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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old chef presents for a follow-up appointment after experiencing a left-sided Bell's...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old chef presents for a follow-up appointment after experiencing a left-sided Bell's palsy three months ago. The patient was treated with prednisolone and has seen some improvement in their facial weakness, but still experiences some weakness in their left facial muscles (power 4/5). The patient is interested in knowing if there are any additional tests or referrals that could be beneficial.

      What is the most suitable next step?

      Your Answer: Arrange an outpatient MRI head

      Correct Answer: Reassure, but explain that if symptoms persist in four months' time you will refer to plastic surgery

      Explanation:

      If a patient with Bell’s palsy experiences residual weakness after six months, it is appropriate to refer them to a plastics specialist. It is important to provide reassurance and safety netting regarding the referral. However, ordering an MRI head is not necessary if the symptoms are consistent with Bell’s palsy and the patient has responded to treatment. Neurology referral is also not necessary unless there is doubt about the initial diagnosis or if there are other clinical features suggestive of stroke. It is important to monitor patients with persistent symptoms and refer them to a specialist if necessary. Simply reassuring the patient may not be appropriate in cases where specialist review is required.

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      44.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - As a GP visiting a residential home patient, you encounter a 74-year-old female...

    Incorrect

    • As a GP visiting a residential home patient, you encounter a 74-year-old female with a 4 week history of oral ulceration. The patient reports experiencing pain and bleeding due to the condition. She also mentions that her dentures have not been fitting well, leading her to stop using them. Additionally, she has lost a few kilograms in weight over the past few weeks. Based on NICE guidelines for suspected cancer, which aspects of this patient's history would necessitate referral (within 2 weeks) for oral cancer?

      Your Answer: Recent weight loss

      Correct Answer: Unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than 3 weeks

      Explanation:

      Alcohol consumption is linked to 30% of cases in the UK.

      When to Refer Patients with Mouth Lesions for Oral Surgery

      Mouth lesions can be a cause for concern, especially if they persist for an extended period of time. In cases where there is unexplained oral ulceration or mass that lasts for more than three weeks, or red and white patches that are painful, swollen, or bleeding, a referral to oral surgery should be made within two weeks. Additionally, if a patient experiences one-sided pain in the head and neck area for more than four weeks, which is associated with earache but doesn’t result in any abnormal findings on otoscopy, or has an unexplained recent neck lump or a previously undiagnosed lump that has changed over a period of three to six weeks, a referral should be made.

      Patients who have persistent sore or painful throats or signs and symptoms in the oral cavity that last for more than six weeks and cannot be definitively diagnosed as a benign lesion should also be referred. It is important to note that the level of suspicion should be higher in patients who are over 40, smokers, heavy drinkers, and those who chew tobacco or betel nut (areca nut). By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients with mouth lesions receive timely and appropriate care. For more information on this topic, please refer to the link provided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      38.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 12-year-old girl with profound learning disabilities is brought to her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl with profound learning disabilities is brought to her General Practitioner for her annual review. She is non-verbal and requires help with all personal care. She has recently moved into a care home and is accompanied by an experienced carer. She raises concerns that the patient might be depressed, as she has noticed behaviours common to other depressed patients in her care.
      Which of the following features of depression is most likely to present in someone with a moderate-to-severe learning disability?

      Your Answer: Inability to concentrate

      Correct Answer: Psychomotor retardation

      Explanation:

      Identifying Depression in Individuals with Learning Disabilities

      Individuals with learning disabilities may present with symptoms of depression, including psychomotor retardation, disturbed sleep, loss of appetite, loss of weight, and diurnal variation in symptoms. The Glasgow Depression Scale for learning disabilities and the Glasgow Depression Scale carer’s supplement can be used to assess these symptoms. However, some criteria for depression, such as feelings of worthlessness or guilt, may be difficult to assess without a certain level of developmental comprehension and communication. Lack of concentration and subjective reduction in energy may also be present. Suicidal ideation is challenging to assess in individuals with limited conceptual and language skills, and physical or behavioral cues may be the only indicators of depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      119.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 26-year-old woman visits her GP due to vaginal bleeding. She is currently...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman visits her GP due to vaginal bleeding. She is currently 6 weeks pregnant and denies experiencing any abdominal pain, dizziness, or shoulder tip pain. She reports passing less than a teaspoon amount of blood without any clots. The patient has no history of ectopic pregnancy. Upon examination, her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, heart rate is 85 beats per minute, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. What is the next recommended management step based on the current NICE CKS guidelines?

