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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old man is brought into the emergency department resus, after being involved in a road traffic collision, where he, a motorbike rider, collided with a car. As one of the doctors receiving the patient into resus, you are tasked with calculating the current Glasgow coma score (GCS) of the patient. The patient's eyes are open, but he seems disoriented and asks you if he's on a spaceship.
Your Answer: 13
Explanation:The patient’s GCS score is 13, with a breakdown of 4 out of 4 for eye opening, 4 out of 5 for verbal response (due to confusion), and 5 out of 6 for motor response (exhibiting localisation to pain). A helpful mnemonic to remember this breakdown is 654…MoVE.
Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.
The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.
The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.
The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.
The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.
Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents with intense itching at 36 weeks of pregnancy. The itching began 3 weeks ago and has been causing her sleepless nights. She experiences itching all over her body, particularly in her hands and feet, but has not observed any rashes. Her mother had comparable symptoms during her second pregnancy. Apart from this, she is in good health. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Check liver function tests
Explanation:The diagnosis that needs to be ruled out first is obstetric cholestasis, as it can heighten the chances of premature birth and fetal death. The condition is identified by abnormal liver function tests and itching without any skin rash. Unlike uric acid, it is the bile acids that are elevated in obstetric cholestasis.
Liver Complications During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.
Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.
Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 3
Correct
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A 20-year-old young woman presents with a 4-day history of cough, headache, fever and joint pains. Blood tests show the presence of raised antibody titres and the presence of cold agglutinins. A diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection is made.
Which of the following drugs would you prescribe as first-line treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:The British Thoracic Society recommends using macrolide antibiotics like clarithromycin or erythromycin as empirical treatment for community-acquired pneumonia in both children and adults if first-line β-lactam antibiotics are ineffective or in cases of severe disease. Atypical infections are often diagnosed late in the illness, making early targeted therapy difficult. M. pneumoniae pneumonia tends to occur in outbreaks in the UK, so being aware of these outbreaks can help guide treatment. Benzylpenicillin is used to treat various infections, including throat infections, otitis media, and cellulitis. Cefuroxime is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used to treat susceptible infections caused by both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, including respiratory tract infections, Lyme disease, and urinary tract infections. Rifampicin is used in combination with other drugs to treat brucellosis, Legionnaires’ disease, serious staphylococcal infections, endocarditis, and tuberculosis. Co-trimoxazole is used to treat Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia and can be administered orally for mild-to-moderate pneumonia or intravenously in dual therapy with steroids for severe pneumonia. It can also be used for PCP prophylaxis in HIV-positive patients, with primary prophylaxis recommended for those with a CD4 count of <£200 and secondary prophylaxis essential after the first infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man has, over the course of two days, developed weakness and numbness in his arms. He has no previous medical history of note apart from treated asthma. He smokes cigarettes ‘occasionally’. His father died of a ‘heart problem’ in his early 50s. On examination, the cranial nerves and lower limbs are normal to examination. There is an increased tone in his arms bilaterally, with brisk reflexes. Power is reduced to three-fifths in all modalities above the elbows. Vibration and joint position sense are normal.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Motor neurone disease (MND)
Correct Answer: Anterior spinal artery thrombosis
Explanation:The anterior spinal artery supplies the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord, causing anterior cord syndrome when there is ischaemia/infarct. This results in complete motor paralysis below the lesion, loss of pain/temperature sensation at and below the lesion, and some autonomic and bowel/bladder dysfunction. A lesion at the conus medullaris presents with back pain, saddle anaesthesia, urinary retention, faecal incontinence, lower limb weakness and numbness, and mixed UMN and LMN palsies. Friedreich’s ataxia presents with a slowly progressive gait ataxia, while MND is slowly progressive with combined UMN and LMN signs. Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord is due to vitamin B12 deficiency and has a subacute or gradual onset with degeneration of the dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord. Syndrome and lesion affected presentations are summarized in a table.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Correct
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At the 4-month check, you observe bilateral hydroceles in a male infant. The swelling is limited to the scrotum and the testis can be felt in the scrotal sac. The infant is otherwise healthy and thriving. The mother expresses concern about the potential impact of the swelling on her son's fertility.
What is the best course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer: Reassure mum that hydroceles are common in infants and often self resolve
Explanation:It is common for newborn males to have communicating hydroceles, which usually resolve on their own. This is due to the processus vaginalis remaining open. Parents should be reassured that the hydroceles typically disappear within a few months. However, if the hydrocele persists beyond one year, it is recommended to refer the child to a urologist for possible repair. Ultrasound is not necessary to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that hydroceles do not impact fertility, but undescended testes can affect fertility if not treated.
Common Scrotal Problems and Their Features
Epididymal cysts, hydroceles, and varicoceles are the most common scrotal problems seen in primary care. Epididymal cysts are usually found posterior to the testicle and are separate from the body of the testicle. They may be associated with conditions such as polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound, and management is usually supportive, although surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.
Hydroceles, on the other hand, describe the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They may be communicating or non-communicating, and may develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Hydroceles are usually soft, non-tender swellings of the hemi-scrotum that transilluminate with a pen torch. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, with infantile hydroceles generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years.
Varicoceles, on the other hand, are abnormal enlargements of the testicular veins that are usually asymptomatic but may be associated with subfertility. They are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound with Doppler studies, and management is usually conservative, although surgery may be required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 6
Correct
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What is the most frequent ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis, typically seen in patients of all ages?
Your Answer: Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Explanation:The symptoms of keratoconjunctivitis sicca include a sensation of dryness, burning, and grittiness in the eyes, which is caused by a reduction in the production of tears.
Rheumatoid Arthritis and Its Effects on the Eyes
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects various parts of the body, including the eyes. In fact, ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis are quite common, with approximately 25% of patients experiencing eye problems. These eye problems can range from mild to severe and can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life.
The most common ocular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis is keratoconjunctivitis sicca, also known as dry eye syndrome. This condition occurs when the eyes do not produce enough tears, leading to discomfort, redness, and irritation. Other ocular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis include episcleritis, scleritis, corneal ulceration, and keratitis. Episcleritis and scleritis both cause redness in the eyes, with scleritis also causing pain. Corneal ulceration and keratitis both affect the cornea, with corneal ulceration being a more severe condition that can lead to vision loss.
In addition to these conditions, patients with rheumatoid arthritis may also experience iatrogenic ocular manifestations. These are side effects of medications used to treat the disease. For example, steroid use can lead to cataracts, while the use of chloroquine can cause retinopathy.
Overall, it is important for patients with rheumatoid arthritis to be aware of the potential ocular manifestations of the disease and to seek prompt medical attention if they experience any eye-related symptoms. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent vision loss and improve overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 7
Correct
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Warfarin can be described as which of the following statements?
Your Answer: It reduces protein C levels in the blood
Explanation:Facts about Warfarin: Uses, Effects, and Precautions
Warfarin is a medication used to reduce blood clotting and prevent thrombosis. It works by blocking an enzyme that reactivates vitamin K1, which is necessary for the production of clotting factors. However, there are several important facts to consider when using warfarin.
Firstly, warfarin reduces protein C levels in the blood, which can affect its anticoagulant properties. Additionally, warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its ability to pass through the placenta and cause bleeding in the fetus. It is also a teratogen, which means it can cause congenital abnormalities if exposure occurs during pregnancy.
Furthermore, heparin is more associated with a prothrombotic reaction, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, and an antibody-mediated decrease in platelet levels. Warfarin, on the other hand, has a short half-life of 3 hours and requires an initial loading dose to reach therapeutic effect.
Lastly, warfarin can be safely used in breastfeeding mothers as the amount of warfarin in breast milk is not significant enough to affect the baby. However, caution should be exercised in lactating women.
In conclusion, warfarin is a useful medication for preventing thrombosis, but it should be used with caution and under medical supervision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents with worries about hair loss. She reports experiencing hair loss in small patches on her scalp. During examination, you observe distinct patches of hair loss with some ‘broken exclamation mark’ hairs at the edges.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Alopecia areata
Explanation:Understanding Hair Loss: Causes and Symptoms
Hair loss is a common concern for many individuals, causing anxiety and worry. There are various causes of hair loss, each with their own unique symptoms. Alopecia areata is a chronic inflammatory disease that affects the hair follicles, resulting in patchy, non-scarring hair loss on the scalp. Androgenic alopecia, on the other hand, is more common in men and causes a receding hairline and loss of hair from the top and front of the head. Fungal infections, such as tinea capitis, can also cause hair loss accompanied by scaling, itching, and pain. Scalp psoriasis can range from mild scaling to severe crusted plaques covering the entire scalp, while erosive pustular dermatosis of the scalp affects elderly individuals with scarring and yellow-brown crusts. It is important to understand the various causes and symptoms of hair loss in order to properly diagnose and treat the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl from a travelling community is brought to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. Upon examination, she has a fever of 38.5ºC, stridor, and appears toxic. The medical team suspects acute epiglottitis. Which of the following pathogens is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:Incomplete immunisation may be a concern for patients belonging to travelling communities with regards to acute epiglottitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B.
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 55-year-old diabetic female patient comes in with bilateral erythematous lesions on her shins that have been present for four months. The lesions are surrounded by telangiectasia. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica
Explanation:There is no association between erythema nodosum and telangiectasia in the surrounding area.
Skin Disorders Linked to Diabetes
Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder that affects various organs in the body, including the skin. Several skin disorders are associated with diabetes, including necrobiosis lipoidica, infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal, neuropathic ulcers, vitiligo, lipoatrophy, and granuloma annulare. Necrobiosis lipoidica is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow, red, or brown skin, typically on the shin, and is often associated with surrounding telangiectasia. Infections such as candidiasis and staphylococcal can also occur in individuals with diabetes. Neuropathic ulcers are a common complication of diabetes, and vitiligo and lipoatrophy are also associated with the condition. Granuloma annulare is a papular lesion that is often slightly hyperpigmented and depressed centrally, but recent studies have not confirmed a significant association between diabetes mellitus and this skin disorder. It is important for individuals with diabetes to be aware of these potential skin complications and to seek medical attention if they notice any changes in their skin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman with COPD has been recommended an inhaled corticosteroid. What is the primary advantage of using inhaled corticosteroids for treating COPD patients?
Your Answer: Reduced severity of exacerbations
Correct Answer: Reduced frequency of exacerbations
Explanation:Inhaled corticosteroids are used to decrease the frequency of exacerbations in patients with COPD.
NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 12
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman with a history of angina and a recent episode of dizziness is prescribed clopidogrel.
What is the primary mechanism of action of this medication?Your Answer: Blocks platelet adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptors
Explanation:Clopidogrel inhibits platelet activation by blocking the binding of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) to the platelet P2Y12 receptor. This is achieved by preventing the activation of the glycoprotein GPIIa/IIIb. It is recommended by NICE for secondary prevention following a cerebrovascular accident or in peripheral arterial disease. It can also be used in combination with aspirin for the management of ischaemic heart disease or for patients undergoing percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention.
Tirofiban and abciximab are drugs that block glycoprotein IIIb/IIIa receptors, preventing platelet aggregation by blocking fibrinogen from binding to platelet receptors. These drugs are used under specialist supervision only for the treatment of acute ST elevation myocardial infarction or during percutaneous transluminal coronary intervention.
Hirudin, produced by leeches, blocks thrombin receptors. Bivalirudin, a hirudin analogue, is used for the acute management of acute coronary syndrome or during PCI.
Aspirin inhibits thromboxane production by blocking the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX).
Heparin binds to antithrombin III, activating it, which reduces the activity of thrombin and factor Xa. Heparin is an anticoagulant and plays a role in the treatment of venous thromboembolism, while clopidogrel is an anti-platelet agent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 13
Correct
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A 47-year-old man is seen by his General Practitioner for his annual hypertension review. He agrees to be referred to the local smoking cessation service, as he is currently experiencing chest pain.
Which of the following medications will need to be monitored closely on cessation of smoking?Your Answer: Theophylline
Explanation:The Effect of Smoking Cessation on Asthma Medications
Smoking cessation can have a significant impact on the management of asthma and the use of certain medications. Here is a breakdown of how smoking cessation affects different asthma medications:
Theophylline: Smoking induces the hepatic enzyme CYP1A2, which plays a major role in metabolizing theophylline. Therefore, quitting smoking can lead to higher plasma levels of theophylline and potentially fatal arrhythmias. Patients need to have their plasma theophylline concentration levels monitored closely and may require a reduced dose after quitting smoking.
Budesonide/formoterol: Neither budesonide nor formoterol are metabolized by CYP1A2, so there is no need for close monitoring following smoking cessation. Asthma control should improve after quitting smoking, and the inhaler dose should be reviewed as part of stepwise management.
Montelukast: Montelukast is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system but not CYP1A2, so smoking cessation does not affect its level.
Prednisolone: Prednisolone is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system, but CYP1A2 is not involved. Therefore, smoking cessation does not affect its metabolism.
Salbutamol: Smoking cessation can improve asthma control, leading to less frequent use of salbutamol or other reliever inhalers. There is no need to monitor this closely as reducing the as-required use of this medication poses no risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 72-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with heart failure. He is currently taking ramipril for his high blood pressure. What is the most appropriate medication to help manage his heart failure?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Comparing Beta Blockers for Heart Failure: Efficacy and Evidence
Beta blockers are a class of medications commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. Among them, bisoprolol and carvedilol have the strongest evidence of efficacy in reducing mortality rates in heart failure patients, according to data from the CIBIS and CASA-2 trials. Atenolol, although cardioselective, has less evidence to support its use in heart failure. Labetalol is primarily used for hypertension in pregnancy, while propranolol has the most evidence of benefit after a myocardial infarction but is not always preferred due to its twice-daily dosing. Sotalol, a first-generation beta blocker, is not cardioselective and is not recommended for heart failure. Overall, the choice of beta blocker for heart failure should be based on the available evidence and individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 15
Correct
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During a routine check-up, a 7 week-old baby boy is seen. His mother has a history of asthma and used inhaled steroids while pregnant. He was delivered via planned Caesarian at 39 weeks due to breech presentation and weighed 3.1kg at birth. What condition is he at a higher risk for?
Your Answer: Developmental dysplasia of the hip
Explanation:If a baby was in a breech presentation, it is important to ensure that they have been referred for screening for developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) as it is a risk factor for this condition. The Department of Health recommends that all babies who were breech at any point from 36 weeks (even if not breech at birth), babies born before 36 weeks who were in a breech presentation, and all babies with a first degree relative who had a hip problem in early life, should undergo ultrasound screening for hip dysplasia. If one twin was breech, both should be screened. Some hospitals also refer babies with other conditions such as oligohydramnios, high birth weight, torticollis, congenital talipes calcaneovalgus, and metatarsus adductus for screening. For more information on screening for DDH, please refer to the link provided.
