00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 56-year-old, 80 kg woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old, 80 kg woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of chest pain that began 5 hours ago. She has no known allergies and is not taking any regular medications. Her electrocardiogram shows T-wave inversion in lateral leads but no ST changes, and her serum troponin level is significantly elevated. What is the appropriate combination of drugs to administer immediately?

      Your Answer: Aspirin 300 mg, clopidogrel 75 mg, fondaparinux 2.5 mg

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg, prasugrel 60 mg, fondaparinux 2.5 mg

      Explanation:

      For patients with different combinations of medications, the appropriate treatment plan may vary. In general, aspirin should be given as soon as possible and other medications may be added depending on the patient’s condition and the likelihood of undergoing certain procedures. For example, if angiography is not planned within 24 hours of admission, a loading dose of aspirin and prasugrel with fondaparinux may be given. If PCI is planned, unfractionated heparin may be considered. The specific dosages and medications may differ based on the patient’s individual needs and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      30.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 68-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with shortness of breath. He describes shortness of breath on exertion and feeling short of breath when he lies flat. He now uses four pillows when sleeping. His past medical history is remarkable for hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia and type II diabetes.
      On examination, he has bilateral crepitation, a jugular venous pressure (JVP) of 5 cm and pitting oedema up to his shins. Despite these symptoms, his oxygen saturation is 99% and he is functioning normally at home. He says the symptoms started gradually about 6 months ago and have progressed slowly since.
      Which of the following should the GP do first to confirm the provisional diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chest X-ray (CXR)

      Correct Answer: Serum brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)

      Explanation:

      The first-line investigation for heart failure in primary care is checking the levels of brain natriuretic peptide (BNP), according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. BNP levels are widely available, non-invasive, quick, and cost-efficient. A normal BNP level can rule out heart failure, but if it is abnormal, an echocardiogram should be done within 6 weeks if it is raised and within 2 weeks if it is very high. Patients with a history of myocardial infarction should have an echocardiogram straightaway. An echocardiogram is the most definitive test diagnostically, as it can accurately assess various parameters. Troponin T level is used to assess myocardial injury resulting from a myocardial infarction, but it is not relevant in chronic heart failure. Myocardial perfusion scans are useful in the diagnosis of coronary artery disease, but they are not the first-line investigation for heart failure. An ECG may be helpful, but it is not sensitive or specific enough to be used as a conclusive diagnostic tool. A chest X-ray can show features of heart failure, but they are usually found in progressed chronic congestive heart failure, which are unlikely to be present at the very first presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old man, who recently immigrated to the United Kingdom from Eastern Europe,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man, who recently immigrated to the United Kingdom from Eastern Europe, presents to his general practitioner with a history of intermittent dizzy spells. He reports having limited exercise capacity since childhood, but this has not been investigated before. Upon examination, the patient appears slight, has a dusky blue discoloration to his lips and tongue, and has finger clubbing. A murmur is also heard. The GP refers him to a cardiologist.

      The results of a cardiac catheter study are as follows:

      Anatomical site Oxygen saturation (%) Pressure (mmHg)
      End systolic/End diastolic
      Superior vena cava 58 -
      Inferior vena cava 52 -
      Right atrium (mean) 56 10
      Right ventricle 55 105/9
      Pulmonary artery - 16/8
      Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure - 9
      Left atrium 97 -
      Left ventricle 84 108/10
      Aorta 74 110/80

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Correct Answer: Fallot's tetralogy

      Explanation:

      Fallot’s Tetralogy

      Fallot’s tetralogy is a congenital heart defect that consists of four features: ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an over-riding aorta. To diagnose this condition, doctors look for specific indicators. A step-down in oxygen saturation between the left atrium and left ventricle indicates a right to left shunt at the level of the ventricles, which is a sign of ventricular septal defect. Pulmonary stenosis is indicated by a significant gradient of 89 mmHg across the pulmonary valve, which is calculated by subtracting the right ventricular systolic pressure from the pulmonary artery systolic pressure. Right ventricular hypertrophy is diagnosed by high right ventricular pressures and a right to left shunt, as indicated by the oxygen saturations. Finally, an over-riding aorta is identified by a further step-down in oxygen saturation between the left ventricle and aorta. While this could also occur in cases of patent ductus arteriosus with right to left shunting, the presence of the other features of Fallot’s tetralogy makes an over-riding aorta the most likely cause of reduced oxygen saturation due to admixture of deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle entering the left heart circulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A newborn baby is found to have a heart murmur that is later...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn baby is found to have a heart murmur that is later identified as Ebstein's anomaly. Is it possible that a medication taken by the mother during pregnancy could have played a role in causing this congenital heart defect?