      Your Answer: Monitor expectantly and advise to repeat pregnancy test in 7 days. If negative, this confirms miscarriage. If positive, or continued or worsening symptoms, refer to the early pregnancy assessment unit

      Explanation:

      Conduct a blood test to measure the levels of beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the serum, and then repeat the test after 120 hours.

      Bleeding in the First Trimester: Causes and Management

      Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for women, often leading them to seek medical attention. The main causes of bleeding during this time include miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. Of these causes, ectopic pregnancy is the most important to rule out as it can be life-threatening if missed.

      To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal or pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman experiences bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service. A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat.

      For pregnancies under six weeks gestation and no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, expectant management is appropriate. Women should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops, to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test indicates a miscarriage. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively manage bleeding in the first trimester and ensure the safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which Antihypertensive medication is banned for use by professional athletes? ...

    Correct

    • Which Antihypertensive medication is banned for use by professional athletes?

      Your Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      Prohibited Substances in Sports

      Beta-blockers and diuretics are among the substances prohibited in certain sports. In billiards and archery, the use of beta-blockers is not allowed as they can enhance performance by reducing anxiety and tremors. On the other hand, diuretics are generally prohibited as they can be used as masking agents to hide the presence of other banned substances. It is important to note that diuretics can be found in some combination products, such as Cozaar-Comp which contains hydrochlorothiazide. Athletes should be aware of the substances they are taking and ensure that they are not violating any anti-doping regulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      161.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a three day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a three day history of feeling unwell, dysuria, and increased frequency of urination. He denies any macroscopic hematuria. Upon further questioning, he reports having long-standing lower urinary tract symptoms such as weakened urinary stream, hesitancy, urgency, and nocturia for the past year, which have slowly worsened. On examination, he appears well with no abdominal or loin tenderness. Urine dipstick shows nitrites positive and leukocytes+++. A diagnosis of urinary tract infection is made, and he is treated with oral antibiotics. The patient expresses interest in having a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test to evaluate his lower urinary tract symptoms. A digital rectal examination reveals a smoothly enlarged benign-feeling prostate. When would be the most appropriate time to perform a PSA blood test in this case?

      Your Answer: The PSA test can be performed any time from now

      Correct Answer: Postpone the test for at least 48 hours

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Prostate-Specific Antigen Blood Test

      The prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test is a common diagnostic tool used to detect prostate cancer. However, the test results can be influenced by various factors, including benign prostatic hypertrophy, prostatitis, urinary retention, urinary tract infection, old age, urethral or rectal instrumentation/examination, recent vigorous exercise, and recent ejaculation.

      It is important to note that the PSA test should be deferred for at least a month in individuals with a proven urinary tract infection. Additionally, if a man has ejaculated or exercised vigorously in the previous 48 hours, the test should also be deferred. While some sources suggest delaying PSA testing for at least a week after a digital rectal examination, data suggest that rectal examination has minimal effect on PSA levels.

      In summary, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting PSA test results to ensure accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      55.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which statement about erectile dysfunction (ED) is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about erectile dysfunction (ED) is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin and LH levels should be measured

      Explanation:

      Important Information about Erectile Dysfunction

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a common condition that affects a significant portion of the population, with prevalence estimates ranging from 32 to 52%. It is important to measure both lipids and glucose in all patients, as early detection of ED may precede cardiovascular disease (CVD) symptoms by up to three years. While the causes of ED are multifactorial, it is recommended to only measure pituitary hormones if testosterone levels are low. Additionally, it is important to note that recreational drugs such as cocaine and heroin can also cause ED. Overall, it is crucial to be aware of the potential risk factors and causes of ED in order to properly diagnose and treat this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In a certain population, the occurrence of Rett syndrome is one per 10...

    Incorrect

    • In a certain population, the occurrence of Rett syndrome is one per 10 000. A diagnostic test is being created for use in infancy, with a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 99.99%. What is the anticipated positive predictive value (PPV)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The PPV is 47.9%; negative predictive value (NPV) is greater than 99.99%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Positive and Negative Predictive Values in Diagnostic Testing

      When interpreting the results of a diagnostic test, it is important to understand the concepts of positive predictive value (PPV) and negative predictive value (NPV). PPV refers to the proportion of true positives among all positive test results, while NPV refers to the proportion of true negatives among all negative test results.