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Correct
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A 21-year-old man is seeking advice as his girlfriend has been diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. He is concerned about the possibility of contracting the disease. What is the recommended antibiotic prophylaxis for individuals in close contact with someone who has meningococcal meningitis?
Your Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis now favors the use of oral ciprofloxacin over rifampicin.
The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 17
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding juvenile idiopathic arthritis is accurate?
Your Answer: Achilles tendonitis is a recognised association
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 18
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP clinic complaining of a left groin lump that has been present for the past month. Although not severely painful, it causes occasional abdominal discomfort, especially when she goes jogging in the mornings. Her medical history includes polycystic ovarian syndrome, but she has been otherwise healthy with no recent illnesses.
During the examination, her vital signs are found to be within normal limits. A 3x3cm lump is observed in her left groin, located superiorly and medially to the pubic tubercle. The lump is visible while standing but disappears when she lies flat.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Inguinal hernia
Explanation:The patient is experiencing an inguinal hernia, which is when abdominal contents protrude through the abdominal wall and create a lump in the groin area. This lump may be more noticeable when the patient coughs or strains, and can cause pain and discomfort. Inguinal hernias are typically located above and towards the middle of the pubic tubercle. Femoral hernias, which are less common, present similarly but are located lower and to the side of the pubic tubercle. A femoral artery aneurysm, lipoma, or saphena varix are not likely causes based on the patient’s symptoms and examination findings.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.
The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.
Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 19
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the endocrine clinic with thyroid function test results indicating palpitations, excessive sweating, unintentional weight loss, and a notable thyroid goitre that is tender upon palpation. The test results show a TSH level of 9.4 mU/L (normal range: 0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 6.4 pmol/L (normal range: 9.0-18). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Subacute (De Quervain's) thyroiditis
Explanation:Subacute Thyroiditis: A Self-Limiting Condition with Four Phases
Subacute thyroiditis, also known as De Quervain’s thyroiditis or subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, is a condition that is believed to occur after a viral infection. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, a painful goitre, and raised ESR during the first phase, which lasts for 3-6 weeks. The second phase, which lasts for 1-3 weeks, is characterized by euthyroidism. The third phase, which can last for weeks to months, is characterized by hypothyroidism. Finally, in the fourth phase, the thyroid structure and function return to normal.
To diagnose subacute thyroiditis, thyroid scintigraphy is used to show a globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. However, most patients do not require treatment as the condition is self-limiting. Thyroid pain may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs, but in more severe cases, steroids may be used, particularly if hypothyroidism develops.
It is important to note that subacute thyroiditis is just one of the many causes of thyroid dysfunction. A Venn diagram can be used to show how different causes of thyroid dysfunction may manifest. It is interesting to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Proper diagnosis and management of thyroid dysfunction are crucial to ensure optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 20
Correct
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You are reviewing an elderly patient's blood results:
K+ 6.2 mmol/l
Which medication is the most probable cause of this outcome?Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Understanding Hyperkalaemia: Causes and Symptoms
Hyperkalaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. The regulation of plasma potassium levels is influenced by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When metabolic acidosis occurs, hyperkalaemia may develop as hydrogen and potassium ions compete for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. ECG changes that may be observed in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.
There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Certain drugs such as potassium-sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin can also cause hyperkalaemia. It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. On the other hand, beta-agonists like Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment.
Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes. It is essential to monitor potassium levels in the blood to prevent complications associated with hyperkalaemia. If left untreated, hyperkalaemia can lead to serious health problems such as cardiac arrhythmias and even death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with a tiny lump in her right breast. Upon examination, a smooth fluctuant lump is found in the right upper quadrant of the breast. The patient is referred to the breast clinic for an ultrasound scan, which reveals a 2cm cyst in the right upper quadrant of the breast. What is the most suitable course of action for management?
Your Answer: Monitor with 6-monthly ultrasound scan
Correct Answer: Aspiration of the cyst
Explanation:Aspirating breast cysts is necessary due to the potential risk of breast cancer, particularly in younger women. Merely monitoring the cysts with ultrasound or mammogram without aspiration is not a suitable approach. There is no need for wide local excision at this point. Providing false reassurance to the patient is not advisable.
Benign breast lesions have different features and treatments. Fibroadenomas are firm, mobile lumps that develop from a whole lobule and usually do not increase the risk of malignancy. Breast cysts are smooth, discrete lumps that may be aspirated, but blood-stained or persistently refilling cysts should be biopsied or excised. Sclerosing adenosis, radial scars, and complex sclerosing lesions cause mammographic changes that may mimic carcinoma, but do not increase the risk of malignancy. Epithelial hyperplasia may present as general lumpiness or a discrete lump, and atypical features and family history of breast cancer increase the risk of malignancy. Fat necrosis may mimic carcinoma and requires imaging and core biopsy. Duct papillomas usually present with nipple discharge and may require microdochectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. What is the most probable psychiatric issue that he may experience?
Your Answer: Dementia
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Depression is a prevalent psychiatric issue in patients with Parkinson’s disease, with approximately 40% of individuals experiencing it, despite dementia being a common comorbidity.
Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative condition that occurs when dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra degenerate. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other characteristic features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and micrographia. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 14-year-old adolescent complains of recurring reactions to his nose ring. He remembers experiencing a similar reaction on his wrist when wearing a nickel bracelet. What test is used to confirm a nickel allergy?
Your Answer: Patch test
Explanation:Medical Testing Techniques
Patch Test, Flow Cytometry, HLA Typing, Polymerase Chain Reaction, and Skin Prick Testing are all medical testing techniques used for different purposes.
Patch Test is used to diagnose delayed type IV hypersensitivity reactions. It involves applying various test substances to the skin and examining it for any inflammatory response.
Flow Cytometry is used to differentiate between cell populations and count the number of cells in a given sample. It works by channelling cells through a laser beam one at a time and identifying the size and granularity of the cell.
HLA Typing is used to match patients and donors for cord blood or bone marrow transplants. It tests for proteins or markers used by the immune system to differentiate ‘self’ from ‘non-self’.
Polymerase Chain Reaction is used to amplify a single or multiple copies of a DNA segment. It has medical uses such as functional analysis of genes, diagnosis of hereditary diseases, and detection of infectious diseases.
Skin Prick Testing is used to diagnose type I hypersensitivity reactions, which are mediated by immunoglobulin E. It involves immediate degranulation of mast cells and the release of histamine. Examples of type I hypersensitivity reactions include allergic rhinitis, systemic anaphylaxis, and allergic asthma.
Medical Testing Techniques for Different Purposes
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 24
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman with a history of rheumatic heart disease is urgently admitted with a fever, worsening shortness of breath, and a note from her primary care physician confirming the presence of a new heart murmur. During the examination, a harsh pansystolic murmur and early diastolic murmur are detected, and she has a temperature of 38.5 °C with fine basal crepitations in both lungs. Which one of the following should take immediate priority?
Your Answer: Administration of intravenous (IV) antibiotics
Explanation:Prioritizing Interventions in Suspected Infective Endocarditis
When a patient presents with suspected infective endocarditis, prompt intervention is crucial to limit valve destruction and prevent potentially life-threatening complications. The following interventions should be considered, prioritized, and administered as soon as possible:
Administration of intravenous (IV) antibiotics: Empirical treatment with gentamicin and benzylpenicillin may be initiated until microbiological advice suggests an alternative. Antibiotic delivery should take priority over other interventions.
Administration of paracetamol: Fever is a common symptom of infective endocarditis, and paracetamol can provide symptomatic relief. However, it should not take priority over antibiotic delivery.
Echocardiogram (ECHO): An ECHO is an important diagnostic tool for identifying infective endocarditis and detecting complications such as cardiac abscess and pseudoaneurysms. While it should be performed in all suspected cases, it does not take priority over antibiotic administration.
Electrocardiogram (ECG): An ECG can provide additional diagnostic information, including signs of paravalvular extension of infection and emboli in the coronary circulation. It should be part of the initial workup but does not take priority over antibiotic administration.
Throat swab: While a throat swab may be useful in identifying the causative organism of infective endocarditis, it should not take precedence over commencing antibiotics. Careful examination of the patient’s dentition is also crucial to evaluate for a possible infectious source.
In summary, when managing suspected infective endocarditis, prompt administration of IV antibiotics should take priority over other interventions. Other diagnostic and therapeutic interventions should be considered and prioritized based on the individual patient’s clinical presentation and needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 25
Correct
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As a physician on the night shift cardiac arrest team, you receive an emergency page requesting immediate assistance on the geriatric ward. Upon arrival, you discover the nursing staff performing chest compressions on an unresponsive patient with no carotid pulse. You instruct them to continue compressions while you apply defibrillator pads to the patient's chest. After a brief pause in compressions, the defibrillator monitor displays a monomorphic, broad complex tachycardia. What is the next best course of action?
Your Answer: Immediately give 1 defibrillator shock followed by CPR
Explanation:When pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT) is identified, the immediate and correct treatment is a single defibrillator shock followed by 2 minutes of CPR. This is in contrast to using intravenous adenosine or amiodarone, which are not appropriate in this scenario. The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines now recommend a single shock for ventricular fibrillation (VF) or pulseless VT. Administering 3 back-to-back shocks followed by 1 minute of CPR is part of the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm, but it is not the most appropriate next step in management for a delayed recognition of rhythm like in the above case. In contrast, continued CPR with 30 chest compressions to 2 breaths is appropriate in a basic life support scenario where a defibrillator is not yet available.
The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 26
Correct
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An expectant mother visits the obstetrician's office with a complaint of a painful nipple and a white discharge from the nipple. It is suspected that she has a candidal infection. What advice and treatment should be provided?
Your Answer: Continue breast feeding treat both the mother and baby simultaneously
Explanation:It is essential to treat the candidal infection by administering miconazole cream to both the mother and child. The cream should be applied to the nipple after feeding and the infant’s oral mucosa. Breastfeeding should continue during the treatment period. Additionally, the mother should be educated on maintaining good hand hygiene after changing the baby’s nappy and sterilizing any objects that the baby puts in their mouth, such as dummies and teats. This information is provided by NICE CKS.
Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management
Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.
Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.
Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.
If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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A 35-year-old male intravenous drug user (IVDU) presents with a productive cough and fever of 2–3 days’ duration. He had a cold last week. Other than a leukocytosis and high C-reactive protein (CRP), his blood results are normal. A chest radiograph shows bilateral cavitating pneumonia.
Which of the following is the most probable cause of his pneumonia?Your Answer: Staphylococcal pneumonia
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Pneumonia: Causes and Characteristics
Pneumonia is a common respiratory infection that can be caused by various pathogens, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi. Among the bacterial causes, staphylococcal and pneumococcal pneumonia are two of the most prevalent types. However, they have distinct characteristics that can help clinicians differentiate them. In addition, other types of pneumonia, such as Pneumocystis jiroveci, Klebsiella, and fungal pneumonia, have specific risk factors and radiographic patterns that can aid in their diagnosis.
Staphylococcal pneumonia is often associated with a recent viral infection, intravenous drug use, or the presence of central lines. It typically presents as cavitating bronchopneumonia, which can be bilateral and complicated by pneumothorax, effusion, or empyema. Flucloxacillin is the drug of choice for treatment, although vancomycin can be used in penicillin-allergic patients.
Pneumococcal pneumonia, on the other hand, is more commonly acquired in the community and does not usually cause cavitating lesions. It can be suspected in patients with fever, cough, and chest pain, and is often treated with antibiotics such as penicillin or macrolides.
Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is a type of fungal pneumonia that affects immunocompromised individuals, particularly those with HIV. It typically presents with an interstitial pattern on chest radiographs, rather than cavitating lesions.
Klebsiella pneumonia is another bacterial cause of cavitating pneumonia, often affecting elderly individuals or those with alcohol use disorders.
Fungal pneumonia, which can be caused by various fungi such as Aspergillus or Cryptococcus, tends to affect immunocompromised patients, but can also occur in healthy individuals exposed to contaminated environments. Its radiographic pattern can vary depending on the type of fungus involved.
In summary, understanding the different causes and characteristics of pneumonia can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis and choose the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 28
Correct
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A 25-year-old man, who is typically healthy, arrives at the Emergency Department with a three-day history of a red, itchy eye that is only slightly painful when touched over the redness. He had previously visited his General Practitioner and was given chloramphenicol ointment to apply to his eyes four times daily. However, he noticed no improvement in his red eye.
During the examination, his visual acuities are 6/6 in both eyes. His affected eye displays a red spot on the medial side of the eyeball. After administering phenylephrine 10% eye drops, the redness appeared to have improved.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Episcleritis
Explanation:Differentiating Eye Inflammations: Symptoms and Characteristics
Episcleritis is a mild inflammation that causes grittiness and tenderness on palpation, with sectorial redness that is deeper than conjunctivitis. Scleritis, on the other hand, causes severe pain, tenderness, and blueish-red tinge due to deeper inflamed vessels in the sclera. Conjunctivitis presents with superficial inflammation and is not tender to palpation. Iritis causes acute pain, photophobia, and circumcorneal redness, while keratitis also causes acute pain and circumcorneal redness, with fluorescein staining indicating corneal epithelial defect. Knowing these symptoms and characteristics can help in accurately diagnosing and treating eye inflammations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 60-year-old man is undergoing treatment for infective endocarditis. He has received IV antibiotics for the past 3 days. His medical history is unremarkable except for poor dental hygiene. The patient reports experiencing a ringing sensation in his ear upon waking up. Which class of antibiotics is likely responsible for this new symptom?
Your Answer: Aminoglycosides
Explanation:Individuals who receive long-term treatment with an aminoglycoside may experience some level of ototoxicity. Fluoroquinolones, such as ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin, are not associated with ototoxicity but can interfere with connective tissue and increase the risk of tendon rupture. Glycopeptides, which include vancomycin, are more likely to cause nephrotoxicity than ototoxicity, although rare cases of ototoxicity have been reported at high serum concentrations. Macrolides, such as erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin, do not cause ototoxicity but may lead to myopathy or QT prolongation as significant adverse effects.
Gentamicin is a type of antibiotic belonging to the aminoglycoside class. It is not easily soluble in lipids, which is why it is administered either parentally or topically. Gentamicin is commonly used to treat infective endocarditis and otitis externa. However, it is important to note that gentamicin can cause adverse effects such as ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity. Ototoxicity is caused by damage to the auditory or vestibular nerve, which can be irreversible. Nephrotoxicity occurs when gentamicin accumulates in the body, particularly in patients with renal failure, leading to acute tubular necrosis. The risk of toxicity is increased when gentamicin is used in conjunction with furosemide. Therefore, lower doses and more frequent monitoring are required.
