-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
What was the fourth key principle outlined in the 2001 UK Government White Paper Valuing People besides Rights, Independence, and Choice?
Your Answer: Advocacy
Correct Answer: Inclusion
Explanation:The key principles outlined in Valuing People – A New Strategy for Learning Disability for the 21st Century (2001, updated in 2009) are focused on the rights, independence, choice, and inclusion of individuals with learning disabilities. While the strategy does address advocacy, quality of service, and health, these are not considered key principles. The term accountability may be more relevant in the context of the NHS following the Francis Report.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry Of Learning Disability
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
Which of the following symptoms would not be indicative of PTSD in a soldier who has been referred by their GP due to concerns about mental health issues resulting from their experience in the Iraq war?
Your Answer: He is planning to return to Iraq to seek revenge
Explanation:It is typical for individuals with PTSD to try to steer clear of circumstances that trigger memories of the traumatic event.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A middle-aged patient remembers taking a medication for schizophrenia some time ago but cannot recall its name. They were cautioned that it could cause sun sensitivity and advised to use ample sun protection while on it. What medication do you think they might have been given?
Your Answer: Chlorpromazine
Explanation:Chlorpromazine: Photosensitivity Reactions and Patient Precautions
Chlorpromazine, the first drug used for psychosis, is a common topic in exams. However, it is important to note that photosensitivity reactions are a known side effect of its use. Patients taking chlorpromazine should be informed of this and advised to take necessary precautions. Proper education and awareness can help prevent potential harm from photosensitivity reactions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
Which statement lacks evidence to support it?
Your Answer: ECT is more effective if given three times a week than when given twice a week
Explanation:ECT (Treatment) – Summary of Effectiveness and Recommendations
ECT (Electroconvulsive Therapy) is a treatment that induces a therapeutic seizure through the application of electrical current under general anesthesia and muscle relaxation. It is prescribed as a course and is usually administered twice weekly for 6 to 12 treatments. ECT is the most effective short-term treatment for major depression, with remission rates of around 60-80% when used as first-line treatment in a severe depressive episode. However, without maintenance treatment, the relapse rate is extremely high (over 80%) in the 6 months after successful ECT.
Cognitive effects are the main limitation to the wider use of ECT, particularly acute confusion shortly after the treatment, retrograde amnesia, and some losses in autobiographical memory longer term. The current state of evidence does not allow the general use of ECT in the management of schizophrenia. Bilateral ECT is more effective than unilateral ECT but may cause more cognitive impairment. With unilateral ECT, a higher stimulus dose is associated with greater efficacy but also increased cognitive impairment compared with a lower stimulus dose.
NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) recommends that ECT is used only to achieve rapid and short-term improvement of severe symptoms after an adequate trial of other treatment options has proven ineffective and/of when the condition is considered to be potentially life-threatening. ECT is recommended for individuals with severe depression (that is life-threatening and when a rapid response is required, of when other treatments have failed), moderate depression (consider it if their depression has not responded to multiple drug treatments and psychological treatment), catatonia, and a prolonged of severe manic episode.
The RCPsych (Royal College of Psychiatrists) position on ECT recommends it as a first-line treatment for individuals with high suicidal risk, severe psychomotor retardation and associated problems of compromised eating and drinking and/of physical deterioration, treatment-resistant depression that has responded to ECT in a previous episode of illness, pregnant individuals with severe depression, of severe mixed affective states, mania of catatonia and whose physical health of that of the fetus is at serious risk, and those who prefer this form of treatment. ECT is recommended as a second-line treatment for individuals with treatment-resistant depression, severe side-effects from medication, and persistent of life-threatening symptoms in severe of prolonged mania. ECT is indicated in some circumstances for individuals with bipolar depression, postnatal psychosis, treatment-resistant schizophrenia, treatment-resistant catatonia, and frequent relapses and recurrences of depression (maintenance).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
Which of the following factors have not been proven to be a risk factor for postnatal depression?
Your Answer: Older age of the mother
Explanation:Perinatal Depression, Baby Blues, and Postpartum Depression
Perinatal depression, also known as postpartum depression, is a common mood disorder experienced by new mothers after childbirth. The term baby blues is used to describe the emotional lability that some mothers experience during the first week after childbirth, which usually resolves by day 10 without treatment. The prevalence of baby blues is around 40%. Postpartum depression, on the other hand, refers to depression that occurs after childbirth. While neither DSM-5 nor ICD-11 specifically mention postpartum depression, both diagnostic systems offer categories that encompass depression during pregnancy of in the weeks following delivery. The prevalence of postpartum depression is approximately 10-15%.
Various factors have been shown to increase the risk of postnatal depression, including youth, marital and family conflict, lack of social support, anxiety and depression during pregnancy, substance misuse, previous pregnancy loss, ambivalence about the current pregnancy, and frequent antenatal admissions to a maternity hospital. However, obstetric factors such as length of labor, assisted delivery, of separation of the mother from the baby in the Special Care Baby Unit do not seem to influence the development of postnatal depression. Additionally, social class does not appear to be associated with postnatal depression.
Puerperal psychosis, along with severe depression, is thought to be mainly caused by biological factors, while psychosocial factors are most important in the milder postnatal depressive illnesses.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
After creating a scatter plot of the data, what would be the next step for the researcher to determine if there is a linear relationship between a person's age and blood pressure?
Your Answer: Pearson's coefficient
Explanation:Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 12 year old boy is brought to the attention of the criminal justice system for repeated acts of antisocial behaviour in their local town centre. On one occasion they threatened to assault an elderly female who challenged them about their conduct. Which of the following would be the expected course of action?
Your Answer: Imposition of a Local Child Curfew
Explanation:At this point, implementing the Local Child Curfew would be the most suitable course of action as it is the least severe measure and is typically the initial step taken. Pursuing prosecution is not viable as the individuals in question are below the age of 10.
Criminal Responsibility and Age Limits
To be found guilty of a crime, it must be proven that a person committed the act (actus reus) and had a guilty mind (mens rea). In England and Wales, children under the age of 10 cannot be held criminally responsible for their actions and cannot be arrested or charged with a crime. Instead, they may face other punishments such as a Local Child Curfew of a Child Safety Order. Children between the ages of 10 and 17 can be arrested and taken to court, but are treated differently from adults and may be dealt with by youth courts, given different sentences, and sent to special secure centers for young people. Young people aged 18 are treated as adults by the law.
Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity and Other Defenses
A person may be found not guilty by reason of insanity if they did not understand the nature of quality of their actions of did not know that what they were doing was wrong. Automatism is a defense used when the act is believed to have occurred unconsciously, either from an external cause (sane automatism) of an internal cause (insane automatism). Diminished responsibility is a defense used only in the defense of murder and allows for a reduction of the normal life sentence to manslaughter.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
What is the purpose of the PICO model in evidence based medicine?
Your Answer: Selecting the appropriate study design
Correct Answer: Formulating answerable questions
Explanation:Evidence-based medicine involves four basic steps: developing a focused clinical question, searching for the best evidence, critically appraising the evidence, and applying the evidence and evaluating the outcome. When developing a question, it is important to understand the difference between background and foreground questions. Background questions are general questions about conditions, illnesses, syndromes, and pathophysiology, while foreground questions are more often about issues of care. The PICO system is often used to define the components of a foreground question: patient group of interest, intervention of interest, comparison, and primary outcome.
When searching for evidence, it is important to have a basic understanding of the types of evidence and sources of information. Scientific literature is divided into two basic categories: primary (empirical research) and secondary (interpretation and analysis of primary sources). Unfiltered sources are large databases of articles that have not been pre-screened for quality, while filtered resources summarize and appraise evidence from several studies.
There are several databases and search engines that can be used to search for evidence, including Medline and PubMed, Embase, the Cochrane Library, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and OpenGrey. Boolean logic can be used to combine search terms in PubMed, and phrase searching and truncation can also be used. Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) are used by indexers to describe articles for MEDLINE records, and the MeSH Database is like a thesaurus that enables exploration of this vocabulary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
What is the most common condition that is often associated with dyslexia?
Your Answer: ADHD
Explanation:Dyslexia is a specific learning disorder that affects a person’s ability to read and process information. It is not caused by intellectual disabilities, visual of auditory impairments, of inadequate education. Dyslexia can affect both reading and writing skills, as well as the processing of information that is seen of heard. It is a lifelong condition that occurs across the range of intellectual abilities, with boys being diagnosed more often than girls. The prevalence of dyslexia is around 5-10% among school-aged children. Signs of dyslexia include poor spelling, difficulty with written information, confusion with letter order, and poor handwriting. Dyslexia is often associated with other disorders such as ADHD, conduct disorder, and oppositional defiant disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
What is the correct approach to treating Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Your Answer: Parenteral thiamine is suggested rather than an oral route
Explanation:To ensure prompt treatment, thiamine 200 mg should be administered three times daily before any carbohydrate intake, preferably through intravenous administration. It is recommended to avoid delaying treatment by relying solely on imaging for diagnosis. Intravenous administration is preferred over oral administration, as there is a risk of anaphylaxis with intranasal administration. Therefore, intranasal administration should only be considered if facilities are available to manage potential anaphylactic reactions.
Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.
The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.
Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
What is a significant obstacle for individuals to participate in mental health services?
Your Answer: Service users may become more isolated from their peers
Correct Answer: Significant financial and time costs that are associated with this involvement
Explanation:Challenges and Benefits of Service User Involvement
Paragraph 1: Implementing service user involvement can be costly and time-consuming for both organisations and service users. However, if done properly, it can bring significant benefits.
Paragraph 2: In the past, there has been resistance to the idea of using service users as experts. However, involving service users in decision-making processes can lead to more effective and relevant services.
Paragraph 3: Contrary to popular belief, service user involvement can actually help overcome social isolation and improve mental health outcomes.
Paragraph 4: Despite the benefits, there has historically been a lack of resources for service users and carers on how to get involved in their local services. This needs to be addressed to ensure that service user involvement is accessible and inclusive.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
What percentage of individuals diagnosed with ADHD during childhood are likely to still meet the diagnostic criteria for the disorder during their young adult years?
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:ADHD is a prevalent disorder worldwide, with a prevalence of 7% in those under 18 and 3.5% in those over 18. It is more common in males, with a male to female ratio of 2:1 in children and 1.6:1 in adults. While some improvement in symptoms is seen over time, the majority of those diagnosed in childhood continue to struggle with residual symptoms and impairments through at least young adulthood, with an estimated persistence rate of 50%.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
What type of data was collected for the outcome that utilized the Clinical Global Impressions Improvement scale in the randomized control trial?
Your Answer: Numerical
Correct Answer: Dichotomous
Explanation:The study used the CGI scale, which produces ordinal data. However, the data was transformed into dichotomous data by dividing it into two categories. The CGI-I is a simple seven-point scale that compares a patient’s overall clinical condition to the one week period just prior to the initiation of medication use. The ratings range from very much improved to very much worse since the initiation of treatment.
Scales of Measurement in Statistics
In the 1940s, Stanley Smith Stevens introduced four scales of measurement to categorize data variables. Knowing the scale of measurement for a variable is crucial in selecting the appropriate statistical analysis. The four scales of measurement are ratio, interval, ordinal, and nominal.
Ratio scales are similar to interval scales, but they have true zero points. Examples of ratio scales include weight, time, and length. Interval scales measure the difference between two values, and one unit on the scale represents the same magnitude on the trait of characteristic being measured across the whole range of the scale. The Fahrenheit scale for temperature is an example of an interval scale.
Ordinal scales categorize observed values into set categories that can be ordered, but the intervals between each value are uncertain. Examples of ordinal scales include social class, education level, and income level. Nominal scales categorize observed values into set categories that have no particular order of hierarchy. Examples of nominal scales include genotype, blood type, and political party.
Data can also be categorized as quantitative of qualitative. Quantitative variables take on numeric values and can be further classified into discrete and continuous types. Qualitative variables do not take on numerical values and are usually names. Some qualitative variables have an inherent order in their categories and are described as ordinal. Qualitative variables are also called categorical of nominal variables. When a qualitative variable has only two categories, it is called a binary variable.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
Which receptors have been linked to excessive salivation caused by clozapine?
