterone antagonist, such as spironolactone, as the preferred diuretic to combat sodium retention. A low-salt diet should also be implemented. While furosemide can be useful in combination with spironolactone, it is not effective in blocking aldosterone and should not be used as a single agent. Nephrotoxic medications, including naproxen, should be avoided. ACE inhibitors, like ramipril, can induce renal failure and should be used with caution and careful monitoring of blood pressure and renal function. Restricting high sodium concentration fluids will not be beneficial, but a low sodium diet is recommended to prevent water retention.
Understanding Ascites: Causes and Management
Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal fluid in the abdomen. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. A SAAG level greater than 11g/L indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. On the other hand, a SAAG level less than 11g/L is caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, infections, and other factors such as bowel obstruction and biliary ascites.
The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and fluid restriction, especially if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone and loop diuretics are often prescribed to patients. In some cases, drainage through therapeutic abdominal paracentesis is necessary. Large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of paracentesis-induced circulatory dysfunction and mortality. Prophylactic antibiotics are also recommended to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In severe cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.
Understanding the causes and management of ascites is crucial in providing appropriate medical care to patients. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help alleviate symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 100
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic heart disease is urgently admitted with a fever, worsening shortness of breath, and a note from her primary care physician confirming the presence of a new heart murmur. During the examination, a harsh pansystolic murmur and early diastolic murmur are detected, and she has a temperature of 38.5 °C with fine basal crepitations in both lungs. Which one of the following should take immediate priority?
Your Answer: Administration of intravenous (IV) antibiotics
Explanation:Prioritizing Interventions in Suspected Infective Endocarditis
When a patient presents with suspected infective endocarditis, prompt intervention is crucial to limit valve destruction and prevent potentially life-threatening complications. The following interventions should be considered, prioritized, and administered as soon as possible:
Administration of intravenous (IV) antibiotics: Empirical treatment with gentamicin and benzylpenicillin may be initiated until microbiological advice suggests an alternative. Antibiotic delivery should take priority over other interventions.
Administration of paracetamol: Fever is a common symptom of infective endocarditis, and paracetamol can provide symptomatic relief. However, it should not take priority over antibiotic delivery.
Echocardiogram (ECHO): An ECHO is an important diagnostic tool for identifying infective endocarditis and detecting complications such as cardiac abscess and pseudoaneurysms. While it should be performed in all suspected cases, it does not take priority over antibiotic administration.
Electrocardiogram (ECG): An ECG can provide additional diagnostic information, including signs of paravalvular extension of infection and emboli in the coronary circulation. It should be part of the initial workup but does not take priority over antibiotic administration.
Throat swab: While a throat swab may be useful in identifying the causative organism of infective endocarditis, it should not take precedence over commencing antibiotics. Careful examination of the patient’s dentition is also crucial to evaluate for a possible infectious source.
In summary, when managing suspected infective endocarditis, prompt administration of IV antibiotics should take priority over other interventions. Other diagnostic and therapeutic interventions should be considered and prioritized based on the individual patient’s clinical presentation and needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 101
Correct
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You assess a 27-year-old female patient with a medical history of asthma. She is currently taking salbutamol 100 mcg 2 puffs as needed. However, she stopped taking her beclometasone dipropionate 400 mcg twice daily and salmeterol 50 mcg twice daily inhalers last week after discovering her pregnancy. She was worried about the potential harm to her unborn child. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Reassure + restart beclometasone and salmeterol inhalers
Explanation:The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old African American woman who is 28 weeks pregnant undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) due to her ethnicity and a history of being overweight. An ultrasound reveals that the fetus is measuring larger than expected for its gestational age. The results of the OGTT are as follows:
Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
0 9.5
2 15.0
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Start metformin
Correct Answer: Start insulin
Explanation:Immediate initiation of insulin is recommended due to the high blood glucose levels and presence of macrosomia. Additionally, it is advisable to consider administering aspirin as there is an elevated risk of pre-eclampsia.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of hot flashes that occur randomly and are affecting her work as a lawyer, especially during court sessions. She is hesitant to try hormone replacement therapy due to its side effects and is seeking alternative options. What medication can be prescribed to alleviate her symptoms?
Your Answer: Pregabalin
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, women experiencing vasomotor symptoms during menopause can be prescribed fluoxetine, a selective serotonin uptake inhibitor (SSRI). While clonidine is also approved for treating these symptoms, its effectiveness is not well-established and it can cause side effects such as dry mouth, sedation, depression, and fluid retention. Gabapentin is being studied for its potential to reduce hot flushes, but more research is needed.
Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, Hormone Replacement Therapy, and Non-Hormone Replacement Therapy
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 consecutive months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for up to 7 years, with varying degrees of severity and duration. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.
Lifestyle modifications can help manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended. For women who cannot or do not want to take HRT, non-hormonal treatments such as fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturizers for vaginal dryness, and cognitive behavior therapy or antidepressants for psychological symptoms can be prescribed.
HRT is a treatment option for women with moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. However, it is contraindicated in women with current or past breast cancer, any estrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia. HRT brings certain risks, including venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. Women should be advised of these risks and the fact that symptoms typically last for 2-5 years.
When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence of symptoms in the short term. However, in the long term, there is no difference in symptom control. Women who experience ineffective treatment, ongoing side effects, or unexplained bleeding should be referred to secondary care. Overall, managing menopause requires a personalized approach that takes into account a woman’s medical history, preferences, and individual symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 104
Correct
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You see a 4-year-old child in surgery with his mother. He has been diagnosed with molluscum contagiosum and she is keen to have him treated.
Which of the following statements about molluscum contagiosum is true?Your Answer: The condition resolves spontaneously
Explanation:Molluscum Contagiosum: Myths and Facts
Molluscum contagiosum is a common skin infection caused by a poxvirus. However, there are several myths surrounding this condition that need to be debunked. Firstly, it is not true that the condition resolves spontaneously. While most cases do clear up on their own within 6-9 months, some can last up to 4 years. Secondly, molluscum contagiosum is highly infectious and can be transmitted through contact with infected persons or objects, including swimming pools. Sexual transmission is also possible.
Another myth is that patients can treat themselves by squeezing the spots. This is not recommended as it can lead to scarring. Additionally, molluscum contagiosum is not limited to children. While it does present mainly in young children, there is also a later peak in young adults, some of which is attributable to sexual transmission.
Finally, piercing the lesions with an orange stick dipped in phenol is not the treatment of choice. In fact, the condition usually requires no treatment and resolves on its own. Treatment may be recommended for adults or older children with particularly unsightly spots or in the immunosuppressed, where it can take several years to resolve. Topical applications such as benzyl peroxide or potassium hydroxide, as well as curettage and cryotherapy, can be used to treat the condition.
In conclusion, it is important to separate fact from fiction when it comes to molluscum contagiosum. While it is a common and often harmless condition, it is important to seek medical advice if you have concerns or if the spots are causing discomfort or affecting your quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy presents to the operating room with a fever and a developing purplish rash. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: IM benzylpenicillin 900mg
Correct Answer: IM benzylpenicillin 600mg
Explanation:The RCGP has previously provided feedback that doctors are required to have knowledge of emergency medication dosages, with a specific emphasis on suspected cases of meningococcal septicaemia.
Paediatric Drug Doses for Emergency Situations
When it comes to prescribing drugs for children in emergency situations, it is important to consult the current British National Formulary (BNF) beforehand. However, as a guide, the following doses can be used for intramuscular (IM) benzylpenicillin in suspected cases of meningococcal septicaemia in the community. For children under one year old, the dose is 300 mg. For children between one and ten years old, the dose is 600mg. For children over ten years old, the dose is 1200mg. It is important to note that these doses are only a guide and should be adjusted based on the individual child’s weight and medical history. Always consult with a healthcare professional before administering any medication to a child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant attends the antenatal clinic. She had an OGTT at her booking visit due to a family history of type II diabetes mellitus.
The results at the 14-week booking were:
Fasting glucose 6.2 mmol/L Normal <5.6 mmol/L
2-hour post glucose challenge 9.5 mmol/L Normal <7.8mmol/L
A decision is made to start metformin 500mg twice daily and she is provided with information leaflets regarding diet and lifestyle modification.
On review today at 20 weeks gestation her repeat OGTT results are as follows:
Fasting glucose 6.1 mmol/L Normal <5.3 mmol/L
2-hour post glucose challenge 7.5 mmol/L Normal <6.4 mmol/L
What is the next most appropriate action for managing her blood glucose levels?Your Answer: Increase metformin to 1g twice daily
Correct Answer: Add insulin
Explanation:If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be introduced.
The patient in this case was diagnosed with gestational diabetes during their initial appointment. Despite attempting metformin, their fasting and two-hour post glucose challenge blood glucose levels remain elevated above the normal range. Therefore, insulin should be added to their treatment plan. Choosing to make no changes to their treatment plan is not the correct answer, as this could lead to increased risks for the fetus, such as the development of polyhydramnios or macrosomia. While referral for dietary and exercise regimens may be considered, this is likely to be a first-line intervention, and further escalation of medical therapy is necessary for the health of the fetus. Increasing the dose of metformin is not the correct answer, as the NICE guidelines recommend starting insulin when initial interventions have been unsuccessful. Waiting two weeks to repeat the results would delay necessary treatment intensification, which is required at the current clinic appointment.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 107
Correct
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A 70-year-old man presents with sudden onset right-sided weakness and difficulty understanding speech at 9:30 am. It is now 12:15 pm. He has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and hyperlipidemia, and takes lisinopril, metformin, and atorvastatin.
Initial investigations reveal a capillary blood glucose of 5.2 mmol/L (4.0-6.0 mmol/L) and oxygen saturations of 97%. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?Your Answer: Immediate CT head (non-contrast)
Explanation:The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 108
Correct
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A 28-year-old female comes to the gastroenterology clinic for a follow-up on her Crohn's disease. She has been on budesonide for 3 months to induce remission and reports feeling well. She did not experience any acute episodes during treatment and her bowel habits are regular. The physician determines that she requires maintenance therapy. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe?
Your Answer: Azathioprine
Explanation:Bone marrow suppression, which can be fatal, is a potential risk associated with the use of azathioprine as a second-line treatment for Crohn’s disease. Budesonide, a corticosteroid medication primarily used for asthma prevention, may be considered as a second-line option for inducing remission in Crohn’s patients. Mesalazine, which acts locally on the colon’s mucous membrane and has various anti-inflammatory effects, is less effective than glucocorticoids but can be used as a second-line option to induce remission. Methotrexate, a folate derivative that inhibits enzymes responsible for nucleotide synthesis, is the second-line medication used to maintain remission in Crohn’s patients. However, in this case, there is no indication to use second-line management instead of first-line treatment.
Managing Crohn’s Disease: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. To manage this condition, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines that provide recommendations for inducing and maintaining remission, as well as treating complications. One of the most important steps in managing Crohn’s disease is to advise patients to quit smoking, as this can worsen the condition. Additionally, some medications, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the combined oral contraceptive pill, may increase the risk of relapse, although the evidence is not conclusive.
To induce remission, glucocorticoids are often used, either orally, topically, or intravenously. Budesonide is an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about the side effects of steroids. Second-line treatments for inducing remission include 5-ASA drugs like mesalazine, as well as azathioprine or mercaptopurine, which may be used in combination with other medications. Methotrexate is another option. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and patients may continue on azathioprine or methotrexate.
To maintain remission, stopping smoking is a priority, and azathioprine or mercaptopurine is used first-line. TPMT activity should be assessed before starting these medications. Methotrexate is used second-line. Surgery may be necessary for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Perianal fistulae and abscesses require specific treatments, such as oral metronidazole, anti-TNF agents like infliximab, or a draining seton. By following these guidelines and treatment options, patients with Crohn’s disease can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 109
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner to discuss some recent blood tests which were taken for tri-monthly monitoring of her methotrexate. She has rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and takes methotrexate, folic acid and co-codamol.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 91 g/l 115–165 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets 228 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Neutrophils 5.4 × 109/l 2.0–7.5 × 109/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 96 fl 85–105 fl
Mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH) 29 pg 27–32 pg
Sodium 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.3 mmol/l
Urea 3.2 mmol/l 2.5–7.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 68 µmol/l 53–100 µmol/l
Estimated glomerular filtration rate > 90 ml/min per 1.73m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73m2
What is the most likely cause of this patient’s anaemia?
Your Answer: Anaemia of chronic disease
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Normocytic Anaemia in a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis
The patient in question has been diagnosed with normocytic anaemia, which is characterized by normal MCV and MCH results. There are several potential causes of this type of anaemia, including renal failure, anaemia of chronic disease, and mixed iron and vitamin B12 or folate deficiency. However, given that the patient has rheumatoid arthritis (RA) and normal renal function, the most likely cause of her anaemia is a chronic disease. This is thought to be the result of chronic inflammation associated with diseases such as RA.
One potential complication of RA is Felty syndrome, which is characterized by a triad of conditions: RA, splenomegaly, and neutropenia. However, this patient has a normal WCC and neutrophil count, which rules out this diagnosis.
Vitamin B12 deficiency can also cause anaemia, but it typically results in macrocytic anaemia characterized by a raised MCV. In contrast, this patient has a normal MCV. Vitamin B12 deficiency is typically treated with oral supplements, unless intrinsic antibodies are present, in which case intramuscular B12 is needed.
Folate deficiency can also drive macrocytic anaemia, but this patient demonstrates normocytic anaemia. Methotrexate, which is commonly used to treat RA, is a folate antagonist, which is why the patient is also taking folic acid supplements to reduce the risk of developing folate deficiency.
Iron deficiency is another potential cause of anaemia, but it typically results in microcytic hypochromic anaemia characterized by low MCV and MCH. In contrast, this patient has normal MCV and MCH results. A combination of iron and vitamin B12 or folate deficiencies may result in normocytic anaemia, as can acute blood loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 110
Correct
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You review a 56-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes. He was diagnosed one year ago and is currently managed with diet and exercise. His additional medication includes ramipril 10 mg once daily, atorvastatin 10 mg and aspirin 75 mg/day.
On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is measured at 129/75 mmHg. His low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol is 2.1 mmol/l (normal range: < 2.6 mmol/l), while his haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) is 62 mmol/mol (normal range: < 48 mmol/mol). and creatinine (Cr) is 110 μmol/l (normal range: 50–120 μmol/l).