It is important to note that gentamicin is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis. Due to the potential for toxicity, it is crucial to monitor plasma concentrations of gentamicin. Both peak levels (measured one hour after administration) and trough levels (measured just before the next dose) are monitored. If the trough level is high, the interval between doses should be increased. If the peak level is high, the dose should be decreased. By carefully monitoring gentamicin levels, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the appropriate dose without experiencing adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 30
Correct
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A 32-week pregnant woman presents to the early pregnancy unit with a concern that her uterus is small for this stage of pregnancy. Upon ultrasound, she is diagnosed with oligohydramnios. What could be a potential cause of oligohydramnios?
Your Answer: Renal agenesis
Explanation:Oligohydramnios is a condition that occurs during pregnancy when there is a shortage of amniotic fluid. This can result in a smaller symphysiofundal height.
Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.
There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 31
Correct
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A 60-year-old man with no significant medical history presents with a lump in his right groin that he noticed while showering. The lump has been present for two weeks and disappears when he lies down. He does not experience any discomfort, and there are no other gastrointestinal symptoms. Upon examination, a small reducible swelling is observed in the right groin. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Routine referral for surgical repair
Explanation:Patient has an asymptomatic inguinal hernia and surgical repair is recommended as conservative management may not be effective.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main feature of an inguinal hernia is a lump in the groin area, which is located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. This lump disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are common symptoms, which can worsen with activity, but severe pain is rare. Strangulation, a serious complication, is uncommon.
The clinical management of inguinal hernias involves treating medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for patients who are not fit for surgery, but it has little role in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method of treatment, as it is associated with the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are generally repaired with an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically. Patients can return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks following an open repair and after 1-2 weeks following laparoscopic repair, according to the Department for Work and Pensions.
Complications of inguinal hernias include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. While traditional textbooks describe the anatomical differences between indirect and direct hernias, this is not relevant to clinical management. Overall, understanding the features, management, and complications of inguinal hernias is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 32
Correct
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As a young medical practitioner in the emergency department, you encounter a patient who has been in a severe road accident. The patient has suffered significant head injuries and is now reliant on mechanical ventilation, with no signs of responsiveness. You and your senior colleagues suspect that the patient may have experienced brain death. What is the process for confirming this diagnosis?
Your Answer: By a minimum of two doctors on separate occasions
Explanation:To minimize the risk of errors, brain death testing must be conducted by two experienced doctors on different occasions. The testing involves evaluating the patient’s history, pupil reactions, reflexes, pain response, and respiratory effort. Once brain death is confirmed, life support can be discontinued, and the patient may be considered for organ donation, which can take place before the withdrawal of life support.
Criteria and Testing for Brain Stem Death
Brain death occurs when the brain and brain stem cease to function, resulting in irreversible loss of consciousness and vital functions. To determine brain stem death, certain criteria must be met and specific tests must be performed. The patient must be in a deep coma of known cause, with reversible causes excluded and no sedation. Electrolyte levels must be normal.
The testing for brain stem death involves several assessments. The pupils must be fixed and unresponsive to changes in light intensity. The corneal reflex must be absent, and there should be no response to supraorbital pressure. The oculo-vestibular reflexes must be absent, which is tested by injecting ice-cold water into each ear. There should be no cough reflex to bronchial stimulation or gagging response to pharyngeal stimulation. Finally, there should be no observed respiratory effort in response to disconnection from the ventilator for at least five minutes, with adequate oxygenation ensured.
It is important that the testing is performed by two experienced doctors on two separate occasions, with at least one being a consultant. Neither doctor can be a member of the transplant team if organ donation is being considered. These criteria and tests are crucial in determining brain stem death and ensuring that the patient is beyond recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 33
Correct
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A 43-year-old man, David, visits you after his 72-year-old father passed away due to a heart attack. David has a history of asthma, which he occasionally manages with his salbutamol inhaler, and was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes at the age of 20. His diabetes is well-controlled, and his last cholesterol test, conducted three months ago, was within the normal range. David has been reading about the connection between cholesterol and heart attacks in the news and is curious if he should take medication to lower his cholesterol levels.
Which of the following options is the most appropriate?Your Answer: Start atorvastatin 20mg today
Explanation:For primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, individuals with type 1 diabetes who do not have established risk factors should be prescribed atorvastatin 20mg if they are over 40 years old, have had diabetes for more than 10 years, have established nephropathy, or have other risk factors such as obesity and hypertension. As this patient has had type 1 diabetes for over 10 years, they should be offered statins.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.
Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 34
Correct
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A 42-year-old multiparous woman undergoes an 11-week gestation dating scan revealing a live fetus with several abnormalities such as choroid plexus cysts, clenched hands, rocker bottom feet, and a small placenta. What is the probable abnormality?
Your Answer: Edwards syndrome (Trisomy 18)
Explanation:A newborn has micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping fingers, which are indicative of Edwards Syndrome. This condition, also known as Trisomy 18, is the second most common trisomy after Down Syndrome. Unfortunately, the outcome for infants with Edwards Syndrome is poor, with many dying in-utero and few surviving beyond one week. There are several ultrasound markers that suggest Edwards Syndrome, including cardiac malformations, choroid plexus cysts, neural tube defects, abnormal hand and feet position, exomphalos, growth restriction, single umbilical artery, polyhydramnios, and small placenta. While these markers are not specific to Edwards Syndrome, they increase the likelihood of diagnosis when present together. To confirm the diagnosis, karyotype analysis of placental or amniotic fluid should be performed with patient consent. Infections such as rubella, cytomegalovirus, and varicella zoster should also be considered in the differential diagnosis of multiple fetal abnormalities, and maternal viral serology may be helpful in diagnosis.
Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is referred to the Paediatric Emergency Department by her General Practitioner with a 4-day history of fever.
On examination, the patient has bilateral conjunctival injection, a maculopapular rash across her trunk, and erythematous extremities. Her chest is clear and heart sounds are normal. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Her lips look cracked, and her tongue looks erythematous. She has no palpable lymphadenopathy.
Which of the following blood test results would support the likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Neutropenia
Correct Answer: Thrombocytosis
Explanation:Understanding Kawasaki Disease: Diagnosis and Blood Test Results
Kawasaki disease is a clinical diagnosis that presents with a persistent fever and at least four of the following five criteria: bilateral conjunctival injection, polymorphous rash, oral changes, oedema and erythema in hands/feet, and cervical lymphadenopathy. Thrombocytosis is a common non-specific change seen in Kawasaki disease, and blood tests such as full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function, lipid profile, C-reactive protein (CRP), and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) can support the diagnosis, assess severity, and monitor disease and treatment. Neutropenia is not usually associated with Kawasaki disease, and a raised white cell count with a relative neutrophilia is commonly seen. An elevated CRP with a normal ESR or an elevated ESR with a normal CRP would not be expected in Kawasaki disease, as both markers reflect acute inflammation. Kawasaki disease is associated with normocytic anaemia, but not macrocytic anaemia. It is important to arrange an echocardiogram as soon as possible to look for any initial evidence of coronary artery aneurysm, a common complication of Kawasaki disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 25 year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of a two week history of pale and homogenous vaginal discharge that has an offensive odor but is not causing any itching or irritation. Upon examination, there is no inflammation of the cervix or vagina and the discharge has a pH of 6.3. A sample of the discharge is collected. What is the probable result of the analysis of the discharge sample?
Your Answer: Gram negative diplococci
Correct Answer: Gram-positive and negative bacteria
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis is the identified condition, primarily caused by an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms in the vagina, with Gardnerella vaginalis being the most prevalent. This results in the displacement of lactobacilli, which would not be detected in the sample. The presence of hyphae suggests the existence of Candida (thrush).
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 37
Correct
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A 55-year-old rancher presents to the ER with his spouse. He is experiencing a high fever and excessive sweating. During the examination, multiple black blisters are observed, which are producing a malodorous discharge. What is the typical microorganism linked to this ailment?
Your Answer: Clostridium perfringens
Explanation:Gas gangrene is a severe bacterial infection that can lead to muscle necrosis, sepsis, gas production, and ultimately, death. The infection can occur in two ways: through traumatic or surgical inoculation of a wound with bacteria, or spontaneously, which is often observed in immunocompromised patients. While there are multiple causes of gas gangrene, clostridium perfringens, a type of clostridia species, is frequently implicated. The condition typically begins with pain and progresses to systemic symptoms such as fever and dehydration. Skin changes, including blisters that can burst and produce a foul-smelling discharge, are also common. Movement may produce a crackling sound known as crepitus.
Clostridia: Gram-Positive Anaerobic Bacilli
Clostridia are a group of gram-positive, obligate anaerobic bacilli. There are several species of Clostridia, each with their own unique features and pathologies. C. perfringens produces α-toxin, a lecithinase, which can cause gas gangrene and haemolysis. Symptoms of gas gangrene include tender, oedematous skin with haemorrhagic blebs and bullae, and crepitus may be present on palpation. C. botulinum is typically found in canned foods and honey and can cause flaccid paralysis by preventing the release of acetylcholine. C. difficile is known for causing pseudomembranous colitis, which is often seen after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. This species produces both an exotoxin and a cytotoxin. Finally, C. tetani produces an exotoxin called tetanospasmin, which prevents the release of glycine from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord, leading to spastic paralysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 38
Correct
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A 63-year-old librarian complains of a persistent cough and difficulty breathing during physical activity. A chest CT scan reveals a ground-glass appearance. What is the most frequently linked mechanism responsible for this reaction?
Your Answer: Type III hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation:Hypersensitivity Reactions: Types and Examples
Hypersensitivity reactions are immune responses that can cause tissue damage and inflammation. There are four types of hypersensitivity reactions, each with different mechanisms and clinical presentations.
Type I hypersensitivity reaction is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE in response to an innocuous environmental antigen. Examples of such reactions are allergic rhinitis and systemic urticaria.
Type II hypersensitivity reaction is an antibody-mediated reaction. Cellular injury may result from complement activation, antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity or phagocytosis. Examples include incompatible blood transfusions, haemolytic disease of the newborn and autoimmune haemolytic anaemias.
Type III hypersensitivity reaction is an immune complex-mediated reaction. Immune complexes are lattices of antibody and antigen. When these are not cleared from the circulation, they may trigger an inflammatory response. An example of this type of reaction is extrinsic allergic alveolitis, otherwise known as ‘bird fancier’s lung’, a hypersensitivity pneumonitis caused by exposure to bird droppings.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction involving T helper cells that become activated upon contact with an antigen, which results in a clonal expansion over 1–2 weeks. Repeated exposure to the antigen results in cytokine release from sensitised T-cells, leading to macrophage-induced phagocytosis.
Anaphylaxis is a type I-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, involving the release of inflammatory mediators (such as histamine), which precipitate vasodilatation and oedema. Anaphylaxis is characterised by the rapid onset of respiratory and circulatory compromise.
Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important for diagnosis and treatment. Treatment may involve removal of the source of hypersensitivity, immunosuppressive therapy, or administration of epinephrine in the case of anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 39
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is seen by her general practitioner. She has lost 8 kg in weight; her previous weight was 70 kg, and she now weighs 60 kg. She has a fear of gaining weight, but no further symptoms are elicited. On examination, she appears underweight and her skin looks dry; there is evidence of thin, soft, unpigmented hair on her back; her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and her heart rate is 65 bpm.
What is your preferred diagnosis?Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Differentiating Anorexia Nervosa from Other Mental Disorders
Anorexia nervosa (AN) is a mental disorder characterized by deliberate weight loss induced and sustained by the patient. In this scenario, a woman presents with a fear of gaining weight and has lost more than 15% of her body weight, suggesting a diagnosis of AN. Other physical symptoms such as dry skin, lanugo hair, hypotension, and bradycardia help confirm the diagnosis. However, a more detailed history, a full assessment of her mental state, and clinical investigations are necessary to confirm the diagnosis and inform management.
While weight loss can also be present in other mental disorders such as generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), depression, schizophrenia, and bulimia nervosa (BN), they are not accompanied by a fear of gaining weight. Patients with GAD experience persistent anxiety that affects several aspects of their lives, while depression is characterized by a persistent feeling of sadness and hopelessness. Schizophrenia involves self-neglect and/or delusional beliefs around food, while BN is characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by purging behaviors.
It is worth noting that eating disorders have the highest mortality among all mental disorders, with AN being no exception. The excess mortality is explained by the associated physical complications and increased risk of suicide. Psychological interventions are the mainstay of treatment for all eating disorders, but antidepressants have a role in some types (e.g., BN), and a multidisciplinary approach is recommended in any case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 40
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with an acutely swollen and tender abdomen. He reports that it has been happening over the past few days. The patient appears unkempt and denies any significant medical history, medications, or drug use. He admits to drinking but is unsure of the amount. Upon examination, his abdomen is distended with shifting dullness, he has approximately 10 blanching red spots on his upper chest, and has tortuous dilated veins on his abdomen. The following are his vital signs:
Temperature: 36.4ºC
Blood pressure: 134/87 mmHg
Heart rate: 94 beats/min
Respiratory rate: 12 breaths/min
Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
What is the most appropriate medication to initiate in this scenario, given the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Patients who have ascites due to liver cirrhosis should receive an aldosterone antagonist, such as spironolactone, as it helps to counteract the secondary hyperaldosteronism that occurs in cirrhosis. This condition attempts to increase intravascular volume, which is lost into the abdomen as ascites. Amiloride is not effective in treating ascites as it does not lead to significant diuresis and has no effect on the aldosterone pathway. Eplerenone is an alternative to spironolactone for patients who cannot tolerate its adverse effects. Furosemide is useful in treating ascites but should be used in conjunction with spironolactone due to the additional benefits of aldosterone blocking. Bendroflumethiazide is not useful in managing or preventing fluid overload conditions such as ascites.
Understanding Ascites: Causes and Management
Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal fluid in the abdomen. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. A SAAG level greater than 11g/L indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. On the other hand, a SAAG level less than 11g/L is caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, infections, and other factors such as bowel obstruction and biliary ascites.
The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and fluid restriction, especially if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone and loop diuretics are often prescribed to patients. In some cases, drainage through therapeutic abdominal paracentesis is necessary. Large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of paracentesis-induced circulatory dysfunction and mortality. Prophylactic antibiotics are also recommended to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In severe cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.