      To illustrate this, let’s consider a hypothetical example of a test for Rett syndrome. Out of a population of 1 million, 100 individuals have Rett syndrome. If the test has a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 99.99%, we can calculate the expected numbers of true positives, false positives, true negatives, and false negatives.

      Based on these calculations, we can determine that the PPV is 47.9%, meaning that less than half of all positive test results will be true positives. On the other hand, the NPV is greater than 99.99%, indicating that almost all negative test results will be true negatives.

      It is important to note that sensitivity and specificity are not the same as PPV and NPV. While sensitivity and specificity describe the accuracy of the test itself, PPV and NPV take into account the prevalence of the condition in the population being tested.

      In summary, understanding PPV and NPV can help clinicians and patients interpret the results of diagnostic tests and make informed decisions about further testing or treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old male patient complains of feeling unwell for the past three days...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient complains of feeling unwell for the past three days with a low-grade fever. He has developed painful ulcers in his mouth and gums. During examination, submandibular lymphadenopathy is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex virus infection

      Explanation:

      Primary herpes simplex virus infection is indicated by gingivostomatitis, which this man is experiencing.

      The herpes simplex virus (HSV) comes in two strains: HSV-1 and HSV-2. It was once believed that HSV-1 caused cold sores and HSV-2 caused genital herpes, but there is now significant overlap between the two. Symptoms of a primary infection may include severe gingivostomatitis, while cold sores and painful genital ulceration are also common. Treatment options include oral aciclovir and chlorhexidine mouthwash for gingivostomatitis, topical aciclovir for cold sores (although the evidence for its effectiveness is limited), and oral aciclovir for genital herpes. Pregnant women with herpes should be treated with suppressive therapy, and those who experience a primary attack during pregnancy after 28 weeks gestation should have an elective caesarean section. The risk of transmission to the baby is low for women with recurrent herpes. Pap smear images can show the cytopathic effect of HSV, including multinucleation, marginated chromatin, and molding of the nuclei.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 52-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of hot flashes, vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of hot flashes, vaginal soreness, and decreased libido. She has not had a period in the past year and understands that she is going through menopause. The patient is interested in starting hormone replacement therapy (HRT) but is worried about the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE).

      Which HRT option would be the safest for this patient in terms of her VTE risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transdermal HRT

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. However, this treatment can have side-effects such as nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain.

      Moreover, there are potential complications associated with HRT. One of the most significant risks is an increased likelihood of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study found that the relative risk of developing breast cancer was 1.26 after five years of HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is related to the duration of HRT use, and it begins to decline when the treatment is stopped. Additionally, HRT use can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, which can be reduced but not eliminated by adding a progestogen.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT doesn’t appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any HRT treatment, even transdermal. Finally, HRT use can increase the risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than ten years after menopause.

      In conclusion, while HRT can be an effective treatment for menopausal symptoms, it is essential to be aware of the potential adverse effects and complications associated with this treatment. Women should discuss the risks and benefits of HRT with their healthcare provider before starting any treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old man is found to have a fasting cholesterol concentration of 8.7...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man is found to have a fasting cholesterol concentration of 8.7 mmol/l on testing by the GP. His father died of a myocardial infarction when he was 60-years old. He has no other risk factors and is well. However, he himself has three daughters.
      What is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to a lipid specialist

      Explanation:

      Management of Familial Hypercholesterolaemia

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic disorder that causes high levels of cholesterol in the blood, leading to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. Here are some management options for a patient suspected of having FH:

      Refer to a lipid specialist: If there is strong evidence of FH, NICE recommends referral to a specialist for confirmation of the diagnosis and cascade testing. This is important to identify affected relatives and provide appropriate management.

      Prescribe atorvastatin: Atorvastatin 20 mg daily is the drug of choice for a patient with confirmed heterozygous FH. It is a high-intensity statin that effectively lowers cholesterol levels.

      Provide dietary advice: Patients with FH should be offered individualised advice from a dietician to help manage their cholesterol levels. This may include reducing saturated fat intake and increasing consumption of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.

      Avoid simvastatin: Simvastatin is only a moderate-intensity statin and is not recommended as the first-line treatment for FH. High-intensity statins such as atorvastatin and rosuvastatin are preferred.