Which of the following is the most appropriate next treatment step in this case?Your Answer: Commence metformin
Explanation:Medication Recommendations for a Patient with Diabetes and High Blood Pressure
Based on the patient’s HbA1c level, it is recommended to start first-line treatment with metformin. If the patient experiences poor tolerance or side-effects from metformin, gliclazide may be considered as a second-line option. Pioglitazone may also be used in conjunction with metformin if HbA1c is poorly controlled on monotherapy. However, the patient’s blood pressure is adequately controlled, so an additional antihypertensive is not necessary. Lastly, the patient’s LDL cholesterol level suggests adequate control, and therefore, there is no need to increase the dosage of atorvastatin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old female comes to the doctor's office complaining of progressive paraesthesia in her fingers, toes, and peri-oral area for the past two weeks. She also experiences muscle cramps and spasms. The patient had a thyroidectomy for Graves' disease recently but has no other health issues or drug allergies. What can be expected from this patient's ECG results, considering the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Isolated QTc shortening
Correct Answer: Isolated QTc elongation
Explanation:Following thyroid surgery, a patient is experiencing paraesthesia, cramps, and spasms, which are likely due to hypocalcemia resulting from damage to the parathyroid glands. The most common ECG change associated with this condition is isolated QTc elongation, while dysrhythmias are rare. Alternating QRS amplitude is not associated with this condition and is instead linked to pericardial effusion. Isolated QTc shortening is also incorrect as it is typically associated with hypercalcemia, which can be caused by hyperparathyroidism and malignancy. The combination of T wave inversion, QTc prolongation, and visible U waves is associated with hypokalemia, which can be caused by vomiting, thiazide use, and Cushing’s syndrome. Similarly, the combination of tall, peaked T waves, QTc shortening, and ST-segment depression is associated with hyperkalemia, which can be caused by Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, acute kidney injury, and potassium-sparing diuretics.
Complications of Thyroid Surgery: An Overview
Thyroid surgery is a common procedure that involves the removal of all or part of the thyroid gland. While the surgery is generally safe, there are potential complications that can arise. These complications can be anatomical, such as damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, which can result in voice changes or difficulty swallowing. Bleeding is another potential complication, which can be particularly dangerous in the confined space of the neck and can lead to respiratory problems due to swelling. Additionally, damage to the parathyroid glands, which are located near the thyroid, can result in hypocalcaemia, a condition in which the body has low levels of calcium. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential complications and to discuss them with their healthcare provider before undergoing thyroid surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 112
Correct
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A 72-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. He is currently taking ramipril for his high blood pressure. What is the most appropriate medication to help manage his heart failure?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Comparing Beta Blockers for Heart Failure: Efficacy and Evidence
Beta blockers are a class of medications commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. Among them, bisoprolol and carvedilol have the strongest evidence of efficacy in reducing mortality rates in heart failure patients, according to data from the CIBIS and CASA-2 trials. Atenolol, although cardioselective, has less evidence to support its use in heart failure. Labetalol is primarily used for hypertension in pregnancy, while propranolol has the most evidence of benefit after a myocardial infarction but is not always preferred due to its twice-daily dosing. Sotalol, a first-generation beta blocker, is not cardioselective and is not recommended for heart failure. Overall, the choice of beta blocker for heart failure should be based on the available evidence and individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 113
Incorrect
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The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has cautioned that which category of medication may be linked to a higher incidence of venous thromboembolism in older individuals?
Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants
Correct Answer: Atypical antipsychotics
Explanation:Elderly individuals taking antipsychotics are at a higher risk of experiencing stroke and VTE.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 114
Correct
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A middle-aged man is concerned that the lump he has discovered in his neck may be due to Hodgkin's disease. A routine work-up is completely negative, but he continues to worry about it.
Which of the following is the most likely condition here?
Your Answer: Hypochondriasis
Explanation:Differentiating Hypochondriasis from Other Disorders
Hypochondriasis is a condition characterized by persistent preoccupation with having a serious physical illness. However, it is important to differentiate it from other disorders with similar symptoms.
Conversion disorder is a neurological condition that presents with loss of function without an organic cause. Delusional disorder-somatic type involves delusional thoughts about having a particular illness or physical problem. In somatisation disorder, patients present with medically unexplained symptoms and seek medical attention to find an explanation for them. Factitious disorder involves deliberately producing symptoms for attention as a patient.
It is important to note that in hypochondriasis, the patient’s beliefs are not as fixed as they would be in delusional disorder-somatic type, and worry dominates the picture. In somatisation disorder, the emphasis is on the symptoms rather than a specific diagnosis, while in hypochondriasis, the patient puts emphasis on the presence of a specific illness. Factitious disorder involves deliberate production of symptoms, which is not present in hypochondriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 115
Correct
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A 50-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of right upper quadrant pain, dark urine, and pale stools that have been present for the past 24 hours. He reports being a part-time teacher and smoking 10 cigarettes daily. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Upon examination, his sclera are yellow, and his BMI is 29 kg/m². What investigation would be the most useful in this case?
Your Answer: Ultrasound of abdomen
Explanation:Gallstones: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Gallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis involves abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm the presence of stones in the bile duct. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and early ERCP or surgical exploration for stones in the bile duct. Intraoperative cholangiography or laparoscopic ultrasound may be used to confirm anatomy or exclude CBD stones during surgery. ERCP carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with his spouse reporting weakness in his right arm and leg, decreased vision, and difficulty speaking. The symptoms began approximately 30 minutes ago, and his wife promptly called for an ambulance. A CT scan of the head ruled out a hemorrhagic stroke, but a CT contrast angiography revealed a confirmed blockage in the proximal anterior circulation. What is the appropriate acute management for this patient?
Your Answer: Thrombectomy alone
Correct Answer: Alteplase plus thrombectomy
Explanation:For patients with an acute ischaemic stroke who present within 4.5 hours, the recommended treatment is a combination of thrombolysis and thrombectomy. Thrombolysis involves the use of alteplase, a tissue plasminogen activator that breaks down the clot, while thrombectomy physically removes the clot using a specialized device inserted through the femoral artery. In this case, as the patient has confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation, both thrombolysis and thrombectomy should be performed together for the best possible outcome. While alteplase alone can be considered if thrombectomy is not available, a better prognosis is more likely with the combination treatment. It would not be appropriate to perform thrombectomy alone without considering thrombolysis, as the patient is presenting within the window for thrombolysis and should be considered for both in combination according to the guidelines.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 117
Correct
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A 45-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of difficulty lifting heavy objects and describes a feeling of weakness when climbing stairs. He has noticed occasional muscle twitches and spasms that seem to be increasing in frequency.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polymyositis
Explanation:Based on the patient’s symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is polymyositis. This is a connective tissue disease that affects the striated muscles, causing symmetrical weakness in the proximal muscles. Patients may have difficulty rising from chairs and experience muscle tenderness. Creatine kinase levels are elevated, and a muscle biopsy can confirm the diagnosis. This presentation is not suggestive of Guillain-Barré syndrome, which typically presents with distal weakness that progresses proximally. Mononeuritis multiplex, which involves neuropathy of multiple peripheral and/or cranial nerves, is unlikely given the symmetrical distribution of symptoms affecting proximal muscles. Multiple sclerosis is also unlikely, as it tends to present with distal rather than proximal limb weakness or paraesthesia. Myasthenia gravis, which is associated with antibodies to acetylcholine receptors and causes fatigability, is not suggested by the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 118
Correct
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A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 3-day history of fever, fatigue, and a tingling sensation in the lateral aspect of his left thigh. The tingling was initially tolerable but has become increasingly painful over the past 24 hours. Upon examination, the area described is erythematous with a macular rash appearing. The patient has a history of HIV and is currently taking antiretroviral therapy with an undetectable viral load. He denies any cough, coryzal symptoms, focal neurological signs, or trauma to the site.
What is the appropriate management for this patient, given the likely diagnosis? Choose from the options provided.Your Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:Patients suspected of having shingles should receive antiviral treatment within 72 hours of symptom onset, as this can help reduce the risk of post-herpetic complications. In the case of this patient, who is experiencing symptoms of shingles within the 72-hour window and has an immunosuppressive condition, antivirals such as aciclovir should be prescribed. Amitriptyline, which is used to manage post-herpetic neuralgia, would not be appropriate at this stage. Chlorphenamine is typically used to manage itching associated with chickenpox, but as this patient is only experiencing symptoms in one dermatome, it is more likely to be shingles. Flucloxacillin, an antibiotic used to treat bacterial skin infections, would not be appropriate in this case as the patient’s symptoms are consistent with herpes zoster infection.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The rash is well demarcated by the affected dermatome and may be accompanied by fever and lethargy. Treatment includes analgesia, antivirals, and potentially oral corticosteroids. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, ocular and ear complications. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 119
Correct
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A 32-year-old male patient comes in for mole removal. Which areas of the body are more prone to developing keloid scars?
Your Answer: Sternum
Explanation:Understanding Keloid Scars
Keloid scars are abnormal growths that develop from the connective tissue of a scar and extend beyond the boundaries of the original wound. They are more common in people with dark skin and tend to occur in young adults. Keloids are most frequently found on the sternum, shoulder, neck, face, extensor surface of limbs, and trunk.
To prevent keloid scars, incisions should be made along relaxed skin tension lines. However, if keloids do develop, early treatment with intra-lesional steroids such as triamcinolone may be effective. In some cases, excision may be necessary, but this should be approached with caution as it can potentially lead to further keloid scarring.
It is important to note that the historical use of Langer lines to determine optimal incision lines has been shown to produce worse cosmetic results than following skin tension lines. Understanding the predisposing factors and treatment options for keloid scars can help individuals make informed decisions about their care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 120
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy is suspected of suffering from insulin-dependent diabetes. He undergoes a glucose tolerance test following an overnight fast.
Which of the following results would most likely confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: A peak of plasma glucose occurring between 1 and 2 hours that stays high
Explanation:Interpreting Glucose Tolerance Test Results in Insulin-Dependent Diabetes
Glucose tolerance tests are commonly used to diagnose and monitor diabetes. In insulin-dependent diabetes, the results of these tests can provide valuable information about the patient’s glucose metabolism. Here are some key points to consider when interpreting glucose tolerance test results in insulin-dependent diabetes:
– A peak of plasma glucose occurring between 1 and 2 hours that stays high: In insulin-dependent diabetes, the plasma glucose remains elevated throughout the 4 hours of the test. This is in contrast to normal individuals, who typically have a sharper and earlier peak that returns to basal levels.
– An ‘overshoot’ in the decline of plasma glucose at 3.5 hours: This phenomenon is seen in normal individuals but not in insulin-dependent diabetics.
– A plasma glucose level of 4 mmol/l at zero time: This is unlikely in diabetic patients, who typically have high basal glucose levels.
– A glucose concentration of 5.2 mmol/l at 4 hours: In insulin-dependent diabetes, the plasma glucose remains elevated throughout the 4 hours of the test.
– A low haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c): If the patient has been suffering from diabetes for some time without treatment, the HbA1c would likely be elevated rather than low.Overall, glucose tolerance tests can provide valuable insights into the glucose metabolism of insulin-dependent diabetics. By understanding the nuances of these test results, healthcare providers can better diagnose and manage this chronic condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 121
Incorrect
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An elderly woman of 74 years old comes in with a vesicular rash surrounding her left eye. The eye appears red and she is experiencing some sensitivity to light. The initial diagnosis is herpes zoster ophthalmicus and an immediate referral to ophthalmology is arranged. What is the probable treatment she will receive?
Your Answer: Topical aciclovir + topical chloramphenicol
Correct Answer: Oral aciclovir
Explanation:If systemic therapy is administered, topical antivirals are unnecessary. However, secondary inflammation may be treated with topical corticosteroids.
Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.
Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 122
Correct
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A 59-year-old man with known cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C infection attends for review. There is a past history of intravenous heroin abuse and alcoholism. He has been feeling progressively more unwell over the past six months, with weight loss and worsening ascites. He is on long-term sick leave and has been closely monitored by his live-in partner, who maintains that there has been no further drug abuse or consumption of alcohol.
What is the most probable diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?Your Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Worsening Ascites
Worsening ascites can be a sign of various underlying conditions. One possible diagnosis is hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC), which is a primary malignancy of the liver that often occurs in patients with chronic liver disease and cirrhosis. Another possible diagnosis is chronic active hepatitis, which is caused by the hepatitis C virus and can result in joint and muscle pain, nausea, and exhaustion. Superimposed hepatitis B infection can also cause liver injury and jaundice. Alcoholism, which can lead to alcoholic hepatitis, is another possible diagnosis, but it is not consistent with the clinical scenario given if there has been no further alcohol consumption. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis is an acute bacterial infection of ascitic fluid that can cause fever, abdominal pain, and other symptoms. It is important to consider these and other possible diagnoses when evaluating a patient with worsening ascites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 123
Correct
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A young lady requests for the 'morning after pill'. Within what timeframe after sexual intercourse is levonorgestrel approved for use?
Your Answer: 72 hours
Explanation:Levonorgestrel should be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI). Administration of a single dose of levonorgestrel after this time is not licensed but may be considered.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 124
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl is brought to her Pediatrician by her mother after being sent home from school. She is complaining of a headache and feeling tired since this morning.
On examination, her temperature is 38.5 °C. Her pulse is of 96 bpm, while her capillary refill time is < 2 seconds. There are no rashes, she is alert, she has enlarged red tonsils without pustules and demonstrates tender cervical lymphadenopathy. She does not have a runny nose.