Understanding the causes and management of ascites is crucial in providing appropriate medical care to patients. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help alleviate symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 41
Correct
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A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with haematemesis. Upon reviewing his medical history, it is discovered that he has been taking dabigatran since being diagnosed with pulmonary embolism. Due to the severity of the bleeding, it is necessary to reverse the effects of the anticoagulant. What medication is used for this purpose?
Your Answer: Idarucizumab
Explanation:Understanding Direct Oral Anticoagulants
Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used for various indications such as preventing stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation, preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) after hip or knee surgery, and treating deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention in non-valvular AF, certain risk factors must be present, such as prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 years or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure.
There are four DOACs available, namely dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban, which differ in their mechanism of action and excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of dabigatran is excreted through the kidneys, while rivaroxaban is metabolized in the liver, and apixaban and edoxaban are excreted through the feces.
In terms of reversal agents, idarucizumab is available for dabigatran, while andexanet alfa is available for rivaroxaban and apixaban. However, there is currently no authorized reversal agent for edoxaban, although andexanet alfa has been studied. Understanding the differences between DOACs is important for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when prescribing these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 42
Correct
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A 17-year-old girl with a history of acne is interested in starting a combined oral contraceptive pill (COC). She has been taking doxycycline for the past 2 months. What advice should be given?
Your Answer: She can start using a COC with usual advice
Explanation:If the COC is not started on the first day of the next period, it is important to follow the standard guidelines and use condoms for 7 days.
Special Situations for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
Concurrent antibiotic use has been a concern for many years in the UK, as doctors have advised that it may interfere with the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill. However, this approach is not taken in the US or most of mainland Europe. In 2011, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare updated their guidelines to abandon the extra precautions previously advised during antibiotic treatment and for 7 days afterwards. The latest edition of the British National Formulary (BNF) has also been updated to reflect this guidance, although precautions should still be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.
When it comes to switching combined oral contraceptive pills, the BNF and Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) appear to give contradictory advice. The FSRH’s Combined Oral Contraception guidelines state that the pill-free interval does not need to be omitted, while the BNF advises missing the pill-free interval if the progesterone changes. Given this uncertainty, it is best to follow the BNF’s advice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 43
Correct
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A 78-year-old man with known metastatic prostate cancer presents to his General Practitioner with generalised pain. He states that he has always had aches and pains from old age, but that this is different: he can feel the pain particularly in his back at night.
What is the most likely site to be involved in bone metastasis in this patient?Your Answer: Spine
Explanation:Common Sites of Metastatic Spread in Bone
Metastatic spread to the bone is a common occurrence in many types of cancer. The following are some of the most common sites of metastases in bone:
Spine: The spine is the most common site for bony metastases, with spread often found from a range of solid and haematological cancers, as well as infectious diseases such as tuberculosis.
Ribs: While breast cancer is known to spread to the ribs, this is not the case for many other cancers.
Pelvis: The pelvis is a prevalent site of metastatic spread occurring mostly from the prostate, breast, kidney, lung, and thyroid cancer.
Skull: Skull metastases are seen in 15-25% of all cancer patients and tend to include those from the breast, lungs, prostate, and thyroid, as well as melanoma.
Long bones: Localised bone pain is a red flag for metastatic spread to any of the long bones such as the femur and humerus. Breast, prostate, renal, thyroid, and lung cancers frequently metastasize to these areas.
Overall, understanding the common sites of metastatic spread in bone can help with early detection and treatment of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 44
Correct
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A 65-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of pain in his left eye. Upon examination, the sclera appears red and the cornea is hazy with a dilated pupil. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma
Explanation:Should red eye be attributed to glaucoma or uveitis?
Glaucoma is characterized by intense pain, haloes, and a partially dilated pupil, while uveitis is indicated by a small, fixed oval pupil and ciliary flush.Understanding the Causes of Red Eye
Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:
Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.
Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.
Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.
Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.
Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.
Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.
By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 45
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding elderly advanced life support is accurate?
Your Answer: Chest compressions should continue whilst the defibrillator is charged
Explanation:The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 46
Correct
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A 58-year-old individual is rushed to the Emergency Department via ambulance, experiencing intense chest pain, difficulty breathing, and excessive sweating. The paramedics conducted an ECG on the scene, revealing ST depression in V1-V3 with tall, wide R waves and upward T waves. What should be the next appropriate step to take?
Your Answer: Record a posterior ECG
Explanation:To confirm posterior infarction, a posterior ECG should be recorded when ST elevation and Q waves are present in posterior leads (V7-9). In this case, the patient presented with symptoms suggestive of myocardial infarction and the ECG showed changes that indicated the need for a posterior ECG. This involves placing leads V4-V6 on the patient’s back to make leads V7-V9. ST-elevation and Q waves in these leads confirm posterior infarction, and the patient should be transferred for primary percutaneous coronary intervention as soon as possible. It is important to have a high index of suspicion for posterior MIs and a low threshold for getting a posterior ECG.
Giving IV potassium replacement or calcium gluconate IV would be incorrect in this case. These treatments are used for hypokalaemia and severe hyperkalaemia, respectively, and are not the most likely diagnoses. Ibuprofen and colchicine would be appropriate for pericarditis, which presents with chest pain that is worse on lying flat and has characteristic ECG changes. However, the clinical picture and ECG changes in this case are more consistent with ACS.
A CT aortogram is used to investigate for aortic dissection, which can present with severe chest pain, breathlessness, and sweating. However, it would be best to record a posterior ECG to investigate for posterior MI prior to investigating for an aortic dissection due to the classic features of ACS in the history.
Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery. Inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V1-6, I, and aVL indicate the proximal left anterior descending artery is involved. Lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9). This type of infarction is usually caused by the left circumflex artery, but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are typically seen as horizontal ST depression, tall and broad R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. It is important to note that a new left bundle branch block (LBBB) may indicate acute coronary syndrome.
Overall, understanding the correlation between ECG changes and coronary artery territories is crucial in diagnosing acute coronary syndrome. By identifying the specific changes in the ECG, medical professionals can determine which artery is affected and provide appropriate treatment. Additionally, recognizing the reciprocal changes of STEMI and the significance of a new LBBB can aid in making an accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 47
Correct
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You encounter the mother of a 9-month-old baby who was born premature (at 30 weeks) and has recently been discharged from hospital after being admitted for 'breathing difficulties'. During the hospital stay, the baby received an injection called palivizumab, but the mother cannot remember the purpose of this medication. Can you explain the medication and its indication?
Your Answer: Monoclonal antibody used to prevent respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Explanation:To prevent respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) in children who are at a higher risk of severe disease, palivizumab, a monoclonal antibody, is administered. Infants who are premature, have lung or heart abnormalities, or are immunocompromised are among those at risk of developing RSV.
Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.
Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Given that PKU is an autosomal-recessive condition that can be diagnosed at birth or in adolescence and adulthood, a teenager seeks genetic counselling. His mother and brother have PKU, while his father is a carrier but does not have the disease. The teenager himself does not have PKU. What is the probability that he is a carrier of the disease?
Your Answer: 50%
Correct Answer: 100%
Explanation:Understanding Autosomal-Recessive Inheritance and Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Autosomal-recessive diseases require both parents to carry the gene, with one parent having the disease and the other being a carrier. In the case of Phenylketonuria (PKU), a specific enzyme deficiency leads to the accumulation of phenylalanine and a deficiency of tyrosine, resulting in reduced melanin and pigmented areas of the brain being affected. PKU is tested for at birth using the Guthrie test and can be treated by removing phenylalanine from the diet.
In the given scenario, the teenager’s mother has the disease and his father is a carrier. This means there is a 100% chance that the teenager has at least one abnormal copy of the gene, making him a carrier. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of autosomal-recessive diseases to identify carriers and prevent mental retardation in affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 49
Correct
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A 67-year-old man presents to you with complaints of increasing shortness of breath. He reports having to use 3 or 4 pillows to sleep at night and feeling more breathless after climbing just one flight of stairs. His medical history includes a previous myocardial infarction and high cholesterol. During examination, you observe bibasal crepitations and notice swelling in his ankles. What is the most suitable next investigation to perform?
Your Answer: B-type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)
Explanation:According to the updated 2018 NICE guidelines, the initial test for patients with suspected chronic heart failure should be an NT-proBNP test, regardless of their history of myocardial infarction. Additionally, all patients should undergo a 12-lead ECG. While a CT chest is typically not necessary, a chest x-ray may be performed to rule out other potential conditions.
Chronic heart failure is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines on the diagnosis and management of this condition. Previously, the first-line investigation was determined by whether the patient had previously had a myocardial infarction or not. However, this is no longer the case. All patients should now have an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation.
Interpreting the NT-proBNP blood test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis.
There are different levels of BNP, and each level indicates a different severity of the condition. High levels of BNP are greater than 400 pg/ml (116 pmol/litre) for BNP and greater than 2000 pg/ml (236 pmol/litre) for NTproBNP. Raised levels of BNP are between 100-400 pg/ml (29-116 pmol/litre) for BNP and between 400-2000 pg/ml (47-236 pmol/litre) for NTproBNP. Normal levels of BNP are less than 100 pg/ml (29 pmol/litre) for BNP and less than 400 pg/ml (47 pmol/litre) for NTproBNP.
It is important to note that several factors can alter the BNP level. Factors that increase BNP levels include left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, right ventricular overload, hypoxaemia (including pulmonary embolism), GFR < 60 ml/min, sepsis, COPD, diabetes, and age > 70. On the other hand, factors that decrease BNP levels include diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 50
Correct
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A 43-year-old male accountant visits the clinic with a persistent hoarseness that has been bothering him for the past 4 weeks. He reports that this is affecting his work performance. He denies experiencing any sore throat, difficulty swallowing, or cough. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily for the last 25 years and drinks a glass of beer every day. Apart from this, he is in good health. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?
Your Answer: 2-week rule referral to ENT specialist
Explanation:If a patient aged over 45 years old has persistent and unexplained hoarseness, it is recommended by NICE to urgently refer them to an ENT specialist under the 2-week wait rule. This is because they may have laryngeal cancer. While a chest radiograph is important, it is more appropriate to prioritize the referral to ENT if cancer is suspected. It is not appropriate to delay the referral or provide false reassurance. While advice on smoking cessation and alcohol should be given, specialist referral is the most important aspect of management in this situation.
Understanding Hoarseness and its Causes
Hoarseness is a condition that can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is voice overuse, which can strain the vocal cords and lead to hoarseness. Smoking is another factor that can contribute to hoarseness, as it can irritate the throat and vocal cords. Viral illnesses, hypothyroidism, and gastro-oesophageal reflux are also known to cause hoarseness. In some cases, hoarseness can be a symptom of laryngeal or lung cancer.
When investigating patients with hoarseness, it is important to consider a chest x-ray to rule out any apical lung lesions. If laryngeal cancer is suspected, referral guidelines recommend a suspected cancer pathway referral to an ENT specialist for individuals aged 45 and over with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck. By understanding the causes of hoarseness and seeking appropriate medical attention, individuals can receive the necessary treatment and improve their vocal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 51
Correct
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A typically healthy 68-year-old man visits the doctor's office complaining of feeling unwell. He mentions experiencing a sharp ache in his right groin. After three days, he develops a strip of painful, red blisters on the top of his right foot.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Herpes zoster
Explanation:This individual is experiencing shingles, which is caused by the herpes zoster virus and is characterized by a unique distribution along a specific dermatome.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The rash is well demarcated by the affected dermatome and may be accompanied by fever and lethargy. Treatment includes analgesia, antivirals, and potentially oral corticosteroids. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, ocular and ear complications. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 52
Correct
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An infant is born with ambiguous genitalia, following an uneventful pregnancy and delivery. Upon further investigation, it is discovered that the child has congenital adrenal hyperplasia caused by 21-hydroxylase deficiency.
What is a characteristic of 21-hydroxylase deficiency-related congenital adrenal hyperplasia?Your Answer: Adrenocortical insufficiency
Explanation:Medical Conditions Associated with 21-Hydroxylase Deficiency
21-hydroxylase deficiency is a medical condition that results in decreased cortisol synthesis and commonly reduces aldosterone synthesis. This condition can lead to adrenal insufficiency, causing salt wasting and hypoglycemia. However, it is not associated with diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by low ADH levels. Patients with 21-hydroxylase deficiency may also experience stunted growth and elevated androgens, but hypogonadism is not a feature. Treatment may involve the use of gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 53
Correct
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An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found on the floor at home. He is disoriented and unable to provide a clear history. His relatives are yet to arrive. He has a GCS of 12. On examination you note crackles at the left base on auscultation, an ejection systolic murmur over the left sternal edge, and a soft, nontender abdomen. His right pupil is slightly dilated compared to the left and is sluggish to react to light. He has no obvious injuries.
What is the most appropriate, immediate source of action to aid in diagnosis?Your Answer: CT brain
Explanation:Immediate CT scan is necessary to evaluate for raised intracranial pressure and tentorial herniation in a patient with a sluggishly responsive unilaterally dilated pupil. This is the most pressing concern, given the patient’s reduced GCS. Although other investigations will be necessary, the CT brain is the most critical test, as the patient may require urgent neurosurgical intervention to save their life.
Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. There are different types of traumatic brain injuries, including extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, and secondary brain injury can occur due to cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, or herniation. Management may include IV mannitol/frusemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 54
Correct
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A 4-year-old child is presented to your allergy clinic by anxious parents. The child has a previous medical record of a mild non-IgE mediated egg allergy. What course of action would you suggest?
Your Answer: Gradual reintroduction of egg based products using the egg ladder
Explanation:The egg ladder can be used to reintroduce egg in children with non-IgE mediated allergy, starting with baked egg in biscuits. Chlorpheniramine and adrenaline pen are not appropriate choices.
Identifying and Managing Food Allergies in Children and Young People
Food allergies in children and young people can be categorized into IgE-mediated and non-IgE-mediated allergies. It is important to note that food intolerance is not caused by immune system dysfunction and is not covered by the 2011 NICE guidelines. Symptoms of IgE-mediated allergies include skin reactions such as pruritus, erythema, urticaria, and angioedema, gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea, colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea, and respiratory symptoms such as nasal itching, sneezing, rhinorrhea, congestion, cough, chest tightness, wheezing, and shortness of breath. Non-IgE-mediated allergies may present with symptoms like gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, loose or frequent stools, blood and/or mucus in stools, abdominal pain, infantile colic, food refusal or aversion, constipation, perianal redness, pallor and tiredness, and faltering growth.