      Avoid combination therapy with a fibrate: While fibrates can lower cholesterol levels, they are not recommended for use in FH management. Statins and/or ezetimibe are the drugs of choice, and treatment should be initiated by a lipid specialist if needed.

      In summary, FH requires careful management to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. Referral to a lipid specialist, prescribing atorvastatin, providing dietary advice, and avoiding certain medications can all help to effectively manage FH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old man presents with a firm swelling at the base of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a firm swelling at the base of his neck on the right hand side, just above the clavicle. He noticed it about two weeks ago. It is not painful. He is an ex-smoker who stopped smoking three years ago (before that he smoked 10 roll-up cigarettes per day for 35 years). On further questioning he has noticed a loss of appetite and weight loss of 8 lbs.

      On examination he is apyrexial and has a firm non-mobile lymph node 3 cm in diameter in the right supraclavicular fossa. There are no abnormalities on examination of the respiratory system and there is no organomegaly on abdominal examination.

      What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Routine referral to an ear nose and throat specialist

      Explanation:

      Supraclavicular Lymph Node Enlargement and Malignancy

      The right supraclavicular lymph node drains the mid-section of the chest, oesophagus, and lungs. An enlarged and fixed node in this area can indicate malignancy, with the lungs being a common primary site. While glandular fever is a possibility, it is less common in this age group, and the patient is presenting with several alarm symptoms.

      Empirically treating with antibiotics is not recommended, as there are no signs of an infected sebaceous cyst, the patient is not feverish, and there is no identified focus for infection. According to NICE guidance, patients with cervical or supraclavicular lymphadenopathy should undergo an urgent chest x-ray.

      The NPSA’s thematic review of delayed cancer diagnosis found that 23% of lung cancer cases had diagnostic delays, although not all of these were directly attributable to general practitioners’ actions. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate any supraclavicular lymph node enlargement promptly to rule out malignancy and ensure timely treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 36-year-old woman presents with malaise, joint pain and swelling, Raynaud's phenomenon, Sjögren...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with malaise, joint pain and swelling, Raynaud's phenomenon, Sjögren syndrome, muscle pain and sclerodactyly. Her immunology results show a positive ANA and high titre of anti-nRNP, but no antibodies to Ro (SSA), La (SSB), Jo-1 (RNA synthetase), PM-1 (nucleolar protein), double-stranded DNA, SCL-70 (topoisomerase) and centromere. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mixed connective tissue disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autoimmune Disorders: Differentiating Between Mixed Connective Tissue Disorder and Other Conditions

      Autoimmune disorders can be difficult to diagnose due to their overlapping symptoms and shared antibodies. One such disorder is mixed connective tissue disorder, which presents with undifferentiated connective tissue disorder and anti-nRNP antibodies along with Raynaud’s phenomenon. However, it is important to differentiate this disorder from others with similar features.

      Polymyositis and/or dermatomyositis, for example, are associated with anti-Jo-1 and anti-PM-1 antibodies. Sjögren syndrome, on the other hand, is commonly associated with SSA and SSB antibodies, which can also be seen in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Systemic sclerosis and/or CREST may present with anti-centromere or topoisomerase antibodies.

      Therefore, a thorough understanding of the specific antibodies associated with each autoimmune disorder is crucial in accurately diagnosing and treating patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      0
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  • Question 14 - Individuals with primary antibody deficiencies often experience repeated infections. What is the most...

    Incorrect

    • Individuals with primary antibody deficiencies often experience repeated infections. What is the most common symptom observed in these individuals?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory infection

      Explanation:

      Understanding Primary Antibody Deficiencies: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis

      Primary antibody deficiencies refer to a group of rare disorders that affect the body’s ability to produce effective antibodies against pathogens. These disorders may be caused by a mutation in a single gene or by multiple genetic factors, similar to diabetes. While primary antibody deficiencies are the most common forms of primary immune deficiency, other primary immune deficiencies involve defects in cellular immunity, phagocyte defects, and complement defects. It is important to distinguish primary antibody deficiencies from secondary immune deficiencies caused by factors such as malignancy, malnutrition, or immunosuppressive therapy.

      Clinical history is crucial in identifying primary antibody deficiencies. Patients of any age who experience recurrent infections, particularly in the respiratory tract, should be investigated if the frequency or severity of infection is unusual or out of context. While most patients are under 20 years old, common variable immunodeficiency typically peaks in the second or third decade of life. A systematic review has found that respiratory and sinus infections are the most common presenting symptoms, followed by gastrointestinal and cutaneous infections. Meningitis, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis, and ophthalmic infections are much less common.

