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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old man with no previous medical history of note attends for a...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man with no previous medical history of note attends for a new patient check. His blood pressure is noted to be 152/100 mmHg so you arrange blood tests. The results include an eGFR of 55.
      Select the single correct diagnosis that can be made in this case.

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of CKD and Hypertension: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis of chronic kidney disease (CKD) and hypertension. To diagnose CKD, more than one estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) reading below 60 is required over a period of three months. Similarly, hypertension should not be diagnosed based on a single blood pressure reading, but rather through ambulatory or home blood pressure monitoring. Acute kidney injury is characterized by a significant increase in serum creatinine or oliguria, and eGFR is not a reliable indicator for its diagnosis. NICE also recommends using eGFRcystatinC to confirm or rule out CKD in individuals with an eGFR of 45-59 ml/min/1.73 m2, sustained for at least 90 days, and no proteinuria or other markers of kidney disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 2 - What is the ethnic group with the highest incidence of prostate cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the ethnic group with the highest incidence of prostate cancer?

      Your Answer: Black African

      Correct Answer: Asian

      Explanation:

      Factors to Consider in Prostate Cancer

      Ethnicity is a significant factor to consider when discussing prostate cancer. The incidence of prostate cancer varies geographically, with the highest rates found in men of black ethnic group and the lowest rates in Chinese men. Age is another important factor, as prostate cancer is rare in men under 50 years old, with the majority of diagnoses made in patients over 65. Family history is also a risk factor, particularly in younger men. Prostate cancer can cluster within families, and having a first-degree relative under 70 with prostate cancer can double a patient’s relative risk of developing the disease. Finally, diet is another factor to consider, as a diet rich in red meat and dairy products has been linked to an increased risk of prostate cancer. By taking these factors into account, healthcare professionals can better assess a patient’s risk of developing prostate cancer and provide appropriate screening and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with symptoms consistent with membranous glomerulonephritis.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with symptoms consistent with membranous glomerulonephritis.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely be responsible?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Correct Answer: Gold

      Explanation:

      Renal Complications in Rheumatoid Arthritis Treatment

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints and can lead to disability. The use of gold, penicillamine, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents as disease-modifying drugs in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis can result in renal complications. Membranous glomerulonephritis is a common complication that occurs due to the widespread thickening of the glomerular basement membrane. Immunofluorescence reveals granular deposits of immunoglobulin and complement. Methotrexate, another drug used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis, can also be toxic to the kidney in large doses. However, such doses are unlikely in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor renal function in patients receiving these medications to prevent renal complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old woman visits the clinic having experienced stress urinary incontinence for 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman visits the clinic having experienced stress urinary incontinence for 2 years. She visited you for the first time 8 months ago and after a thorough evaluation, you recommended lifestyle modifications and referred her for a 3-month supervised pelvic floor muscle training (PFMT) trial.

      She returns to your clinic and reports that her symptoms persist. She declines surgical intervention and requests medication instead.

      What is the most suitable medication to suggest?

      Your Answer: Oxybutynin

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Patients with stress incontinence who do not respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and refuse surgical intervention may be prescribed duloxetine as a second-line treatment, according to NICE guidelines. If conservative treatments fail or the patient desires further management, referral to a urogynaecologist, gynaecologist, or urologist for assessment and surgical management may be considered. For urgency incontinence, anticholinergic drugs such as darifenacin, oxybutynin, and tolterodine are typically used as first-line treatments, while mirabegron may be prescribed if antimuscarinic drugs are ineffective, not tolerated, or contraindicated.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old man presents with voiding difficulties. He reports passing urine twice a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with voiding difficulties. He reports passing urine twice a night, hesitancy of stream, and no frequency. He has also experienced a reduced appetite for the past 6 weeks and increased fatigue in the early evening. Upon examination, his abdomen is soft with no masses, but a digital rectal exam reveals a firm, irregularly enlarged prostate with no identifiable median sulcus. A urine dipstick shows the presence of blood and leukocytes. His blood test results are as follows: PSA 4.9 ng/ml; K+ 4.9 (3.5-5.5 mmol/L); Na 134 (135-145 mmol/l); creatinine 107 (60-110 μmol/l); urea 8.6 (2.8 - 8.5 mmol/L); and fasting glucose of 4.9. What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Send urine for microscopy culture and sensitivities and treat as UTI

      Correct Answer: Referral to urologist to be seen within 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Understanding PSA Testing and Biopsy Risks for Prostate Cancer

      Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) testing is a common screening tool for prostate cancer. However, it should not be measured without a digital examination. If the screen is positive, a biopsy may be needed, which carries risks such as infection, haematuria, and haematospermia, as well as a small mortality risk. It’s important to note that about one-third of men with a raised PSA will have prostate cancer, but biopsies can miss about one-fifth of cancers.

      When counselling a man for PSA testing, it’s crucial to explain the potential risks and benefits. Urgent referral is not necessary if the prostate is simply enlarged and the PSA is within the age-specific reference range. The Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme recommends age-specific cut-off PSA measurements, with a threshold of 3.5 ng/ml for men under 50, over 3.5 ng/ml for men aged 50-59, 4.0 ng/ml for men aged 60-69, and clinical judgement for men aged 70 and over.