What is her FeverPAIN score?Your Answer: 5
Explanation:Understanding the FeverPAIN Score for Antibiotic Prescribing in Sore Throat Cases
The FeverPAIN score is a tool used to aid decisions on antibiotic prescribing for acute sore throat cases. It involves scoring one point for each of the following criteria: fever, purulence, rapid attendance (<3 days duration), severely inflamed tonsils, and no cough or coryza. A score of 5/5 indicates a high likelihood of a streptococcal infection and antibiotics would be indicated for treatment. However, for scores of 1 or 2, antibiotics may not be necessary as the chance of a bacterial infection is low. Patients should be advised to seek further medical attention if symptoms worsen and simple measures such as fluids and analgesia should be recommended. For scores of 3 or 4, delayed antibiotic prescribing or watchful waiting may be considered as other causes, such as viral infections, are more likely than bacterial infections. It is important to note that the FeverPAIN score is just one tool and should be used in conjunction with clinical judgement. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends its use, along with the Centor criteria, to predict the likelihood of a streptococcal infection. By understanding and utilizing these tools, healthcare providers can make informed decisions on antibiotic prescribing for sore throat cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 125
Correct
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A 35 year old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with malaise, headaches and vomiting. She is admitted to the obstetrics ward after a routine blood pressure measurement was 190/95 mmHg. Examination reveals right upper quadrant abdominal pain and brisk tendon reflexes. The following blood tests are shown:
Hb 85 g/l
WBC 6 * 109/l
Platelets 89 * 109/l
Bilirubin 2.8 µmol/l
ALP 215 u/l
ALT 260 u/l
γGT 72 u/l
LDH 846 u/I
A peripheral blood film is also taken which shows polychromasia and schistocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: HELLP syndrome
Explanation:The symptoms of HELLP syndrome, a severe form of pre-eclampsia, include haemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL), and low platelets (LP). A patient with this condition may experience malaise, nausea, vomiting, and headache, as well as hypertension with proteinuria and epigastric and/or upper abdominal pain. The patient in this case meets the requirements for a diagnosis of HELLP syndrome.
Liver Complications During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.
Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.
Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 126
Correct
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A 50-year-old female with a history of Sjogren's syndrome presents to the gastroenterology clinic with elevated liver function tests. She reports experiencing fatigue and itching that has worsened over the past 3 months. On physical examination, her abdomen is soft, nontender, and without any organ enlargement. Laboratory results show a low hemoglobin level, normal platelet count and white blood cell count, elevated bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, and gamma-glutamyl transferase levels, and positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies. What is the initial treatment recommended to halt the progression of her liver disease?
Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disease that primarily affects middle-aged women. It is characterized by the destruction of small bile ducts in the liver, leading to cholestasis and liver damage. The disease is diagnosed through blood tests that measure levels of specific antibodies and liver enzymes, which are highly specific to the condition. Ursodeoxycholic acid is the preferred treatment for slowing disease progression and improving symptoms, while cholestyramine can be used to alleviate itching but does not affect disease progression. In cases of decompensated liver disease, such as when bilirubin levels exceed 100, liver transplantation may be an option. Although recurrence in the graft can occur, it is typically not a significant issue. While fat-soluble vitamins can be supplemented, they are not a primary treatment option.
Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder
Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.
This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.
The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 127
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy comes to the pediatrician's office as his parents are concerned about his early development. He is now a lot taller than most of his friends and he has started to develop hair around his genitalia and armpits. On examination, his penis is also large for his age however his testes remain prepubertal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this boy's precocious puberty?
Your Answer: Adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:When dealing with precocious puberty, it is important to examine the size of the testicles to determine the underlying cause. In cases where the testicles are small, such as in this situation, it suggests an adrenal origin of the symptoms. On the other hand, if there is bilateral testicular enlargement, it may indicate central precocious puberty caused by an astrocytoma or other brain tumor. Testotoxicosis, which is associated with a history of childhood sexual aggression, would result in advanced development in all areas. A sex cord-gonadal stromal tumor would cause unilateral enlargement of the affected testicle. Finally, an idiopathic cause of precocious puberty would lead to advanced development in all pubertal areas, resulting in enlarged testicles.
Understanding Precocious Puberty
Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 128
Correct
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A 25-year-old man experiences abrupt facial swelling, hives, and respiratory distress following consumption of shellfish at a Chinese eatery. What is the most suitable course of action for treatment?
Your Answer: Intramuscular adrenaline - 0.5ml of 1 in 1,000
Explanation:The recommended adult dose of adrenaline for anaphylaxis is 500 mcg, which is equivalent to 0.5 ml of a 1 in 1,000 solution.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.
The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.
Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 129
Correct
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Which of the following extra-intestinal symptoms of inflammatory bowel disease is more prevalent in ulcerative colitis than in Crohn's disease, with a slight variation in age and maintaining paragraph breaks?
Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Explanation:Primary sclerosing cholangitis is often associated with ulcerative colitis.
Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are the two main types of inflammatory bowel disease with many similarities in symptoms and management options. However, there are key differences such as non-bloody diarrhea and upper gastrointestinal symptoms being more common in Crohn’s disease, while bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant are more common in ulcerative colitis. Complications and pathology also differ between the two diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 130
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of swelling, pain and stiffness in her fingers on both hands for the past few weeks. During examination, she is found to be afebrile and her fingers are generally swollen and sausage-shaped. Her nails are also pitted with onycholysis.
What is the most probable diagnosis for her condition?
Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Arthritis: A Brief Overview
Arthritis is a common condition that affects millions of people worldwide. However, not all types of arthritis are the same. Here is a brief overview of some of the most common types of arthritis and how they differ from each other.
Psoriatic Arthritis: This type of arthritis is often seen in people with psoriasis and is characterized by painful, swollen joints. Dactylitis, or swelling of the whole digit causing ‘sausage-shaped’ fingers or toes, is a common feature. Nail changes, such as pitting and onycholysis, are also associated with psoriatic arthritis.
Gonococcal Arthritis: This is a type of septic arthritis caused by the sexually transmitted infection Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It typically presents with fever, a rash, and an acutely swollen joint, but there is no nail involvement.
Osteoarthritis (OA): This is a disease of synovial joints in which there is a loss of cartilage. It is uncommon for OA to be diagnosed in anyone under the age of 45. Dactylitis and nail changes are not associated with OA.
Reactive Arthritis: This is a sterile arthritis occurring following an infection, usually either an acute gastrointestinal or sexually transmitted infection. The clinical features of dactylitis and nail changes described in this case are not associated with reactive arthritis.
Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA): This is an inflammatory condition that tends to affect the small joints of the hands but can affect any synovial joint. Nail changes are not usually associated with RA, and general swelling of the whole digit (dactylitis) is not a typical feature.
In conclusion, understanding the different types of arthritis and their unique features is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 131
Correct
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Warfarin can be described as which of the following statements?
Your Answer: It reduces protein C levels in the blood
Explanation:Facts about Warfarin: Uses, Effects, and Precautions
Warfarin is a medication used to reduce blood clotting and prevent thrombosis. It works by blocking an enzyme that reactivates vitamin K1, which is necessary for the production of clotting factors. However, there are several important facts to consider when using warfarin.
Firstly, warfarin reduces protein C levels in the blood, which can affect its anticoagulant properties. Additionally, warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its ability to pass through the placenta and cause bleeding in the fetus. It is also a teratogen, which means it can cause congenital abnormalities if exposure occurs during pregnancy.
Furthermore, heparin is more associated with a prothrombotic reaction, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, and an antibody-mediated decrease in platelet levels. Warfarin, on the other hand, has a short half-life of 3 hours and requires an initial loading dose to reach therapeutic effect.
Lastly, warfarin can be safely used in breastfeeding mothers as the amount of warfarin in breast milk is not significant enough to affect the baby. However, caution should be exercised in lactating women.
In conclusion, warfarin is a useful medication for preventing thrombosis, but it should be used with caution and under medical supervision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 132
Correct
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A 26-year-old female patient arrives with a sudden onset of pain at the back of her ankle while jogging, accompanied by a cracking sound. Which medication from the following list could have played a role in causing this injury?
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:The patient is displaying typical symptoms of a ruptured Achilles tendon, which can be caused by ciprofloxacin. Tendon damage is a known potential side effect of quinolone antibiotics, and it seems to be a rare reaction that can occur after just 8 days of treatment.
Understanding Quinolones: Antibiotics that Inhibit DNA Synthesis
Quinolones are a type of antibiotics that are known for their bactericidal properties. They work by inhibiting DNA synthesis, which makes them effective in treating bacterial infections. Some examples of quinolones include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.
The mechanism of action of quinolones involves inhibiting topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. However, bacteria can develop resistance to quinolones through mutations to DNA gyrase or by using efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of quinolones inside the cell.
While quinolones are generally safe, they can have adverse effects. For instance, they can lower the seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy and cause tendon damage, including rupture, especially in patients taking steroids. Additionally, animal models have shown that quinolones can damage cartilage, which is why they are generally avoided in children. Quinolones can also lengthen the QT interval, which can be dangerous for patients with heart conditions.
Quinolones should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Overall, understanding the mechanism of action, mechanism of resistance, adverse effects, and contraindications of quinolones is important for their safe and effective use in treating bacterial infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 133
Correct
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A 42-year-old man with a history of psoriasis develops plaques on his scalp. What is the most suitable treatment option among the following choices?
Your Answer: Hydrocortisone 1%
Explanation:It’s a challenging question, especially since the decision on psoriasis treatment often involves the patient and doctor’s preference. While vitamin D analogues can be an option, calcipotriol is not advisable due to its potential to cause irritation. Instead, calcitriol and tacalcitol can be considered. For facial psoriasis, mild potency topical steroids can be effective. However, coal tar may not be well-tolerated for facial application due to its unpleasant odor and messiness.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 134
Correct
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A 32-year-old female patient comes in seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex with her ex-partner four days ago. She is determined to prevent a pregnancy. The patient has a history of ectopic pregnancy four years ago, which led to a salpingectomy. She is currently on day 14 of a 28-day cycle. What is the best course of action among the available options?
Your Answer: Insert an intrauterine device
Explanation:Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 135
Correct
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A 3-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric clinic for failure to thrive. She has failed to maintain her weight and suffers from frequent vomiting and respiratory tract infections. A sweat test is performed and the chloride content of the sweat is 72 mmol/l (normal level <60 mmol/l).
Which of the following modes of inheritance fits best with this condition?Your Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Understanding Cystic Fibrosis: Inheritance and Characteristics
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the chloride transport and secretion viscosity in the body due to a mutation in the CFTR gene. This disorder follows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) to develop the disease. The most common mutation involved is the Δ508 mutation.
Cystic fibrosis is prevalent in northern European populations, with a frequency of approximately 1 in 3200. Males with the disease are often infertile due to congenital absence of the vas deferens.
It is important to note that cystic fibrosis is not an autosomal dominant or sex-linked disorder. Chromosomal non-disjunction and translocation can cause other genetic conditions, but they are not associated with cystic fibrosis. Understanding the inheritance and characteristics of cystic fibrosis can aid in diagnosis and management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 136
Correct
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A 55-year-old man complains of persistent itching caused by shiny, flat-topped papules on the palmar aspect of his wrists. Lichen planus is suspected. What is the best course of treatment?
Your Answer: Topical clobetasone butyrate
Explanation:Understanding Lichen Planus
Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.
The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 137
Correct
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A 70-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt onset of numbness on the right side of his body, without any other accompanying symptoms. He has a medical history of uncontrolled hypertension and diabetes mellitus. A CT scan of his head was conducted, which revealed no signs of bleeding or tumors. The diagnosis is a lacunar stroke. Which area of the brain is impacted by a lacunar stroke?
Your Answer: The basal ganglia, thalamus and internal capsule
Explanation:The basal ganglia, thalamus, and internal capsule are common sites for lacunar strokes. Amaurosis fugax affects (1), ‘locked-in’ syndrome affects (2), Wallenberg syndrome affects (4), and lateral pontine syndrome affects (5).
When a stroke occurs, the location of the lesion in the brain can determine the specific effects on the body. Depending on which artery is affected, different symptoms may arise. For example, a stroke in the anterior cerebral artery can lead to contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the lower extremity being more affected than the upper. On the other hand, a stroke in the middle cerebral artery can cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower, as well as contralateral homonymous hemianopia and aphasia.
If the stroke occurs in the posterior cerebral artery, the individual may experience contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia. In the case of Weber’s syndrome, which involves branches of the posterior cerebral artery that supply the midbrain, the person may have an ipsilateral CN III palsy and contralateral weakness of the upper and lower extremities.
Other types of strokes include those affecting the posterior inferior cerebellar artery, which can lead to ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss and contralateral limb/torso pain and temperature loss, as well as ataxia and nystagmus. A stroke in the anterior inferior cerebellar artery can cause similar symptoms to Wallenberg’s syndrome, but with the addition of ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness.
Finally, lacunar strokes are small, localized strokes that often occur in individuals with hypertension. They typically present with isolated hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, or hemiparesis with limb ataxia, and commonly affect the basal ganglia, thalamus, and internal capsule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 138
Correct
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A 68-year-old male presents with a 2-day history of feeling unwell and abdominal pain. Upon examination, you note a distended abdomen with guarding and absent bowel sounds. The patient's blood pressure is 88/42 mmHg, and heart rate is 120 bpm. A CT scan reveals a perforation of the sigmoid colon due to a large lesion causing bowel obstruction. The patient undergoes emergency laparotomy. What surgical procedure is most likely to have been performed?
Your Answer: End colostomy
Explanation:When dealing with an emergency situation where a colonic tumour has caused perforation, it is riskier to perform a colon-colon anastomosis. This is because it could result in an anastomotic leak, which would release bowel contents into the abdomen. Therefore, it is safer to perform an end colostomy, which can be reversed at a later time. Ileostomy, both end and loop, is not suitable for this patient as the perforation is located in the distal colon. Ileocolic anastomoses are generally safe in emergency situations and do not require de-functioning. However, in this case, an ileocolic anastomosis would not be appropriate as the obstructing lesion is in the distal colon rather than the proximal colon.
Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.
For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.
Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdomino-perineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.
Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileo-colic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 139
Correct
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Which of the following causes Scarlet fever?
Your Answer: Streptococcus species (group A haemolytic)
Explanation:Scarlet Fever: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Scarlet fever is a bacterial infection caused by toxin-producing strains of the group A streptococcal bacterium (Streptococcus pyogenes). It is a notifiable disease to Public Health England. The symptoms include a sore throat, fever, and a rash with a red strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, fine papular rash, tonsillitis, tiredness, headache, nausea, and vomiting.