      In summary, understanding primary antibody deficiencies is essential in diagnosing and managing patients with recurrent infections. Clinical history plays a crucial role in identifying these disorders, which can be caused by genetic factors and affect the body’s ability to produce effective antibodies against pathogens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 15 - A mother is worried that her 5-month-old baby girl has a squint. On...

    Incorrect

    • A mother is worried that her 5-month-old baby girl has a squint. On examination, the eyes seem to be turned inwards. When a pen torch is shone in front of her eyes, she looks at it and the reflection is in the central part of the cornea, bilaterally.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudoesotropia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Eye Alignment: Pseudostrabismus, Heterophoria, Esotropia, Exotropia, and Sixth Nerve Palsy

      Eye alignment is an important aspect of vision that can affect how we perceive the world around us. However, not all cases of misalignment are the same. Here are some terms to help understand the different types of eye alignment issues:

      Pseudostrabismus: This is a false appearance of strabismus that can occur in infants with a wide and flat nose bridge. As the child grows, the nose bridge narrows and the appearance of misalignment goes away. To distinguish between pseudostrabismus and true strabismus, a Hirschberg test can be performed.

      Heterophoria: This is a slight tendency for the eyes to deviate from perfect alignment, which is common in most people. It may be seen as a latent squint when the individual is daydreaming or tired.

      Esotropia: This is an inward deviation of the eye that can be detected in the Hirschberg test when the light reflection lies at the outer margin of the pupil.

      Exotropia: This is an outward deviation of the eye that can be detected in the Hirschberg test when the light reflection lies at the inner margin of the pupil.

      Sixth Nerve Palsy: This is a condition that affects the lateral rectus muscle that abducts the eye. It can result in a convergent strabismus or esotropia, causing double vision. It is commonly caused by stroke, trauma, infection, tumor, raised intracranial pressure, or multiple sclerosis.

      Understanding these terms can help in identifying and treating eye alignment issues. If you suspect any problems with your eye alignment, it is important to consult with an eye doctor for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 16 - A 45-year-old patient complains of gastrointestinal symptoms. What feature in the history would...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient complains of gastrointestinal symptoms. What feature in the history would be the least indicative of a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 62-year-old female

      Explanation:

      The new NICE guidelines identify onset after the age of 60 as a warning sign.

      Diagnosis and Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects many people. To diagnose IBS, a patient must have experienced abdominal pain, bloating, or a change in bowel habit for at least six months. A positive diagnosis of IBS is made if the patient has abdominal pain relieved by defecation or associated with altered bowel frequency stool form, in addition to two of the following four symptoms: altered stool passage, abdominal bloating, symptoms made worse by eating, and passage of mucous. Other features such as lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder symptoms may also support the diagnosis.

      It is important to enquire about red flag features such as rectal bleeding, unexplained/unintentional weight loss, family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and onset after 60 years of age. Primary care investigations such as a full blood count, ESR/CRP, and coeliac disease screen (tissue transglutaminase antibodies) are suggested. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published clinical guidelines on the diagnosis and management of IBS in 2008 to help healthcare professionals provide the best care for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
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  • Question 17 - A professional man aged 55, previously healthy, is constantly consumed by the fear...

    Incorrect

    • A professional man aged 55, previously healthy, is constantly consumed by the fear that he has bowel cancer, despite being reassured that all investigations have come back negative. He acknowledges that the tests have shown no signs of disease, but he cannot shake the worry that he may have cancer. He has lost his appetite and spends most of his time at home since being laid off from work. He drinks 5-6 glasses of wine daily and has confided in his wife that he is contemplating suicide.

      Which statement accurately describes his situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He is likely to have a rapid improvement on chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mental Health Condition of a Redundant Middle-Aged Man

      This man is likely experiencing depression due to being made redundant in mid-life. His fear of bowel cancer is a manifestation of hypochondriasis, which is a somatoform disorder. However, it is distinct from somatisation, although there can be overlap. Additionally, he is exhibiting heavy alcohol consumption as a symptom of his condition.