Your Answer: Muscarinic and adrenergic
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 40 year old man comes to you with a complaint of feeling down for the past 2 months, waking up early in the morning and having a decreased appetite. His wife mentions that he has stopped taking care of himself, but is still drinking enough fluids. She believes this is due to their child being diagnosed with cancer. Upon further inquiry, the man reports having strange beliefs and hearing things that aren't there.
What course of action would you suggest in this situation?Your Answer: Antidepressant monotherapy
Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant with an antipsychotic
Explanation:The symptoms displayed by the man suggest that he may be suffering from psychotic depression. However, since he is still able to eat and drink, ECT should not be considered as a treatment option at this point. Instead, other approaches should be explored and if they prove ineffective, ECT may be considered later on.
Psychotic Depression
Psychotic depression is a type of depression that is characterized by the presence of delusions and/of hallucinations in addition to depressive symptoms. This condition is often accompanied by severe anhedonia, loss of interest, and psychomotor retardation. People with psychotic depression are tormented by hallucinations and delusions with typical themes of worthlessness, guilt, disease, of impending disaster. This condition affects approximately 14.7-18.5% of depressed patients and is estimated to affect around 0.4% of community adult samples, with a higher prevalence in the elderly community at around 1.4-3.0%. People with psychotic depression are at a higher risk of attempting and completing suicide than those with non-psychotic depression.
Diagnosis
Psychotic depression is currently classified as a subtype of depression in both the ICD-11 and the DSM-5. The main difference between the two is that in the ICD-11, the depressive episode must be moderate of severe to qualify for a diagnosis of depressive episode with psychotic symptoms, whereas in the DSM-5, the diagnosis can be applied to any severity of depressive illness.
Treatment
The recommended treatment for psychotic depression is tricyclics as first-line treatment, with antipsychotic augmentation. Second-line treatment includes SSRI/SNRI. Augmentation of antidepressant with olanzapine or quetiapine is recommended. The optimum dose and duration of antipsychotic augmentation are unknown. If one treatment is to be stopped during the maintenance phase, then this should be the antipsychotic. ECT should be considered where a rapid response is required of where other treatments have failed. According to NICE (ng222), combination treatment with antidepressant medication and antipsychotic medication (such as olanzapine or quetiapine) should be considered for people with depression with psychotic symptoms. If a person with depression with psychotic symptoms does not wish to take antipsychotic medication in addition to an antidepressant, then treat with an antidepressant alone.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
What test would be appropriate for comparing the proportion of individuals who experience agranulocytosis while taking clozapine versus those who experience it while taking olanzapine?
Your Answer: Paired t-test
Correct Answer: Chi-squared test
Explanation:The dependent variable in this scenario is categorical, as individuals either experience agranulocytosis of do not. The independent variable is also categorical, with two options: olanzapine of clozapine. While there are various types of chi-squared tests, it is not necessary to focus on the distinctions between them.
Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 70-year-old gentleman is admitted to a general hospital with suspected sepsis. Two days into the admission he is noted to be agitated and is unable to attend sufficiently to have a conversation. He begins complaining to his relatives that staff are not treating him well and are poisoning his food. The family confirm that this is not typical behaviour for him.
The most likely diagnosis is:Your Answer: Delirium
Explanation:Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A new medication aimed at preventing age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is being tested in clinical trials. One hundred patients over the age of 60 with early signs of AMD are given the new medication. Over a three month period, 10 of these patients experience progression of their AMD. In the control group, there are 300 patients over the age of 60 with early signs of AMD who are given a placebo. During the same time period, 50 of these patients experience progression of their AMD. What is the relative risk of AMD progression while taking the new medication?
Your Answer: 0.6
Explanation:The relative risk (RR) is calculated by dividing the exposure event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). In this case, the EER is 10 out of 100 (0.10) and the CER is 50 out of 300 (0.166). Therefore, the RR is calculated as 0.10 divided by 0.166, which equals 0.6.
Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies
When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.
To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.
The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
Which of the following is most likely to be reduced by implementing 'drug holidays' for patients with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder who are taking stimulant medication?
Your Answer: Growth restriction
Explanation:ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)
ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.
Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.
NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.
Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
What is the origin of the psychodynamic concept of 'containment'?
Your Answer: Bion
Explanation:The Significance of Containment in Therapeutic Relationships
Containment is a term coined by Bion to describe the process of emotional containment, which is best exemplified by the relationship between a mother and her infant. Infants often project their unbearable feelings onto their mothers, who receive and accommodate them for a while, making them tolerable and acceptable again to the child.
In therapeutic relationships, containment plays a crucial role. It occurs when one person receives and comprehends the emotional communication of another without being overwhelmed by it. The receiver then processes the information and communicates understanding and recognition back to the other person. This process can help restore the other person’s capacity to think.
Overall, containment is an essential aspect of therapeutic relationships, as it allows individuals to express their emotions without fear of being judged of rejected. It creates a safe space for individuals to explore their feelings and thoughts, leading to greater self-awareness and personal growth.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
Which antipsychotic medication would be the most suitable for a patient with epilepsy who has developed a psychotic illness, considering its minimal impact on seizure threshold?
Your Answer: Clozapine
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Psychotropics and Seizure Threshold in People with Epilepsy
People with epilepsy are at an increased risk for various mental health conditions, including depression, anxiety, psychosis, and suicide. It is important to note that the link between epilepsy and mental illness is bidirectional, as patients with mental health conditions also have an increased risk of developing new-onset epilepsy. Psychotropic drugs are often necessary for people with epilepsy, but they can reduce the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures. The following tables provide guidance on the seizure risk associated with different classes of antidepressants, antipsychotics, and ADHD medications. It is important to use caution and carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications when treating people with epilepsy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
What is the most common trigger for Diogenes syndrome?
Your Answer: Loss of a carer
Explanation:Conditions commonly seen in the elderly include Charles Bonnet syndrome, Diogenes syndrome, and delirium. Charles Bonnet syndrome is characterized by persistent of recurrent complex hallucinations, usually visual of auditory, occurring in clear consciousness against a background of visual impairment. Diogenes syndrome is a behavioral disorder characterized by extreme neglected physical state, social isolation, domestic squalor, and excessive hoarding. Delirium is an acute decline in both the level of consciousness and cognition, often involving perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep cycle impairment. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a fluctuating course and can have various causes ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. The clinical presentation of delirium can be classified into hypoactive, hyperactive, of mixed subtypes. Elderly patients with hypoactive delirium are often overlooked of misdiagnosed as having depression of a form of dementia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
Which of the following is not a recognized factor that increases the likelihood of child abuse?
Your Answer: Having a parent with a low IQ
Explanation:There is no evidence to suggest that a parent’s IQ level increases the likelihood of child abuse.
Child Abuse: Risk Factors and Protective Factors
Child abuse is a serious problem that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. There are several risk factors that increase the likelihood of child abuse occurring. These include a history of abuse in the caregiver, substance misuse in the caregiver, inaccurate knowledge about child development, teenage parents, children of single parents, domestic violence in the home, high levels of stress within the family, younger children, children with disabilities, poverty, social isolation, and living in a dangerous neighborhood.
However, there are also protective factors that can help prevent child abuse from occurring. These include parental resilience, social connections, knowledge of parenting and child development, concrete support in times of need, and social and emotional competence of children. By promoting these protective factors, we can help reduce the risk of child abuse and create a safer and healthier environment for children to grow and thrive.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
What is the combination of antidepressants that should not be used together?
Your Answer: Phenelzine and sertraline
Explanation:The Dangers of Combining Antidepressants: A Review of the Evidence
Antidepressants are commonly prescribed to treat depression and other mental health conditions. However, the combination of certain antidepressants can be dangerous and even fatal. In particular, the combination of irreversible MAOIs such as phenelzine and tranylcypromine with SSRIs can lead to a high risk of serotonin syndrome.
Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an excess of serotonin in the body. Symptoms can include agitation, confusion, rapid heart rate, high blood pressure, muscle rigidity, and seizures. Fatalities have been reported in cases where patients have combined these two types of antidepressants.
It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the risks associated with combining antidepressants and to carefully monitor patients who are taking multiple medications. Patients should also be informed of the potential dangers and advised to seek medical attention immediately if they experience any symptoms of serotonin syndrome. By taking these precautions, we can help ensure the safe and effective use of antidepressants in the treatment of mental health conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
Which of the options below is not a valid means of supporting a diagnosis of obsessive compulsive personality disorder?
Your Answer: Views self as inferior to others
Explanation:It is important to note that while individuals with obsessive personality disorder may experience feelings of inferiority, this is not a defining characteristic of the disorder. In contrast, a diagnosis of avoidant personality disorder may be more appropriate for individuals who consistently view themselves as inferior to others.
Personality Disorder (Obsessive Compulsive)
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control, which can hinder flexibility and efficiency. This pattern typically emerges in early adulthood and can be present in various contexts. The estimated prevalence ranges from 2.1% to 7.9%, with males being diagnosed twice as often as females.
The DSM-5 diagnosis requires the presence of four of more of the following criteria: preoccupation with details, rules, lists, order, organization, of agenda to the point that the key part of the activity is lost; perfectionism that hampers completing tasks; extreme dedication to work and efficiency to the elimination of spare time activities; meticulous, scrupulous, and rigid about etiquettes of morality, ethics, of values; inability to dispose of worn-out of insignificant things even when they have no sentimental meaning; unwillingness to delegate tasks of work with others except if they surrender to exactly their way of doing things; miserly spending style towards self and others; and rigidity and stubbornness.
The ICD-11 abolished all categories of personality disorder except for a general description of personality disorder, which can be further specified as “mild,” “moderate,” of “severe.” The anankastic trait domain is characterized by a narrow focus on one’s rigid standard of perfection and of right and wrong, and on controlling one’s own and others’ behavior and controlling situations to ensure conformity to these standards. Common manifestations of anankastic include perfectionism and emotional and behavioral constraint.
Differential diagnosis includes OCD, hoarding disorder, narcissistic personality disorder, antisocial personality disorder, and schizoid personality disorder. OCD is distinguished by the presence of true obsessions and compulsions, while hoarding disorder should be considered when hoarding is extreme. Narcissistic personality disorder individuals are more likely to believe that they have achieved perfection, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are usually self-critical. Antisocial personality disorder individuals lack generosity but will indulge themselves, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder adopt a miserly spending style toward both self and others. Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a fundamental lack of capacity for intimacy, while in obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, this stems from discomfort with emotions and excessive devotion to work.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
What was the condition that Pritchard had, which was relevant to the issue of fitness to plead in the case of R v Pritchard?
Your Answer: Deafness
Explanation:Pritchard, a person who was unable to hear of speak, was charged with engaging in sexual activity with an animal.
Fitness to Plead: Criteria and Process
Fitness to plead is determined by specific criteria established by the Pritchard case law in 1836. The criteria include the ability to instruct solicitor and counsel, understand the charges, decide whether to plead guilty of not, follow court proceedings, challenge a juror, and give evidence in one’s defense. Schizophrenia and other enduring mental illnesses are the most common conditions associated with unfitness to plead, particularly when positive psychotic symptomatology is present. Intellectual impairment is not a significant factor in most cases. If the issue is raised by the defense, it must be established on a balance of probability, while if raised by the prosecution of judge, it must be proved beyond reasonable doubt. Amnesia does not render someone unfit to plead. The decision on fitness to plead is made by a judge, not a jury. If someone is found unfit to plead, they are subject to the Criminal Procedures Act 1991, which involves a trial of facts, complete acquittal if the facts are not found, and flexible disposal by the judge if the facts are found, except for murder, which requires mandatory committal to hospital.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A woman in her 50s who has a lengthy history of schizophrenia has experimented with various antipsychotics before and is now interested in trying a new one. She cannot remember the names of the ones she has taken in the past but remembers being informed that she experienced anticholinergic side-effects and wants to avoid them at all costs. Which of the following choices is most probable to lead to anticholinergic side-effects?