If the history suggests an IgE-mediated allergy, skin prick tests or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to the suspected foods and likely co-allergens should be offered. On the other hand, if the history suggests a non-IgE-mediated allergy, the suspected allergen should be eliminated for 2-6 weeks and then reintroduced. It is recommended to consult a dietitian with appropriate competencies about nutritional adequacies, timings, and follow-up. By identifying and managing food allergies in children and young people, we can prevent severe allergic reactions and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 55
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman was prescribed carbamazepine for trigeminal neuralgia. After a few days, she experiences a prodromal illness with symptoms of sore throat, malaise, and conjunctivitis. She then develops a rash that initially presents as erythematous macules on her torso and progresses to blisters, covering less than 10% of her body surface area. Additionally, she has painful ulcers in her mouth, stomatitis, and worsening conjunctivitis. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Explanation:Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that is characterized by a rash that affects a small area of the body or the entire body surface. It can be caused by drugs or other factors. The exact cause of this condition is unknown. The rash typically appears on the hands and feet and is often raised. In some cases, the rash may also affect the mucous membranes. This is known as the major form of erythema multiforme.
Understanding Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe reaction that affects both the skin and mucosa. It is usually caused by a drug reaction and is considered a separate entity from erythema multiforme. Common causes of Stevens-Johnson syndrome include penicillin, sulphonamides, lamotrigine, carbamazepine, phenytoin, allopurinol, NSAIDs, and oral contraceptive pills. The rash associated with this syndrome is typically maculopapular with target lesions, which may develop into vesicles or bullae. A positive Nikolsky sign is observed in erythematous areas, where blisters and erosions appear when the skin is gently rubbed. Mucosal involvement and systemic symptoms such as fever and arthralgia may also occur. Hospital admission is required for supportive treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 56
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman, who is currently four weeks into a course of postoperative radiotherapy for locally advanced cervical carcinoma, is admitted with abdominal pain and diarrhoea.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the clinical picture?Your Answer: Radiation enteritis
Explanation:Understanding Radiation Enteritis and Other Possible Causes of Bowel Symptoms
Radiation enteritis is a condition that occurs when the bowel becomes inflamed due to radiation therapy. It can manifest as ileitis, colitis, or proctitis, and can be acute or chronic. Acute radiation enteritis typically occurs during therapy and presents with symptoms such as anorexia, diarrhoea, and abdominal pain. Chronic radiation enteritis, on the other hand, can develop months or years after treatment and may cause weight loss, steatorrhoea, and small bowel obstruction.
While radiation enteritis is a likely cause of bowel symptoms in patients who have undergone radiation therapy, other conditions should also be considered. Bowel obstruction, for example, can cause nausea, vomiting, and bloating, but does not typically cause diarrhoea. Local malignant infiltration to the bowel may present with obstruction, while bowel perforation is a medical emergency that causes peritonitis and sepsis.
In summary, understanding the possible causes of bowel symptoms is important in determining the appropriate treatment for patients. While radiation enteritis is a common consequence of radiation therapy, other conditions such as bowel obstruction, local malignant infiltration, and bowel perforation should also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 57
Correct
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A 68-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with rapidly worsening testicular pain, redness, and swelling. Upon initial assessment, his vital signs are as follows: temperature of 38.1ºC, heart rate of 104 bpm, respiratory rate of 16/min, oxygen saturations of 97% on room air, and a blood pressure of 106/91 mmHg. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, heart failure, osteoarthritis, and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which medication is most likely responsible for his current presentation?
Your Answer: Dapagliflozin
Explanation:SGLT-2 inhibitors, such as dapaglifozin, have been linked to a severe and rapidly progressing infection called necrotising fasciitis of the genitalia or perineum, also known as Fournier’s gangrene. This condition is caused by bacterial flora and is more common in diabetic and immunocompromised patients. It can lead to multiple organ failure and sepsis, making early surgical debridement and antibiotics crucial for management. It is important to note that Fournier’s gangrene is a serious adverse effect of SGLT-2 inhibitors, while the other options presented in the question are not associated with this condition.
Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the action of a protein called sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT-2) in the kidneys. This results in a decrease in the amount of glucose that is reabsorbed by the body and an increase in the amount of glucose that is excreted in the urine. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.
While SGLT-2 inhibitors can be effective in treating type 2 diabetes mellitus, they can also have some important adverse effects. One of the most common side effects is an increased risk of urinary and genital infections, which can occur due to the increased amount of glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported in some cases.
Another potential complication of SGLT-2 inhibitors is normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition in which the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. This can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition if left untreated. Additionally, there is an increased risk of lower-limb amputation in patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors, so it is important to closely monitor the feet for any signs of injury or infection.
Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have some positive effects on overall health. Many patients taking these medications experience weight loss, which can be beneficial in managing type 2 diabetes mellitus. As with any medication, it is important to discuss the potential benefits and risks of SGLT-2 inhibitors with a healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 58
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman presents to the Stroke Clinic for review after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack (TIA). It is suspected that the patient’s TIA was caused by an issue with her carotid arteries.
A magnetic resonance angiogram (MRA) is requested followed by catheter angiography. The MRA shows a right internal carotid with narrowed eccentric lumen, surrounded by a crescent-shaped mural thrombus and thin annular enhancement. The catheter angiogram shows a ‘string sign’ in the right internal carotid.
What internal carotid abnormality is most likely the cause of this patient’s TIA?
Your Answer: Carotid-artery dissection
Explanation:Cervico-cerebral arterial dissections (CADs) are a common cause of strokes in younger patients, accounting for almost 20% of strokes in those under 45 years old. The majority of cases involve the extracranial internal carotid artery, while extracranial vertebral dissections make up about 15% of cases. A high level of suspicion is necessary to diagnose CAD, and confirmation can be obtained through various imaging techniques such as Doppler ultrasonography, magnetic resonance imaging/magnetic resonance angiography (MRA), computed tomography angiography (CTA), or catheter angiography. CTA can reveal several characteristic features of CAD, including an abnormal vessel contour, enlargement of the dissected artery, an intimal flap, and a dissecting aneurysm. The traditional method of diagnosing arterial dissections is catheter angiography, which typically shows a long segment of narrowed lumen known as the string sign. Other conditions such as carotid-artery pseudoaneurysm, carotid-artery aneurysm, carotid-artery occlusion, and carotid-artery stenosis can also be identified through imaging techniques, but they are not evident in this particular angiogram.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 59
Correct
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A 48-year-old man presents with a painful erythematous fluctuant swelling over the posterior elbow. There is no history of trauma. He is in good health and has full range of motion at the elbow.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Olecranon bursitis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest olecranon bursitis, which is inflammation of the bursa over the olecranon process. This can be caused by trauma or may be idiopathic. The patient reports a posterior swelling at the elbow, which is tender and fluctuant. Management includes NSAIDs, RICE, and a compression bandage. If septic bursitis is suspected, antibiotics may be necessary. Golfer’s elbow, gout, and septic joint are less likely diagnoses. Tennis elbow, which is more common than golfer’s elbow, is characterized by pain in the lateral elbow and tenderness over the lateral epicondyle, but is not associated with a posterior swelling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 60
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents with right-sided hemianopia and is currently undergoing investigations for a possible stroke. The stroke specialist has clinically diagnosed him with a POCI, indicating a posterior circulation infarct. Which specific area of the brain is affected by this type of stroke?
Your Answer: The vertebrobasilar arteries
Explanation:A POCI (posterior circulation infarct) typically affects the vertebrobasilar arteries. In contrast, a TACI involves the middle and anterior cerebral arteries, a PACI affects the smaller arteries of anterior circulation, and a LACI involves the perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus, and basal ganglia.
Stroke can be classified based on the initial symptoms using the Oxford Stroke Classification, also known as the Bamford Classification. The criteria assessed include unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm, and leg, homonymous hemianopia, and higher cognitive dysfunction such as dysphasia.
Total anterior circulation infarcts (TACI) involve the middle and anterior cerebral arteries and present with all three criteria mentioned above. Partial anterior circulation infarcts (PACI) involve smaller arteries of the anterior circulation and present with two of the criteria. Lacunar infarcts (LACI) involve perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus, and basal ganglia and present with one of three symptoms: unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of face and arm, arm and leg, or all three; pure sensory stroke; or ataxic hemiparesis.
Posterior circulation infarcts (POCI) involve vertebrobasilar arteries and present with one of three symptoms: cerebellar or brainstem syndromes, loss of consciousness, or isolated homonymous hemianopia. Other recognized patterns of stroke include lateral medullary syndrome (posterior inferior cerebellar artery), also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome, which presents with ipsilateral ataxia, nystagmus, dysphagia, facial numbness, cranial nerve palsy (e.g., Horner’s), and contralateral limb sensory loss. Weber’s syndrome presents with ipsilateral III palsy and contralateral weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 61
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman presents after collapsing at home. She has diplopia on right gaze, right-sided facial weakness and left flaccid hemiparesis.
Which of the following is the most likely site for her lesion?Your Answer: Right pons
Explanation:Lesions in different areas of the brainstem can cause specific neurological symptoms. A lesion in the right pons can result in left-sided weakness, right-sided facial paralysis, and double vision when looking towards the lesion. This is known as Millard-Gubler syndrome and is caused by a blockage in the penetrating branches of the basilar artery. A lesion in the right midbrain can affect cranial nerves III and IV, while a lesion in the left midbrain can cause contralateral hemiparesis, contralateral hypoglossal nerve palsy, and ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy. A lesion in the left pons can cause contralateral hemiparesis, ipsilateral lateral gaze palsy, and ipsilateral paralysis of the upper and lower face. Lesions in the cerebral hemisphere produce purely contralateral and upper motor neuron signs. The insertion site, cranial nerves, and skull base associated with each area of the brainstem are also important to consider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 51-year-old woman was prescribed warfarin due to a pulmonary embolism. During treatment, she has experienced pain, numbness, and tingling in her left anterior thigh that extends to her medial leg. Additionally, she has weakness in knee extension and hip flexion, and her left knee jerk is absent. What is the most probable location of the lesion? Choose ONE option from the list provided.
Your Answer: Left obturator nerve
Correct Answer: Left femoral nerve
Explanation:The left femoral nerve originates from L2-L4 in the lumbar plexus and damage to it can cause weakness in the quadriceps and iliopsoas muscles, resulting in difficulty with hip flexion and knee extension. There may also be numbness in the medial thigh and antero-medial calf, and decreased or absent patellar reflex. However, sensation to the anterolateral aspect of the thigh is preserved as it is innervated by a different nerve. The patient’s symptoms are likely due to a retroperitoneal hematoma caused by warfarin use. The left obturator nerve, which also originates from L2-L4, would cause different symptoms such as groin or medial thigh pain and weakness in the adductor muscles. The left common peroneal nerve, a branch of the sciatic nerve, would result in foot drop and sensory loss over the anterior calf and dorsum of the foot, but not above the knee. The left sciatic nerve supplies the hamstrings and all the muscles of the leg and foot, and damage to it would cause loss of power below the knee, loss of ankle jerk, and loss of lateral sensation below the knee. Finally, the left superior gluteal nerve supplies specific muscles in the buttocks and would result in a positive Trendelenburg’s sign, but no sensory loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 44-year-old who undergoes regular blood tests as part of her health check-up. Her blood test results are as follows:
Na+ 125 mmol/l
K+ 4.3 mmol/l
Urea 5.3 mmol/l
Creatinine 60 µmol/l
She is currently taking sertraline, carbimazole, amlodipine, metformin, and aspirin. Which medication is most likely responsible for her hyponatremia?Your Answer: Amlodipine
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Hyponatraemia is a known side effect of SSRIs, with sertraline being the specific medication associated with this condition. Other drugs that can cause low sodium levels include chlorpropramide, carbamazepine, tricyclic antidepressants, lithium, MDMA/ecstasy, tramadol, haloperidol, vincristine, desmopressin, and fluphenazine.
Understanding the Side-Effects and Interactions of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants that can have various side-effects and interactions with other medications. The most common side-effect of SSRIs is gastrointestinal symptoms, and patients taking these medications are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. To mitigate this risk, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed if the patient is also taking a NSAID. Hyponatraemia, or low sodium levels, can also occur with SSRIs, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting treatment.
Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and citalopram has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram has been reduced for certain patient populations.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. It is important to review patients after starting antidepressant therapy and to gradually reduce the dose when stopping treatment to avoid discontinuation symptoms. These symptoms can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
In summary, understanding the potential side-effects and interactions of SSRIs is crucial for safe and effective treatment of depression and other mental health conditions. Patients should be closely monitored and counseled on the risks and benefits of these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 64
Correct
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A 33-year-old man who is HIV positive comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath and a dry cough. He has been homeless and has not been keeping up with his outpatient appointments or taking his antiretroviral medication. Upon examination, his respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute and there are scattered crackles in his chest. His oxygen saturation is 96% on room air but drops quickly after walking. Based on the likely diagnosis of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, what is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
Your Answer: Co-trimoxazole
Explanation:The treatment for Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia involves the use of co-trimoxazole, a combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole.
Pneumocystis jiroveci Pneumonia in HIV Patients
Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (formerly known as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia) is a common opportunistic infection in individuals with AIDS. Pneumocystis jiroveci is an organism that is classified as a fungus by some and a protozoa by others. Patients with a CD4 count below 200/mm³ should receive prophylaxis for PCP. Symptoms of PCP include dyspnea, dry cough, fever, and few chest signs. Pneumothorax is a common complication of PCP, and extrapulmonary manifestations are rare.
Chest X-rays typically show bilateral interstitial pulmonary infiltrates, but other findings such as lobar consolidation may also be present. Sputum tests often fail to show PCP, and bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) is often necessary to demonstrate the presence of the organism. Treatment for PCP includes co-trimoxazole and IV pentamidine in severe cases. Aerosolized pentamidine is an alternative treatment but is less effective and carries a risk of pneumothorax. Steroids may be used if the patient is hypoxic, as they can reduce the risk of respiratory failure and death.
In summary, PCP is a common opportunistic infection in individuals with AIDS, and prophylaxis should be given to those with a CD4 count below 200/mm³. Symptoms include dyspnea, dry cough, and fever, and chest X-rays typically show bilateral interstitial pulmonary infiltrates. Treatment includes co-trimoxazole, IV pentamidine, and steroids if the patient is hypoxic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 65
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl comes to the emergency department complaining of a maculopapular rash that has been present for 1 day. She had visited her family doctor 2 days ago with symptoms of a cold and a sore throat and was given a course of oral antibiotics. Upon examination, she has a mild fever of 37.8ºC and a widespread maculopapular rash on her face and torso. Her tonsils are enlarged and erythematous, and she has palpable tender posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to identify the underlying condition?