      Given his expressed suicidal thoughts, tricyclics should be avoided. Instead, citalopram is recommended due to its more benign toxicity profile. While cognitive therapy may be helpful, it is unlikely to lead to complete resolution of his condition given the nature of his symptoms. It is important to understand the complexity of his mental health condition and provide appropriate support and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 18 - Which one of the following statements regarding hand, foot and mouth disease is...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hand, foot and mouth disease is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Palm and sole lesions tend to occur before oral ulcers

      Explanation:

      Oral lesions typically manifest before palm and sole lesions in cases of hand, foot and mouth disease.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.

      The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 19 - A 30-year old woman presents to the clinic with concerns about her facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year old woman presents to the clinic with concerns about her facial hirsutism and amenorrhea for the past six months. On examination, she has a BMI of 31 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 140/85 mmHg. She denies the possibility of pregnancy. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phaeochromocytoma

      Explanation:

      PCOS and Hirsutism: A Common Endocrinopathy in Women

      This patient is diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), which is the most common endocrinopathy in women of reproductive age. PCOS accounts for 95% of cases of hirsutism presenting to out-patient clinics. The clinical features of PCOS include hirsutism and oligomenorrhoea, which are caused by excessive androgen levels. These symptoms are often worsened by obesity.

      When diagnosing hirsutism, it is important to consider other potential causes such as virilising tumours of the ovaries or adrenal gland, Cushing’s syndrome, and congenital adrenal hyperplasia. By ruling out these other conditions, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat PCOS and its associated symptoms. Proper management of PCOS can improve quality of life and reduce the risk of long-term complications such as infertility and cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old patient who is on methotrexate for psoriasis presents because her 6-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient who is on methotrexate for psoriasis presents because her 6-year-old son has been suffering from Chickenpox and she is concerned about developing it. She has not previously had Chickenpox herself and is currently well, with no symptoms or rash.

      What advice should be given to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Test for varicella antibodies and give varicella-zoster immunoglobulin

      Explanation:

      Patients who are on long-term steroids or methotrexate and have weakened immune systems should be given VZIG if they come into contact with Chickenpox and have no antibodies to varicella. Although Chickenpox is usually a mild illness, it can be dangerous for those who are immunosuppressed or pregnant.

      If a patient has been exposed to varicella, they should be offered active post-exposure prophylaxis with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin. It is important to test people who have had significant exposure to Chickenpox and are immunocompromised for varicella-zoster antibody, regardless of their history of Chickenpox.

      It is inappropriate to wait for up to 21 days to see if symptoms appear or take no action because this patient is immunosuppressed and is at risk of severe varicella infection. Similarly, stopping her methotrexate would not be appropriate as the immunosuppressive effects would take time to wear off.

      Managing Chickenpox Exposure in At-Risk Groups

      Whilst Chickenpox is usually a mild condition in children with normal immune systems, it can cause serious systemic disease in at-risk groups. Pregnant women and their developing fetuses are particularly vulnerable. Therefore, it is crucial to know how to manage varicella exposure in these special groups.

      To determine who would benefit from active post-exposure prophylaxis, the following criteria should be met: significant exposure to Chickenpox or herpes zoster, a clinical condition that increases the risk of severe varicella (such as immunosuppression), and no antibodies to the varicella virus. Ideally, all at-risk exposed patients should have a blood test for varicella antibodies. However, post-exposure prophylaxis should not be delayed past 7 days after initial contact.

      Patients who meet the above criteria should be given varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). The management of Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy is an important topic that is covered in more detail in a separate entry to the textbook.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 21 - A 16-year-old girl comes to you with concerns about her acne. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to you with concerns about her acne. Upon examination, you observe several pustules, nodules, and some scarring. The patient expresses a desire for treatment as her acne is affecting her mood. While waiting for a dermatology referral, what initial treatment would you recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe an oral antibiotic in combination with topical Benzoyl Peroxide

      Explanation:

      Severe acne is characterized by the presence of nodules, cysts, and a high risk of scarring. It is recommended to refer patients with severe acne for specialist assessment and treatment, which may include oral isotretinoin. In the meantime, a combination of oral antibiotics and topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide can be prescribed.

      Topical antibiotics should be avoided when using oral antibiotics. Tetracycline, oxytetracycline, doxycycline, or lymecycline are the first-line antibiotic options, while erythromycin can be used as an alternative. Minocycline is not recommended.