Your Answer: Paliperidone
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Clozapine exhibits significant anticholinergic effects, resulting in both xerostomia and excessive salivation.
Antipsychotics: Common Side Effects and Relative Adverse Effects
Antipsychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. However, they can also cause side effects that can be bothersome of even serious. The most common side effects of antipsychotics are listed in the table below, which includes the adverse effects associated with their receptor activity.
Antidopaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. They can cause galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.
Anticholinergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block acetylcholine receptors in the brain. They can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.
Antiadrenergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block adrenaline receptors in the body. They can cause postural hypotension and ejaculatory failure.
Histaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block histamine receptors in the brain. They can cause drowsiness.
The Maudsley Guidelines provide a rough guide to the relative adverse effects of different antipsychotics. The table below summarizes their findings, with +++ indicating a high incidence of adverse effects, ++ indicating a moderate incidence, + indicating a low incidence, and – indicating a very low incidence.
Drug Sedation Weight gain Diabetes EPSE Anticholinergic Postural Hypotension Prolactin elevation
Amisulpride – + + + – – +++
Aripiprazole – +/- – +/- – – –
Asenapine + + +/- +/- – – +/-
Clozapine +++ +++ +++ – +++ +++ –
Flupentixol + ++ + ++ ++ + +++
Fluphenazine + + + +++ ++ + +++
Haloperidol + + +/- +++ + + +++
Olanzapine ++ +++ +++ +/- + + +
Paliperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
Pimozide + + – + + + +++
Quetiapine ++ ++ ++ – + ++ –
Risperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
Zuclopenthixol ++ ++ + ++ ++ + +++Overall, it is important to discuss the potential side effects of antipsychotics with a healthcare provider and to monitor for any adverse effects while taking these medications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
You design an experiment investigating whether 3 different exercise routines each with a different intensity level affect a person's heart rate to a different degree. Which of the following tests would you use to demonstrate a statistically significant difference between the exercise routines?:
Your Answer: Student's t-test
Correct Answer: ANOVA
Explanation:Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
For which condition is AChE-I considered an appropriate initial treatment option?
Your Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies
Explanation:Treatment of Dementia: AChE Inhibitors and Memantine
Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine are two drugs used in the management of dementia. AChE inhibitors prevent cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are AChE inhibitors used in the management of Alzheimer’s. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction.
NICE guidelines recommend the use of AChE inhibitors for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s and memantine for managing moderate to severe Alzheimer’s. For those already taking an AChE inhibitor, memantine can be added if the disease is moderate of severe. AChE inhibitors are also recommended for managing mild, moderate, and severe dementia with Lewy bodies, while memantine is considered if AChE inhibitors are not tolerated of contraindicated. AChE inhibitors and memantine are not recommended for vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, of cognitive impairment due to multiple sclerosis.
The British Association for Psychopharmacology recommends AChE inhibitors as the first choice for Alzheimer’s and mixed dementia, while memantine is the second choice. AChE inhibitors and memantine are also recommended for dementia with Parkinson’s and dementia with Lewy bodies.
In summary, AChE inhibitors and memantine are important drugs used in the management of dementia. The choice of drug depends on the type and severity of dementia, as well as individual patient factors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Which of the following has not been proven to be effective in preventing post-stroke depression?
Your Answer: Nortriptyline
Correct Answer: Mianserin
Explanation:Depression is a common occurrence after a stroke, affecting 30-40% of patients. The location of the stroke lesion can play a crucial role in the development of major depression. Treatment for post-stroke depression must take into account the cause of the stroke, medical comorbidities, and potential interactions with other medications. The Maudsley guidelines recommend SSRIs as the first-line treatment, with paroxetine being the preferred choice. Nortriptyline is also an option, as it does not increase the risk of bleeding. If the patient is on anticoagulants, citalopram and escitalopram may be preferred. Antidepressant prophylaxis has been shown to be effective in preventing post-stroke depression, with nortriptyline, fluoxetine, escitalopram, duloxetine, sertraline, and mirtazapine being effective options. Mianserin, however, appears to be ineffective.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
-
-
Question 31
Correct
-
What type of evidence is considered the most robust and reliable?
Your Answer: Meta-analysis
Explanation:Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine
To evaluate the quality of evidence on a subject of question, levels of grades are used. The traditional hierarchy approach places systematic reviews of randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system, which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each.
The grading approach to be aware of is the GRADE system, which classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, of very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical of important. The evidence is then gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence, with the type of evidence being a significant factor. Evidence can be promoted of downgraded based on certain criteria, such as limitations to study quality, inconsistency, uncertainty about directness, imprecise of sparse data, and reporting bias. The GRADE system allows for the promotion of observational studies to high-quality evidence under the right circumstances.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 32
Correct
-
What is a true statement regarding acetylcysteine?
Your Answer: It is normally administered for 21 hours
Explanation:When administering N-acetylcysteine intravenously for acetaminophen poisoning, adverse reactions such as urticaria, pruritus, facial flushing, wheezing, dyspnoea, and hypotension may occur. These reactions are known as anaphylactoid and are believed to involve non-IgE-mediated histamine release of direct complement activation. Prior exposure to N-acetylcysteine is not required for these reactions to occur, and continued of future treatment is not contraindicated. Patients should be closely monitored for signs of an anaphylactoid reaction, especially those with a history of atopy and asthma who may be at increased risk. If anaphylactoid reactions occur, treatment should be suspended and appropriate management initiated. Treatment may then be restarted at a lower rate. In rare cases, these reactions can be fatal.
Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 33
Correct
-
What is another term for pathological crying?
Your Answer: Pseudobulbar affect
Explanation:Pathological Crying
Pathological crying, also known as pseudobulbar affect, is a condition characterized by sudden outbursts of crying of laughing in response to minor stimuli without any changes in mood. This condition can occur in response to nonspecific and inconsequential stimuli, and lacks a clear association with the prevailing mood state. Pathological crying can result from various neurological conditions, including strokes and multiple sclerosis.
When it comes to treating pathological crying post-stroke, citalopram is often the recommended treatment due to its efficacy in open label studies. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest that TCAs of SSRIs may be effective for MS, while valproic acid and the combination of dextromethorphan and low dose quinidine have also shown efficacy.
Understanding the neuroanatomy of pathological laughing and crying is important for diagnosing and treating this condition. Further research is needed to better understand the underlying mechanisms and develop more effective treatments.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
-
-
Question 34
Correct
-
How would you rephrase the question Which of the following refers to the proportion of people scoring positive on a test that actually have the condition?
Your Answer: Positive predictive value
Explanation:Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 35
Correct
-
What is the expected duration of detectability in urine after a one-time use of cannabis?
Your Answer: 3 days
Explanation:Drug Screening
Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.
People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.
Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 36
Correct
-
What is the name of the self-reported screening tool for personality disorders that consists of 100 true and false questions and is developed based on DSM-IV criteria?
Your Answer: PDQ-R
Explanation:There are several screening tools available for personality disorder, including SAPAS, FFMRF, IPDE, PDQ-R, IPDS, and IIP-PD. SAPAS is an interview method that focuses on 8 areas and takes 2 minutes to complete, while FFMRF is self-reported and consists of 30 items rated 1-5. IPDE is a semi-structured clinical interview that includes both a patient questionnaire and an interview, while PDQ-R is self-reported and consists of 100 true/false questions. IPDS is an interview method that consists of 11 criteria and takes less than 5 minutes, while IIP-PD is self-reported and contains 127 items rated 0-4. A score of 3 of more on SAPAS warrants further assessment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
A 62-year-old woman is referred to your clinic. Her daughter has noticed that she has become more forgetful over the last three months. She thinks it may be related to a stroke she suffered five months ago.
You find out that the woman had a cerebral haemorrhage five months ago when she bled into her fourth ventricle. She recovered in some weeks with no neurological sequelae. However, she is now becoming incontinent of urine and is visibly unsteady on walking.
You ask the radiology department to repeat a CT of the women's head.
Which is the most likely finding on CT?Your Answer: Subdural hypointensity
Correct Answer: Periventricular lucency
Explanation:The individual is displaying a visual representation of hydrocephalus, which may result from a past intracranial hemorrhage that obstructs the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) due to debris. Periventricular lucency (PL) in hydrocephalus is a result of either acute edema of chronic retention of CSF in the periventricular white matter, caused by an increase in water content. This phenomenon can be partially reversed and may serve as an indication for a shunt.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
What factors during pregnancy can cause fingernail hypoplasia?
Your Answer: Valproic acid
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Teratogens and Their Associated Defects
Valproic acid is a teratogen that has been linked to various birth defects, including neural tube defects, hypospadias, cleft lip/palate, cardiovascular abnormalities, developmental delay, endocrinological disorders, limb defects, and autism (Alsdorf, 2005). Lithium has been associated with cardiac anomalies, specifically Ebstein’s anomaly. Alcohol consumption during pregnancy can lead to cleft lip/palate and fetal alcohol syndrome. Phenytoin has been linked to fingernail hypoplasia, craniofacial defects, limb defects, cerebrovascular defects, and mental retardation. Similarly, carbamazepine has been associated with fingernail hypoplasia and craniofacial defects. Diazepam has been linked to craniofacial defects, specifically cleft lip/palate (Palmieri, 2008). The evidence for steroids causing craniofacial defects is not convincing, according to the British National Formulary (BNF). Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) have been associated with congenital heart defects and persistent pulmonary hypertension (BNF). It is important for pregnant women to avoid exposure to these teratogens to reduce the risk of birth defects in their babies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 39
Correct
-
What is the syndrome exhibited by an elderly woman who expresses feelings of internal decay and a sense of non-existence due to depression?
Your Answer: Cotard's
Explanation:Cotard’s syndrome is a delusion where an individual believes they do not exist of have lost their blood, internal organs, of soul. It is commonly seen in depression, schizophrenia, and bipolar disorder, and can also occur after trauma. The condition is more prevalent in females and the elderly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 40
Correct
-
Which statement accurately reflects the relationship between learning disabilities and sexual abuse?
Your Answer: The perpetrator is known to the victim in the vast majority of cases
Explanation:Learning Disability and Sexual Abuse
People with learning disabilities are at a higher risk of being abused, particularly sexually. Research has shown that around 70% of victims are female, and almost all perpetrators are male. The perpetrators can be categorized as follows: 42% are other people with learning disabilities, 18% are family members, 14% are staff of volunteers, 17% are other known adults, and 10% are unknown. These findings highlight the need for increased protection and support for individuals with learning disabilities to prevent and address instances of sexual abuse.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
What statement accurately describes the process of searching a database?
Your Answer: MEDLINE is slightly larger than PubMed in its scope
Correct Answer: New references are added to PubMed more quickly than they are to MEDLINE
Explanation:PubMed receives new references faster than MEDLINE because they do not need to undergo indexing, such as adding MeSH headings and checking tags. While an increasing number of MEDLINE citations have a link to the complete article, not all of them do. Since 2010, Embased has included all MEDLINE citations in its database, but it does not have all citations from before that year.
Evidence-based medicine involves four basic steps: developing a focused clinical question, searching for the best evidence, critically appraising the evidence, and applying the evidence and evaluating the outcome. When developing a question, it is important to understand the difference between background and foreground questions. Background questions are general questions about conditions, illnesses, syndromes, and pathophysiology, while foreground questions are more often about issues of care. The PICO system is often used to define the components of a foreground question: patient group of interest, intervention of interest, comparison, and primary outcome.
When searching for evidence, it is important to have a basic understanding of the types of evidence and sources of information. Scientific literature is divided into two basic categories: primary (empirical research) and secondary (interpretation and analysis of primary sources). Unfiltered sources are large databases of articles that have not been pre-screened for quality, while filtered resources summarize and appraise evidence from several studies.