The condition is treated with fluids, an antipyretic, and phenoxymethylpenicillin. Other causes such as Influenza pneumoniae, Escherichia coli, Haemophilus influenzae, and Parvovirus B19 are not related to scarlet fever. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you or your child has scarlet fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 140
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of ongoing fatigue and tiredness. She has a medical history of hypertension and eczema, and no significant family history. Upon conducting a blood test, the following results were obtained:
- Hb: 141 g/l
- Platelets: 222 * 109/l
- WBC: 6.3 * 109/l
- Neuts: 3.9 * 109/l
- Lymphs: 1.2 * 109/l
- Na+: 140 mmol/l
- K+: 4.1 mmol/l
- Urea: 4.9 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 83 µmol/l
- CRP: 4.1 mg/l
- TSH: 6.2 mu/l
- Free T4: 6 pmol/l
What is the most likely pathology causing her symptoms?Your Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Explanation:The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, specifically Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which is often associated with other autoimmune diseases. This is indicated by a presentation and blood test showing hypothyroidism with a raised TSH, suggesting a failure of the thyroid gland to respond to pituitary stimulation or a primary hypothyroidism. While iodine deficiency is the main cause of hypothyroidism worldwide, it is rare in the UK. Papillary thyroid cancer does not affect thyroid function, as the cancer cells do not secrete thyroxine. Although De Quervain’s can cause a primary hypothyroidism with similar symptoms, it is much less common than Hashimoto’s and therefore an incorrect answer.
Understanding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is more common in women and is typically associated with hypothyroidism, although there may be a temporary period of thyrotoxicosis during the acute phase. The condition is characterized by features of hypothyroidism, such as a firm, non-tender goitre, and the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) antibodies.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is often associated with other autoimmune conditions, including coeliac disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and vitiligo. Additionally, there is an increased risk of developing MALT lymphoma with this condition. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in the Venn diagram. Understanding the features and associations of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can aid in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old pregnant woman comes in for her 42-week antenatal check-up. It was previously agreed that she would be induced at 42 weeks if she did not go into labour naturally. She reports normal foetal movements and denies any recent illnesses. She has no relevant medical history and this is her first pregnancy. During the examination, her abdomen is soft with a palpable uterus and a fundal height of 40cm. What is the most crucial aspect to evaluate in this woman?
Your Answer: Cervical dilation
Correct Answer: Bishop score
Explanation:Induction of Labour: Reasons, Methods, and Complications
Induction of labour is a medical process that involves starting labour artificially. It is necessary in about 20% of pregnancies due to various reasons such as prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, diabetes, pre-eclampsia, and rhesus incompatibility. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is required, which takes into account cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates that the cervix is ripe and there is a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.
There are several methods of induction of labour, including membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. Membrane sweeping involves separating the chorionic membrane from the decidua by rotating the examining finger against the wall of the uterus. Vaginal prostaglandin E2 is the preferred method of induction of labour, unless there are specific clinical reasons for not using it. Uterine hyperstimulation is the main complication of induction of labour, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can cause fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. In rare cases, uterine rupture may occur, which requires removing the vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and tocolysis with terbutaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 142
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of a severe headache on the right side of her head. Upon further inquiry, the doctors discover that she experiences pain while chewing. During the examination, there are no neurological impairments, and her visual fields appear normal. However, she does exhibit tenderness on her right scalp. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Temporal arteritis
Explanation:Temporal arteritis is likely the cause of a constant throbbing headache, pain while chewing, and tenderness in the scalp. These symptoms are not typical of a migraine, which usually involves pain on one side of the head, sensitivity to light, nausea/vomiting, and sometimes an aura. A subarachnoid hemorrhage typically presents with a sudden, severe headache in the occipital region. Tension headaches are often described as a dull, band-like pain across the forehead. Cluster headaches are characterized by intense pain around the eye, accompanied by tearing, redness, and a stuffy nose.
Understanding Temporal Arteritis
Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR). It is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. This condition typically affects individuals who are over 60 years old and has a rapid onset, usually occurring in less than a month. The most common symptoms include headache and jaw claudication, while vision testing is a crucial investigation for all patients.
Temporal arteritis can lead to various ocular complications, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common. This results from the occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Patients may experience temporary visual loss or even permanent visual loss, which is the most feared complication of this condition. Other symptoms may include diplopia, tender and palpable temporal artery, and features of PMR such as aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers such as an ESR of over 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to check for skip lesions. Urgent high-dose glucocorticoids should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected, and an ophthalmologist should review patients with visual symptoms on the same day. Treatment may also involve bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.
In summary, temporal arteritis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible visual damage. Patients who experience symptoms such as headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances should seek medical attention immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 143
Correct
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Which of the following factors indicates true seizures rather than pseudoseizures with the highest certainty?
Your Answer: Tongue biting
Explanation:Understanding Psychogenic Non-Epileptic Seizures
Psychogenic non-epileptic seizures, also known as pseudoseizures, are a type of seizure that is not caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain. Instead, they are believed to be caused by psychological factors such as stress, trauma, or anxiety. These seizures can be difficult to diagnose as they often mimic true epileptic seizures, but there are certain factors that can help differentiate between the two.
Factors that may indicate pseudoseizures include pelvic thrusting, a family history of epilepsy, a higher incidence in females, crying after the seizure, and the seizures not occurring when the individual is alone. On the other hand, factors that may indicate true epileptic seizures include tongue biting and a raised serum prolactin level.
Video telemetry is a useful tool for differentiating between the two types of seizures. It involves monitoring the individual’s brain activity and behavior during a seizure, which can help determine whether it is caused by abnormal electrical activity in the brain or psychological factors.
It is important to accurately diagnose and treat psychogenic non-epileptic seizures as they can have a significant impact on an individual’s quality of life. Treatment may involve therapy to address underlying psychological factors, as well as medication to manage any associated symptoms such as anxiety or depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 144
Correct
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A 35-year-old man contacts his General Practitioner to discuss screening for tuberculosis (TB) for himself and his two children. His wife has recently been diagnosed with active TB and started on treatment following release from hospital. He and the children are all completely asymptomatic.
Which of the following screening options would be appropriate for the family?Your Answer: Mantoux test
Explanation:Screening and Diagnosis of Tuberculosis: Methods and Recommendations
Tuberculosis (TB) is a serious infectious disease that can be fatal if left untreated. Screening and diagnosis of TB are crucial for early detection and treatment. In this article, we will discuss the recommended methods and guidelines for screening and diagnosis of TB.
Mantoux Test
The Mantoux test is a recommended screening method for latent TB in at-risk groups, such as close contacts of patients with active pulmonary or laryngeal TB, patients with human immunodeficiency virus, or immigrants from high-risk countries. The test involves injecting tuberculin intradermally and observing a reaction 2-3 days later. A positive result is indicated by an induration of greater than 6 mm at the injection site. Further investigations are warranted to diagnose or exclude active TB infection.Chest X-Ray
Screening for latent TB is advised for all household members and close contacts of patients diagnosed with active pulmonary TB. If screening is positive, investigations for active TB are indicated, which would include a chest X-ray. Typical features of pulmonary TB on an X-ray include a cavitating lesion, upper-lobe parenchymal infiltrates, pleural effusion, or mediastinal or hilar lymphadenopathy.Heaf Test
The Heaf test was previously used to diagnose latent TB but has since been replaced by the Mantoux test. Both tests involve injecting tuberculin intradermally and observing for a reaction. The Heaf test was performed using a Heaf gun, which had six needles in a circular formation. The more severe the reaction, the more likely it is that the patient has an active infection, but previous BCG vaccine exposure can also give a reaction.Screening and Diagnosis Recommendations
According to NICE guidance, close contacts of patients with active pulmonary TB should be screened for latent TB infection with a Mantoux test. Three sputum samples (including an early morning sample) for TB microscopy and culture are indicated to diagnose active pulmonary TB infection. This investigation is not indicated for screening for latent TB but should be performed if latent screening tests are positive.In conclusion, early detection and treatment of TB are crucial for preventing the spread of the disease and improving patient outcomes. The recommended screening and diagnosis methods should be followed to ensure accurate and timely detection of TB.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 145
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several areas of pale skin on her hands. Despite using an emollient and topical hydrocortisone, there has been no improvement. During the examination, you observe multiple depigmented patches on the back of both hands. The patient's medical history includes a previous diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, for which she is currently taking carbimazole and thyroxine. What is the probable reason for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Patients with autoimmune conditions like thyrotoxicosis are more likely to have vitiligo, but there are no other indications in the medical history that point towards Addison’s disease.
Understanding Vitiligo
Vitiligo is a condition that affects the skin, resulting in the loss of melanocytes and causing depigmentation. It is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing between the ages of 20-30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the peripheries being the most affected. Trauma can also trigger new lesions, known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. Management of the condition includes the use of sunblock for affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up, and topical corticosteroids, which may reverse the changes if applied early. There may also be a role for topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution needs to be exercised with light-skinned patients.
In summary, vitiligo is a condition that affects the skin, resulting in depigmentation. It is an autoimmune disorder that can be managed with various treatments, including sunblock, make-up, and topical corticosteroids. It is often associated with other autoimmune disorders, and caution should be exercised when using certain treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 146
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman experiences hypertension during the third trimester of her initial pregnancy. Upon conducting a 24-hour urine collection, it is revealed that she has 0.5g protein. Which of the following complications is the least commonly associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Transverse myelitis
Explanation:Transverse myelitis is not linked to pre-eclampsia.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis visits her doctor every three months for blood tests. Which of the following blood tests is necessary for monitoring the use of methotrexate?
Your Answer: U&Es, LFTs
Correct Answer: FBC, U&Es, LFTs
Explanation:Importance of Drug Monitoring in Primary Care
Patients on methotrexate require regular monitoring of their blood tests to prevent severe side effects. The three essential blood tests that need monitoring are FBC, U&Es, and LFTs. Methotrexate can cause blood dyscrasias, liver cirrhosis, and kidney failure, making it crucial to monitor these tests every 2-3 months once therapy has stabilized. Patients should report any symptoms of infection, bruising, mouth ulcers, abdominal discomfort, dark urine, and shortness of breath. They should also avoid self-medication with over-the-counter aspirin or ibuprofen.
Thyroid function is not affected by methotrexate, and regular monitoring is not necessary unless there is another medical condition that justifies it. However, patients on methotrexate should report any signs of blood disorders such as ecchymosis and telangiectasia.
Drug monitoring is becoming increasingly common in primary care, especially for patients under shared care with secondary/specialty care. Some examples of drug monitoring in primary care include amiodarone, azathioprine, lithium, and methotrexate. Each drug requires specific blood tests, and the frequency of monitoring varies. For instance, patients on methotrexate require FBC, U&Es, and LFTs every 2-3 months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 148
Correct
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A 25-year-old Caucasian female teacher visits the clinic to inquire about preconception care. She intends to conceive and is interested in learning about the supplements she should take. She has never given birth before and is in good health. She is not on any medication and has no known allergies. She does not smoke or consume alcohol.
What supplements do you suggest she take?Your Answer: Folic acid 400 micrograms once a day and vitamin D 10 micrograms once a day
Explanation:For this patient, who has a low risk of having a baby with neural tube defects and is not at high risk of vitamin D deficiency, the standard care is recommended. This includes taking a daily supplement of 10 micrograms of vitamin D. There is no need for her to take folic acid 5mg or higher doses of vitamin D, as they exceed the recommended amount.
Antenatal care guidelines were issued by NICE in March 2008, which included specific points for the care of healthy pregnant women. Nausea and vomiting can be treated with natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point, as recommended by NICE. Antihistamines, with promethazine as the first-line option according to the BNF, can also be used. Adequate vitamin D intake is crucial for the health of both the mother and baby, and women should be informed about this at their booking appointment. The Chief Medical Officer advises all pregnant and breastfeeding women to take a daily supplement containing 10 micrograms of vitamin D, with particular care taken for those at risk. In 2016, new guidelines were proposed by the Chief Medical Officer regarding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. The government now advises pregnant women not to drink any alcohol to minimize the risk of harm to the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 149
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman complains of lumpy breasts. She notices the lumps are more prominent before her period. There is no family history of breast cancer.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diffuse cystic mastopathy
Explanation:Breast Masses: Differential Diagnosis and Clinical Features
Breast masses are a common concern for women, and it is important to differentiate between benign and malignant causes. Here, we discuss the clinical features and differential diagnosis of various breast masses.
Diffuse cystic mastopathy is a benign condition that affects a significant proportion of women. It is characterized by the formation of cysts in the breast lobules due to hormonal changes in the menstrual cycle. The lumps are smooth, mobile, and tend to peak in size before each period. Diagnosis is primarily based on clinical examination, but a biopsy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis.
Fat necrosis is another benign condition that can occur due to direct trauma or surgery. It is characterized by the formation of firm, round, and painless masses in the breast. The skin around the lump may be red or bruised, and a biopsy may be needed to differentiate it from breast cancer.
Breast abscesses are characterized by local inflammation, pain, and fever. They may be associated with previous breast infections and may require drainage. However, there is no evidence of an infectious process in this patient.
Breast cancer is a concern in any patient with a breast mass, but early breast cancer is often asymptomatic. Physical findings that may indicate the possible presence of breast cancer include changes in breast size or shape, skin dimpling or changes, nipple abnormalities, and axillary lumps. However, none of these symptoms are present in this patient.
Fibroadenoma is the most common cause of breast mass in women under 35 years of age. It is characterized by a singular, firm, rubbery, smooth, and mobile mass. However, this patient reports multiple lumps, making a diagnosis of fibroadenoma less likely.
In conclusion, the cyclic nature of this patient’s breast masses makes diffuse cystic mastopathy the most likely diagnosis. However, a biopsy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 150
Correct
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What is the most accurate statement regarding the use of radioactive iodine (131I) for treating thyrotoxicosis?
Your Answer: It is not associated with an increased incidence of late leukaemia.
Explanation:Radioactive Iodine (131I) Treatment for Hyperthyroidism: Uses and Potential Complications
Radioactive iodine (131I) is a commonly used treatment for hyperthyroidism, particularly in cases of toxic nodular hyperthyroidism and Graves’ disease. It works by inducing DNA damage in the thyroid gland, leading to the death of thyroid cells. This treatment is typically administered orally as a capsule or solution, and a standard dosage of 10 mCi is often used. However, the dosage may be increased if necessary, especially in cases of multinodular goitre.
While 131I treatment is generally safe and effective, there are potential complications to be aware of. For example, it should not be administered to pregnant women, as it can cross the placenta and affect the thyroid gland of the fetus. Women should avoid becoming pregnant for at least six months after treatment, and men should not father children for at least four months after treatment. Additionally, there is a risk of hypoparathyroidism, which occurs in about 30% of cases and typically has a latency period of more than a decade.
It is important to note that 131I treatment is not recommended for patients with active Graves’ ophthalmopathy, as it may cause progression of the condition. However, early treatment with levothyroxine may help reduce this risk. On the other hand, rapid regression of exophthalmos is expected in almost all cases within the first three months of treatment.