      It is not recommended to prescribe antibiotics alone or to combine a topical and oral antibiotic. Women who require contraception can be prescribed a combined oral contraceptive (COC), with a standard COC being suitable for most women. Co-cyprindiol (Dianette®) should only be considered when other treatments have failed and should be discontinued after three to four menstrual cycles once the acne has resolved.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 22 - A 6-month-old girl is brought to surgery as her parents are worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old girl is brought to surgery as her parents are worried about her excessive hypotonia. Upon examination, it is found that her hypotonia is more severe than what is typical for her age. Which of the following is not a likely cause for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Hypotonia in infancy is not caused by cystic fibrosis.

      Understanding Hypotonia: Causes and Types

      Hypotonia, also known as floppiness, is a condition characterized by decreased muscle tone and weakness. It can be caused by central nervous system disorders or nerve and muscle problems. In some cases, an acutely ill child may exhibit hypotonia during examination. Hypotonia associated with encephalopathy in newborns is often caused by hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy.

      Central causes of hypotonia include Down’s syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, hypothyroidism, and cerebral palsy. In some cases, hypotonia may precede the development of spasticity in cerebral palsy patients. On the other hand, neurological and muscular problems that can cause hypotonia include spinal muscular atrophy, spina bifida, Guillain-Barre syndrome, myasthenia gravis, muscular dystrophy, and myotonic dystrophy.

      It is important to identify the underlying cause of hypotonia to determine the appropriate treatment plan. Early intervention and therapy can help improve muscle strength and function in individuals with hypotonia. Understanding the different types and causes of hypotonia can aid in early diagnosis and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 23 - Your health visitor wants to put up a sign in the child health...

    Incorrect

    • Your health visitor wants to put up a sign in the child health clinic drawing attention to vitamin D supplementation for infants, and she wants to check the recommendation with you.

      Advice from PHE is that infants under the age of one should consider taking a daily supplement containing how much vitamin D, during autumn and winter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10 micrograms

      Explanation:

      New advice on vitamin D supplements

      The latest advice from Public Health England (PHE) recommends that adults and children over the age of one should consider taking a daily supplement containing 10mcg of vitamin D, especially during autumn and winter. Those who are at a higher risk of vitamin D deficiency, such as people who have little or no exposure to the sun, those who cover their skin when outside, and people with dark skin from African, African-Caribbean, and South Asian backgrounds, are advised to take a supplement all year round. This advice is based on a review by the Scientific Advisory Committee on Nutrition (SACN), which identified these groups as being at risk of vitamin D deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 24 - A 15-year-old girl comes to see your practice nurse after getting an open...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl comes to see your practice nurse after getting an open wound on her right arm while playing basketball. Upon examination, the wound is found to be a 5 cm cut with dirt in it. What is the best course of action for tetanus vaccination for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If he has received three doses of tetanus toxoid and the last booster was more than 10 years ago he should receive a further three dose course tetanus vaccine

      Explanation:

      Tetanus Vaccination and TIG Administration

      With regards to tetanus vaccination, if an individual has completed the full five-course of tetanus vaccine and suffers a tetanus-prone wound, no further doses of the vaccine are recommended. However, there is some disagreement over whether to administer Tetanus Immune Globulin (TIG) to fully immunized individuals. Some sources recommend administering TIG for all high-risk wounds, while others suggest administering it only if five years have elapsed since the last dose. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action in each individual case. Proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 25 - A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of difficulty reading for...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of difficulty reading for the past two weeks. She has never worn glasses and is not taking any medications. On examination, her pupils are of normal size but react sluggishly to light. Both optic discs appear sharp with no signs of haemorrhages or exudates. The patient's visual acuity is significantly impaired and remains so even with the use of a pinhole card. During left lateral gaze, five-beat nystagmus and double vision are observed. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis of Multiple Sclerosis

      This young woman exhibits symptoms that suggest retrobulbar neuritis and cerebellar features, including nystagmus. The most likely diagnosis is Multiple sclerosis. To confirm this diagnosis, visual evoked responses, MRI scans revealing demyelinating plaques, and oligoclonal bands on CSF examination can be conducted.

      Multiple sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system. It can cause a wide range of symptoms, including vision problems, muscle weakness, and difficulty with coordination and balance. Early diagnosis and treatment can help manage symptoms and slow the progression of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old female attends surgery requesting a sterilisation because she has completed her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female attends surgery requesting a sterilisation because she has completed her family.

      You discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the procedure with her fully.