There are several databases and search engines that can be used to search for evidence, including Medline and PubMed, Embase, the Cochrane Library, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and OpenGrey. Boolean logic can be used to combine search terms in PubMed, and phrase searching and truncation can also be used. Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) are used by indexers to describe articles for MEDLINE records, and the MeSH Database is like a thesaurus that enables exploration of this vocabulary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
The man visiting the clinic has recently encountered his second episode of unipolar depression and is worried about the possibility of a third episode. Can you provide information on the percentage of individuals in a similar situation who will experience a third episode?
Your Answer: 70-80%
Correct Answer: 80-90%
Explanation:Factors that Increase the Risk of Recurrent Depression
Depression is a disorder that often recurs. Research shows that 50-85% of individuals who experience a single episode of depression will have a second episode, and of those, 80-90% will have a third episode (Forshall, 1999). Due to the high likelihood of recurrence, NICE recommends that individuals who have had two of more episodes of depression in the recent past should continue taking antidepressants for at least two years.
Several factors increase the risk of recurrent depression, including a family history of depression, recurrent dysthymia, concurrent non-affective psychiatric illness, female gender, long episode duration, chronic medical illness, and lack of a confiding relationship. It is important for individuals with a history of depression to be aware of these risk factors and to work with their healthcare provider to develop a plan for preventing future episodes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
Bion identified several basic assumption groups, but one of them is not included in the list.
Your Answer: Dependency
Correct Answer: Dynamic shift
Explanation:Bion, a psychoanalyst, was fascinated by group dynamics and believed that groups had a collective unconscious that functioned similarly to that of an individual. He argued that this unconsciousness protected the group from the pain of reality. Bion identified two types of groups: the ‘working group’ that functioned well and achieved its goals, and the ‘basic assumption group’ that acted out primitive fantasies and prevented progress. Bion then described different types of basic assumption groups, including ‘dependency,’ where the group turns to a leader to alleviate anxiety, ‘fight-flight,’ where the group perceives an enemy and either attacks of avoids them, and ‘pairing,’ where the group believes that the solution lies in the pairing of two members. These dynamics can be observed in various settings, such as when strangers come together for the first time of when doctors in different specialties criticize one another.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
Which of the options below could indicate the presence of narcissistic personality disorder?
Your Answer: Unstable self-image
Correct Answer: Need for constant attention and admiration
Explanation:Individuals with both narcissistic personality disorder and obsessive-compulsive personality disorder may exhibit a commitment to perfectionism and a belief that others cannot perform as well. However, those with narcissistic personality disorder are more likely to believe that they have already achieved perfection, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder may be self-critical. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by a needy interactive style and an unstable self-image. In contrast, individuals with antisocial and narcissistic personality disorders share traits such as being tough-minded, glib, superficial, exploitative, and unempathic. However, it is important to note that narcissistic personality disorder does not necessarily involve impulsivity, aggression, and deceit.
Personality Disorder (Narcissistic)
Narcissistic personality disorder is a mental illness characterized by individuals having an exaggerated sense of their own importance, an intense need for excessive attention and admiration, troubled relationships, and a lack of empathy towards others. The DSM-5 diagnostic manual outlines the criteria for this disorder, which includes a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy. To be diagnosed with this disorder, an individual must exhibit at least five of the following traits: a grandiose sense of self-importance, preoccupation with fantasies of unlimited success, belief in being special and unique, excessive admiration requirements, a sense of entitlement, interpersonal exploitation, lack of empathy, envy towards others, and arrogant of haughty behaviors. While the previous version of the ICD included narcissistic personality disorder, the ICD-11 does not have a specific reference to this condition, but it can be coded under the category of general personality disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 45
Correct
-
Based on statistics from England, what is the increased likelihood of suicide death for a mental health service user compared to a member of the general population?
Your Answer: 10
Explanation:The suicide rate for mental health service users in England is ten times higher than the average suicide rate for the general population, with 1 in 1000 individuals taking their own lives.
2021 National Confidential Inquiry into Suicide and Safety in Mental Health (NCISH) report reveals key findings on suicide rates in the UK from 2008-2018. The rates have remained stable over the years, with a slight increase following the 2008 recession and another rise since 2015/2016. Approximately 27% of all general population suicides were patients who had contact with mental health services within 12 months of suicide. The most common methods of suicide were hanging/strangulation (52%) and self-poisoning (22%), mainly through prescription opioids. In-patient suicides have continued to decrease, with most of them occurring on the ward itself from low lying ligature points. The first three months after discharge remain a high-risk period, with 13% of all patient suicides occurring within this time frame. Nearly half (48%) of patient suicides were from patients who lived alone. In England, suicide rates are higher in males (17.2 per 100,000) than females (5.4 per 100,000), with the highest age-specific suicide rate for males in the 45-49 years age group (27.1 deaths per 100,000 males) and for females in the same age group (9.2 deaths per 100,000). Hanging remains the most common method of suicide in the UK, accounting for 59.4% of all suicides among males and 45.0% of all suicides among females.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
What is the likelihood of weight gain when a patient is prescribed risperidone, given that 6 out of 10 patients experience weight gain as a side effect?
Your Answer: 0.6
Correct Answer: 1.5
Explanation:1. The odds of an event happening are calculated by dividing the number of times it occurs by the number of times it does not occur.
2. The odds of an event happening in a given situation are 6 to 4.
3. This translates to a ratio of 1.5, meaning the event is more likely to happen than not.
4. The risk of the event happening is calculated by dividing the number of times it occurs by the total number of possible outcomes.
5. In this case, the risk of the event happening is 6 out of 10.Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies
When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.
To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.
The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 47
Correct
-
Which of the following should be monitored in children who are prescribed methylphenidate?
Your Answer: Height and weight
Explanation:The Maudsley guidelines recommend supplementary monitoring for growth retardation associated with methylphenidate use. However, the guidelines do not specify the frequency of such monitoring.
ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)
ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.
Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.
NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.
Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
What term is used to describe an association between two variables that is influenced by a confounding factor?
Your Answer: Partial
Correct Answer: Indirect
Explanation:Stats Association and Causation
When two variables are found to be more commonly present together, they are said to be associated. However, this association can be of three types: spurious, indirect, of direct. Spurious association is one that has arisen by chance and is not real, while indirect association is due to the presence of another factor, known as a confounding variable. Direct association, on the other hand, is a true association not linked by a third variable.
Once an association has been established, the next question is whether it is causal. To determine causation, the Bradford Hill Causal Criteria are used. These criteria include strength, temporality, specificity, coherence, and consistency. The stronger the association, the more likely it is to be truly causal. Temporality refers to whether the exposure precedes the outcome. Specificity asks whether the suspected cause is associated with a specific outcome of disease. Coherence refers to whether the association fits with other biological knowledge. Finally, consistency asks whether the same association is found in many studies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 49
Correct
-
What is a reason why dynamic group psychotherapy may not be recommended?
Your Answer: Service user in acute crisis
Explanation:Dynamic group psychotherapy is generally suitable for individuals who exhibit positive factors such as a willingness to engage in self-reflection, a desire to improve interpersonal relationships, and a capacity for empathy. However, acute crisis situations are not appropriate for this type of therapy. Additionally, excessive use of denial as a defence mechanism, impulsive behaviour, inability to trust others, problems with self-disclosure, and a history of poor attendance in previous therapy are also considered contraindications for dynamic group psychotherapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
Which option is not a type of cognitive distortion?
Your Answer: Selective abstraction
Correct Answer: Isolation
Explanation:The term isolation belongs to the psychodynamic field.
Cognitive Therapy and Negative Automatic Thoughts
Cognitive therapy is a present-focused approach that aims to help clients overcome difficulties by identifying and changing dysfunctional thinking. This therapy is based on collaboration between the client and therapist and on testing beliefs through collaborative empiricism. One of the techniques used in cognitive therapy is Socratic questioning, which helps elicit false beliefs called negative automatic thoughts.
Negative automatic thoughts, also known as cognitive distortions, can be categorized into different types. Dichotomous thinking is the tendency to see things as black and white rather than shades of grey. Personalization is the incorrect assumption that things happen due to us, while overgeneralization involves coming to a general conclusion based on a single piece of evidence. Arbitrary inference is drawing an unjustified conclusion, while selective abstraction involves concentrating on the negative while ignoring the positives. Catastrophizing is expecting disaster from relatively trivial events, while filtering involves selecting out only negative aspects of a situation and leaving out the positive.
Control fallacies involve believing that we are responsible for everything (internal control fallacy) of nothing (external control fallacy). The fallacy of fairness is believing that life is fair, while blaming involves holding others responsible for our distress. Shoulds are preconceived rules we believe (often incorrect) which makes us angry when others don’t obey them. Magnification is a tendency to exaggerate the importance of negative information of experiences, while trivializing of reducing the significance of positive information of experiences. Minimization involves an undervaluation of positive attributes, while emotional reasoning is believing what we feel must be true.
The fallacy of change involves expecting others to change just because it suits us, while global labeling involves exaggerating and labeling behavior (e.g. when you fail at something, saying ‘I’m a loser’). Always being right is when the need to be right dominates all other needs, while the heaven’s reward fallacy involves expecting our sacrifices will pay off. Finally, magical thinking is incorrectly believing that our actions influence the outcomes.
Overall, cognitive therapy helps individuals identify and challenge negative automatic thoughts to improve their mental health and well-being.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
-
-
Question 51
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements accurately describes the features of a distribution that is negatively skewed?
Your Answer: Median < mode < mean
Correct Answer: Mean < median < mode
Explanation:Skewed Data: Understanding the Relationship between Mean, Median, and Mode
When analyzing a data set, it is important to consider the shape of the distribution. In a normally distributed data set, the curve is symmetrical and bell-shaped, with the median, mode, and mean all equal. However, in skewed data sets, the distribution is asymmetrical, with the bulk of the data concentrated on one side of the figure.
In a negatively skewed distribution, the left tail is longer, and the bulk of the data is concentrated to the right of the figure. In contrast, a positively skewed distribution has a longer right tail, with the bulk of the data concentrated to the left of the figure. In both cases, the median is positioned between the mode and the mean, as it represents the halfway point of the distribution.
However, the mean is affected by extreme values of outliers, causing it to move away from the median in the direction of the tail. In positively skewed data, the mean is greater than the median, which is greater than the mode. In negatively skewed data, the mode is greater than the median, which is greater than the mean.
Understanding the relationship between mean, median, and mode in skewed data sets is crucial for accurate data analysis and interpretation. By recognizing the shape of the distribution, researchers can make informed decisions about which measures of central tendency to use and how to interpret their results.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 52
Incorrect
-
How would you rephrase the question to refer to the test's capacity to identify a person with a disease as positive?
Your Answer: Positive predictive value
Correct Answer: Sensitivity
Explanation:Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 53
Correct
-
What is the recommended course of treatment for a man who experiences depression after a heart attack?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:SSRI for Post-MI Depression
Post-myocardial infarction (MI), approximately 20% of people develop depression, which can worsen prognosis if left untreated. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the preferred antidepressant group for post-MI depression. However, they can increase the risk of bleeding, especially in those using anticoagulation. Mirtazapine is an alternative option, but it is also associated with bleeding. The SADHART study found sertraline to be a safe treatment for depression post-MI. It is important to consider the bleeding risk when choosing an antidepressant for post-MI depression.
References:
– Davies, P. (2004). Treatment of anxiety and depressive disorders in patients with cardiovascular disease. BMJ, 328, 939-943.
– Glassman, A. H. (2002). Sertraline treatment of major depression in patients with acute MI of unstable angina. JAMA, 288, 701-709.
– Goodman, M. (2008). Incident and recurrent major depressive disorder and coronary artery disease severity in acute coronary syndrome patients. Journal of Psychiatric Research, 42, 670-675.
– Na, K. S. (2018). Can we recommend mirtazapine and bupropion for patients at risk for bleeding? A systematic review and meta-analysis. Journal of Affective Disorders, 225, 221-226. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
-
-
Question 54
Incorrect
-
A middle aged male is brought to the hospital by the police after being found wandering in the city centre. He appears confused and disoriented, and has a strong smell of alcohol. Upon examination, you observe red cheeks and multiple spider angiomas. The patient attempts to leave the department and exhibits significant gait disturbance. Although his neurological examination is challenging due to his level of agitation, you do not detect ophthalmoplegia. What medication would you prescribe for this patient?