Your Answer: Monospot test
Explanation:The patient in question is likely suffering from glandular fever, a viral illness caused by the Ebstein-Barr virus. Symptoms include a sore throat, fever, and general malaise, as well as palpable cervical lymphadenopathy and an erythematous throat. The illness is more common in teenagers and is often spread through respiratory droplets, earning it the nickname kissing disease. The patient was prescribed amoxicillin by their GP, which can cause a non-specific maculopapular rash in patients with glandular fever. The diagnosis is typically confirmed through a Monospot blood test, which detects the presence of heterophil antibodies produced in response to the virus.
An anti-streptolysin O titre test can detect streptococcal infections, but it does not explain the patient’s rash following antibiotic use. A full blood count can be helpful in diagnosing glandular fever, as it often shows a lymphocytosis, but the Monospot test is more definitive. A nasopharyngeal aspirate for viral PCR can diagnose viral infections like measles, but this is less likely in a teenager in the UK due to vaccination. A sputum culture is not useful in diagnosing glandular fever, as the patient does not have a cough or sputum production.
Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.
The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 66
Correct
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A child is born by an emergency Caesarean section at 38 weeks, due to pathological cardiotocography. The child appears healthy at birth, with Apgar scores of 9 and 10 (1 and 5 minutes respectively). Shortly after delivery, the nurse observes that the child's respiratory rate is elevated (all other observations are normal). The mother's antenatal history is unremarkable and her observations were normal during labor. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN)
Explanation:Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 67
Correct
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A 62-year-old man is undergoing a drug therapy evaluation following a myocardial infarction (MI).
Which of the following options has not been shown to have a beneficial effect on mortality after an MI?Your Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:Medications for Post-Myocardial Infarction (MI) Care
After a myocardial infarction (MI), certain medications are recommended to reduce mortality and manage symptoms. Nitrates, such as isosorbide mononitrate, offer no mortality benefit but can be used for angina symptoms. β-blockers, like timolol, provide both mortality and anti-anginal benefits and should be continued for at least 12 months post-MI. Statins, specifically atorvastatin 80 mg, are recommended for secondary prevention to reduce mortality. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as ramipril, offer good mortality benefit, but angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) can be used if the patient cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors. Aspirin, in combination with another antiplatelet therapy, is recommended for 12 months post-MI. Studies have shown that tirofiban, timolol, and ramipril reduce mortality after an MI, while isosorbide mononitrate showed no benefit. The MIRACL study found that atorvastatin reduced cardiovascular events by 17% when given for 3 months post-MI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 68
Correct
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A 28-year-old man undergoes surgical resection of the terminal ileum for stricturing Crohn's disease. His gastroenterologist decides to begin azathioprine for remission maintenance after the surgery. What is the crucial enzyme level to test before starting this treatment?
Your Answer: Thiopurine S-methyltransferase (TPMT)
Explanation:Azathioprine is a medication that is broken down into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, which can be detected through a full blood count if there are signs of infection or bleeding, as well as nausea, vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. It is important to note that there is a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used in conjunction with allopurinol. Despite these potential side effects, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 69
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman complains of blood in her stool and unintentional weight loss. During rectal examination, you notice a suspicious lesion below the pectinate line, which raises concern for cancer. You proceed to check for any signs of lymphadenopathy.
Where would you anticipate discovering enlarged lymph nodes?Your Answer: Inguinal
Explanation:Lymph Node Drainage in the Pelvic Region
The lymphatic drainage in the pelvic region is an important aspect of the body’s immune system. There are several lymph nodes in this area that drain different parts of the body. Here is a breakdown of the lymph node drainage in the pelvic region:
1. Inguinal: The inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal inferior to the pectinate line. These nodes then drain into the lateral pelvic nodes.
2. External iliac: The external iliac nodes drain the adductor region of the upper thigh, glans, clitoris, cervix, and upper bladder.
3. Inferior mesenteric: The inferior mesenteric nodes drain the sigmoid, upper rectum, and descending colon.
4. Internal iliac: The internal iliac nodes drain the rectum and the part of the anal canal superior to the pectinate line.
5. Superior mesenteric: The superior mesenteric nodes drain parts of the upper gastrointestinal tract, specifically the duodenum and jejunum.
Understanding the lymph node drainage in the pelvic region is important for diagnosing and treating certain conditions. By knowing which lymph nodes drain which parts of the body, healthcare professionals can better identify the source of an infection or cancer and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 70
Correct
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After being stung by a bee, a 20-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with swollen face and lips, along with wheezing. He is experiencing breathing difficulties and his blood pressure is 83/45 mmHg as per manual reading.
What would be the most suitable course of action to manage this situation?Your Answer: Give 1 : 1 000 intramuscular (im) adrenaline
Explanation:Administering Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis: Dosage and Route
Anaphylaxis is a severe medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The administration of adrenaline is crucial in managing anaphylactic shock. However, the dosage and route of administration depend on the severity of the symptoms.
For mild symptoms, such as skin rash or itching, the administration of iv hydrocortisone and chlorpheniramine is sufficient. But if the symptoms progress to involve the airways or circulation, adrenaline should be given as soon as possible. The recommended dosage for intramuscular (im) adrenaline is 1:1000.
It’s important to note that the dosage for cardiac arrest is different, and it’s given intravenously (iv) at a concentration of 1:10,000. However, routine use of iv adrenaline is not recommended unless the healthcare provider is skilled and experienced in its use.
Hydrocortisone, even by an iv route, takes several hours to have an effect and is no longer deemed to be part of emergency treatment of anaphylaxis. Therefore, it’s not an appropriate course of action for rapidly life-threatening situations.
In summary, administering adrenaline for anaphylaxis requires careful consideration of the dosage and route of administration. It’s crucial to act quickly and seek emergency medical attention to prevent fatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 71
Correct
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Which X-ray alteration is not linked to osteoarthritis?
Your Answer: Periarticular erosions
Explanation:X-Ray Changes in Osteoarthritis
Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that affects millions of people worldwide. One of the most common diagnostic tools used to identify osteoarthritis is an X-ray. X-ray changes in osteoarthritis are characterized by the acronym LOSS, which stands for loss of joint space, osteophytes forming at joint margins, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cysts.
Loss of joint space refers to the narrowing of the space between the bones in a joint. This occurs as the cartilage that cushions the joint wears away, causing the bones to rub against each other. Osteophytes are bony growths that form at the edges of the joint. These growths can cause pain and limit joint movement. Subchondral sclerosis is a hardening of the bone beneath the cartilage. This occurs as the bone tries to compensate for the loss of cartilage. Subchondral cysts are fluid-filled sacs that form in the bone beneath the cartilage. These cysts can cause pain and further damage to the joint.
In summary, X-ray changes in osteoarthritis are characterized by LOSS: loss of joint space, osteophytes forming at joint margins, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cysts. These changes can help doctors diagnose and monitor the progression of osteoarthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 72
Correct
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A 28-year-old primip nurse has presented to you 5 days after being in contact with a child who had a vesicular rash on their face and chest. She is currently 14 weeks pregnant and has been experiencing some morning sickness, but otherwise feels fine. Her blood tests show that she is not immune to varicella zoster virus. What should be the next course of action in your management plan?
Your Answer: A single dose of varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZI)
Explanation:If a pregnant woman is not immune to the varicella zoster virus and has been in close contact with someone who has the virus, it is recommended that she receive varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) as soon as possible. VZIG can be effective up to 10 days after contact, or 10 days after the appearance of the rash in the person with the virus if there are continuous exposures.
For pregnant women who are not immune and have been exposed to chickenpox, they should be considered potentially infectious from 8-28 days after exposure if they receive VZIG, and from 8-21 days after exposure if they do not receive VZIG.
Source: RCOGChickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 73
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with generalised fatigue and polyuria. These symptoms started three months ago but became much more pronounced in the preceding hour.
At the clinic, she also starts complaining of extreme thirst and mild lower back pain. She is noted to be breathing heavily, with her breath smelling of acetone.
Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of general fatigue and polyuria suggest the possibility of type I diabetes, which can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA can occur as a complication of existing type I diabetes or as the first presentation of the disease. In rare cases, extreme stress can also cause DKA in patients with type II diabetes. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in excess free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. Common triggers include infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction.
Anxiety attacks can cause heavy breathing and abdominal pain, but they do not explain the polyuria, polydipsia, and pear-drops-smelling breath. Symptoms of anxiety attacks include chest pain, palpitations, nausea and vomiting, sweating, insomnia, flushing, tremor, and urinary frequency.
Acute pancreatitis should be ruled out in cases of central abdominal pain. Symptoms of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, vomiting, epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. Cullen’s sign and Grey-Turner’s sign are rare.
Addison’s disease, the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, can present similarly to this case with general fatigue and abdominal pain. Other symptoms of Addison’s disease include anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, salt-craving, hyperpigmentation, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycaemia, hyponatraemia, and hyperkalaemia.
Hyperparathyroidism can also cause polyuria, polydipsia, and abdominal pain, but the Kussmaul respiration and pear-drops-smelling breath suggest a likely diagnosis of DKA. Symptoms of hyperparathyroidism include bone pain, osteopenia and osteoporosis, increased risk of kidney stones, constipation, nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain, and fatigue, depression, and memory impairment, all of which are symptoms of underlying hypercalcaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man has had severe left-sided facial pain with purulent nasal discharge for ten days. He describes how he initially felt 'okay' with milder symptoms, but noticed a sudden deterioration in his symptoms a few days ago.
Which of the following treatments would be the treatment of choice?Your Answer: Chlorpheniramine
Correct Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Sinusitis: Antibiotics, Decongestants, and Antihistamines
Acute bacterial sinusitis is a common condition that can cause severe symptoms such as discolored or purulent discharge, severe localized pain, and fever. Antibiotics are prescribed only if the patient has a co-morbidity or if acute bacterial sinusitis is clinically suspected. The antibiotics of choice include amoxicillin, phenoxymethylpenicillin, doxycycline, or erythromycin. Second-line treatments include co-amoxiclav and azithromycin.
Decongestants such as ephedrine can be used to relieve nasal congestion, but they should not be used for more than seven days to avoid rebound congestion. Antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine are not recommended unless there is a coexisting allergic rhinitis.
It is important to note that flucloxacillin and metronidazole are not the antibiotics of choice for acute sinusitis. Doxycycline or erythromycin are acceptable alternatives. Treatment should be used only for persistent symptoms or purulent nasal discharge lasting at least 7 days, or if the symptoms are severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 75
Correct
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A 30-year-old female patient comes in for her initial cervical screening. What is the primary causative factor responsible for cervical cancer?
Your Answer: Human papilloma virus 16 & 18
Explanation:The most significant risk factor for cervical cancer is infection with human papillomavirus, specifically types 16, 18, and 33, among others.
Understanding Cervical Cancer: Risk Factors and Mechanism of HPV
Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, postcoital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.
The most important factor in the development of cervical cancer is the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus, early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. While the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet confirmed the link.
The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene. Understanding the risk factors and mechanism of HPV in the development of cervical cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection. Regular cervical cancer screening is recommended for all women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 76
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe pain in his perineum and scrotum. He has type 2 diabetes that is currently well managed with dapagliflozin. Upon examination, a purple rash with bullae is observed covering the entire perineum and extending up the scrotum. The patient reports intense pain, but reduced sensation is noted upon palpation of the rash. Vital signs are as follows: BP 110/90 mmHg, heart rate 109bpm, respiration rate 21/minute, temperature 38.1ºC, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Necrotizing fasciitis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are consistent with necrotizing fasciitis, which often affects the perineum. The patient is experiencing severe pain, which may be causing his fever and rapid heart and breathing rates. As a type 2 diabetic taking dapagliflozin, an SGLT-2 inhibitor, his risk of developing necrotizing fasciitis is increased. While cellulitis can have similar symptoms in the early stages, the presence of bullae, purple discoloration, and severe pain in a patient with risk factors for necrotizing fasciitis make it less likely. Septic arthritis is not a likely diagnosis as it affects joint spaces, which is not the case in this patient. Pyoderma gangrenosum, which is associated with inflammatory conditions, is not a likely diagnosis as the rash is not ulcerated and the patient has no history of inflammatory bowel disease or rheumatoid arthritis.
Understanding Necrotising Fasciitis
Necrotising fasciitis is a serious medical emergency that can be difficult to identify in its early stages. It can be classified into two types based on the causative organism. Type 1 is the most common and is caused by mixed anaerobes and aerobes, often occurring post-surgery in diabetics. Type 2 is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. There are several risk factors associated with necrotising fasciitis, including recent trauma, burns, or soft tissue infections, diabetes mellitus, intravenous drug use, and immunosuppression. The most commonly affected site is the perineum, also known as Fournier’s gangrene.
The features of necrotising fasciitis include an acute onset, pain, swelling, and erythema at the affected site. It often presents as rapidly worsening cellulitis with pain that is out of keeping with physical features. The infected tissue is extremely tender and may have hypoaesthesia to light touch. Late signs include skin necrosis and crepitus/gas gangrene. Fever and tachycardia may be absent or occur late in the presentation.
Management of necrotising fasciitis requires urgent surgical referral for debridement and intravenous antibiotics. The prognosis for this condition is poor, with an average mortality rate of 20%. It is important to be aware of the risk factors and features of necrotising fasciitis to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication to using combined oral contraceptive pills for women?
Your Answer: Blood pressure 165/100 (confirmed on three readings)
Correct Answer: Breast feeding a 10-week-old baby
Explanation:Breastfeeding is classified as UKMEC category 4 if done for less than 6 weeks after giving birth, but it is categorized as UKMEC category 2 if done after this period.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, breast feeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 78
Correct
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A 22-month-old toddler presents to the GP with a barking cough and fever for 3 days. The fever has been responding to regular paracetamol. The child's parent reports that the toddler is eating and drinking normally and has been urinating regularly. During playtime, the parent has noticed some increased breathing sounds, but they disappear when the child is at rest. There have been no febrile convulsions, rash, or drowsiness reported.
Upon examination, the toddler has a clear chest with no signs of increased work of breathing. An occasional barking cough is heard.
What is the most appropriate management for this toddler?Your Answer: Oral dexamethasone
Explanation:For this infant with mild croup, the recommended treatment is a single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg body weight) regardless of the severity of symptoms. This should be taken immediately to reduce upper airway inflammation and alleviate the occasional barking cough and stridor. Delayed antibiotic prescription, immediate oral antibiotics, humidified oxygen, and inhaled or nebulised salbutamol are not appropriate options for croup management. Antibiotics are ineffective against viruses, which are the most common cause of croup, while humidified oxygen and inhaled or nebulised salbutamol are used for other respiratory conditions.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 79
Correct
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What is the most accurate statement regarding the use of radioactive iodine (131I) for treating thyrotoxicosis?