      Your Answer: Carbimazole

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium Exposure During Pregnancy Linked to Ebstein’s Anomaly

      Exposure to lithium during pregnancy has been found to be linked to the development of Ebstein’s anomaly in newborns. Ebstein’s anomaly is a rare congenital heart defect that affects the tricuspid valve, which separates the right atrium and right ventricle of the heart. This condition can cause a range of symptoms, including shortness of breath, fatigue, and heart palpitations.

      Studies have shown that women who take lithium during pregnancy are at an increased risk of having a child with Ebstein’s anomaly. Lithium is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder, and while it can be an effective treatment, it is important for women who are pregnant or planning to become pregnant to discuss the risks and benefits of taking lithium with their healthcare provider.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential risks associated with lithium use during pregnancy and to closely monitor pregnant women who are taking this medication. Early detection and treatment of Ebstein’s anomaly can improve outcomes for affected infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 66-year-old patient with a history of heart failure is given intravenous fluids...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old patient with a history of heart failure is given intravenous fluids while on the ward. You receive a call from a nurse on the ward reporting that the patient is experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Upon examination, you order an urgent chest X-ray.
      What finding on the chest X-ray would be most indicative of pulmonary edema?

      Your Answer: Patchy shadowing bilaterally in the lower zones

      Correct Answer: Patchy perihilar shadowing

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Chest X-Ray Findings in Heart Failure

      Chest X-rays are commonly used to assess patients with heart failure. Here are some key findings to look out for:

      – Patchy perihilar shadowing: This suggests alveolar oedema, which can arise due to fluid overload in heart failure. Intravenous fluids should be given slowly, with frequent re-assessment for signs of peripheral and pulmonary oedema.
      – Cardiothoracic ratio of 0.5: A ratio of >0.5 on a postero-anterior (PA) chest X-ray may indicate heart failure. A ratio of 0.5 or less is considered normal.
      – Patchy shadowing in lower zones: This may suggest consolidation caused by pneumonia, which can complicate heart failure.
      – Prominent lower zone vessels: In pulmonary venous hypertension, there is redistribution of blood flow to the non-dependent upper lung zones, leading to larger vessels in the lower zones.
      – Narrowing of the carina: This may suggest enlargement of the left atrium, which sits directly under the carina in the chest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man undergoes a workplace medical and has an ECG performed. What...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man undergoes a workplace medical and has an ECG performed. What is the electrophysiological basis of the T wave on a typical ECG?

      Your Answer: Ventricular repolarisation

      Explanation:

      The T wave on an ECG indicates ventricular repolarisation and is typically positive in all leads except AvR and V1. Abnormal T wave findings may suggest strain, bundle branch block, ischaemia/infarction, hyperkalaemia, Prinzmetal angina, or early STEMI. The P wave represents atrial depolarisation, while atrial repolarisation is hidden by the QRS complex. The PR interval is determined by the duration of conduction delay through the atrioventricular node. Finally, the QRS complex indicates ventricular depolarisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old woman patient presents with a subacute history of lethargy and low-grade...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman patient presents with a subacute history of lethargy and low-grade fever. Among other findings, full clinical examination reveals retinal haemorrhages with pale centres, painful red raised lesions on the hands and feet and subcentimetre, non-tender, raised papules on the palms and soles of the feet.
      What is the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

      Correct Answer: Endocarditis

      Explanation:

      Clinical Signs and Diagnosis of Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis

      Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) is a condition caused by Streptococcus viridans, an oral commensal, and presents with malaise, weakness, and low-grade fever. Diagnosis is often delayed due to non-specific presentation, but it should be suspected in any febrile or unwell patient with a new or changing murmur. The three classic clinical signs of SBE are finger clubbing, Roth spots, and Osler’s nodes, along with Janeway lesions, which are subcentimeter, non-tender, raised papules on the palms and soles of the feet. Confirmation of SBE usually requires three separate sets of blood cultures taken in a 24-hour period, ideally during times the patient is febrile.

      While Janeway lesions may be found in systemic lupus erythaematosus (SLE), the combination of the three described findings is unique to SBE. Tuberculosis does not present with the above constellation of findings but would be expected to present with chronic cough, haemoptysis, fever, and night sweats. Subacute meningococcal septicaemia typically gives a non-blanching petechial rash in the context of fulminating sepsis and does not present subacutely as described here. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) patients may have subcutaneous rheumatoid nodules on the extensor surfaces of the limbs, but RA does not give the findings described.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are assisting in the anaesthesia of an 80-year-old man for a plastics...