      Understanding the nuances of PSA testing and biopsy risks can help men make informed decisions about their prostate health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 6 - A 10-year-old girl has been passing dark brown urine for two days. Worried,...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl has been passing dark brown urine for two days. Worried, she visits her family doctor with her father.
      During examination, her face appears swollen and her blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. Urine dipstick testing shows a strong presence of blood and moderate protein. Her father mentions that she had a fever and cough about a week ago.
      What is the best course of action for the doctor to take at this point?

      Your Answer: Two week rule urology referral

      Correct Answer: Urgent paediatric/nephrology admission

      Explanation:

      Urgent Admission for a Patient with Acute Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      A patient presenting with nephritic syndrome, including haematuria, oliguria, hypertension, and oedema, is likely suffering from acute glomerulonephritis, possibly post-streptococcal. This condition can lead to acute kidney injury and requires urgent investigation. Therefore, routine referral to paediatric nephrologists or urologists is not appropriate in this case. Instead, the patient needs to be admitted to the hospital for urgent investigation and management. While follow-up with paediatric nephrologists may be necessary, the acute presentation with hypertension and oedema requires immediate attention. A two-week rule referral for suspected malignancy is not indicated in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old woman who is currently 8 weeks pregnant contacts the clinic to...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman who is currently 8 weeks pregnant contacts the clinic to inquire about the results of her urine culture that was taken during her first antenatal visit. She reports no symptoms and has no known allergies to medications.

      The urine culture report indicates:

      Significant growth of Escherichia coli

      Trimethoprim Sensitive
      Nitrofurantoin Sensitive
      Cefalexin Sensitive

      What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin (7 day course)

      Explanation:

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old man returned from holiday to Greece a few days ago. He...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man returned from holiday to Greece a few days ago. He is complaining of unilateral, posterior, left, scrotal swelling, dysuria, and a purulent discharge from his penis. He admits to having unprotected sex with a number of different women during the week's holiday.

      On examination there is left scrotal swelling and tenderness, and a purulent discharge from the urethra. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gonorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gonorrhoea

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It is characterized by purulent urethral discharge and epididymitis. To diagnose gonorrhoea, a Gram stain of the urethral discharge fluid is performed. It is important to trace partners where possible to prevent further spread of the infection.

      The treatment of choice for gonorrhoea is Ceftriaxone IM due to increased resistance to fluoroquinolones. Azithromycin 1G orally as a single dose is also recommended. Other combinations are available as alternatives. It is crucial to screen the patient for other sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.

      In summary, gonorrhoea is a common sexually transmitted infection that can be easily diagnosed and treated. Early detection and treatment are essential to prevent complications and further spread of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 9 - A 6-month-old boy was thought to have a unilateral undescended testicle at birth....

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old boy was thought to have a unilateral undescended testicle at birth. At 6 months, the testicle is palpable in the inguinal canal, but cannot be brought down into the scrotum.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer: Review the surgical option after 12 months

      Correct Answer: Surgery at 6 months

      Explanation:

      Undescended Testicles in Infants: Diagnosis and Treatment Options

      Undescended testicles, also known as cryptorchidism, is a common condition in male infants where one or both testicles fail to descend into the scrotum. This can lead to potential complications such as infertility and an increased risk of testicular cancer.

      The recommended course of action is to refer the infant to paediatric surgery or urology before six months of age. The current recommended timing for surgery is before 12 months of life to preserve the stem cells for subsequent spermatogenesis. However, even with surgical treatment, long-term outcomes remain problematic with impaired fertility and an increased cancer risk.

      If one or both testicles are retractile, annual follow-up throughout childhood is advised due to the risk of ascending testis syndrome. Hormone treatment is an option, but it has a lower success rate and more adverse effects compared to surgery.

      For cases where a single testis is undescended, a referral to paediatric surgery or urology should be made by six months of age if the testis has not descended. It is important to review the surgical option after 12 months of age.

      Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial in managing undescended testicles in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 10 - You receive the result of a routine mid-stream urine test taken on a...

    Incorrect

    • You receive the result of a routine mid-stream urine test taken on a 84-year-old woman in a nursing home. The result shows a pure growth of Escherichia coli with full sensitivity but levels of white cells and red blood cells are within the normal range. You telephone the nursing home and are told that she is well in herself but that they routinely send urine specimens on all patients.
      Select the single most appropriate management option in this patient.

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim 200 mg bd for 3 days

      Correct Answer: No action required

      Explanation:

      Asymptomatic Bacteriuria in Elderly and Pregnant Women

      Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a common condition in elderly and pregnant women. In healthy patients, a pure growth with normal white and red cells doesn’t require treatment unless an invasive urological procedure is planned. However, in pregnant women, it should be treated as it is associated with low birth weight and premature delivery. There is no evidence of long-term harm or benefit from medication in patients with a normal renal tract. It is important to be cautious in apparently asymptomatic men who may have chronic prostatitis.

      Public Health England advises against sending urine for culture in asymptomatic elderly individuals with positive dipsticks. Urine should only be sent for culture if there are two or more signs of infection, such as dysuria, fever > 38 °C, or new incontinence. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in the elderly should not be treated as it is very common, and treating it doesn’t reduce mortality or prevent symptomatic episodes. In fact, treating it can increase side effects and antibiotic resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      279.1
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Kidney And Urology (3/10) 30%
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