Your Answer: Pabrinex + vitamin B1
Correct Answer: Pabrinex
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.
The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.
Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 55
Incorrect
-
What is the recommended initial treatment for insomnia that has persisted for 2 months and is not expected to improve in the near future?
Your Answer: Melatonin
Correct Answer: CBT-I
Explanation:Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, waking up too early, of feeling unrefreshed after sleep. The management of insomnia depends on whether it is short-term (lasting less than 3 months) of long-term (lasting more than 3 months). For short-term insomnia, sleep hygiene and a sleep diary are recommended first. If severe daytime impairment is present, a short course of a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic medication may be considered for up to 2 weeks. For long-term insomnia, cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I) is the first-line treatment.
Pharmacological therapy should be avoided, but a short-term hypnotic medication may be appropriate for some individuals with severe symptoms of an acute exacerbation. Referral to a sleep clinic of neurology may be necessary if another sleep disorder is suspected of if long-term insomnia has not responded to primary care management. Good sleep hygiene practices include establishing fixed sleep and wake times, relaxing before bedtime, maintaining a comfortable sleeping environment, avoiding napping during the day, avoiding caffeine, nicotine, and alcohol before bedtime, avoiding exercise before bedtime, avoiding heavy meals late at night, and using the bedroom only for sleep and sexual activity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 56
Correct
-
How can we best describe a primary prevention approach for suicide among older adults?
Your Answer: Development of social networks
Explanation:Prevention measures can be classified into different levels, depending on the stage at which they are implemented. The first model, developed in the 1960s, includes primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention. Primary prevention aims to intervene before a disease of problem begins, and can be universal (targeted to the general public), selective (targeted to a high-risk population), of indicated (targeted to individuals with minimal but detectable signs of a disorder). Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease that has not yet become symptomatic, while tertiary prevention involves the care of established disease.
A newer model, developed in 1992, focuses on prevention interventions used before the initial onset of a disorder. This model also includes three levels: universal prevention (targeted to the general population), selective prevention (targeted to a high-risk population), and indicated prevention (targeted to individuals with minimal but detectable signs of a disorder). Examples of prevention measures include cognitive interventions for adolescents with cognitive deficits to prevent the later phases of schizophrenia, screening procedures for early detection and treatment of disease, and the use of low-dose atypical antipsychotics and CBT for patients with prodromal symptoms of schizophrenia to delay of prevent disease onset.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
-
-
Question 57
Correct
-
A client successfully completed a detoxification regime for her alcohol dependence 4 weeks ago and has still not consumed alcohol. According to the stages of change model, which of the following stages is she currently at?
Your Answer: Action
Explanation:Stages of Change Model
Prochaska and DiClemente’s Stages of Change Model identifies five stages that individuals go through when making a change. The first stage is pre-contemplation, where the individual is not considering change. There are different types of precontemplators, including those who lack knowledge about the problem, those who are afraid of losing control, those who feel hopeless, and those who rationalize their behavior.
The second stage is contemplation, where the individual is ambivalent about change and is sitting on the fence. The third stage is preparation, where the individual has some experience with change and is trying to change, testing the waters. The fourth stage is action, where the individual has started to introduce change, and the behavior is defined as action during the first six months of change.
The final stage is maintenance, where the individual is involved in ongoing efforts to maintain change. Action becomes maintenance once six months have elapsed. Understanding these stages can help individuals and professionals in supporting behavior change.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 58
Incorrect
-
What is another name for a DaTscan?
Your Answer: FDG PET
Correct Answer: FP-CIT SPECT
Explanation:The purpose of a DaTscan is to aid in the identification of dementia with Lewy bodies in individuals who are suspected to have it.
Dementia is a condition that can be diagnosed and supported with the use of neuroimaging techniques. In Alzheimer’s disease, MRI and CT scans are used to assess volume changes in specific areas of the brain, such as the mesial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex. SPECT and PET scans can also show functional changes, such as hypoperfusion and glucose hypometabolism. Vascular dementia can be detected with CT and MRI scans that show atrophy, infarcts, and white matter lesions, while SPECT scans reveal a patchy multifocal pattern of hypoperfusion. Lewy body dementia tends to show nonspecific and subtle changes on structural imaging, but SPECT and PET scans can reveal posterior deficits and reduced D2 receptor density. Frontotemporal dementia is characterized by frontal lobe atrophy, which can be seen on CT and MRI scans, while SPECT scans show anterior perfusion deficits. NICE recommends the use of MRI for early diagnosis and detection of subcortical vascular changes, SPECT for differentiating between Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia, and DaTscan for establishing a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
-
-
Question 59
Correct
-
What is the preferred sedative for patients who have significant liver damage?
Your Answer: Oxazepam
Explanation:Sedatives and Liver Disease
Sedatives are commonly used for their calming effects, but many of them are metabolized in the liver. Therefore, caution must be taken when administering sedatives to patients with liver disease. The Maudsley Guidelines recommend using low doses of the following sedatives in patients with hepatic impairment: lorazepam, oxazepam, temazepam, and zopiclone. It is important to note that zopiclone should also be used with caution and at low doses in this population. Proper management of sedative use in patients with liver disease can help prevent further damage to the liver and improve overall patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 60
Correct
-
An older female patient complained of a specific disturbance in memory that occurred whilst having sex. This episode lasted 6 hours and she was fully conscious throughout. She made a full recovery following the event. Select the most likely diagnosis.
Encephalitis
1%
Cerebrovascular accident
7%
Transient global amnesia
81%
Complex partial seizure
2%
Dissociative Amnesia
9%Your Answer: Transient global amnesia
Explanation:Transient Global Amnesia: Definition, Diagnostic Criteria, and Possible Causes
Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a clinical syndrome characterized by sudden and severe amnesia, often accompanied by repetitive questioning, that lasts for several hours. The term was first coined in 1964 by Fisher and Adams. To diagnose TGA, the following criteria have been established: (1) the attack must be witnessed, (2) there must be clear anterograde amnesia, (3) clouding of consciousness and loss of personal identity must be absent, (4) there should be no accompanying focal neurological symptoms, (5) epileptic features must be absent, (6) attacks must resolve within 24 hours, and (7) patients with recent head injury of known active epilepsy are excluded.
Epidemiological studies have shown that thromboembolic cerebrovascular disease does not play a role in the causation of TGA. However, the incidence of migraine in patients with TGA is higher than in the general population. A small minority of cases with unusually brief and recurrent attacks eventually manifest temporal lobe epilepsy. EEG recording is typically normal after an attack, even when performed during the attack.
Possible causes of TGA include venous congestion with Valsalva-like activities before symptom onset, arterial thromboembolic ischemia, and vasoconstriction due to hyperventilation. Precipitants of TGA often include exertion, cold, pain, emotional stress, and sexual intercourse.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
-
-
Question 61
Correct
-
What is the recommended course of action if a patient with panic disorder does not show improvement with an SSRI?
Your Answer: Clomipramine
Explanation:If an SSRI is not appropriate of proves ineffective for treating panic disorder, imipramine of clomipramine may be recommended as alternative options.
Anxiety (NICE guidelines)
The NICE Guidelines on Generalised anxiety disorder and panic disorder were issued in 2011. For the management of generalised anxiety disorder, NICE suggests a stepped approach. For mild GAD, education and active monitoring are recommended. If there is no response to step 1, low-intensity psychological interventions such as CBT-based self-help of psychoeducational groups are suggested. For those with marked functional impairment of those who have not responded to step 2, individual high-intensity psychological intervention of drug treatment is recommended. Specialist treatment is suggested for those with very marked functional impairment, no response to step 3, self-neglect, risks of self-harm or suicide, of significant comorbidity. Benzodiazepines should not be used beyond 2-4 weeks, and SSRIs are first line. For panic disorder, psychological therapy (CBT), medication, and self-help have all been shown to be effective. Benzodiazepines, sedating antihistamines, of antipsychotics should not be used. SSRIs are first line, and if they fail, imipramine of clomipramine can be used. Self-help (CBT based) should be encouraged. If the patient improves with an antidepressant, it should be continued for at least 6 months after the optimal dose is reached, after which the dose can be tapered. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, an alternative medication of another form of therapy should be offered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 62
Incorrect
-
Which term is used to refer to the alternative hypothesis in hypothesis testing?
a) Research hypothesis
b) Statistical hypothesis
c) Simple hypothesis
d) Null hypothesis
e) Composite hypothesisYour Answer: Null hypothesis
Correct Answer: Research hypothesis
Explanation:Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics
In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.
The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.
Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 63
Incorrect
-
What hierarchical language does NLM utilize to enhance search strategies and index articles?
Your Answer: Boolean
Correct Answer: MeSH
Explanation:NLM’s hierarchical vocabulary, known as MeSH (Medical Subject Heading), is utilized for the purpose of indexing articles in PubMed.
Evidence-based medicine involves four basic steps: developing a focused clinical question, searching for the best evidence, critically appraising the evidence, and applying the evidence and evaluating the outcome. When developing a question, it is important to understand the difference between background and foreground questions. Background questions are general questions about conditions, illnesses, syndromes, and pathophysiology, while foreground questions are more often about issues of care. The PICO system is often used to define the components of a foreground question: patient group of interest, intervention of interest, comparison, and primary outcome.
When searching for evidence, it is important to have a basic understanding of the types of evidence and sources of information. Scientific literature is divided into two basic categories: primary (empirical research) and secondary (interpretation and analysis of primary sources). Unfiltered sources are large databases of articles that have not been pre-screened for quality, while filtered resources summarize and appraise evidence from several studies.
There are several databases and search engines that can be used to search for evidence, including Medline and PubMed, Embase, the Cochrane Library, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and OpenGrey. Boolean logic can be used to combine search terms in PubMed, and phrase searching and truncation can also be used. Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) are used by indexers to describe articles for MEDLINE records, and the MeSH Database is like a thesaurus that enables exploration of this vocabulary.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 64
Correct
-
What is the recommended management approach for Wernicke's encephalopathy that is accompanied by petechial hemorrhages?
Your Answer: Intravenous vitamin B1
Explanation:Standard practice should be followed when petechial hemorrhages are observed in an MRI of a patient with Wernicke’s, as they are a typical characteristic of the disease.
Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.
The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.
Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 65
Correct
-
Which option is not included in the Rapid Risk Assessment for Sex Offence Recidivism (RRASOR)?
Your Answer: PCL-R
Explanation:Rapid Risk Assessment for Sex Offence Recidivism (RRASOR)
The Rapid Risk Assessment for Sex Offence Recidivism (RRASOR) is a well-known actuarial tool that is used to predict the likelihood of sex offence recidivism. It comprises of four items that have been proven to have predictive accuracy for sex offence recidivism. These items include the number of past sex offence convictions of charges, the age of the offender being less than 25, the offender being unrelated to the victim, and the gender of the victim.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
-
-
Question 66
Correct
-
Which personality disorder is best treated with Dialectical Behavioural Therapy?
Your Answer: Borderline
Explanation:DBT is a specialized version of CBT designed specifically for individuals with borderline personality disorder.
Dialectical Behavioural Therapy (DBT) is a form of psychotherapy that is tailored for patients with borderline personality disorder. It combines behavioural therapy with aspects of Zen Buddhism and dialectical thinking to help patients develop important interpersonal and emotional regulation skills. DBT has five functions, including enhancing behavioural capabilities, improving motivation to change, assuring new capabilities generalise to the natural environment, structuring the environment so that appropriate behaviours are reinforced, and enhancing motivation of the therapist.
DBT uses a hierarchy of treatment targets to help the therapist determine the order in which problems should be addressed. The treatment targets in order of priority are life-threatening behaviours, therapy-interfering behaviours, quality of life behaviours, and skills acquisition. DBT skills include mindfulness, distress tolerance, interpersonal effectiveness, and emotion regulation. Overall, DBT is an effective form of therapy for patients with multiple problems, and it helps them develop the skills they need to achieve their goals and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
-
-
Question 67
Incorrect
-
What type of regression is appropriate for analyzing data with dichotomous variables?