      Which of the following pieces of information would you give?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Overall failure rates of the procedure are approximately 1 in 200

      Explanation:

      Sterilisation as a Permanent Contraceptive Method

      Sterilisation is a permanent contraceptive method with an overall failure rate of approximately 1 per 200. However, the individual failure rate may be lower depending on the method used. It is important to note that sterilisation should be considered permanent, even though reversal is possible. This is because it is an operation performed with the intention of being permanent and reversal cannot be guaranteed.

      The proportion of women expressing regret after undergoing sterilisation varies between different studies and different countries but tends to range from 3% to 10% in the United Kingdom. Sterilisation is usually done laparoscopically, although methods involving a vaginal approach are possible.

      It is crucial to counsel patients about the effectiveness of other contraceptive methods that are as effective as sterilisation. Patients may not be aware of this, and it may alter their decision. For some, a long-acting form of contraception such as the intrauterine system (Mirena) may be more acceptable and preferable. Therefore, it is essential to discuss all available options with patients to help them make an informed decision about their contraceptive choices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 27 - An 80-year-old man presents with tinnitus.
    Which of the following statements about tinnitus is...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents with tinnitus.
      Which of the following statements about tinnitus is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tinnitus may be a sign of a brain tumour

      Explanation:

      Myths and Facts About Tinnitus

      Tinnitus, the perception of sound in the absence of external sound, is a common condition that affects around 10% of adults in the UK. However, there are many myths and misconceptions surrounding this condition.

      One myth is that tinnitus may be a sign of a brain tumour. While unilateral tinnitus may be a sign of an acoustic neuroma, this is rare.

      Another myth is that tinnitus is usually caused by drugs. While over 200 drugs are reported to cause tinnitus, drugs are not the commonest cause.

      A third myth is that there is no treatment for tinnitus. However, a hearing aid can often help, and relaxation techniques or background music may also be beneficial.

      Finally, some people believe that tinnitus is rare in the absence of ear disease and that it is usually constant in severity. In fact, tinnitus can have a wide variety of causes and symptoms, and many cases have no identifiable cause. Symptoms may come and go, and most cases of tinnitus are mild and improve over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 28 - A clinical investigation examined the effectiveness of a new test for diagnosing prostate...

    Incorrect

    • A clinical investigation examined the effectiveness of a new test for diagnosing prostate cancer. The test is designed to show positive in the presence of the disease. The sensitivity was reported as 70%.

      Which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70% of people with the disease will have a negative test result

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity and Specificity

      Sensitivity and specificity are two important measures used to evaluate the accuracy of medical tests. Sensitivity refers to the probability that a test will correctly identify a condition when it is present, while specificity refers to the probability that a test will correctly identify the absence of a condition when it is not present.

      In the given scenario, the data suggests that there is a 70% probability of the test being positive when tested in a group of patients with the disease. This means that if 100 patients with the disease were tested, 70 of them would test positive and 30 would test negative. It is important to note that sensitivity and specificity are not fixed values and can vary depending on the test and the population being tested. Understanding these measures can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about the use and interpretation of medical tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 29 - A 19-year-old female is brought to the hospital from her dormitory at college...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female is brought to the hospital from her dormitory at college with suspected meningitis. She complained of a severe headache, fever, and vomiting that had been getting worse for the past two days. After a lumbar puncture, it was confirmed that she has a positive culture for Neisseria meningitidis.

      What antibiotic should be prescribed for her college roommates?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis typically involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. Amoxicillin is primarily used in the treatment of meningitis in young children who are at a higher risk for listeria meningitis. In emergency situations, benzylpenicillin is the preferred treatment for meningitis, but it is not used for prophylaxis. Cephalosporins, such as cefalexin, are typically used in the treatment of bacterial meningitis rather than for prophylaxis.

      When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 30 - What is an indication for circumcision? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an indication for circumcision?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pathological phimosis

      Explanation:

      Indications for Paediatric Circumcision

      There are several indications for paediatric circumcision, with the most common being pathological phimosis. This occurs when scarring of the opening of the foreskin makes it non-retractable, which is rare before the age of 5 years. In such cases, circumcision is the only absolute indication.

      Recurrent episodes of balanoposthitis, or infection beneath the foreskin, can also be an indication for circumcision. While this is not a common occurrence, it can be troublesome and may require surgical intervention.

      In rare cases, paediatric circumcisions may be required for other conditions. However, these are not as common as pathological phimosis or balanoposthitis. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine if circumcision is necessary for your child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/2) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (1/2) 50%
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