Overall, 131I treatment is a safe and effective option for many patients with hyperthyroidism. However, it is important to discuss potential risks and benefits with a healthcare provider before undergoing this treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 151
Correct
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A 26-year-old patient comes in with lesions on their lower abdomen that have been present for six weeks. At first, there was only one lesion, but more have appeared since then. During the examination, around 10 raised lesions with an umbilicated appearance, each around 1-2 mm in diameter, are observed. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Molluscum contagiosum
Explanation:Molluscum contagiosum is typically observed in children, but the following is a classical depiction of the condition.
Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly seen in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, lesions are commonly seen on the trunk and in flexures, while in adults, sexual contact may lead to lesions developing on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.
While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be considered if the itch is problematic. However, treatment is not usually recommended, and if necessary, simple trauma or cryotherapy may be used. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.
Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent transmission and alleviate symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 152
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to surgery with several weeks of intermittent vertigo, tinnitus, and decreased hearing on the right side. You suspect Ménière’s disease.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management option for this patient?Your Answer: Vestibular rehabilitation
Correct Answer: Referral to ENT
Explanation:Management of Meniere’s Disease
Meniere’s disease is a condition characterized by intermittent bouts of vertigo, tinnitus, and/or deafness in one or both ears, as well as a feeling of fullness or pressure in the affected ear. If a patient presents with these symptoms, a referral to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) consultant is advisable to confirm the diagnosis and exclude other potential causes.
If the patient is experiencing an acute attack, self-care advice and medication may be warranted. Prochlorperazine is recommended for acute attacks, while betahistine is used for preventive treatment. Severe symptoms may require hospital admission for supportive treatment.
Long-term use of oral or buccal prochlorperazine is not recommended, and vestibular rehabilitation is not the most appropriate management for this condition. Instead, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation and management.
Carbamazepine is not indicated for the management of Meniere’s disease. Patients should also be advised to inform the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Authority (DVLA) of their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 153
Correct
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A mother brings in her 8-year-old daughter to the pediatrician's office. She is worried because she has noticed that her daughter has been showing signs of breast development for the past 3 months. The mother is concerned that her daughter may be experiencing early puberty. What course of action would you recommend?
Your Answer: Reassure her that this is normal development
Explanation:If a girl develops secondary sexual characteristics before the age of 8 and a boy before the age of 9, it is considered precocious puberty. However, if a girl is developing within the normal time frame, such as breast development, there is no need for the mother to worry or seek medical attention. Checking sex hormones or referring to a pediatric specialist is unnecessary as the child is developing normally and the breast development will continue as part of the natural pubertal process.
Understanding Precocious Puberty
Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 154
Correct
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A 59-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of severe dizziness, double vision and tinnitus whenever he lifts weights. He is a non-smoker and is in good health otherwise. During the examination, there is a difference of 35 mmHg between the systolic blood pressure (BP) in his left and right arms. His cardiovascular examination is otherwise unremarkable. His neurological examination is also normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Subclavian steal syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating Subclavian Steal Syndrome from Other Conditions
Subclavian steal syndrome is a condition that occurs when the subclavian artery is narrowed or blocked, leading to reversed blood flow in the vertebral artery. This can cause arm claudication and transient neurological symptoms when the affected arm is exercised. A key diagnostic feature is a systolic blood pressure difference of at least 15 mmHg between the affected and non-affected arms. However, other conditions can also cause discrepancies in blood pressure or similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate subclavian steal syndrome from other possibilities.
Aortic dissection is a medical emergency that can cause a sudden onset of chest pain and rapidly deteriorating symptoms. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is characterized by vertigo triggered by head movements, but does not involve blood pressure differences or diplopia. Buerger’s disease is a rare condition that can cause blood pressure discrepancies, but also involves skin changes and tissue ischemia. Carotid sinus hypersensitivity (CSH) can cause syncope when pressure is applied to the neck, but does not explain the other symptoms reported by the patient.
In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary to distinguish subclavian steal syndrome from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 155
Correct
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A 70-year-old female presents with hypothenar eminence wasting and sensory loss in the little finger. What is the probable location of the lesion?
Your Answer: Ulnar nerve
Explanation:The Ulnar Nerve: Overview, Branches, and Patterns of Damage
The ulnar nerve is a nerve that arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 spinal nerves. It provides motor innervation to several muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. It also provides sensory innervation to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects.
The ulnar nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm before entering the palm of the hand via the Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone. The nerve has several branches, including the muscular branch, palmar cutaneous branch, dorsal cutaneous branch, superficial branch, and deep branch. These branches supply various muscles and skin areas in the hand.
Damage to the ulnar nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow. When damaged at the wrist, it can result in a claw hand deformity, which involves hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except lateral two lumbricals) and hypothenar muscles, as well as sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers. When damaged at the elbow, the same symptoms may occur, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to note that in distal lesions, the clawing may be more severe, which is known as the ulnar paradox.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 156
Correct
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A 6-year-old patient is brought to the emergency department by their mother due to a cough and low-grade fever that has been present for a week. The mother describes the cough as barking and confirms that the child has received all vaccinations up to this point. During the examination, suprasternal wall retraction is observed at rest, but the child appears alert and responsive. Strident breath sounds are heard while the child is at rest. What is the recommended course of action for management?
Your Answer: Admit to the paediatric ward
Explanation:Admission to the paediatric ward is necessary when a child presents with audible stridor at rest, which is a clear indication of croup. This condition is characterized by a barking cough, mild fever, and coryzal symptoms, and in moderate cases, suprasternal wall retraction may be observed. Discharging the patient with dexamethasone or antibiotics is not appropriate, as stridor at rest requires further observation. A single dose of oral dexamethasone should be administered to all children with croup, regardless of severity. Referral to ENT is not urgent and not necessary in this case.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 157
Correct
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A 24-year-old teacher attends her first cervical smear appointment. She has never been pregnant before, but she had pelvic inflammatory disease that was treated 3 years ago. Currently, she has an intrauterine device in place. She has no other significant medical or social history. During the appointment, she asks what the test is for.
How would you explain it to her?Your Answer: The sample is tested for high-risk HPV first
Explanation:The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a common sexually transmitted infection that can lead to cervical cancer. There are over 100 types of HPV, with types 16 and 18 being high-risk types that are responsible for the majority of cervical cancers. Types 6 and 11 are low-risk types that typically cause benign genital warts. Although not part of the screening process, the Gardasil vaccine can protect against both HPV types 6 and 11.
Contrary to popular belief, not all samples undergo both HPV testing and cytology. Only samples that test positive for high-risk HPV undergo cytology testing. Samples that test negative for high-risk HPV do not require further testing.
In the past, samples were first examined under a microscope (cytology) before HPV testing. However, research has shown that testing for high-risk HPV first is more effective. If a woman tests positive for HPV, she will receive a single letter informing her of her HPV status and whether any abnormal cells were detected.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 158
Correct
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A 10-year-old child with a history of infective diarrhoea presents with fever, hypertension, haematuria and bloody stools two weeks later. What could be a potential diagnosis?
Your Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Explanation:Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is a condition that causes progressive kidney failure and is associated with microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia. There are two main types of HUS, one of which is associated with Shiga-like toxin (Stx) and is commonly seen in children who have had diarrhoea. The classic form of Stx-HUS is often caused by E. coli O157:H7 and is characterized by a history of gastroenteritis, fever, bloody diarrhoea, oedema, and hypertension. Henoch-Schönlein purpura is an acute disorder that affects small blood vessels in various parts of the body, including the skin, gastrointestinal tract, kidneys, and joints. It is characterized by a rash with bullae and ulcers, which typically appears in crops. Post-infectious glomerulonephritis is a condition that occurs after a streptococcal infection and is characterized by haematuria, proteinuria, red blood cell casts in the urine, oedema, and hypertension. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is a rare cause of chronic nephritis that occurs primarily in children and young adults and may be idiopathic or secondary in aetiology. Acute interstitial nephritis is a condition that causes sudden kidney dysfunction, fever, and occasionally a rash, and is often associated with drug use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 159
Correct
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A 30-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after being found unconscious on the street with a syringe and used pack of oxycodone and alprazolam nearby. Upon examination, he is lethargic with pinpoint pupils, reduced bowel sounds, and fresh needle marks on his right arm. His vital signs are: blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, heart rate 55/min, oxygen saturation of 95% on room air, temperature 36ºC, and respiratory rate of 5 breaths per minute. His blood glucose level is 8 mmol/L. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Naloxone
Explanation:The individual displays classic symptoms of acute opioid overdose, including slow breathing, constricted pupils, and changes in consciousness.
The management of overdoses and poisonings involves specific treatments for each toxin. For paracetamol overdose, activated charcoal is recommended if ingested within an hour, followed by N-acetylcysteine or liver transplantation if necessary. Salicylate overdose can be managed with urinary alkalinization using IV bicarbonate or haemodialysis. Opioid/opiate overdose can be treated with naloxone, while benzodiazepine overdose can be treated with flumazenil in severe cases. Tricyclic antidepressant overdose may require IV bicarbonate to reduce the risk of seizures and arrhythmias, but class 1a and class Ic antiarrhythmics should be avoided. Lithium toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline or haemodialysis in severe cases. Warfarin overdose can be treated with vitamin K or prothrombin complex, while heparin overdose can be treated with protamine sulphate. Beta-blocker overdose may require atropine or glucagon. Ethylene glycol poisoning can be managed with fomepizole or ethanol, while methanol poisoning can be treated with the same. Organophosphate insecticide poisoning can be treated with atropine, and digoxin overdose can be treated with digoxin-specific antibody fragments. Iron overdose can be managed with desferrioxamine, and lead poisoning can be treated with dimercaprol or calcium edetate. Carbon monoxide poisoning can be managed with 100% oxygen or hyperbaric oxygen, while cyanide poisoning can be treated with hydroxocobalamin or a combination of amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 160
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents to the Vascular Clinic. He has been found to have a left internal carotid dissection incidentally while having cross-sectional neck imaging. He is asymptomatic, there are no intracranial or extracranial haematomas and he has not had a stroke or transient ischaemic attack in the past.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step for this patient?Your Answer: Conservative management with antiplatelet or anticoagulation agents
Explanation:Treatment and Surveillance Options for Carotid Artery Dissection
Carotid artery dissection is a condition that requires careful management and surveillance to prevent stroke and other complications. The treatment approach depends on various factors, including the cause of the dissection, the location, and the presence of bleeding. Conservative management with antiplatelet or anticoagulation agents is often used to minimize the risk of stroke. Endovascular stenting may be an option for some patients, particularly those who cannot tolerate anticoagulation or have failed medical management.
Surveillance is also crucial for patients with carotid artery dissection, particularly those who are asymptomatic. Yearly surveillance with carotid ultrasound Doppler is a non-invasive and cost-effective option that can be used for follow-up monitoring. However, it has some limitations, including difficulty scanning the distal-internal carotid artery and detecting emboli. Computed tomography (CT) angiography has high sensitivity in diagnosis and follow-up reviews of carotid-artery dissections, but it has no role in treatment. Magnetic resonance (MR) angiography and MR imaging can also be used for follow-up monitoring and diagnostic purposes, but they are not appropriate for treatment. Overall, a comprehensive approach that considers the individual patient’s needs and circumstances is essential for managing carotid artery dissection effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 161
Correct
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A 27-year-old female patient visits the genitourinary medicine clinic seeking treatment for recurring genital warts. Which virus is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Human papilloma virus 6 & 11
Explanation:Understanding Genital Warts
Genital warts, also known as condylomata accuminata, are a common reason for visits to genitourinary clinics. These warts are caused by various types of the human papillomavirus (HPV), with types 6 and 11 being the most common culprits. It is important to note that HPV, particularly types 16, 18, and 33, can increase the risk of cervical cancer.
The warts themselves are small, fleshy protrusions that are typically 2-5mm in size and may be slightly pigmented. They can cause discomfort, itching, and even bleeding. Treatment options for genital warts include topical podophyllum or cryotherapy, depending on the location and type of lesion. Topical agents are generally used for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy. Imiquimod, a topical cream, is often used as a second-line treatment. It is important to note that genital warts can be resistant to treatment, and recurrence is common. However, most anogenital HPV infections clear up on their own within 1-2 years without intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 162
Correct
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Which of the following is linked to a favorable prognosis in individuals with schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Acute onset
Explanation:A poor prognosis is often linked to a gradual onset rather than an acute one.
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that can have varying prognoses depending on certain factors. Some indicators associated with a poor prognosis include a strong family history of the disorder, a gradual onset of symptoms, a low IQ, a prodromal phase of social withdrawal, and a lack of an obvious precipitant. These factors can contribute to a more severe and chronic course of the illness, making it more difficult to manage and treat. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia and their loved ones to be aware of these indicators and seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 163
Correct
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A 72-year-old male presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. He is taking multiple medications for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Thyroid function tests are requested and the results are shown in the table below:
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.2 mU/L
Free T4 35 pmol/L
What is the most likely cause of these findings?Your Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction
Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders. However, around 1 in 6 patients taking amiodarone develop thyroid dysfunction. This can manifest as either amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) or amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT).
The pathophysiology of AIH is thought to be due to the high iodine content of amiodarone causing a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. This is an autoregulatory phenomenon where thyroxine formation is inhibited due to high levels of circulating iodide. Despite this, amiodarone may be continued if desirable.
On the other hand, AIT may be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 is caused by amiodarone-related destructive thyroiditis. In patients with AIT, amiodarone should be stopped if possible.
It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients taking amiodarone for any signs of thyroid dysfunction and adjust treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 164
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents with an acute onset of pain and blurred vision of his right eye. On examination, there is conjunctival injection and dendritic ulceration seen on his cornea.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Herpes simplex virus keratitis
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a patient with unilateral eye symptoms
Herpes simplex virus keratitis and Candida endophthalmitis are two potential causes of unilateral eye symptoms, but other conditions should also be considered. A foreign body may cause corneal ulceration and blurred vision, but there is no evidence of its presence in the scenario. Trachoma is unlikely in a developed country, while glaucoma typically presents with bilateral symptoms or acute angle-closure in a minority of cases. A thorough history, physical examination, and appropriate tests can help to establish the correct diagnosis and guide treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 165
Correct
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A 42-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of ear pain. He had visited the emergency department 3 days ago but was only given advice. He has been experiencing ear pain for 5 days now.