Your Answer: Lox's
Correct Answer: Logistic
Explanation:Logistic regression is employed when dealing with dichotomous variables, which are variables that have only two possible values, such as live/dead of head/tail.
Stats: Correlation and Regression
Correlation and regression are related but not interchangeable terms. Correlation is used to test for association between variables, while regression is used to predict values of dependent variables from independent variables. Correlation can be linear, non-linear, of non-existent, and can be strong, moderate, of weak. The strength of a linear relationship is measured by the correlation coefficient, which can be positive of negative and ranges from very weak to very strong. However, the interpretation of a correlation coefficient depends on the context and purposes. Correlation can suggest association but cannot prove of disprove causation. Linear regression, on the other hand, can be used to predict how much one variable changes when a second variable is changed. Scatter graphs are used in correlation and regression analyses to visually determine if variables are associated and to detect outliers. When constructing a scatter graph, the dependent variable is typically placed on the vertical axis and the independent variable on the horizontal axis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 68
Correct
-
Out of the medications prescribed to a patient with epilepsy and a complex mental disorder, which one is most likely to be the cause of the raised AST on a routine liver function test flagged by their general practitioner?
Your Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:Biochemical Changes Associated with Psychotropic Drugs
Psychotropic drugs can have incidental biochemical of haematological effects that need to be identified and monitored. The evidence for many of these changes is limited to case reports of information supplied by manufacturers. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition summarises the important changes to be aware of.
One important parameter to monitor is ALT, a liver enzyme. Agents that can raise ALT levels include clozapine, haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, chlorpromazine, mirtazapine, moclobemide, SSRIs, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, and valproate. On the other hand, vigabatrin can lower ALT levels.
Another liver enzyme to monitor is ALP. Haloperidol, clozapine, olanzapine, duloxetine, sertraline, and carbamazepine can raise ALP levels, while buprenorphine and zolpidem (rarely) can lower them.
AST levels are often associated with ALT levels. Trifluoperazine and vigabatrin can raise AST levels, while agents that raise ALT levels can also raise AST levels.
TSH levels, which are associated with thyroid function, can be affected by aripiprazole, carbamazepine, lithium, quetiapine, rivastigmine, sertraline, and valproate (slightly). Moclobemide can lower TSH levels.
Thyroxine levels can be affected by dexamphetamine, moclobemide, lithium (which can raise of lower levels), aripiprazole (rarely), and quetiapine (rarely).
Overall, it is important to monitor these biochemical changes when prescribing psychotropic drugs to ensure the safety and well-being of patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 69
Incorrect
-
Which statement about St John's Wort is incorrect?
Your Answer: It has been found to be as effective as standard antidepressants in the treatment of mild to moderate depression
Correct Answer: It is recommended as an alternative to standard antidepressants
Explanation:St John’s Wort is a commonly used herbal remedy for mild depression, but it should not be recommended or prescribed for this purpose. This is because it can cause drug metabolising enzymes to be induced, which can lead to interactions with other medications, including conventional antidepressants. It is important to note that the amount of active ingredient in different preparations of St John’s Wort can vary, and switching between them can alter the degree of enzyme induction. If a patient stops taking St John’s Wort, the concentrations of interacting drugs may increase, which can result in toxicity. These concerns are outlined in the BNF 61.
Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety
Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.
Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 70
Correct
-
An aging patient with dementia who has shown improvement with donepezil treatment has had their dosage raised. They come back to the clinic reporting issues with urinary incontinence. What course of action would you recommend?
Your Answer: Reduce the dose and suggest continuing
Explanation:Since donepezil has shown a positive response, it would be inappropriate to discontinue it. However, urinary incontinence associated with the medication should not be disregarded as it can limit patients’ activities and quality of life. While it may often be transient and not serious, a lower dose of donepezil of the use of a peripherally acting cholinergic antagonist may be helpful in managing this adverse effect. It is important to recognize urinary incontinence as a potential manifestation of dementia. These recommendations were made by M Hashimoto in a 2000 article in The Lancet.
Treatment of Dementia: AChE Inhibitors and Memantine
Dementia is a debilitating condition that affects millions of people worldwide. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine are two drugs used in the management of dementia. AChE inhibitors prevent cholinesterase from breaking down acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are AChE inhibitors used in the management of Alzheimer’s. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction.
NICE guidelines recommend the use of AChE inhibitors for managing mild to moderate Alzheimer’s and memantine for managing moderate to severe Alzheimer’s. For those already taking an AChE inhibitor, memantine can be added if the disease is moderate of severe. AChE inhibitors are also recommended for managing mild, moderate, and severe dementia with Lewy bodies, while memantine is considered if AChE inhibitors are not tolerated of contraindicated. AChE inhibitors and memantine are not recommended for vascular dementia, frontotemporal dementia, of cognitive impairment due to multiple sclerosis.
The British Association for Psychopharmacology recommends AChE inhibitors as the first choice for Alzheimer’s and mixed dementia, while memantine is the second choice. AChE inhibitors and memantine are also recommended for dementia with Parkinson’s and dementia with Lewy bodies.
In summary, AChE inhibitors and memantine are important drugs used in the management of dementia. The choice of drug depends on the type and severity of dementia, as well as individual patient factors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
-
-
Question 71
Correct
-
What is the approximate occurrence rate of autistic spectrum disorder?
Your Answer: 1%
Explanation:Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a lifelong disorder characterized by deficits in communication and social understanding, as well as restrictive and repetitive behaviors. The distinction between autism and Asperger’s has been abandoned, and they are now grouped together under the ASD category. Intellectual ability is difficult to assess in people with ASD, with an estimated 33% having an intellectual disability. ASD was first described in Europe and the United States using different terms, with Leo Kanner and Hans Asperger being the pioneers. Diagnosis is based on persistent deficits in social communication and social interaction, as well as restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior. The worldwide population prevalence is about 1%, with comorbidity being common. Heritability is estimated at around 90%, and both genetic and environmental factors seem to cause ASD. Currently, there are no validated pharmacological treatments that alleviate core ASD symptoms, but second-generation antipsychotics are the first-line pharmacological treatment for children and adolescents with ASD and associated irritability.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
-
-
Question 72
Correct
-
What factor increases the risk of developing puerperal psychosis?
Your Answer: Pre-existing affective psychosis
Explanation:Puerperal Psychosis: Incidence, Risk Factors, and Treatment
Postpartum psychosis is a subtype of bipolar disorder with an incidence of 1-2 in 1000 pregnancies. It typically occurs rapidly between day 2 and day 14 following delivery, with almost all cases occurring within 8 weeks of delivery. Risk factors for puerperal psychosis include a past history of puerperal psychosis, pre-existing psychotic illness (especially affective psychosis) requiring hospital admission, and a family history of affective psychosis in first of second degree relatives. However, factors such as twin pregnancy, breastfeeding, single parenthood, and stillbirth have not been shown to be associated with an increased risk. Treatment for puerperal psychosis is similar to that for psychosis in general, but special consideration must be given to potential issues if the mother is breastfeeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 73
Correct
-
Out of the 5 trials included in a meta-analysis comparing the effects of depot olanzapine and depot risperidone on psychotic symptoms (measured by PANSS), which trial showed a statistically significant difference between the two treatments at a significance level of 5%?
Your Answer: Trial 2 shows a reduction of 2 on the PANSS (p=0.001)
Explanation:The results of Trial 4 indicate a decrease of 10 points on the PANSS scale, with a p-value of 0.9.
Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics
In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.
The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.
Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 74
Correct
-
A young woman with no prior psychiatric history experiences mania during her initial pregnancy. What would be the most suitable course of treatment?
Your Answer: Quetiapine
Explanation:The recommendation from NICE is to use antipsychotics for the treatment of mania in women.
Bipolar Disorder in Women of Childbearing Potential
Prophylaxis is recommended for women with bipolar disorder, as postpartum relapse rates are high. Women without prophylactic pharmacotherapy during pregnancy have a postpartum relapse rate of 66%, compared to 23% for women with prophylaxis. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with bipolar disorder, according to NICE Guidelines (CG192) and the Maudsley. Women taking valproate, lithium, carbamazepine, of lamotrigine should discontinue treatment and start an antipsychotic, especially if taking valproate. If a woman with bipolar disorder is taking lithium and becomes pregnant, she should gradually stop lithium over a 4 week period and start an antipsychotic. If this is not possible, lithium levels must be taken regularly, and the dose adjusted accordingly. For acute mania, an antipsychotic should be considered. For mild depressive symptoms, self-help approaches, brief psychological interventions, and antidepressant medication can be considered. For moderate to severe depressive symptoms, psychological treatment (CBT) for moderate depression and combined medication and structured psychological interventions for severe depression should be considered.
Reference: Wesseloo, R., Kamperman, A. M., Munk-Olsen, T., Pop, V. J., Kushner, S. A., & Bergink, V. (2016). Risk of postpartum relapse in bipolar disorder and postpartum psychosis: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Psychiatry, 173(2), 117-127.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 75
Incorrect
-
What is the name of the test that compares the variance within a group to the variance between groups?
Your Answer: Chi squared test
Correct Answer: ANOVA
Explanation:Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 76
Incorrect
-
Among the listed medications, which one has the strongest evidence for reducing persistent aggression and violence in individuals with schizophrenia?
Your Answer: High dose olanzapine
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Recent research suggests that clozapine may be effective in reducing persistent aggression in individuals with schizophrenia, even independent of its antipsychotic properties. However, this evidence is largely based on uncontrolled trials. Additionally, there is some indication that mood stabilizers, specifically carbamazepine, may be helpful as an adjunct treatment for assaultive behavior in schizophrenia. On the other hand, there is currently no strong evidence to support the use of benzodiazepines of high-dose antipsychotics for chronic aggression in this population. These findings were discussed in a 2005 article by Davison on the management of violence in general psychiatry.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 77
Correct
-
A 70-year-old man with Cushing's syndrome is brought to the hospital with a sudden onset of schizophrenia. His son informs you that he is quite 'delicate' and has had several bone fractures in the past due to minor accidents. Which antipsychotic medication would be the most suitable for this patient until further assessments are conducted?
Your Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Given that Cushing’s disease causes excessive secretion of glucocorticoids by the adrenal glands, resulting in osteoporosis, the most suitable initial treatment option would be aripiprazole. This would be recommended until a DEXA scan is conducted to confirm of rule out the presence of osteoporosis. Aripiprazole is the preferred choice as it has the lowest likelihood of causing hyperprolactinemia compared to the other options, which reduces the risk of developing osteoporosis.
Management of Hyperprolactinaemia
Hyperprolactinaemia is often associated with the use of antipsychotics and occasionally antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, and dopamine antagonists increase prolactin levels. Almost all antipsychotics cause changes in prolactin, but some do not increase levels beyond the normal range. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related. Hyperprolactinaemia is often asymptomatic but can cause galactorrhoea, menstrual difficulties, gynaecomastia, hypogonadism, sexual dysfunction, and an increased risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer in psychiatric patients.
Patients should have their prolactin measured before antipsychotic therapy and then monitored for symptoms at three months. Annual testing is recommended for asymptomatic patients. Antipsychotics that increase prolactin should be avoided in patients under 25, patients with osteoporosis, patients with a history of hormone-dependent cancer, and young women. Samples should be taken at least one hour after eating of waking, and care must be taken to avoid stress during the procedure.
Treatment options include referral for tests to rule out prolactinoma if prolactin is very high, making a joint decision with the patient about continuing if prolactin is raised but not symptomatic, switching to an alternative antipsychotic less prone to hyperprolactinaemia if prolactin is raised and the patient is symptomatic, adding aripiprazole 5mg, of adding a dopamine agonist such as amantadine of bromocriptine. Mirtazapine is recommended for symptomatic hyperprolactinaemia associated with antidepressants as it does not raise prolactin levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 78
Incorrect
-
Which term is not linked to Winnicott?