Your Answer: It is not associated with an increased incidence of late leukaemia.
Explanation:Radioactive Iodine (131I) Treatment for Hyperthyroidism: Uses and Potential Complications
Radioactive iodine (131I) is a commonly used treatment for hyperthyroidism, particularly in cases of toxic nodular hyperthyroidism and Graves’ disease. It works by inducing DNA damage in the thyroid gland, leading to the death of thyroid cells. This treatment is typically administered orally as a capsule or solution, and a standard dosage of 10 mCi is often used. However, the dosage may be increased if necessary, especially in cases of multinodular goitre.
While 131I treatment is generally safe and effective, there are potential complications to be aware of. For example, it should not be administered to pregnant women, as it can cross the placenta and affect the thyroid gland of the fetus. Women should avoid becoming pregnant for at least six months after treatment, and men should not father children for at least four months after treatment. Additionally, there is a risk of hypoparathyroidism, which occurs in about 30% of cases and typically has a latency period of more than a decade.
It is important to note that 131I treatment is not recommended for patients with active Graves’ ophthalmopathy, as it may cause progression of the condition. However, early treatment with levothyroxine may help reduce this risk. On the other hand, rapid regression of exophthalmos is expected in almost all cases within the first three months of treatment.
Overall, 131I treatment is a safe and effective option for many patients with hyperthyroidism. However, it is important to discuss potential risks and benefits with a healthcare provider before undergoing this treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 80
Correct
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How frequently is the Depo Provera (medroxyprogesterone acetate) injectable birth control administered?
Your Answer: Every 12 weeks
Explanation:Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucus thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 81
Correct
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An 80-year-old man presents with right-sided facial droop, dysphasia, and right-sided hemianopia. He has a medical history of gout, recurrent UTIs, dementia, and diabetes mellitus. A CT head is unremarkable, and an MRI head reveals a left-sided infarct. Which of the patient's pre-existing conditions elevate his chances of experiencing an ischemic stroke?
Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Explanation:The following factors increase the risk of ischaemic stroke: age, hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidaemia, diabetes mellitus, and atrial fibrillation. However, gout, recurrent UTIs, and dementia do not have an impact on stroke risk. Taking aspirin can lower the risk of stroke.
Understanding Stroke: A Basic Overview
Stroke is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality, with over 150,000 cases reported annually in the UK alone. It is the fourth leading cause of death in the country, killing twice as many women as breast cancer each year. However, the prevention and treatment of strokes have undergone significant changes in the past decade. What was once considered an untreatable condition is now viewed as a brain attack that requires emergency assessment to determine if patients can benefit from new treatments such as thrombolysis.
A stroke, also known as a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), occurs when there is a sudden interruption in the vascular supply of the brain. This interruption can lead to irreversible damage as neural tissue is entirely dependent on aerobic metabolism. There are two main types of strokes: ischaemic and haemorrhagic. Ischaemic strokes occur when there is a blockage in the blood vessel that stops blood flow, while haemorrhagic strokes happen when a blood vessel bursts, leading to a reduction in blood flow.
Symptoms of a stroke include motor weakness, speech problems, swallowing difficulties, visual field defects, and balance problems. The Oxford Stroke Classification is a formal system used to classify strokes based on initial symptoms. Patients with suspected stroke require emergency neuroimaging to determine if they are suitable for thrombolytic therapy to treat early ischaemic strokes. If the stroke is haemorrhagic, neurosurgical consultation should be considered for advice on further management.
In conclusion, understanding the basics of stroke is crucial in identifying and managing the condition. Early intervention and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man with a history of recurrent otitis media, two bouts of pneumonia, and a recent Giardia infection suffered a severe allergic reaction to a blood transfusion after a road traffic accident. His investigations showed slightly decreased immunoglobulins, a mild obstructive pattern on spirometry, and normal values for haemoglobin, white cell count, and platelets. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Immunoglobulin M (IgM) deficiency
Correct Answer: Immunoglobulin A (IgA) deficiency
Explanation:Understanding Immunoglobulin Deficiencies and Their Symptoms
Immunoglobulin deficiencies are a group of disorders that affect the body’s ability to produce specific types of antibodies, leading to an increased risk of infections and autoimmune diseases. Here, we will discuss the different types of immunoglobulin deficiencies and their associated symptoms.
IgA Deficiency:
This deficiency is characterized by a decrease in immunoglobulin A, which can lead to an increased incidence of mucosal infections, particularly gastrointestinal infections with Giardia. Patients may also experience recurrent ear infections, sinusitis, bronchitis, pneumonia, and urinary tract infections. Additionally, IgA deficiency increases the risk of autoimmune diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus.IgE Deficiency:
IgE is responsible for fighting parasitic and helminthic infections, so patients with IgE deficiency are more likely to develop these types of infections. They are also at an increased risk of autoimmune disease and non-allergic reactive airways disease.IgG Deficiency:
Patients with IgG deficiency are prone to developing infections from encapsulated bacteria, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Neisseria meningitidis. This deficiency can lead to upper and lower respiratory tract infections and meningitis.IgM Deficiency:
Primary selective IgM deficiency results in increased infections by bacteria, fungi, and viruses, as well as increased autoimmune diseases. However, this deficiency does not have the selectivity for mucosal membrane infections seen in IgA deficiency.Severe Combined Immunoglobulin Deficiency (SCID):
SCID is a rare disorder that results from abnormal T- and B-cell development due to inherited genetic mutations. Patients with SCID are affected early in life with multiple severe bacterial, viral, and fungal infections, as well as failure to thrive, interstitial lung disease, and chronic diarrhea.In conclusion, understanding the different types of immunoglobulin deficiencies and their associated symptoms is crucial for prompt recognition and treatment of opportunistic bacterial infections and autoimmune diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 83
Correct
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What is the most frequent initial symptom of Wilms tumor?
Your Answer: Abdominal mass
Explanation:Wilms’ Tumour: A Common Childhood Malignancy
Wilms’ nephroblastoma is a prevalent type of cancer that affects children, with most cases occurring in those under the age of five. It is often associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, hemihypertrophy, and a loss-of-function mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11. The most common presenting feature is an abdominal mass, which is usually painless. Other symptoms may include pain in the flank, anorexia, and fever. In 95% of cases, the tumour is unilateral. Metastases are found in 20% of patients, with the lungs being the most commonly affected site.
If a child presents with an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass, it is essential to arrange a paediatric review within 48 hours to rule out the possibility of Wilms’ tumour. The management of this condition typically involves nephrectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy in cases of advanced disease. The prognosis for Wilms’ tumour is generally good, with an 80% cure rate.
Histologically, Wilms’ tumour is characterized by epithelial tubules, areas of necrosis, immature glomerular structures, stroma with spindle cells, and small cell blastomatous tissues resembling the metanephric blastema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 84
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman comes to see her GP due to feeling down and lonely. She reports being a naturally shy person and experiencing intense anxiety about being judged or rejected by others for her perceived inadequacies. This has led her to avoid forming close relationships and she has even stopped seeing the few friends she had. Her social anxiety affects all aspects of her life, including her choice of a solitary job, solo hobbies, and never having been in a romantic relationship. She finds it challenging to deviate from her limited daily routine, although she feels unfulfilled by it. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Avoidant personality disorder
Explanation:The patient’s description of feeling lonely and avoiding social situations due to fear of negative evaluation and criticism suggests a diagnosis of avoidant personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by chronic patterns of interpersonal inhibition, fear of rejection, and social inhibition. The patient’s symptoms are pervasive and have been present since childhood or adolescence, indicating a personality disorder rather than a transient condition. While other disorders such as autism spectrum disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, and schizoid personality disorder may also involve social difficulties, they do not have the same fear of rejection and feelings of inadequacy that are characteristic of avoidant personality disorder.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 85
Correct
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An ambulance brings a 70-year-old man to the emergency department with suspected stroke. Upon examination, the man's speech is non-fluent, but his comprehension is intact. He experiences difficulty repeating a phrase. What is the most probable location of the lesion?
Your Answer: Frontal lobe
Explanation:The patient in the scenario has non-fluent speech, normal comprehension, and impaired repetition, which is indicative of Broca’s dysphasia. This type of speech abnormality is associated with a lesion in the frontal lobe affecting Broca’s area. When responding to a conversation, the signal travels from the ear to Wernicke’s area for comprehension, then along the arcuate fasciculus to Broca’s area for speech coordination. A lesion in the cerebellum, occipital lobe, parietal lobe, or temporal lobe would not be associated with Broca’s dysphasia.
Understanding the Different Types of Aphasia
Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Wernicke’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus, which is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. This type of aphasia results in sentences that make no sense, word substitution, and neologisms, but speech remains fluent. On the other hand, Broca’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus, resulting in non-fluent, laboured, and halting speech. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.
Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasiculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. Speech is fluent, but repetition is poor, and the person is aware of the errors they are making. Comprehension is normal. Global aphasia is the most severe type, affecting all three areas and resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. However, the person may still be able to communicate using gestures.
Understanding the different types of aphasia is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and support for individuals with this language disorder. It is important to note that dysarthria is different from aphasia and refers to a motor speech disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 86
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl comes to the eye clinic with a painful red eye after a minor injury. The doctor diagnoses her with a corneal ulcer in her left eye and prescribes topical antibiotics for treatment. She asks for a prescription of the same numbing eye drops that were used during the examination to use at home. What is the most appropriate pain management for this condition?
Your Answer: Oral analgesics
Explanation:It is not recommended to prescribe anaesthetic eye drops to patients with corneal ulcers as it can potentially worsen the condition by slowing down the healing process.
Understanding Corneal Ulcers
A corneal ulcer is a condition that occurs when there is a defect in the cornea, which is usually caused by an infection. It is important to note that corneal abrasions, on the other hand, are typically caused by physical trauma. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing a corneal ulcer, including contact lens use and vitamin A deficiency, which is particularly common in developing countries.
The pathophysiology of corneal ulcers can vary depending on the underlying cause. Bacterial, fungal, and viral infections can all lead to the development of a corneal ulcer. In some cases, contact lens use can also be associated with a type of infection called Acanthamoeba keratitis.
Symptoms of a corneal ulcer typically include eye pain, sensitivity to light, and excessive tearing. Additionally, a focal fluorescein staining of the cornea may be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 87
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP with bloody discharge from her left nipple. She is extremely worried as she has discovered a small lump on the same breast while examining it after noticing the discharge. She has no medical history and does not take any regular medication. She mentions that her sister had breast cancer a few years ago. She denies any injury to the area. She has never given birth and still has regular periods. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Duct papilloma
Explanation:The presence of blood-stained discharge and a small lumpy mass in this patient suggests that they may have duct papilloma. This condition typically affects middle-aged women and develops in the lactiferous ducts beneath the nipple, causing a lumpy mass and bloody discharge. While fat necrosis can also occur in women with large breasts, it is less likely in this case as the patient has not reported any trauma. Fibroadenoma, on the other hand, is not associated with bloody nipple discharge and is typically found in younger women as a firm, non-tender mass. Fibroadenosis, which causes painful and lumpy breasts, is most commonly seen in middle-aged women and may worsen before menstruation.
Breast Disorders: Common Features and Characteristics
Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Fibroadenoma is a non-tender, highly mobile lump that is common in women under the age of 30. Fibroadenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by lumpy breasts that may be painful, especially before menstruation. Breast cancer is a hard, irregular lump that may be accompanied by nipple inversion or skin tethering. Paget’s disease of the breast is associated with a reddening and thickening of the nipple/areola, while mammary duct ectasia is characterized by dilatation of the large breast ducts, which may cause a tender lump around the areola and a green nipple discharge. Duct papilloma is characterized by local areas of epithelial proliferation in large mammary ducts, while fat necrosis is more common in obese women with large breasts and may mimic breast cancer. Breast abscess, on the other hand, is more common in lactating women and is characterized by a red, hot, and tender swelling. Lipomas and sebaceous cysts may also develop around the breast tissue.
Common Features and Characteristics of Breast Disorders
Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Each of these disorders has its own unique features and characteristics that can help identify them. Understanding these features and characteristics can help women identify potential breast disorders and seek appropriate medical attention. It is important to note that while some breast disorders may be benign, others may be malignant or premalignant, and further investigation is always warranted. Regular breast exams and mammograms can also help detect breast disorders early, increasing the chances of successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 88
Correct
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As a junior doctor in psychiatry, you are evaluating a young man in the Emergency Department who was brought in by the police for carrying a knife. Your conversation with him goes as follows:
Doctor: I see that the police have brought you in from the town centre today. Can you tell me why, as a young man, you felt the need to carry a knife?Your Answer: Tangentiality
Explanation:Tangentiality is when someone goes off on a tangent and does not return to the original topic. It is a type of formal thought disorder that is often seen in people with schizophrenia. The person may provide excessive and unnecessary details that are somewhat relevant to the question but never answer the central point. Circumstantiality is similar, but the person ultimately provides an answer. Clang associations involve using words that sound similar but have no logical connection, while perseveration is when someone continues to respond to a previous question even after a new one has been asked.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 89
Correct
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A 38-year-old male presents with left-sided dull chest pain that has been present for five days. He reports no associated shortness of breath, cough, collapse, or pleuritic nature of the chest pain. The patient had a recent sore throat and headache last week, which has since resolved. There is no family history of sudden cardiac death in a first-degree relative, and the patient has never smoked.
Upon examination, the patient's blood pressure is 125/89 mmHg, heart rate is 95/min, temperature is 37.3ºC, and oxygen saturations are 97% on room air. Pulsus paradoxus is not present. Blood results reveal Hb of 154 g/L, platelets of 425 * 109/L, WBC of 11.5 * 109/L, Na+ of 137 mmol/L, K+ of 4.6 mmol/L, urea of 6.4 mmol/L, creatinine of 100 µmol/L, CRP of 40 mg/L, and Troponin T of 13 ng/L. The ECG shows ST-segment elevation in lead I, II, III, aVL, V5, and V6, and PR segment elevation in aVR.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:The ECG changes in this patient suggest pericarditis, given their young age, widespread ST-segment elevation, and normal troponin levels. While PR segment depression is typically seen in pericarditis, note that the PR segment may be elevated in aVR. Myocarditis would be a possible diagnosis if the troponin levels were elevated. Infective endocarditis is less likely due to the absence of fever and ECG changes consistent with pericarditis. Although cardiac tamponade is a potential complication of pericarditis, it is unlikely in this case as the patient’s blood pressure is normal and pulsus paradoxus is not present.