During the examination, his temperature is 38.5ºC and his right ear drum is red and bulging. What is the appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Start amoxicillin
Explanation:To improve treatment of tonsillitis and otitis media without relying on antibiotics, medical guidelines suggest waiting 2-3 days before considering treatment if symptoms do not improve. This approach is especially important when a patient has a fever, indicating systemic involvement. Therefore, recommending regular paracetamol is not appropriate in this case. While erythromycin can be a useful alternative for patients with a penicillin allergy, it should not be the first choice for those who can take penicillin. Penicillin V is the preferred antibiotic for tonsillitis, as amoxicillin can cause a rash in cases of glandular fever. However, it is not typically used for otitis media. For otitis media, amoxicillin is the recommended first-line medication at a dosage of 500mg TDS for 7 days. Co-amoxiclav is only used as a second-line option if amoxicillin is ineffective, and is not recommended as a first-line treatment according to current medical guidelines. These recommendations are based on NICE Guidelines and Clinical Knowledge Summaries.
Acute Otitis Media: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, with around 50% experiencing three or more episodes by the age of 3 years. While viral upper respiratory tract infections often precede otitis media, bacterial infections, particularly Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, are the primary cause. Viral infections disrupt the normal nasopharyngeal microbiome, allowing bacteria to infect the middle ear through the Eustachian tube.
Symptoms of acute otitis media include ear pain, fever, hearing loss, and recent viral upper respiratory tract infection symptoms. Otoscopy may reveal a bulging tympanic membrane, opacification or erythema of the tympanic membrane, perforation with purulent otorrhoea, or decreased mobility when using a pneumatic otoscope. Diagnosis is typically based on the acute onset of symptoms, otalgia or ear tugging, the presence of a middle ear effusion, bulging of the tympanic membrane, otorrhoea, decreased mobility on pneumatic otoscopy, or inflammation of the tympanic membrane.
Acute otitis media is generally self-limiting and does not require antibiotic treatment. However, antibiotics should be prescribed if symptoms last more than four days or do not improve, if the patient is systemically unwell but not requiring admission, if the patient is immunocompromised or at high risk of complications, if the patient is younger than 2 years with bilateral otitis media, or if there is otitis media with perforation and/or discharge in the canal. Amoxicillin is the first-line antibiotic, but erythromycin or clarithromycin should be given to patients with penicillin allergy.
Common sequelae of acute otitis media include perforation of the tympanic membrane, unresolved acute otitis media with perforation leading to chronic suppurative otitis media, hearing loss, and labyrinthitis. Complications may include mastoiditis, meningitis, brain abscess, and facial nerve paralysis. Parents should seek medical help if symptoms worsen or do not improve after three days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 166
Correct
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A 72-year-old male presents to the emergency department with wrist pain after slipping in ill-fitting shoes. He reports having experienced progressive lumbar and hip pain over the past few years, which he attributed to old age. However, he denies any weight loss, night sweats, and feels otherwise well. A hand and wrist x-ray shows a hairline radial fracture. The patient's blood tests reveal Hb of 144 g/L, platelets of 340 * 109/L, WBC of 9.0 * 109/L, bilirubin of 14 µmol/L, ALP of 240 u/L, ALT of 30 u/L, γGT of 20 u/L, and albumin of 48 g/L. What is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Alendronate
Explanation:Bisphosphonates are the preferred treatment for Paget’s disease of the bone, as illustrated by the case of an elderly man presenting with bone pain, isolated elevated ALP, and a fragility fracture. While calcitonin may be used in some cases, it is less effective and has a shorter duration of action. Calcium supplementation is not indicated unless the patient is experiencing hypocalcemia. DEXA scans are not necessary for diagnosis in this case, as the patient will already be started on bisphosphonates. While orthotics may be helpful for ill-fitting footwear, they do not address the underlying issue of Paget’s disease and the fragility fracture.
Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.
Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.
Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 167
Correct
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A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of deteriorating vision. Upon examination with mydriatic drops, pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy is discovered. The patient is referred to an ophthalmologist. However, later that evening while driving home, he experiences reduced visual acuity and pain in his left eye. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma
Explanation:Although mydriatic drops can cause acute angle closure glaucoma, this situation is more frequently encountered in exams than in actual medical practice.
Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.
There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 168
Incorrect
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Which one of the following pathological changes favours ulcerative colitis (UC) over Crohn disease in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Granulomas
Correct Answer: Crypt abscesses
Explanation:Differences between Crohn’s Disease and Ulcerative Colitis
Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are both types of inflammatory bowel disease, but they differ in several aspects. One of the main differences is the presence of granulomas. While a lack of granulomas does not rule out Crohn’s disease, it is a far more likely option if they are present. Granulomas are not present in ulcerative colitis.
Another difference is the layers of the bowel affected. Crohn’s disease affects all layers of the bowel, known as transmural disease, whereas ulcerative colitis is confined to the mucosa with occasional submucosa inflammation. Only Crohn’s disease has muscularis and serosa involvement. Additionally, Crohn’s disease can affect anything from the mouth to the anus, whereas ulcerative colitis is limited to colonic lesions.
Skip lesions, or areas of discontinuity of the inflammatory process, are characteristic of Crohn’s disease. When skip lesions are present, this is suggestive of Crohn’s disease. Ulcerative colitis is a continuous disease, whereas Crohn’s disease can be present in multiple areas of the bowel with sharply demarcated areas.
In terms of histology, both diseases show intense infiltration of the mucosa and submucosa with neutrophils and lymphoid aggregates. However, in fulminant cases of ulcerative colitis, the muscularis propria may be affected. On the other hand, the histologic characteristic pattern of inflammation in Crohn’s disease is transmural involvement of the bowel wall by lymphoid infiltrates that contain non-caseating granulomas.
Therefore, it is important to differentiate between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis to provide appropriate treatment. Endoscopy must be performed if ulcerative colitis is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 169
Incorrect
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You are a junior doctor working in the Emergency Department. A 54-year-old man is brought in by his wife. He looks unwell and is sweating profusely. He tells you he has abruptly stopped drinking alcohol and used to drink heavily. What is the neurotransmitter mechanism responsible for alcohol withdrawal?
Your Answer: Increased inhibitory GABA and decreased excitatory glutamate
Correct Answer: Decreased inhibitory GABA and increased excitatory glutamate
Explanation:Alcohol withdrawal occurs due to a decrease in the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA and an increase in the excitatory neurotransmitter NMDA glutamate. GABA typically reduces brain activity and induces a calming effect when levels are high, which is heightened during alcohol consumption. On the other hand, glutamate increases brain activity and acts as a natural stimulant, which is reduced during alcohol consumption, leading to a physiological slowdown.
When a person drinks alcohol, the brain assumes that there is an excess of GABA and a shortage of glutamate. However, if the person continues to drink excessively, the brain produces less GABA and more glutamate to restore normal brain chemistry. If the person then stops drinking, the brain experiences a rebound effect, where it still produces less GABA and more glutamate than required without alcohol. As a result, the brain acts as if there is a deficiency of GABA and an excess of glutamate, leading to withdrawal symptoms.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 170
Correct
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A 47-year-old man is seen by his General Practitioner for his annual hypertension review. He agrees to be referred to the local smoking cessation service, as he is currently experiencing chest pain.
Which of the following medications will need to be monitored closely on cessation of smoking?Your Answer: Theophylline
Explanation:The Effect of Smoking Cessation on Asthma Medications
Smoking cessation can have a significant impact on the management of asthma and the use of certain medications. Here is a breakdown of how smoking cessation affects different asthma medications:
Theophylline: Smoking induces the hepatic enzyme CYP1A2, which plays a major role in metabolizing theophylline. Therefore, quitting smoking can lead to higher plasma levels of theophylline and potentially fatal arrhythmias. Patients need to have their plasma theophylline concentration levels monitored closely and may require a reduced dose after quitting smoking.
Budesonide/formoterol: Neither budesonide nor formoterol are metabolized by CYP1A2, so there is no need for close monitoring following smoking cessation. Asthma control should improve after quitting smoking, and the inhaler dose should be reviewed as part of stepwise management.
Montelukast: Montelukast is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system but not CYP1A2, so smoking cessation does not affect its level.
Prednisolone: Prednisolone is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system, but CYP1A2 is not involved. Therefore, smoking cessation does not affect its metabolism.
Salbutamol: Smoking cessation can improve asthma control, leading to less frequent use of salbutamol or other reliever inhalers. There is no need to monitor this closely as reducing the as-required use of this medication poses no risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 171
Correct
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As a physician on the night shift cardiac arrest team, you receive an emergency page requesting immediate assistance on the geriatric ward. Upon arrival, you discover the nursing staff performing chest compressions on an unresponsive patient with no carotid pulse. You instruct them to continue compressions while you apply defibrillator pads to the patient's chest. After a brief pause in compressions, the defibrillator monitor displays a monomorphic, broad complex tachycardia. What is the next best course of action?
Your Answer: Immediately give 1 defibrillator shock followed by CPR
Explanation:When pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) is identified, the immediate and correct treatment is a single defibrillator shock followed by 2 minutes of CPR. This is in contrast to using intravenous adenosine or amiodarone, which are not appropriate in this scenario. The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines now recommend a single shock for ventricular fibrillation (VF) or pulseless VT. Administering 3 back-to-back shocks followed by 1 minute of CPR is part of the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm, but it is not the most appropriate next step in management for a delayed recognition of rhythm like in the above case. In contrast, continued CPR with 30 chest compressions to 2 breaths is appropriate in a basic life support scenario where a defibrillator is not yet available.
The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 172
Correct
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A 42-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with a 2-month history of progressive fatigue. She has a medical history of type-1 diabetes mellitus. Her doctor orders a full blood count, which reveals a low Hb and high mean cell volume. The platelet and WBC counts are within normal limits. Which antibody test should be performed to assist in the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Intrinsic-factor antibodies
Explanation:When investigating vitamin B12 deficiency, intrinsic factor antibodies are more useful than gastric parietal cell antibodies due to the low specificity of the latter. Megaloblastic anaemia, characterized by low haemoglobin and raised mean cell volume, can be caused by B12 or folate deficiency and may indicate pernicious anaemia, an autoimmune condition that impairs B12 uptake. Intrinsic factor antibodies are more specific for pernicious anaemia and are commonly used to confirm the diagnosis along with a blood test. Anti-histone antibodies are involved in drug-induced lupus caused by certain drugs. Anti-TTG antibodies are used to screen for coeliac disease, which can cause microcytic anaemia due to iron deficiency from malabsorption. While gastric parietal cell antibodies are linked to pernicious anaemia, their low specificity makes them less reliable for diagnosis compared to intrinsic factor antibodies.
Understanding Pernicious Anaemia
Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in vitamin B12 deficiency due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious means causing harm in a gradual or subtle way, and this is reflected in the often subtle symptoms and delayed diagnosis of the condition. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition.
The pathophysiology of pernicious anaemia involves antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells. These antibodies can bind to intrinsic factor, blocking the vitamin B12 binding site, or reduce acid production and cause atrophic gastritis. This leads to reduced intrinsic factor production and reduced vitamin B12 absorption, which can result in megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Risk factors for pernicious anaemia include being female, middle to old age, and having other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid arthritis, and vitiligo. It is also more common in individuals with blood group A.
Symptoms of pernicious anaemia include anaemia features such as lethargy, pallor, and dyspnoea, as well as neurological features such as peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Neuropsychiatric features such as memory loss, poor concentration, confusion, depression, and irritability may also be present, along with mild jaundice and glossitis.
Diagnosis of pernicious anaemia involves a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and testing for antibodies such as anti intrinsic factor antibodies and anti gastric parietal cell antibodies. Treatment involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly, and folic acid supplementation may also be required. Complications of pernicious anaemia include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 173
Correct
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A 31-year-old primigravida woman presents to the emergency department after a fall. She is currently 36 weeks pregnant and experienced convulsions for approximately 1 minute following the fall. The patient has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus and has been experiencing headaches and swollen feet for the past 48 hours. Upon assessment, her heart rate is 87 bpm and blood pressure is 179/115 mmHg. What is the next best course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulphate
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for eclampsia is intravenous magnesium sulphate. In this case, the woman has been diagnosed with eclampsia due to her tonic-clonic seizure and her symptoms of pre-eclampsia for the past two days. The initial management should focus on preventing further seizures and providing neuroprotection to the fetus, followed by considering delivery. It is important to monitor both the mother and fetus for signs of hypermagnesaemia, such as hyperreflexia and respiratory depression, and to continuously monitor their cardiotocography. Emergency caesarean section is not the most appropriate initial management as the woman needs to be stabilized first, given her high risk of having further seizures. Intravenous anti-hypertensives should also be administered after magnesium sulphate to lower her blood pressure. Intravenous furosemide and monitoring cardiotocography are not recommended as furosemide does not lower blood pressure in eclampsia. Intramuscular steroids are not necessary in this case as the woman is 35 weeks pregnant, and fetal lungs should be fully developed by now. Steroids are also not the most important management at this stage, even if the woman was earlier in her pregnancy.
Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment
Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.
In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 174
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and chooses to have a physiological third stage of labor. She experiences a blood loss of 800 ml shortly after delivery. The medical team follows an ABCDE approach and starts a warmed crystalloid infusion. There is no history of medical issues or delivery-related trauma.
What should be the next course of action in managing her condition?Your Answer: Compress the uterus and catheterise her
Explanation:To manage a postpartum haemorrhage, an ABCDE approach should be taken, with initial steps including compressing the uterus and catheterising the patient. This is known as ‘mechanical management’ and is appropriate for a primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) where uterine atony is the most common cause. IV warmed crystalloid should also be given. Medical management options such as IV oxytocin or IM/IV carboprost should only be considered if mechanical methods fail. It is important to note that IV carboprost should not be administered as it can lead to serious side effects.
Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage
Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.
In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.
Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 175
Correct
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As a foundation doctor in the surgical assessment unit, you assess a sixty-three-year-old man presenting with jaundice. During examination, you detect a mass in the right upper quadrant, but no other significant findings are present. The patient denies any history of foreign travel and is a non-drinker. Additionally, tests for hepatitis come back negative. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gallbladder malignancy
Explanation:If a patient has an enlarged gallbladder that is not tender and is accompanied by painless jaundice, it is unlikely to be caused by gallstones. Instead, it is important to consider the possibility of malignancy. Therefore, further investigation should be done to check for malignancy of the gallbladder or pancreas, as either of these conditions could lead to biliary obstruction, resulting in a mass and jaundice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 176
Correct
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You are a junior doctor working in pediatrics. You are preparing cases for the morbidity and mortality meeting. What is the time frame that defines infant mortality?
