-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of oligomenorrhoea and menstrual irregularity (menses every 32–38 days). She has a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m2 and is hirsute. She has short hair distributed in a male pattern of baldness.
Examination reveals brown, hyperpigmented areas in the creases of the axillae and around the neck. A glucose tolerance test is performed and shows the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Fasting plasma glucose 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) plasma glucose 9.2 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate monitoring plan for this patient?Your Answer: Annual glucose tolerance testing as there is evidence of impaired glucose tolerance
Explanation:Annual Monitoring for Diabetes in Women with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome
Women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) are at an increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus. Therefore, it is important to monitor these patients for diabetes. The monitoring approach depends on the patient’s risk stratification, which is determined by factors such as BMI, family history of diabetes, and personal history of gestational diabetes.
For patients with evidence of impaired glucose tolerance, defined as a fasting glucose of < 7.0 mmol/l and a 2-hour OGTT of ≥ 7.8 but < 11.1 mmol/l, dietary and weight loss advice should be given, and a repeat glucose tolerance test is indicated annually. For patients with a normal glucose tolerance test, with a BMI of < 30 kg/m2, no family history of diabetes, and no personal history of gestational diabetes, annual random fasting glucose testing is appropriate. If the result is ≥ 5.6 mmol/l, then a glucose tolerance test should be performed. For patients with a BMI of ≥ 30 kg/m2, annual glucose tolerance testing is recommended. If diabetes is suspected based on symptoms such as polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss, a random serum glucose of ≥ 11.0 mmol/l or a fasting glucose of ≥ 7.0 mmol/l is diagnostic. In asymptomatic patients, two samples of fasting glucose of ≥ 7.0 mmol/l are adequate for diagnosis. In conclusion, annual monitoring for diabetes is important in women with PCOS to prevent complications and morbidity associated with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The monitoring approach should be tailored to the patient’s risk stratification.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A young woman in her early twenties visits your GP clinic. She plans to start trying for a baby in a year's time but wants to avoid pregnancy until then as she has important exams to take. She hopes to conceive soon after completing her exams. Which contraceptive method is known to cause a longer delay in the return to fertility?
Your Answer: Depo-Provera
Explanation:Condoms act as a barrier contraceptive and do not have any impact on ovulation, therefore they do not cause any delay in fertility. The intrauterine system (IUS) functions by thickening cervical mucous and may prevent ovulation in some women, but most women still ovulate. Once the IUS is removed, most women regain their fertility immediately.
The combined oral contraceptive pill may postpone the return to a normal menstrual cycle in some women, but the majority of them can conceive within a month of discontinuing it. The progesterone-only pill is less likely to delay the return to a normal cycle as it does not contain oestrogen.
Depo-Provera can last up to 12 weeks, and it may take several months for the body to return to a normal menstrual cycle, which can delay fertility. As a result, it is not the most suitable method for a woman who wants to resume ovulatory cycles immediately.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman without previous pregnancies visits her GP complaining of abdominal bloating and diarrhea. She has a family history of irritable bowel syndrome. During the examination, the doctor notes a soft and non-tender abdomen with a detectable pelvic mass. What is the most appropriate next course of action?
Your Answer: Refer her for an urgent abdominal/pelvic ultrasound scan
Correct Answer: Measure CA125 and refer her urgently to gynaecology
Explanation:If there is suspicion of ovarian cancer and an abdominal or pelvic mass is present, it is not necessary to perform a CA125 and US test. Instead, the patient should be immediately referred to gynaecology. Prescribing loperamide and buscopan for symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome in women over 50 years old is not appropriate as these symptoms could indicate ovarian cancer and require investigation. While waiting for the results of CA125 and ultrasound tests is usually recommended for suspected ovarian cancer patients, urgent referral to gynaecology is necessary in this case due to the presence of an abdominal mass. Although CA125 measurement should still be performed, waiting for test results to determine the need for urgent referral is not appropriate as guidelines already recommend it.
Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on switching from the progesterone-only pill to combined oral contraception due to irregular bleeding. She is concerned about the risk of blood clotting adverse effects. What advice should be given to her regarding additional contraception when making the switch?
Your Answer: 7-days of additional barrier contraception is needed
Explanation:To ensure maximum safety when switching from a traditional POP to COCP, it is recommended to use barrier contraception for 7 days while starting the combined oral contraceptive. This is the standard duration of protection required when starting this medication outside of menstruation. It is not necessary to use barrier contraception for 10 or 14 days, as the standard recommendation is 7 days. Using barrier contraception for only 3 days is too short, as it is the duration recommended for starting a traditional progesterone-only pill. While there may be some protection, it is still advisable to use additional contraception for 7 days to prevent unwanted pregnancy.
Special Situations for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
Concurrent antibiotic use has been a concern for many years in the UK, as doctors have advised that it may interfere with the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill. However, this approach is not taken in the US or most of mainland Europe. In 2011, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare updated their guidelines to abandon the extra precautions previously advised during antibiotic treatment and for 7 days afterwards. The latest edition of the British National Formulary (BNF) has also been updated to reflect this guidance, although precautions should still be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.
When it comes to switching combined oral contraceptive pills, the BNF and Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) appear to give contradictory advice. The FSRH’s Combined Oral Contraception guidelines state that the pill-free interval does not need to be omitted, while the BNF advises missing the pill-free interval if the progesterone changes. Given this uncertainty, it is best to follow the BNF’s advice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman has been experiencing severe dysmenorrhoea for a prolonged period and seeks consultation at the gynaecological clinic. The consultant suspects adenomyosis as the underlying cause but wants to confirm the diagnosis and exclude other possible pathologies before initiating treatment. What is the most appropriate imaging modality for diagnosing this condition?
Your Answer: CT Pelvis
Correct Answer: MRI Pelvis
Explanation:MRI is the most effective imaging technique for diagnosing adenomyosis, which is the presence of endometrial tissue in the myometrium. While ultrasound can also aid in diagnosis, it is not as reliable as MRI. Laparoscopy is used to diagnose endometriosis, but it cannot detect adenomyosis as it occurs within the uterine wall. CT is not a suitable imaging technique for adenomyosis as it cannot differentiate between different types of tissue. Hysterosalpingography is used for imaging the uterine lining and fallopian tubes, typically during fertility treatment, but it cannot provide an image of the myometrium.
Understanding Adenomyosis
Adenomyosis is a medical condition that occurs when endometrial tissue grows within the muscular walls of the uterus. This condition is more common in women who have had multiple pregnancies and are nearing the end of their reproductive years. Symptoms of adenomyosis include painful menstrual cramps, heavy menstrual bleeding, and an enlarged and tender uterus.
To diagnose adenomyosis, doctors typically use magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) as it is the most effective method. Treatment options for adenomyosis include managing symptoms with pain relief medication, using tranexamic acid to control heavy bleeding, and administering gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists to reduce estrogen levels. In severe cases, uterine artery embolization or hysterectomy may be necessary. Hysterectomy is considered the definitive treatment for adenomyosis.
In summary, adenomyosis is a condition that affects the uterus and can cause painful menstrual cramps, heavy bleeding, and an enlarged uterus. It is more common in women who have had multiple pregnancies and are nearing the end of their reproductive years. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI, and treatment options include managing symptoms, medication, and surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
You are recommending hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for a 50-year-old woman who is healthy but is suffering from severe menopausal symptoms. She is curious about the advantages and disadvantages of various HRT options.
What is the accurate response concerning the risk of cancer associated with different types of HRT preparations?Your Answer: Combined HRT decreases the risk of breast cancer
Correct Answer: Combined HRT increases the risk of breast cancer
Explanation:The addition of progesterone to HRT increases the likelihood of developing breast cancer, but this risk is dependent on the duration of treatment and decreases after HRT is discontinued. However, it does not affect the risk of dying from breast cancer. HRT with only oestrogen is linked to a lower risk of coronary heart disease, while combined HRT has a minimal or no impact on CHD risk. progesterone-only HRT is not available. NICE does not provide a specific risk assessment for ovarian cancer in women taking HRT, but refers to a meta-analysis indicating an increased risk for both oestrogen-only and combined HRT preparations.
Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.
Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.
HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).
Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman, who has never been pregnant, complains of chronic pain in her pelvis and sacrum during her menstrual cycle. Her temperature is 37.2 degrees Celsius. During the examination, there is tenderness in her posterior vaginal fornix and uterine motion tenderness. A pelvic ultrasound shows no abnormalities. What is the subsequent diagnostic test recommended?
Your Answer: Serial beta-hCG
Correct Answer: Laparoscopy
Explanation:When it comes to patients with suspected endometriosis, laparoscopy is considered the most reliable investigation method.
Understanding Endometriosis
Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.
First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.
It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of a thick, cottage-cheese like vaginal discharge that has a yellowish hue. The patient reports that the discharge began two days ago. She denies any presence of blood in the discharge, but does experience pain while urinating. Upon physical examination, the patient does not exhibit any pain and there are no palpable masses.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Chlamydia
Correct Answer: Candida albicans
Explanation:Common Vaginal Infections and Their Symptoms
Vaginal infections can be caused by various organisms and can present with different symptoms. Here are some common vaginal infections and their symptoms:
1. Candida albicans: This fungal infection can cause candidiasis, which presents with a thick, cottage-cheese yellowish discharge and pain upon urination. Treatment involves antifungal medication.
2. Normal discharge: A normal vaginal discharge is clear and mucoid, without smell or other concerning symptoms.
3. gonorrhoeae: This sexually transmitted infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae can cause a thick green-yellow discharge, painful urination, and bleeding between periods.
4. Chlamydia: This common sexually transmitted infection is often asymptomatic but can eventually cause pain upon urination, vaginal/penile discharge, and bleeding between periods.
5. Bacterial vaginosis: This infection is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina and presents with a grey, watery discharge with a fishy odor. Treatment involves antibiotics and topical gels or creams.
It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any concerning symptoms or suspect a vaginal infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 24-year-old woman presents to a gynaecology clinic with persistent pain during sexual intercourse. Despite previous attempts with NSAIDs and progesterone-only hormonal treatments, her symptoms have not improved. She has a medical history of migraine with aura. The pain is most severe with deep penetration and worsens towards the end of her menstrual cycle. She also experiences dysmenorrhoea. During pelvic examination, tender nodularity is noted at the posterior vaginal fornix.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's likely diagnosis?Your Answer: GnRH analogues
Explanation:If paracetamol and NSAIDs have not effectively controlled symptoms of endometriosis, GnRH analogues may be used as a next step in treatment. This is the appropriate course of action for a woman presenting with symptoms of deep dyspareunia and dysmenorrhoea, along with tender nodularity on examination in the posterior vaginal fornix. As endometriosis is exacerbated by rising oestrogen levels during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle, inducing a menopause state with GnRH analogues can help alleviate symptoms. However, it is important to note that this treatment can cause menopause-like side effects and should only be initiated by specialists after careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits. The use of combined oral contraceptive pills is not recommended in this case due to the woman’s medical history of migraine with aura. Similarly, IM ceftriaxone and PO doxycycline are not appropriate treatments as they are used to manage pelvic inflammatory disease, which presents differently and is not influenced by hormones. Intra-uterine devices are also not recommended as a treatment for endometriosis as they lack a hormonal component and can worsen symptoms.
Understanding Endometriosis
Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.
First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.
It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 73-year-old woman with ovarian cancer is attending the gynaecological oncology clinic. The consultant is discussing her pre-surgical prognosis, which is based on her risk malignancy index (RMI). Can you identify the three components of the RMI?
Your Answer: Age, CA125, ultrasound (US) findings
Correct Answer: CA125, menopausal status, ultrasound (US) findings
Explanation:Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)