Your Answer: Good enough mother
Correct Answer: Identity crisis
Explanation:Erik Erikson coined the term identity crisis.
Winnicott: An Overview
Donald Winnicott, a British paediatrician and psychotherapist, is known for his contributions to the field of child development and psychoanalysis. He introduced several concepts that are still relevant today.
Good Enough Mother: Winnicott emphasised the importance of being a good enough mother rather than a perfect one. He believed that children needed someone who would attend to them but not immediately so that they could learn to tolerate frustration.
Holding Environment: This refers to the psychic and physical space between the mother and infant that ensures the mother is there for the child when needed but allows them to explore independently when ready.
Transitional Object: Winnicott talked about the two separate realities for a child, the ‘me’ and the ‘not me’. The transitional object is one that represents another (e.g. Mother) and is regarded as the first ‘not me’ possession.
False Self: Winnicott described the situation of ‘not good-enough mothering’ as one in which the mother (consciously of unconsciously) is unable to respond adequately to her infant’s spontaneous behaviour (true self), but tends to impose her own wishes and desires (e.g. for an ‘ideal’ child). This may lead the infant to an adaptation on the basis of ’compliance’ (false self) and later, in adulthood, to the loss of a sense of personal autonomy and integrity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
-
-
Question 79
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about problem gambling?
Your Answer: It is more common in adults than in adolescents
Correct Answer: It is more common in people with psychiatric problems
Explanation:Problem Gambling: Screening and Interventions
Problem gambling, also known as pathological gambling, refers to gambling that causes harm to personal, family, of recreational pursuits. The prevalence of problem gambling in adults ranges from 7.3% to 0.7%, while in psychiatric patients, it ranges from 6% to 12%. Problem gambling typically starts in early adolescence in males and runs a chronic, progressive course with periods of abstinence and relapses.
Screening for problem gambling is done using various tools, including the NODS-CLiP and the South Oaks Gambling Screen (SOGS). Brief interventions have been successful in decreasing gambling, with motivational enhancement therapy (MET) being the most effective. Pharmacological interventions, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), naltrexone, and mood stabilizers, have also been effective, but the choice of drug depends on the presence of comorbidity. Psychological interventions, particularly cognitive-behavioral treatments, show promise, but long-term follow-up and high drop-out rates are major limitations. Studies comparing psychological and pharmacological interventions are needed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 80
Incorrect
-
How do the incidence rate and cumulative incidence differ from each other?
Your Answer: The cumulative incidence is preferred when dealing with dynamic populations
Correct Answer: The incidence rate is a more accurate estimate of the rate at which the outcome develops
Explanation:Measures of Disease Frequency: Incidence and Prevalence
Incidence and prevalence are two important measures of disease frequency. Incidence measures the speed at which new cases of a disease are emerging, while prevalence measures the burden of disease within a population. Cumulative incidence and incidence rate are two types of incidence measures, while point prevalence and period prevalence are two types of prevalence measures.
Cumulative incidence is the average risk of getting a disease over a certain period of time, while incidence rate is a measure of the speed at which new cases are emerging. Prevalence is a proportion and is a measure of the burden of disease within a population. Point prevalence measures the number of cases in a defined population at a specific point in time, while period prevalence measures the number of identified cases during a specified period of time.
It is important to note that prevalence is equal to incidence multiplied by the duration of the condition. In chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence. The incidence rate is stated in units of person-time, while cumulative incidence is always a proportion. When describing cumulative incidence, it is necessary to give the follow-up period over which the risk is estimated. In acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence may be similar, while for conditions such as the common cold, the incidence may be greater than the prevalence.
Incidence is a useful measure to study disease etiology and risk factors, while prevalence is useful for health resource planning. Understanding these measures of disease frequency is important for public health professionals and researchers in order to effectively monitor and address the burden of disease within populations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 81
Correct
-
Regarding inaccuracies in epidemiological research, which of the following statements is accurate?
Your Answer: Precision may be optimised by the utilisation of an adequate sample size and maximisation of the accuracy of any measures
Explanation:In order to achieve accurate results, epidemiological studies strive to increase both precision and validity. Precision can be improved by using a sufficient sample size and ensuring that measurements are as accurate as possible, which helps to reduce random error caused by sampling and measurement errors. Validity, on the other hand, aims to minimize non-random error caused by bias and confounding. Overall, both precision and validity are crucial in producing reliable findings in epidemiological research. This information is based on Prince’s (2012) chapter on epidemiology in the book Core Psychiatry, edited by Wright, Stern, and Phelan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 82
Correct
-
What is the closest estimate of the average ratio between clozapine and norclozapine?
Your Answer: 1.3
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 83
Incorrect
-
Which drug is classified as a schedule 2 controlled substance?
Your Answer: Raw opium
Correct Answer: Methylphenidate
Explanation:Schedule 2 drugs are medications that necessitate a prescription for controlled substances and must be recorded in a drug register for medical purposes.
Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)
The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.
The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.
It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.
Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 84
Incorrect
-
What is the percentage of individuals who develop sialorrhoea when prescribed Clozapine?
Your Answer: 70%
Correct Answer: 30%
Explanation:As this originates from a publication of the Royal College, it is frequently utilized to formulate exam questions.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 85
Correct
-
What is the duration of time that cannabis can be detected in the urine of individuals who use it frequently, following their last consumption?
Your Answer: 14 days
Explanation:The duration of cannabis in the system may vary, but it typically lasts for weeks rather than just a few hours of days. However, if cannabis is used only once, it may only be detectable for a period of 6-24 hours.
Drug Screening
Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.
People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.
Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 86
Correct
-
What is the visual assessment that must be conducted before starting therapy and every 3 months thereafter until treatment is stopped?
Your Answer: Vigabatrin
Explanation:The use of Vigabatrin may lead to permanent visual field constriction in both eyes, causing tunnel vision and potential disability. Additionally, it may harm the central retina and result in reduced visual acuity.
Antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) are commonly used for the treatment of epilepsy, but many of them also have mood stabilizing properties and are used for the prophylaxis and treatment of bipolar disorder. However, some AEDs carry product warnings for serious side effects such as hepatic failure, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, and skin reactions. Additionally, some AEDs have been associated with an increased risk of suicidal behavior and ideation.
Behavioral side-effects associated with AEDs include depression, aberrant behaviors, and the development of worsening of irritability, impulsivity, anger, hostility, and aggression. Aggression can occur before, after, of in between seizures. Some AEDs are considered to carry a higher risk of aggression, including levetiracetam, perampanel, and topiramate. However, data on the specific risk of aggression for other AEDs is lacking of mixed. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of AEDs when prescribing them for patients with epilepsy of bipolar disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 87
Incorrect
-
If the new antihypertensive therapy is implemented for the secondary prevention of stroke, it would result in an absolute annual risk reduction of 0.5% compared to conventional therapy. However, the cost of the new treatment is £100 more per patient per year. Therefore, what would the cost of implementing the new therapy for each stroke prevented?
Your Answer: £50,000
Correct Answer: £20,000
Explanation:The new drug reduces the annual incidence of stroke by 0.5% and costs £100 more than conventional therapy. This means that for every 200 patients treated, one stroke would be prevented with the new drug compared to conventional therapy. The Number Needed to Treat (NNT) is 200 per year to prevent one stroke. Therefore, the annual cost of this treatment to prevent one stroke would be £20,000, which is the cost of treating 200 patients with the new drug (£100 x 200).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 88
Correct
-
A 9-year-old girl is being seen in the Enuresis clinic. She continues to experience bedwetting at night despite utilizing an enuresis alarm for the last three months. She has no issues with urination during the day and has a daily bowel movement. What treatment option is most probable to be recommended?
Your Answer: Oral desmopressin 200 micrograms once daily
Explanation:Desmopressin, a man-made version of vasopressin, is approved for treating bedwetting in children aged 5 to 17. The recommended dosage is a single daily dose of 200 mcg.
Elimination Disorders
Elimination disorders refer to conditions that affect a child’s ability to control their bladder of bowel movements. Enuresis, of lack of control over the bladder, typically occurs between the ages of 1-3, while control over the bowel usually occurs before that of the bladder for most toddlers. Toilet training can be influenced by various factors, including intellectual capacity, cultural determinants, and psychological interactions between the child and their parents.
Enuresis is characterized by involuntary voiding of urine, by day and/of by night, which is abnormal in relation to the individual’s age and is not a result of any physical abnormality. It is not normally diagnosed before age 5 and may be primary (the child never having achieved continence) of secondary. Treatment options include reassurance, enuresis alarms, and medication.
Encopresis refers to repeated stool evacuation in inappropriate places in children over the age of four. The behavior can be either involuntary of intentional and may be due to unsuccessful toilet training (primary encopresis) of occur after a period of normal bowel control (secondary encopresis). Treatment generally involves bowel clearance, prevention of impaction, and behavioral therapy.
Before a diagnosis of encopresis is made, organic causes must be excluded. Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from an absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the rectum, colon, and sometimes the small intestine. It leads to a colonic obstruction and is diagnosed in at least half of all cases in the first year of life. It is twice as common in boys than in girls.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
-
-
Question 89
Incorrect
-
The following drug should be avoided in people with epilepsy who develop depression?
Your Answer: Moclobemide
Correct Answer: Bupropion
Explanation:Compared to the other options, bupropion is classified as high risk for individuals with epilepsy. The remaining options are considered low risk of likely low risk.
Psychotropics and Seizure Threshold in People with Epilepsy
People with epilepsy are at an increased risk for various mental health conditions, including depression, anxiety, psychosis, and suicide. It is important to note that the link between epilepsy and mental illness is bidirectional, as patients with mental health conditions also have an increased risk of developing new-onset epilepsy. Psychotropic drugs are often necessary for people with epilepsy, but they can reduce the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures. The following tables provide guidance on the seizure risk associated with different classes of antidepressants, antipsychotics, and ADHD medications. It is important to use caution and carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications when treating people with epilepsy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 90
Incorrect
-
What is the most suitable risk assessment tool to anticipate the likelihood of future domestic violence in a husband who has been accused of common assault against his wife?
Your Answer: HCR-20
Correct Answer: SARA
Explanation:There are various risk assessment tools available for predicting the likelihood of domestic violence, general violence, and sexual violence. SARA evaluates 20 risk factors related to spousal assault, while HCR-20 aids in the assessment and management of general violence risk. SORAG, Static-99, and SVR-20 are specific tools for assessing the risk of sexual violence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
-
-
Question 91
Incorrect
-
A 50 year old man with bipolar affective disorder who has been taking carbamazepine for many years presents with an episode of mania. You are confident that he is compliant with the medication. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step?:
Your Answer: Continue the carbamazepine and add in topiramate
Correct Answer: Continue the carbamazepine and add in quetiapine
Explanation:The Maudsley 13th Edition suggests considering the addition of an antipsychotic when taking carbamazepine.
Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management
Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.
Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.
The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.
It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.
Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 92
Correct
-
Which of the following has the greatest number of risk factors associated with completed suicide?
Your Answer: 45-year-old male, divorced, unemployed, social class V
Explanation:Suicide Risk Factors
Risk factors for completed suicide are numerous and include various demographic, social, and psychological factors. Men are at a higher risk than women, with the risk peaking at age 45 for men and age 55 for women. Being unmarried and unemployed are also risk factors. Concurrent mental disorders are present in about 90% of people who commit suicide, with depression being the most commonly associated disorder. Previous suicide attempts and substance misuse are also significant risk factors. Co-existing serious medical conditions and personality factors such as rigid thinking, pessimism, and perfectionism also increase the risk of suicide. It is important to identify and address these risk factors in order to prevent suicide.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 93
Correct
-
What is accurate about the gastrointestinal issues observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer: Mild transaminitis is common and often asymptomatic
Explanation:Eating disorders are linked to both acute and chronic pancreatitis.
Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.