Understanding Acute Pericarditis
Acute pericarditis is a medical condition characterized by inflammation of the pericardial sac that lasts for less than 4-6 weeks. The condition can be caused by various factors such as viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, post-myocardial infarction, autoimmune pericarditis, radiotherapy, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, malignancy, and trauma. Symptoms of acute pericarditis include chest pain, non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Patients may also experience pericardial rub.
To diagnose acute pericarditis, doctors may perform an electrocardiogram (ECG) to check for changes in the heart’s electrical activity. Blood tests may also be conducted to check for inflammatory markers and troponin levels. Patients suspected of having acute pericarditis should undergo transthoracic echocardiography.
Treatment for acute pericarditis depends on the underlying cause. Patients with high-risk features such as fever or elevated troponin levels may need to be hospitalized. However, most patients with pericarditis secondary to viral infection can be managed as outpatients. Strenuous physical activity should be avoided until symptoms resolve and inflammatory markers normalize. A combination of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and colchicine is typically used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis. The medication is usually tapered off over 1-2 weeks.
Overall, understanding acute pericarditis is important for prompt diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 90
Correct
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A 6-week-old baby is observed to have rocker-bottom feet, microcephaly and a small retracted chin. The mother is a refugee from Syria who gave birth recently but could not attend antenatal screening. What is the probable syndrome?
Your Answer: Edwards' syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Genetic Conditions: Trisomy 18 (Edwards’ Syndrome)
Trisomy 18, also known as Edwards’ syndrome, is a genetic condition that results in a range of physical and developmental abnormalities. Neonates with trisomy 18 often present with neonatal hypotonia, apnoea, and seizures, as well as severe psychomotor and growth retardation. Other common features include microcephaly, microphthalmia, microstomia, micrognathia, clenched fingers, and rocker-bottom feet. Over 90% of individuals with trisomy 18 have cardiac defects, commonly ventricular septal defect (VSD), as well as anomalies in most organ systems. Unfortunately, many fetuses will die in utero, and neonates born with trisomy 18 have a 40% chance of survival to 1 month.
It is important to note that an Edwards’ syndrome diagnosis should be made in the prenatal period. Low levels of AFP (α-fetoprotein), estradiol, and hCG (human chorionic gonadotrophin) on triple test biochemistry are suggestive, and the diagnosis can be confirmed on ultrasonography.
Other genetic conditions, such as Pierre-Robin syndrome, Down’s syndrome, Fragile X syndrome, and Noonan’s syndrome, have their own distinct features and should be differentiated from trisomy 18. Understanding these conditions and their unique characteristics can aid in early diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 91
Correct
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A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations that started about 30 minutes ago. He mentions having a stressful day at work, but there doesn't seem to be any other obvious trigger. He denies experiencing any chest pain or difficulty breathing. Upon conducting an ECG, a regular tachycardia of 180 bpm with a QRS duration of 0.10s is observed. His blood pressure is 106/70 mmHg, and his oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Despite performing the Valsalva manoeuvre, there is no effect on the rhythm. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Intravenous adenosine
Explanation:In cases of haemodynamically stable patients with SVT who do not respond to vagal manoeuvres, the recommended course of action is to administer adenosine.
Understanding Supraventricular Tachycardia
Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachycardia that originates above the ventricles. It is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT, which is characterized by sudden onset of a narrow complex tachycardia, usually an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT). Other causes include atrioventricular re-entry tachycardias (AVRT) and junctional tachycardias.
When it comes to acute management, vagal maneuvers such as the Valsalva maneuver or carotid sinus massage can be used. Intravenous adenosine is also an option, with a rapid IV bolus of 6mg given initially, followed by 12mg and then 18mg if necessary. However, adenosine is contraindicated in asthmatics, and verapamil may be a better option for them. Electrical cardioversion is another option.
To prevent episodes of SVT, beta-blockers can be used. Radio-frequency ablation is also an option. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.
Overall, understanding SVT and its management options can help individuals with this condition better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 92
Correct
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An 80-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of loin pain, haematuria and a palpable abdominal mass. He is diagnosed with renal clear cell carcinoma. Upon staging, it is discovered that the tumour has spread to the adrenal gland. What would be the primary management option for this patient?
Your Answer: Immunomodulatory drugs
Explanation:Treatment Options for Stage 4 Renal Cancer with Metastases
Loin pain, haematuria, and a palpable abdominal mass are the classic symptoms of renal cancer, which is not very common. When the cancer has metastasized to the adrenal gland, it becomes a stage 4 tumor. Targeted molecular therapy is the first-line treatment for stage 4 renal cancer with metastases. Immunomodulatory drugs such as sunitinib, temsirolimus, and nivolumab are commonly used for this purpose.
Other treatment options for renal cancer include cryotherapy, partial nephrectomy, radiofrequency ablation, and radical nephrectomy. Cryotherapy uses liquid nitrogen to freeze cancerous cells, but it is usually only used for early-stage disease and is not first-line here. Partial nephrectomy is reserved for patients with small renal masses, usually stage 1. Radiofrequency ablation can be used for non-surgical candidates with small renal masses without metastasis, usually stage 1 or 2. Radical nephrectomy involves removal of the entire kidney, which is primarily done for stage 2 and 3 renal cell cancers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 93
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman complains of lumpy breasts. She notices the lumps are more prominent before her period. There is no family history of breast cancer.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Diffuse cystic mastopathy
Explanation:Breast Masses: Differential Diagnosis and Clinical Features
Breast masses are a common concern for women, and it is important to differentiate between benign and malignant causes. Here, we discuss the clinical features and differential diagnosis of various breast masses.
Diffuse cystic mastopathy is a benign condition that affects a significant proportion of women. It is characterized by the formation of cysts in the breast lobules due to hormonal changes in the menstrual cycle. The lumps are smooth, mobile, and tend to peak in size before each period. Diagnosis is primarily based on clinical examination, but a biopsy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis.
Fat necrosis is another benign condition that can occur due to direct trauma or surgery. It is characterized by the formation of firm, round, and painless masses in the breast. The skin around the lump may be red or bruised, and a biopsy may be needed to differentiate it from breast cancer.
Breast abscesses are characterized by local inflammation, pain, and fever. They may be associated with previous breast infections and may require drainage. However, there is no evidence of an infectious process in this patient.
Breast cancer is a concern in any patient with a breast mass, but early breast cancer is often asymptomatic. Physical findings that may indicate the possible presence of breast cancer include changes in breast size or shape, skin dimpling or changes, nipple abnormalities, and axillary lumps. However, none of these symptoms are present in this patient.
Fibroadenoma is the most common cause of breast mass in women under 35 years of age. It is characterized by a singular, firm, rubbery, smooth, and mobile mass. However, this patient reports multiple lumps, making a diagnosis of fibroadenoma less likely.
In conclusion, the cyclic nature of this patient’s breast masses makes diffuse cystic mastopathy the most likely diagnosis. However, a biopsy may be needed to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 94
Correct
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An 82-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing a blackout while shopping. Upon examination, she appears alert and oriented, and her vital signs are stable. Her CBG level is 5.8 mmol/l, and her pulse is irregular with a low volume at 89 beats per minute. Her blood pressure is 145/120 mmHg while lying and standing. There is no raised jugular venous pressure, and her apex beat is forceful but undisplaced. Heart sounds reveal a soft S2 and a soft ejection systolic murmur loudest in the right second intercostal space, with a possible fourth heart sound heard. Chest examination reveals occasional bibasal crackles that clear with coughing, and there is no peripheral edema. Based on these findings, what is the most likely cause of her collapse?
Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Understanding Aortic Stenosis and Differential Diagnosis
Aortic stenosis is a condition that presents with symptoms of left ventricular failure, angina, and potential collapse or blackout if the stenosis is critical. A low-volume pulse, narrow pulse pressure, slow-rising carotid pulse, undisplaced, sustained/forceful apex beat, soft or absent A2, ejection systolic murmur + fourth heart sound, and pulmonary edema are significant signs of aortic stenosis.
It is important to differentiate aortic stenosis from other conditions such as mitral regurgitation, aortic regurgitation, mitral stenosis, and mixed mitral and aortic valve disease. Mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur radiating to the axilla, while aortic regurgitation causes an early diastolic murmur and a collapsing pulse. Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur with a characteristic opening snap. There is no definitive evidence of mitral valve disease in this clinical scenario.
Understanding the signs and symptoms of aortic stenosis and differentiating it from other conditions is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 95
Correct
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A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a 3 day history of left knee pain and irritability. The child had recently recovered from a viral respiratory tract infection and is currently asymptomatic and without fever. Upon examination, the joint is painful to move but not hot or red, and the child is able to bear weight. Laboratory results reveal a hemoglobin level of 140 g/L (male: 135-180, female: 115-160), platelet count of 450 * 109/L (150-400), white cell count of 11.5 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), CRP of 29 mg/L (<5), and ESR of 32 mm/hr (0-10). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Transient synovitis
Explanation:Understanding Septic Arthritis in Children
Septic arthritis is a condition that affects children and can lead to permanent joint damage and systemic infection if not treated promptly. It has an incidence of around 4-5 per 100,000 children and is more common in boys, with a M:F ratio of 2:1. The hip, knee, and ankle are the most commonly affected joints. Symptoms of septic arthritis include joint pain, limp, fever, and lethargy. Signs of the condition include a swollen and red joint, with minimal movement possible.
To diagnose septic arthritis, joint aspiration is necessary to culture the affected area. This will show a raised white blood cell count. Inflammatory markers in the blood will also be raised, and blood cultures will be taken. The Kocher criteria are used to diagnose septic arthritis and include a fever of over 38.5 degrees Celsius, non-weight bearing, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), and raised white cell count (WCC).
Understanding septic arthritis in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment to reduce the risk of permanent joint damage and systemic infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 96
Correct
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A 70-year-old man has been diagnosed with active tuberculosis and started on antibiotics. He has a history of chronic kidney disease stage 4 and atrial fibrillation treated with warfarin. His INR taken 2 days after starting treatment is elevated at 7.8. Which antibiotic is the likely cause of this result?
Your Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:The cytochrome p450 system is inhibited by isoniazid, which leads to a decrease in the metabolism of warfarin. This results in an increase in the INR and prolongation of its effects. Although erythromycin is metabolized by the cytochrome p450 system, it is not used in the initial phase of anti-tuberculosis treatment. Levofloxacin is not typically used in the initial phase of anti-tuberculosis treatment, but it may be used in combination with other agents if standard treatment is discontinued due to hepatotoxicity. Pyridoxine, which is vitamin B6, is not utilized in the treatment of tuberculosis.
P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 97
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice on starting hormone replacement therapy (HRT) due to distressing vasomotor symptoms. Her LMP was 10 months ago, and she has not undergone any surgeries, has no significant medical history, and is not sexually active. Despite making lifestyle changes, she has not experienced much relief. Assuming there are no contraindications, what treatment would you suggest?
Your Answer: Cyclical combined HRT
Explanation:When a woman expresses interest in starting hormone replacement therapy (HRT), it is important to gather a detailed medical history to determine her menopausal status. This includes information about her last menstrual period (LMP) and any bleeding patterns leading up to it. Based on this information, it appears that the woman in question is peri-menopausal, as she has not been without a period for a full year.
The primary reason for starting HRT is to alleviate vasomotor symptoms, such as hot flashes. However, it may also be used to prevent osteoporosis in women who have been diagnosed with premature menopause.
For women who still have a uterus, HRT should consist of a combination of estrogen and progesterone. The progesterone is essential for reducing the risk of endometrial cancer, which can occur when estrogen is used alone. Women who have had a hysterectomy will typically receive continuous estrogen-only therapy.
The type of HRT prescribed will depend on the woman’s menopausal status. Those who have had their LMP within the past year should receive cyclical combined HRT, while those who have been without a period for at least a year or who have experienced premature menopause should receive continuous combined HRT.
For women who are unable or unwilling to take HRT, there are several non-hormonal treatments available for vasomotor symptoms. These include certain selective serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors, clonidine, and gabapentin. However, sertraline is not effective for treating hot flashes. It is worth noting that the National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence (NICE) does not recommend the use of herbal or complementary therapies for managing hot flashes and night sweats.
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves a small dose of oestrogen and progestogen to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed due to the long-term risks, and it is primarily used for vasomotor symptoms and preventing osteoporosis in younger women. HRT consists of natural oestrogens and synthetic progestogens, and can be taken orally or transdermally. Transdermal is preferred for women at risk of venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 98
Correct
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A 19-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with complaints of hand pain after punching a wall. He reports swelling and pain on the ulnar side of his hand. Based on his injury mechanism, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: 5th metacarpal 'Boxer's' fracture
Explanation:When a person punches a hard surface, they may suffer from a ‘Boxer fracture’, which is a type of 5th metacarpal fracture that is usually only slightly displaced.
Boxer fracture is a type of fracture that occurs in the fifth metacarpal bone. It is usually caused by punching a hard surface, such as a wall, and results in a minimally displaced fracture. This means that the bone is broken but the pieces are still in alignment and have not moved significantly out of place. The injury is named after boxers because it is a common injury in this sport, but it can also occur in other activities that involve punching or striking objects. Proper treatment and management of a boxer fracture is important to ensure proper healing and prevent long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 99
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman receives a Nexplanon implant. What is the duration of its contraceptive effectiveness?
Your Answer: 3 years
Explanation:Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.
There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 100
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of sudden jerking movements of his neck, causing his head to move involuntarily from left to right. He has been experiencing these symptoms for a few years, but lately, he has been feeling embarrassed as he involuntarily utters swear words in social situations. These symptoms worsen when he is under stress. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Tourette’s syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating between Mental Disorders: Tourette’s Syndrome, Malingering, Conduct Disorder, Dissocial Personality Disorder, and Schizophrenia
Tourette’s Syndrome is a tic disorder that usually develops in childhood or adolescence, characterized by multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics. The vocal tics need not be complete words or phrases and are often throat-clearing and grunting. Anti-psychotics such as pimozide, risperidone, and sulpiride have been shown to be of benefit.
Malingering is the act of fabricating symptoms for some sort of secondary gain, such as financial, manipulative, avoidance of school, obtaining drugs, or gaining sympathy or attention.
Conduct Disorder is a mental disorder diagnosed before or after the age of 10, characterized by a persistent and repetitive pattern of behavior that violates either the basic rights of others or goes against age-developmental norms. Childhood onset disorder can be linked to attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) type symptoms.
Dissocial Personality Disorder is characterized by a long-term disregard for others or the violation of others. Its precursor is conduct disorder. Antisocial personality disorder can be diagnosed when the patient reaches the age of 18 and has a history of conduct disorder in childhood or adolescence.
Schizophrenia does not typically present with involuntary movements. There is also no history of hallucinations, auditory or visual, or confused thinking.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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