Your Answer: Any death in pregnancy, labour or in the six weeks post partum
Explanation:The investigation of maternal deaths in the UK is carried out by the Confidential Enquiry into Maternal Deaths, which encompasses deaths occurring during pregnancy, labour, and up to six weeks after delivery. Post partum haemorrhage (PPH) is a leading cause of maternal mortality. A stillbirth is defined as the loss of a fetus after twenty weeks gestation, while any loss prior to this is classified as a miscarriage.
Perinatal Death Rates and Related Metrics
Perinatal mortality rate is a measure of stillbirths and early neonatal deaths within seven days per 1,000 births after 24 weeks of gestation. In the UK, this rate is around 6 per 1,000 births. This figure is usually broken down into 4 per 1,000 stillbirths and 2 per 1,000 early neonatal deaths.
Maternal mortality rate, on the other hand, is calculated by dividing the number of deaths during pregnancy, labor, and six weeks after delivery by the total number of maternities and multiplying the result by 1000. Meanwhile, the stillbirth rate is determined by dividing the number of babies born dead after 24 weeks by the total number of births (live and stillborn) and multiplying the result by 1000. Lastly, the neonatal death rate is computed by dividing the number of babies who died between 0-28 days by the total number of live births and multiplying the result by 1000.
These metrics are important in assessing the quality of perinatal care and identifying areas for improvement. By monitoring these rates, healthcare providers can work towards reducing perinatal deaths and improving maternal and neonatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 177
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male comes to the emergency department at 3am complaining of an excruciating one-sided headache. He reports the pain is unbearable and situated behind his right eye. During the examination, his right eye appears red and watery, with a small pupil, and the patient seems restless. Upon further inquiry, he reveals that he has been experiencing these headaches every night for a few weeks. What medication can be administered for long-term prevention of these headaches?
Your Answer: Propranolol
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Verapamil is utilized to prevent cluster headaches in the long term, while sumatriptan is employed as an immediate rescue therapy in conjunction with high-flow oxygen. It is important to carefully read the question to ensure the correct medication is selected. Propranolol is used for migraine prevention, while sertraline, an SSRI, is used to treat depression and has a similar mechanism of action to sumatriptan.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain typically occurs once or twice a day, lasting between 15 minutes to 2 hours. The pain is intense and sharp, usually around one eye, and is accompanied by redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, and nasal stuffiness. Some patients may also experience miosis and ptosis.
To manage cluster headaches, 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan can be used for acute treatment, with response rates of 80% and 75% respectively within 15 minutes. Verapamil is the drug of choice for prophylaxis, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches, especially with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male presents to his primary care clinic with a 3-day history of burning pain and rash on the right side of his chest. He also complains of feeling generally unwell. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.
During the physical examination, an erythematous rash with multiple clear vesicles is observed on the right side of the torso. The remainder of the clinical examination, including an ophthalmic examination, is unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient's most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe oral famciclovir
Explanation:Patients suspected of having shingles should receive antiviral treatment within 72 hours of symptom onset, according to NICE guidelines. Shingles is diagnosed based on the presence of dermatomal pain and a papular rash, with pain often persisting after the rash has resolved. The recommended first-line oral antivirals are famciclovir or valacyclovir, to be taken for 7 days. Aciclovir is a second-line option, as studies have shown that famciclovir and valacyclovir are more effective in reducing the risk of postherpetic pain. Prescribing calamine lotion and analgesia, as well as monitoring the patient, is not sufficient and does not replace antiviral treatment. Intravenous antivirals are only necessary if the patient cannot tolerate oral medication, and famciclovir cannot be administered intravenously.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The rash is well demarcated by the affected dermatome and may be accompanied by fever and lethargy. Treatment includes analgesia, antivirals, and potentially oral corticosteroids. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, ocular and ear complications. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 179
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman develops a red and hot right shin. She is afebrile and otherwise well. She has no known allergies. Her Wells' score is -2.
Which of the following would be the best option?
Select the SINGLE best option from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral flucloxacillin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Cellulitis and the Use of Doppler Ultrasound for DVT Diagnosis
Cellulitis is a common bacterial skin infection that can be treated with oral flucloxacillin, according to UK antimicrobial guidelines. Hospital admission for cellulitis treatment is only necessary for febrile and ill patients or those with comorbidities. Oral co-amoxiclav is recommended for facial cellulitis, but not for cellulitis in other locations. Oral vancomycin is used for Clostridium difficile infection, not cellulitis.
A Doppler ultrasound scan can be useful in diagnosing deep venous thrombosis (DVT), but it is unlikely to be necessary for a patient with cellulitis who is otherwise well and has a low Wells’ score. The Wells’ score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of DVT based on clinical features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 180
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe chest pain that started an hour ago and is radiating to his left arm. He has a history of type two diabetes and has smoked 50 packs of cigarettes in his lifetime. An ECG shows ST-elevation in leads V2-4, indicating a STEMI. As the healthcare provider, you decide to initiate treatment and give the patient 300mg of aspirin orally. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-reversible COX 1 and 2 inhibitor
Explanation:Aspirin irreversibly inhibits both COX 1 and COX 2, preventing the conversion of arachidonic acid into prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. Thromboxane A2 is responsible for platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction. In cases of acute coronary syndrome, high doses of aspirin are administered to prevent the enlargement of the coronary thrombus.
The Mechanism and Guidelines for Aspirin Use in Cardiovascular Disease
Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By inhibiting the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, leading to changes in guidelines. Aspirin is now recommended as a first-line treatment for patients with ischaemic heart disease, but it should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. The medication can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a drug safety update in January 2010, reminding prescribers that aspirin is not licensed for primary prevention. NICE now recommends clopidogrel as a first-line treatment following an ischaemic stroke and for peripheral arterial disease. However, the situation is more complex for TIAs, with recent Royal College of Physician (RCP) guidelines supporting the use of clopidogrel, while older NICE guidelines still recommend aspirin + dipyridamole – a position the RCP state is ‘illogical’. Despite these changes, aspirin remains an important medication in the treatment of cardiovascular disease, and its use should be carefully considered based on individual patient needs and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 181
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visits his doctor for routine blood tests before starting a statin medication. During the tests, his renal function is discovered to be impaired, and he is referred for further evaluation.
Na+ 135 mmol/l
K+ 4.2 mmol/l
Urea 15 mmol/l
Creatinine 152 µmol/l
What sign would suggest that the man's condition is chronic rather than acute?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Distinguishing between Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease
One of the most effective ways to differentiate between acute kidney injury (AKI) and chronic kidney disease (CKD) is through the use of renal ultrasound. In most cases, patients with CKD will have small kidneys that are bilateral. However, there are some exceptions to this rule, including individuals with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, diabetic nephropathy in its early stages, amyloidosis, and HIV-associated nephropathy.
In addition to renal ultrasound, there are other features that can suggest CKD rather than AKI. For example, individuals with CKD may experience hypocalcaemia due to a lack of vitamin D. By identifying these distinguishing factors, healthcare professionals can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with kidney disease. Proper diagnosis is crucial, as the treatment and management of AKI and CKD differ significantly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old man's mother visits his General Practitioner with concerns about her son's behavior. The young man has become isolated from his social circle, has developed an interest in the paranormal, and appears increasingly disheveled. He has been observed talking to himself and recently covered the TV screen with paper. His speech is erratic and jumps from one unrelated topic to another. He is not using any psychotropic drugs and has no history of health issues. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Differentiating between Schizophrenia and other Mental Disorders
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, abnormal behavior, social withdrawal, blunted emotions, and breaks in thought processes. These symptoms are often accompanied by an irritable or depressed mood. When presented with a patient exhibiting these symptoms, schizophrenia is the most likely diagnosis.
Dissociative identity disorder, on the other hand, is a complex psychological disorder where the individual appears to have two or more distinct personalities that alternate and dictate their behavior. This disorder is associated with severe childhood trauma, which is not present in the case of the patient in question.
Bipolar disorder is characterized by extreme mood swings, ranging from mania to depression. While the patient exhibits some symptoms of depression, they are not displaying symptoms of mania, making bipolar disorder an unlikely diagnosis.
Delirium is a serious disturbance in mental abilities that results in confused thinking and reduced awareness of the environment. While an underlying physical cause should be excluded, the patient’s symptoms are more consistent with a psychotic illness than delirium.
Depression is characterized by continuous low mood, hopelessness, low self-esteem, tearfulness, and irritability. While patients with severe depression may suffer from psychotic episodes, the patient in question is exhibiting symptoms more consistent with schizophrenia, such as knights move thinking and responding to auditory hallucinations.
In conclusion, differentiating between schizophrenia and other mental disorders requires a thorough understanding of the symptoms and their presentation. While some disorders may share similar symptoms, a careful evaluation of the patient’s history and behavior can help determine the correct diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 183
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman with COPD has been recommended an inhaled corticosteroid. What is the primary advantage of using inhaled corticosteroids for treating COPD patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced frequency of exacerbations
Explanation:Inhaled corticosteroids are used to decrease the frequency of exacerbations in patients with COPD.
NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 184
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman has just been prescribed gliclazide for her T2DM. What is the mechanism of action of gliclazide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stimulates insulin secretion from the b-cells of the islets of Langerhans
Explanation:Different medications used to treat diabetes have varying mechanisms of action. Sulfonylureas like gliclazide stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas, making them effective for type II diabetes but not for type I diabetes. However, they can cause hypoglycemia and should be used with caution when combined with other hypoglycemic medications. Biguanides like metformin increase glucose uptake and utilization while decreasing gluconeogenesis, making them a first-line treatment for type II diabetes. Glucosidase inhibitors like acarbose delay the digestion of starch and sucrose, but are not commonly used due to gastrointestinal side effects. DPP-4 inhibitors like sitagliptin increase insulin production and decrease hepatic glucose overproduction by inhibiting the action of DPP-4. Thiazolidinediones like pioglitazone increase insulin sensitivity in the liver, fat, and skeletal muscle, but their use is limited due to associated risks of heart failure, bladder cancer, and fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 185
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset of left-sided weakness, facial droop, and dysphasia that started 3 hours ago. He has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, diabetes mellitus, and asthma.
Upon examination, his pulse is regular at 88 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 15 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. His temperature is 37.4ºC, blood pressure is 215/120 mmHg, and blood sugar is 6.8mmol/L. Heart sounds are normal, lungs are clear, and abdomen is soft and nontender. Neurological examination reveals left hemianopia and 0/5 power in the left upper and lower limbs.
Before considering thrombolysis, what additional steps should be taken based on the patient's examination findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe labetalol
Explanation:Before considering thrombolysis for a patient, it is crucial to ensure that their blood pressure is well-controlled. If the patient’s blood pressure is above 200/120mmHg, thrombolysis cannot be performed. In such cases, medications like Labetalol are administered to rapidly lower the blood pressure. The other options mentioned are not suitable as the patient’s chest and BM examinations were normal. Additionally, statins do not play a role in the acute management of stroke.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 186
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female patient visits the sexual health clinic seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 2 days ago. She is currently on the combined oral contraceptive pill but has missed the last 3 pills. The patient is on the 8th day of her menstrual cycle and has asthma, for which she uses fluticasone and salbutamol inhalers. The healthcare provider prescribes levonorgestrel. What advice should be given to the patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She can restart her pill immediately
Explanation:Levonorgestrel (Levonelle) can be followed immediately by hormonal contraception for emergency contraception.
Patients can resume their regular pill regimen right after taking levonorgestrel for emergency contraception. Levonorgestrel is an approved method of emergency contraception that can be used within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse. It is the preferred oral emergency contraceptive for patients with asthma, as ulipristal is not recommended for those with severe asthma. Unlike ulipristal, which requires a waiting period of 5 days, patients can start hormonal contraception immediately after taking levonorgestrel. However, patients should use condoms for 7 days after restarting their combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). It is important to note that the other options provided are incorrect. The progesterone-only pill requires condom use for 48 hours, unless initiated within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle. Ulipristal acetate requires a waiting period of 5 days before restarting hormonal contraception. The COCP requires condom use for 7 days after restarting.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 187
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate a 27-year-old male who is currently admitted to an adult psychiatric ward.
Upon asking him how he is feeling, his speech seems to be rapid and difficult to interrupt. It is challenging to follow his train of thought, although the content of each sentence appears to be loosely connected. He talks about having money, but says, I've got cash, dash for cash, dash of alcohol, thank you very much.
It is suspected that he has a formal thought disorder.
What is the best way to describe his presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flight of ideas
Explanation:Understanding the Difference between Hypomania and Mania
Hypomania and mania are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they actually refer to two different conditions. While both conditions share some common symptoms, there are some key differences that set them apart.
Mania is a more severe form of hypomania that lasts for at least seven days and can cause significant impairment in social and work settings. It may require hospitalization due to the risk of harm to oneself or others and may present with psychotic symptoms such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations.
On the other hand, hypomania is a lesser version of mania that lasts for less than seven days, typically 3-4 days. It does not impair functional capacity in social or work settings and is unlikely to require hospitalization. It also does not exhibit any psychotic symptoms.
Both hypomania and mania share common symptoms such as elevated or irritable mood, pressured speech, flight of ideas, poor attention, insomnia, loss of inhibitions, increased appetite, and risk-taking behavior. However, the length of symptoms, severity, and presence of psychotic symptoms help differentiate mania from hypomania.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 188
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents to the emergency department with his spouse. He is experiencing significant swelling of his tongue and lips, rendering him unable to speak. His wife reports that his symptoms have worsened during their wait, and she is unsure of the cause as he has no known allergies. However, she does mention that he was recently prescribed a new medication by his primary care physician.
Which of the following medications is the most probable culprit?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Although it is possible for the man to have been prescribed any of the medications listed, it is evident that he is experiencing angioedema, as indicated by the swelling of his tongue and lips. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is the medication most commonly associated with this side effect. Even if the patient has no history of allergies or negative reactions to ACE inhibitors, angioedema can still occur. While the likelihood of this happening is low, it is important to keep in mind due to the large number of patients taking this type of medication and the potential complications associated with angioedema.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.
ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.
Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 189
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman, who is a non-smoker, presents with back pain. A bone scan shows multiple lesions highly suggestive of metastases. Clinical examination is normal apart from unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy. Excision biopsy of an affected lymph node shows adenocarcinoma. Which of the following investigations should be prioritised to find the site of the primary?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mammography
Explanation:When a patient presents with metastatic bone disease from an unknown primary, it is important to identify the primary source in order to guide treatment and determine prognosis. Tumours that commonly metastasize to bone include those of the lungs, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.
In cases where the patient has unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy, metastatic breast carcinoma is highly likely. Other potential causes of unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy include lymphoma, primary malignancy, melanoma, or metastases from non-breast primary malignancy.
While there are various investigations that can be performed, mammography should be the first examination of choice. If the mammogram is negative, other investigations may be pursued to identify alternative occult sites.
It is important to note that identifying the primary source is useful even in cases of metastatic disease, as it can guide treatment and provide insight into prognosis. Therefore, mammography plays a crucial role in the diagnosis of metastatic breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 190
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of a sore throat that has been bothering him for the past three weeks. He reports feeling significantly fatigued, which is affecting his academic performance. On examination, he appears healthy and has tender cervical lymphadenopathy; his tonsils are enlarged but no exudate is present, and he has tender splenomegaly.
Which of the following investigation findings is most likely to be associated with this condition?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate result from the list below.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised liver transaminases (aspartate transaminase and alanine aminotransferase)
Explanation:The patient has raised liver transaminases, thrombocytosis, neutrophilia, raised antistreptolysin titres, and a reduced estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The most probable diagnosis is glandular fever/infectious mononucleosis caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). This infection is common in adolescents and presents with a prolonged sore throat, lethargy, and flu-like symptoms. Splenomegaly or hepatosplenomegaly, along with lymphadenopathy, are often observed. Liver function tests, especially the transaminases, are commonly elevated during active infection. Thrombocytopenia is commonly associated with glandular fever due to splenic involvement. Neutrophilia is less likely in this case than lymphocytosis, which is common with glandular fever. Antistreptolysin titres rise after a streptococcal infection, but glandular fever is a more likely diagnosis than streptococcal infection. Reduced eGFR associated with a sore throat should raise suspicion of dehydration or glomerulonephritis caused by a streptococcal infection, but neither of these diagnoses is as likely as glandular fever. The diagnostic investigation of choice for glandular fever is the Monospot test, which tests for heterophile antibodies to EBV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 191
Incorrect
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Which one of the following can be utilized for monitoring patients with colorectal cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoembryonic antigen
Explanation:Carcinoembryonic antigen can be utilized for post-operative recurrence monitoring in patients or evaluating the effectiveness of treatment in those with metastatic disease.
Colorectal Cancer Screening: Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this type of cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS offers a home-based screening programme called Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) to older adults. A one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England for people aged 55 years, but it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. The trial, partly funded by Cancer Research UK, showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used as part of a future bowel screening programme.
Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS now has a national screening programme that offers screening every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests because it only detects human haemoglobin, as opposed to animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. While a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy. At colonoscopy, approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 192
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner for evaluation, and it is observed that he is experiencing behavioural issues. The GP recommends additional testing with a potential diagnosis of frontotemporal dementia (FTD) or Lewy body dementia (LBD) being considered.
What aspect of the patient's medical history would suggest that LBD is the more probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluctuating confusion and hallucination
Explanation:Understanding the Signs and Symptoms of Frontotemporal Dementia and Lewy Body Dementia
Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) and Lewy body dementia (LBD) are two types of dementia that can cause a range of symptoms. Understanding the signs and symptoms of these conditions can help with early diagnosis and treatment.
Fluctuating confusion and hallucination are common signs of LBD, which is caused by protein deposits in nerve cells in the brain. People with LBD may also experience Parkinson’s disease symptoms such as rigid muscles and tremors. On the other hand, FTD is characterized by an insidious onset and a gradual progression. Personality changes, social-conduct problems, and a decline in judgment and empathy are common features of FTD.
While memory loss is a more prominent symptom in early Alzheimer’s, it can also occur in advanced stages of FTD and LBD. However, relatively preserved memory is more characteristic of FTD in its early stages. Additionally, FTD tends to have an onset before age 65, with some cases diagnosed in individuals as young as 17 years old.
Overall, recognizing the signs and symptoms of FTD and LBD can help with early diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a one-day history of blurring of vision and headache. He tells you there is no pain on touching the scalp, or when eating and chewing food.
He has a past medical history of hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
He tells you that his uncle died of brain cancer and he is afraid that he may have the same condition.
On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, you see some arterioles narrower than others. There are also venules being compressed by arterioles. There is optic disc swelling in both eyes with some exudates lining up like a star at the macula. There is also some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages.
His pulse is 80 beats per minute, while his blood pressure (BP) is 221/119 mmHg. His temperature is 37 °C, while his respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute. His oxygen saturations are 98% on room air.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy
Explanation:Differentiating Hypertensive Retinopathy from Other Eye Conditions: A Case Study
The patient in question presented with a highly raised blood pressure and complained of headache and blurring of vision. Fundoscopy revealed bilateral optic disc swelling, which is a typical feature of hypertensive retinopathy. However, other conditions such as giant-cell arteritis, age-related macular degeneration, intracranial space-occupying lesion, and proliferative diabetic retinopathy were also considered.
Giant-cell arteritis was ruled out due to the absence of scalp tenderness and jaw claudication. Age-related macular degeneration was also unlikely as there were no drusen or choroidal neovascularisation present. While an intracranial space-occupying lesion was a possibility, the lack of accompanying symptoms such as early-morning vomiting and weight loss made it less likely. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy was also ruled out as there were no new vessels at the disc or elsewhere.
In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms and fundoscopy findings strongly suggest a diagnosis of hypertensive retinopathy. It is important to differentiate this condition from other eye conditions to ensure appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of urinary frequency, dysuria, suprapubic pain and back pain. The symptoms have been getting worse over the past 48 hours. During examination, she is febrile and tachycardic. She has no history of urinary infections.
What is the most suitable investigation to arrange for this patient next?
Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urinary microscopy and culture
Explanation:The most appropriate investigation to arrange for a patient presenting with symptoms suggestive of a urinary tract infection or pyelonephritis is urinary microscopy and culture. It is important to obtain a sample before starting empirical antibiotics to guide subsequent antibiotic choice if the initial course is ineffective. While genital swabs may be useful if there is a history of sexually transmitted infection, they are not as important as urine culture in this situation. Cystoscopy and ultrasound scans of the abdomen may be useful in other situations, but are not urgently indicated in this case. Similarly, a CTKUB would not be useful in investigating the cause of the infection, which can be determined through urine culture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 195
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old woman was prescribed warfarin due to a pulmonary embolism. During treatment, she has experienced pain, numbness, and tingling in her left anterior thigh that extends to her medial leg. Additionally, she has weakness in knee extension and hip flexion, and her left knee jerk is absent. What is the most probable location of the lesion? Choose ONE option from the list provided.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left femoral nerve
Explanation:The left femoral nerve originates from L2-L4 in the lumbar plexus and damage to it can cause weakness in the quadriceps and iliopsoas muscles, resulting in difficulty with hip flexion and knee extension. There may also be numbness in the medial thigh and antero-medial calf, and decreased or absent patellar reflex. However, sensation to the anterolateral aspect of the thigh is preserved as it is innervated by a different nerve. The patient’s symptoms are likely due to a retroperitoneal hematoma caused by warfarin use. The left obturator nerve, which also originates from L2-L4, would cause different symptoms such as groin or medial thigh pain and weakness in the adductor muscles. The left common peroneal nerve, a branch of the sciatic nerve, would result in foot drop and sensory loss over the anterior calf and dorsum of the foot, but not above the knee. The left sciatic nerve supplies the hamstrings and all the muscles of the leg and foot, and damage to it would cause loss of power below the knee, loss of ankle jerk, and loss of lateral sensation below the knee. Finally, the left superior gluteal nerve supplies specific muscles in the buttocks and would result in a positive Trendelenburg’s sign, but no sensory loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 196
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man with a known history of mixed type dementia (Alzheimer's and vascular) is evaluated in memory clinic due to a recent decline in his memory and cognition. His mini-mental state score is 12 and he is started on memantine. What is the mechanism of action of memantine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: NMDA antagonist
Explanation:Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist and is not a cholinesterase inhibitor like donepezil and rivastigmine. While memantine does act at the serotonin and dopamine receptors, it acts as an antagonist and agonist respectively, rather than the options given.
Managing Alzheimer’s Disease: Non-Pharmacological and Pharmacological Approaches
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that progressively affects the brain and is the most common form of dementia in the UK. To manage this condition, there are both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches available.
Non-pharmacological management involves offering a range of activities that promote wellbeing and are tailored to the patient’s preferences. Group cognitive stimulation therapy is recommended for patients with mild to moderate dementia, while group reminiscence therapy and cognitive rehabilitation are also options to consider.
Pharmacological management involves the use of medications. The three acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine) are options for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease. Memantine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, is considered a second-line treatment and is recommended for patients with moderate Alzheimer’s who are intolerant of or have a contraindication to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors. It can also be used as an add-on drug to acetylcholinesterase inhibitors for patients with moderate or severe Alzheimer’s or as monotherapy in severe Alzheimer’s.
When managing non-cognitive symptoms, NICE does not recommend antidepressants for mild to moderate depression in patients with dementia. Antipsychotics should only be used for patients at risk of harming themselves or others or when the agitation, hallucinations, or delusions are causing them severe distress.
It is important to note that donepezil is relatively contraindicated in patients with bradycardia, and adverse effects may include insomnia. By utilizing both non-pharmacological and pharmacological approaches, patients with Alzheimer’s disease can receive comprehensive care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 197
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man complains of vertigo and loss of hearing on the left side. Which test is most likely to suggest the presence of an acoustic neuroma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absent corneal reflex
Explanation:Consider acoustic neuroma if there is a loss of corneal reflex.
Understanding Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic Neuroma)
Vestibular schwannoma, also known as acoustic neuroma, is a type of brain tumor that accounts for 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The affected cranial nerves can predict the features of the condition. For instance, cranial nerve VIII can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. On the other hand, cranial nerve V can lead to an absent corneal reflex, while cranial nerve VII can cause facial palsy.
Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are often seen in neurofibromatosis type 2. The diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is made through an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important since only 5% of patients have a normal audiogram.
The management of vestibular schwannoma involves surgery, radiotherapy, or observation. The choice of treatment depends on the size and location of the tumor, the patient’s age and overall health, and the severity of symptoms. In conclusion, understanding vestibular schwannoma is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is found to have a proximal deep vein thrombosis four weeks after undergoing surgery for a broken ankle. She is prescribed warfarin (initially accompanied by low molecular weight heparin) with a desired INR range of 2.0-3.0. What other treatment option should be presented to this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No additional treatment other than routine care
Explanation:Post-Thrombotic Syndrome: A Complication of Deep Vein Thrombosis
Post-thrombotic syndrome is a clinical syndrome that may develop following a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). It is caused by venous outflow obstruction and venous insufficiency, which leads to chronic venous hypertension. Patients with post-thrombotic syndrome may experience painful, heavy calves, pruritus, swelling, varicose veins, and venous ulceration.
In the past, compression stockings were offered to patients with DVT to reduce the risk of post-thrombotic syndrome. However, current recommendations state that elastic graduated compression stockings should not be used to prevent post-thrombotic syndrome or VTE recurrence after a proximal DVT. This recommendation does not cover the use of elastic stockings for the management of leg symptoms after DVT.
Once post-thrombotic syndrome has developed, compression stockings are a recommended treatment. Other recommendations include keeping the leg elevated. It is important for healthcare providers to recognize the potential complications of DVT and to provide appropriate management to prevent the development of post-thrombotic syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 199
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman comes to you with concerns about skin lesions on her chest. Upon examination, you notice two small red papules with visible fine vessels surrounding them. The lesions blanch when pressure is applied. What commonly used medication could be causing these lesions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive
Explanation:Spider naevi are a type of skin angioma that are typically found in the distribution of the superior vena cava. While they can occur without any apparent cause, the presence of multiple lesions may indicate an excess of oestrogen in the body. This is often associated with liver cirrhosis, as the liver is responsible for processing oestrogens. However, it can also occur during pregnancy or as a side effect of oestrogen-containing medications.
Understanding Spider Naevi
Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be identified by their ability to blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are typically found on the upper part of the body and are more common in childhood, affecting around 10-15% of people.
To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge. It is important to note that spider naevi may be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.
In summary, understanding spider naevi is important for proper diagnosis and management. By recognizing their distinct characteristics and potential associations, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 200
Incorrect
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You are conducting a medication review for a 67-year-old man who has a history of cerebrovascular disease (having suffered a stroke 3 years ago), depression, and knee osteoarthritis. He is currently taking the following medications:
- Clopidogrel 75 mg once daily
- Simvastatin 20 mg once daily
- Amlodipine 5mg once daily
- Ramipril 10mg once daily
- Diclofenac 50mg as needed
- Sertraline 50mg once daily
What changes would you recommend to his medication regimen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch diclofenac for an alternative NSAID
Explanation:The use of diclofenac is now prohibited for individuals with any type of cardiovascular ailment.
MHRA Guidance on Diclofenac and Cardiovascular Safety
The MHRA has updated its guidance on diclofenac, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), after a Europe-wide review of cardiovascular safety. While it has been known for some time that NSAIDs may increase the risk of cardiovascular events, the evidence base has become clearer. Diclofenac is associated with a significantly higher risk of cardiovascular events compared to other NSAIDs. Therefore, it is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease, peripheral arterial disease, cerebrovascular disease, and congestive heart failure (New York Heart Association classification II-IV). Patients should switch from diclofenac to other NSAIDs such as naproxen or ibuprofen, except for topical diclofenac. Studies have shown that naproxen and low-dose ibuprofen have the best cardiovascular risk profiles of the NSAIDs.
The MHRA’s updated guidance on diclofenac and cardiovascular safety highlights the increased risk of cardiovascular events associated with this NSAID compared to other NSAIDs. Patients with certain conditions are advised to avoid diclofenac and switch to other NSAIDs. This guidance is important for healthcare professionals to consider when prescribing NSAIDs to patients with cardiovascular risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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