The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 94
Incorrect
-
How can it be determined if the study on the effectiveness of a new oral treatment for schizophrenia patients in preventing hospital admissions has yielded statistically significant results?
Your Answer: p-value < significance level
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics
In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.
The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.
Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 95
Incorrect
-
In adapted ECT, what does the term 'adapted' refer to in terms of its implementation?
Your Answer: Unilateral administration
Correct Answer: Anaesthetic and muscle relaxant
Explanation:The use of both an anaesthetic induction agent and muscle relaxant characterizes ‘Modified’ ECT, while ‘Unmodified’ ECT is no longer employed. Anticholinergics may be administered to reduce parasympathetic stimulation, and beta-blockers can be used to decrease sympathetic stimulation. EEG monitoring is a requirement when administering ECT.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
-
-
Question 96
Correct
-
What is the most appropriate option for augmentation in cases of schizophrenia that are resistant to clozapine?
Your Answer: Amisulpride
Explanation:Amisulpride is the only option with documented evidence supporting its effectiveness as a clozapine augmentation treatment.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 97
Correct
-
A 30-year-old female who has experienced Herpes encephalitis presents with significant weight gain and intense cravings for carbohydrates. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Klüver-Bucy syndrome
Explanation:Kluver-Bucy Syndrome: Causes and Symptoms
Kluver-Bucy syndrome is a neurological disorder that results from bilateral medial temporal lobe dysfunction, particularly in the amygdala. This condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including hyperorality (a tendency to explore objects with the mouth), hypersexuality, docility, visual agnosia, and dietary changes.
The most common causes of Kluver-Bucy syndrome include herpes, late-stage Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia, trauma, and bilateral temporal lobe infarction. In some cases, the condition may be reversible with treatment, but in others, it may be permanent and require ongoing management. If you of someone you know is experiencing symptoms of Kluver-Bucy syndrome, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to determine the underlying cause and develop an appropriate treatment plan.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 98
Correct
-
What is a true statement about obsessional neurosis?
Your Answer: Those affected tend to have good insight
Explanation:Obsessional Neurosis: A Term Coined by Freud for Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
Obsessional neurosis is a term coined by Sigmund Freud to describe what is now commonly known as obsessive compulsive disorder. This condition typically begins in early adulthood and is often observed in individuals with average of above-average intelligence.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
-
-
Question 99
Correct
-
What is the minimum time interval required after a suspected paracetamol overdose before levels can be measured?
Your Answer: 4
Explanation:Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 100
Incorrect
-
What is a risk management factor included in the HCR-20?
Your Answer: Unresponsiveness to treatment
Correct Answer: Exposure to destabilizers
Explanation:The HCR-20 is a comprehensive tool used to assess the risk of violence in adults. It takes into account various factors from the past, present, and future to provide a holistic view of the individual’s risk. The tool consists of 20 items, which are divided into three domains: historical, clinical, and risk management.
The historical domain includes factors such as previous violence, young age at first violent incident, relationship instability, employment problems, substance use problems, major mental illness, psychopathy, early maladjustment, personality disorder, and prior supervision failure. These factors are important to consider as they provide insight into the individual’s past behavior and potential risk for future violence.
The clinical domain includes factors such as lack of insight, negative attitudes, active symptoms of major mental illness, impulsivity, and unresponsiveness to treatment. These factors are important to consider as they provide insight into the individual’s current mental state and potential risk for future violence.
The risk management domain includes factors such as plans lack feasibility, exposure to destabilizers, lack of personal support, noncompliance with remediation attempts, and stress. These factors are important to consider as they provide insight into the individual’s ability to manage their risk and potential for future violence.
Overall, the HCR-20 is a valuable tool for assessing the risk of violence in adults. It provides a comprehensive view of the individual’s risk and can be used to inform treatment and risk management strategies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
-
-
Question 101
Correct
-
Which neo-Freudian theorist believed that the primary motivator in personality is the pursuit of superiority?
Your Answer: Alfred Adler
Explanation:Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
-
-
Question 102
Correct
-
What does NICE recommend as the most effective method for reducing harm related to alcohol consumption?
Your Answer: Making alcohol less affordable
Explanation:Reducing Alcohol-Related Harm
According to NICE (2010), the most effective and targeted approach to reducing heavy drinking and alcohol-related harm is through implementing a minimum alcohol price. Additionally, limiting the availability of alcohol by reducing the number of outlets selling it in a specific area and restricting the days and hours when it can be sold is another effective strategy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 103
Correct
-
What is the law that suggests that increasing the number of beds in mental institutions can lead to a decrease in serious crimes and incarceration rates within a society?
Your Answer: Penrose's law
Explanation:Penrose’s Law: Increasing Mental Hospital Beds Can Reduce Crime Rates
In 1939, Lionel Penrose conducted a cross-sectional study across 18 European countries, including the Nordic region. His research revealed a significant inverse relationship between the number of mental hospital beds and the number of prisoners. Additionally, he found a strong negative correlation between the number of mental hospital beds and the number of deaths attributed to murder. Based on his findings, Penrose argued that increasing the number of mental institution beds could potentially reduce serious crimes and imprisonment rates. This theory, known as Penrose’s Law, suggests that providing adequate mental health care can have a positive impact on society’s overall safety and well-being.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
-
-
Question 104
Correct
-
You diagnose schizophrenia in a 40 year old man. He asks you what the likelihood is of his child developing the condition. What percentage should you provide as an estimate?
Your Answer: 13%
Explanation:Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors
Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.
While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.
Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.
Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.
Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 105
Incorrect
-
What factor has been consistently identified as the most common in major epidemiological studies?
Your Answer: Personality disorders
Correct Answer: Anxiety disorders
Explanation:Epidemiological surveys and prevalence estimates have been conducted to determine the prevalence of various mental health conditions. The Epidemiological Catchment Area (ECA) study was conducted in the mid-1980s using the Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) based on DSM-III criteria. The National Comorbidity Survey (NCS) used the Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI) and was conducted in the 1990s and repeated in 2001. The Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey (APMS) used the Clinical Interview Schedule (CIS-R) and was conducted in England every 7 years since 1993. The WHO World Mental Health (WMH) Survey Initiative used the World Mental Health Composite International Diagnostic Interview (WMH-CIDI) and was conducted in close to 30 countries from 2001 onwards.
The main findings of these studies show that major depression has a prevalence of 4-10% worldwide, with 6.7% in the past 12 months and 16.6% lifetime prevalence. Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) has a 3.1% 12-month prevalence and 5.7% lifetime prevalence. Panic disorder has a 2.7% 12-month prevalence and 4.7% lifetime prevalence. Specific phobia has an 8.7% 12-month prevalence and 12.5% lifetime prevalence. Social anxiety disorder has a 6.8% 12-month prevalence and 12.1% lifetime prevalence. Agoraphobia without panic disorder has a 0.8% 12-month prevalence and 1.4% lifetime prevalence. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has a 1.0% 12-month prevalence and 1.6% lifetime prevalence. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has a 1.3-3.6% 12-month prevalence and 6.8% lifetime prevalence. Schizophrenia has a 0.33% 12-month prevalence and 0.48% lifetime prevalence. Bipolar I disorder has a 1.5% 12-month prevalence and 2.1% lifetime prevalence. Bulimia nervosa has a 0.63% lifetime prevalence, anorexia nervosa has a 0.16% lifetime prevalence, and binge eating disorder has a 1.53% lifetime prevalence.
These prevalence estimates provide important information for policymakers, healthcare providers, and researchers to better understand the burden of mental health conditions and to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 106
Incorrect
-
A study which aims to see if women over 40 years old have a different length of pregnancy, compare the mean in a group of women of this age against the population mean. Which of the following tests would you use to compare the means?
Your Answer: Chi squared test
Correct Answer: One sample t-test
Explanation:The appropriate statistical test for the study is a one-sample t-test as it involves the calculation of a single mean.
Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 107
Correct
-
How can the prevalence of schizophrenia in the UK population be characterized by the consistent finding of approximately 1%?
Your Answer: Endemic
Explanation:Epidemiology Key Terms
– Epidemic (Outbreak): A rise in disease cases above the anticipated level in a specific population during a particular time frame.
– Endemic: The regular of anticipated level of disease in a particular population.
– Pandemic: Epidemics that affect a significant number of individuals across multiple countries, regions, of continents. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 108
Correct
-
What is the proportion of values that fall within a range of 3 standard deviations from the mean in a normal distribution?
Your Answer: 99.70%
Explanation:Standard Deviation and Standard Error of the Mean
Standard deviation (SD) and standard error of the mean (SEM) are two important statistical measures used to describe data. SD is a measure of how much the data varies, while SEM is a measure of how precisely we know the true mean of the population. The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution, is a symmetrical bell-shaped curve that describes the spread of many biological and clinical measurements.
68.3% of the data lies within 1 SD of the mean, 95.4% of the data lies within 2 SD of the mean, and 99.7% of the data lies within 3 SD of the mean. The SD is calculated by taking the square root of the variance and is expressed in the same units as the data set. A low SD indicates that data points tend to be very close to the mean.
On the other hand, SEM is an inferential statistic that quantifies the precision of the mean. It is expressed in the same units as the data and is calculated by dividing the SD of the sample mean by the square root of the sample size. The SEM gets smaller as the sample size increases, and it takes into account both the value of the SD and the sample size.
Both SD and SEM are important measures in statistical analysis, and they are used to calculate confidence intervals and test hypotheses. While SD quantifies scatter, SEM quantifies precision, and both are essential in understanding and interpreting data.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
-
-
Question 109
Correct
-
What is the herbal remedy that is highly effective for anxiety but not recommended due to its risk of hepatotoxicity?
Your Answer: Piper methysticum
Explanation:Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety
Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.
Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 110
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman has been referred to clinic by her GP. She has been dressing as a man since her early 20s, and has always kept this a secret from her family. She reports that she wishes to be a man and that she is very uncomfortable with her female sex. She states that she would like gender reassignment surgery.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Transsexualism
Explanation:Transsexualism is a condition where an individual desires to live and be accepted as a member of the opposite sex, often accompanied by discomfort with their own biological sex and a desire for gender reassignment treatment. This desire is usually present from an early age, before puberty.
Fetishistic transvestism involves wearing clothes of the opposite sex primarily for sexual arousal. The individual experiences a strong desire to remove the clothing once sexual arousal subsides.
Dual role transvestism involves wearing clothes of the opposite sex to temporarily experience membership of the opposite sex, without any desire for a permanent sex change of sexual arousal.
Egodystonic sexual orientation refers to an individual who wishes their gender identity of sexual orientation were different due to associated psychological and behavioral disorders. They may seek treatment to change it.
Voyeurism is a recurring tendency to observe people engaging in sexual of intimate behavior, such as undressing, without their knowledge. This behavior often leads to sexual excitement and masturbation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 111
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about bodily distress disorder?
Your Answer: The most commonly reported symptom in a female is unsightly skin changes
Correct Answer: A diagnosis can be made even when a diagnosis is medically explained
Explanation:Unsightly skin changes are not a typical symptom of bodily distress disorder as the condition is usually characterized by subjective symptoms that are difficult to measure objectively, such as pain, fatigue, and gastrointestinal of respiratory issues.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 112
Correct
-
What is the term used to refer to the act of deriving pleasure from touching and rubbing against someone who has not given their consent?
Your Answer: Frotteurism
Explanation:Paraphilias are intense and persistent sexual interests other than sexual interest in genital stimulation of preparatory fondling with phenotypically normal, physically mature, consenting human partners. They are divided into those relating to erotic activity and those relating to erotic target. In order to become a disorder, paraphilias must be associated with distress of impairment to the individual of with harm to others. The DSM-5 lists 8 recognised paraphilic disorder but acknowledges that there are many more. Treatment modalities for the paraphilias have limited scientific evidence to support their use. Psychological therapy (especially CBT) is often used (with extremely variable results). Pharmacological options include SSRI, Naltrexone, Antipsychotics, GnRH agonists, and Anti-androgens and progestational drugs (e.g. cyproterone acetate).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)