    Correct

    • You are assisting in the anaesthesia of an 80-year-old man for a plastics procedure. He is having a large basal cell carcinoma removed from his nose. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, having had three stents placed 2 years ago. He is otherwise healthy and still able to walk to the shops. His preoperative electrocardiogram (ECG) showed sinus rhythm. During the procedure, his heart rate suddenly increases to 175 bpm with a narrow complex, and you cannot see P waves on the monitor. You are having difficulty obtaining a blood pressure reading but are able to palpate a radial pulse with a systolic pressure of 75 mmHg. The surgeons have been using lidocaine with adrenaline around the surgical site. What is the next best course of action?

      Your Answer: 100% O2, synchronised cardioversion, 150-J biphasic shock

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for a Patient with Narrow-Complex Tachycardia and Low Blood Pressure

      When a patient with a history of ischaemic heart disease presents with a narrow-complex tachycardia and low blood pressure, it is likely that they have gone into fast atrial fibrillation. In this case, the first step in resuscitation should be a synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion with a 150-J biphasic shock. Administering 100% oxygen, a 500 ml Hartmann bolus, and 0.5 mg metaraminol may help increase the patient’s blood pressure, but it does not address the underlying cause of their haemodynamic instability.

      Amiodarone 300 mg stat is recommended for patients with narrow-complex tachycardia and haemodynamic instability. However, administering 10 mmol magnesium sulphate is not the first-line treatment for tachycardia unless the patient has torsades de pointes.

      Lastly, administering Intralipid® as per guideline for local anaesthetic toxicity is unlikely to be the main source of the patient’s hypotension and does not address their narrow-complex tachycardia. Therefore, it is important to prioritize the synchronised cardioversion and amiodarone administration in this patient’s treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      51.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You are urgently requested to assess a 23-year-old male who has presented to...

    Correct

    • You are urgently requested to assess a 23-year-old male who has presented to the Emergency department after confessing to consuming 14 units of alcohol and taking 2 ecstasy tablets tonight. He is alert and oriented but is experiencing palpitations. He denies any chest pain or difficulty breathing.
      The patient's vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 180 beats per minute, regular rhythm, blood pressure of 115/80 mmHg, respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed and reveals an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (SVT).
      What would be your first course of action in terms of treatment?

      Your Answer: Vagal manoeuvres

      Explanation:

      SVT is a type of arrhythmia that occurs above the ventricles and is commonly seen in patients in their 20s with alcohol and drug use as precipitating factors. Early evaluation of ABC is important, and vagal manoeuvres are recommended as the first line of treatment. Adenosine is the drug of choice if vagal manoeuvres fail, and DC cardioversion is required if signs of decompensation are present. Amiodarone is not a first-line treatment for regular narrow complex SVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A radiologist examining a routine chest X-ray in a 50-year-old man is taken...

    Incorrect

    • A radiologist examining a routine chest X-ray in a 50-year-old man is taken aback by the presence of calcification of a valve orifice located at the upper left sternum at the level of the third costal cartilage.
      Which valve is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: The mitral valve

      Correct Answer: The pulmonary valve

      Explanation:

      Location and Auscultation of Heart Valves

      The heart has four valves that regulate blood flow through its chambers. Each valve has a specific location and can be auscultated to assess its function.

      The Pulmonary Valve: Located at the junction of the sternum and left third costal cartilage, the pulmonary valve is best auscultated at the level of the second left intercostal space parasternally.

      The Aortic Valve: Positioned posterior to the left side of the sternum at the level of the third intercostal space, the aortic valve is best auscultated in the second right intercostal space parasternally.

      The Mitral Valve: Found posteriorly to the left side of the sternum at the level of left fourth costal cartilage, in the fifth intercostal space in mid-clavicular line, the mitral valve can be auscultated to assess its function.

      The Valve of the Coronary Sinus: The Thebesian valve of the coronary sinus is an endocardial flap that plays a role in regulating blood flow through the heart.

      The Tricuspid Valve: Located behind the lower mid-sternum at the level of the fourth and fifth intercostal spaces, the tricuspid valve is best auscultated over the lower sternum.

      Understanding the location and auscultation of heart valves is essential for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      19
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiology (3/10) 30%
Passmed