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  • Question 1 - Samantha is a 6-year-old girl who has presented with symptoms of high fever,...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 6-year-old girl who has presented with symptoms of high fever, white spots on the mouth, conjunctival injection, and a blotchy red rash. You suspect measles infection. Her father asks how many days she should stay home from school?

      Your Answer: Keep out of school for 5 days after onset of rash

      Correct Answer: Keep out of school for 4 days from onset of rash

      Explanation:

      If a child is diagnosed with measles, they should not attend school for at least four days after the rash appears.

      Measles: A Highly Infectious Disease

      Measles is a viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious viruses known and is spread through aerosol transmission. The incubation period is 10-14 days, and the virus is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop.

      The prodromal phase of measles is characterized by irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. These white spots on the buccal mucosa typically develop before the rash. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.

      Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered for immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. It is a notifiable disease, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.

      If an unvaccinated child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You take a telephone call at the end of surgery from a childminder...

    Correct

    • You take a telephone call at the end of surgery from a childminder who is looking after a 5-year-old boy who she feels has suspicious injuries.

      She says that when she commented on the injuries to his mother, when he was dropped off earlier in the morning, she gave an unconvincing account of what might have happened to him. She suspects non-accidental injury and from the history given, you do too, but are not sure. You arrange to see the child with his mother later that same day.

      When should you make notes about this first consultation?

      Your Answer: Immediately

      Explanation:

      Importance of Timely and Accurate Note-Taking in Medical Practice

      Making notes immediately after a consultation with a patient is crucial in medical practice. It is equally important to make further contemporaneous notes whenever you see the patient again. This ensures that all relevant information is recorded accurately and in a timely manner.

      It is easy to forget or omit making notes about telephone consultations, which can lead to repeat prescribing of the wrong drug in the future. Therefore, it is essential to record all encounters with patients, including telephone consultations, in the clinical record.

      Cases involving child protection are particularly important, and it is good practice to record the contents of the consultation immediately, even if the eventual diagnosis is uncertain. This ensures that all relevant information is documented and can be used to inform future decisions.

      In summary, timely and accurate note-taking is essential in medical practice to ensure that all relevant information is recorded and can be used to inform future decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a complaint of a 'facial rash'. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a complaint of a 'facial rash'. Upon examination, you note a blotchy, brownish pigmentation on both cheeks. She reports starting the combined oral contraceptive a few months ago and believes that her skin began to develop the pigmentation after starting the pill. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chloasma

      Explanation:

      Chloasma, also known as melasma, is a skin condition characterized by brown pigmentation that typically develops across the cheeks. It is more common in women and in people with darker skin, and commonly presents between the ages of 30-40. Hormonal contraceptives, pregnancy, sun exposure, and certain cosmetics are well-documented triggers for developing the condition.

      It is important to note that other conditions can cause facial rashes, but they would not fit into the description of chloasma. Acne rosacea causes papules and pustules, as well as facial flushing. Dermatomyositis causes a heliotrope rash across the face, eyelids, and light-exposed areas. Perioral dermatitis, also known as muzzle rash, causes papules that are usually seen around the mouth. Seborrhoeic dermatitis causes a scaling, flaky rash.

      Overall, chloasma is a common skin condition that can be triggered by hormonal changes and sun exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You are discussing with your supervisor the management of patients who present with...

    Correct

    • You are discussing with your supervisor the management of patients who present with urological symptoms in elderly women.
      Which of the following presentations of urinary symptoms in elderly women requires urgent referral?

      Your Answer: A 44-year-old patient with urinary incontinence symptoms and feeling of a 'lump down below'

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Painless Visible Haematuria

      Painless macroscopic haematuria, or visible blood in the urine, is a concerning symptom that should be urgently referred for suspicion of bladder or renal cancer. However, it is important to note that if the patient also experiences pain or symptoms of a urinary tract infection, these should be assessed and managed separately.

      Prompt referral for painless visible haematuria is crucial in order to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of potential cancer. Patients should be advised to seek medical attention immediately if they notice blood in their urine, even if they do not experience any pain or other symptoms. Healthcare providers should also be vigilant in identifying and referring these cases for further evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old retired factory worker comes to the clinic complaining of left-sided pleuritic...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old retired factory worker comes to the clinic complaining of left-sided pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. He has a smoking history of five to ten cigarettes per day since he was in his twenties.

      During the physical examination, the patient exhibits clubbing, and chest auscultation reveals decreased air entry and dullness to percussion on the left side. A chest x-ray shows pleural thickening and a pleural effusion on the left side.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mesothelioma

      Correct Answer: Fibrosing alveolitis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Clubbing and Mesothelioma as a Differential Diagnosis

      Clubbing can be caused by respiratory, gastroenterological, and cardiac conditions. Respiratory causes include cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis, lung carcinoma, fibrosis, and mesothelioma. Gastroenterological causes include lymphoma, inflammatory bowel disease, and cirrhosis. Cardiac causes include cyanotic heart disease, atrial myxoma, and bacterial endocarditis.

      In this case, the patient presents with clubbing and respiratory symptoms, making it difficult to determine the exact cause. However, the patient’s occupational history as a dock worker puts them at risk for mesothelioma, a type of cancer caused by exposure to asbestos. Mesothelioma is more likely than other options due to the patient’s age, clinical and chest x-ray findings of pleural thickening and effusion. It is important to consider mesothelioma as a differential diagnosis in patients with clubbing and a history of asbestos exposure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 29-year-old man who has entered for the London Marathon comes to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man who has entered for the London Marathon comes to the surgery for a routine medical. He has now been training for 13 months.

      On examination he is bradycardic with a resting pulse of 40. His BP is 115/72 mmHg at rest. The LV impulse is laterally displaced and there is a systolic ejection flow murmur. You can hear a third heart sound.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Athletic heart

      Correct Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Athletic Heart

      The athletic heart is a common occurrence in individuals who engage in prolonged periods of endurance training. It is characterized by a systolic flow murmur, LV enlargement, bradycardia, and third heart sounds. To differentiate it from cardiomyopathy, echocardiography is useful, with symmetric septal hypertrophy, normal diastolic function, and LVH <13 mm being features of athletic hearts. The BP response to exercise is normal, and LVH regresses in response to deconditioning. While persistent bradycardia and atrial arrhythmias are rare sequelae of the athletic heart picture, it is important to differentiate between a physiological S3 gallop (triple rhythm) and a pathological summation gallop. Although most GPs may struggle to differentiate third and fourth heart sounds, it is crucial to recognize that some signs can occur in 'normal' individuals as well as disease. Understanding the athletic heart is essential for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      35.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman comes to see you because she is concerned about her...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to see you because she is concerned about her family history of breast cancer. She has no symptoms at present.

      Which of the following family histories should be referred for additional genetic evaluation to determine their risk of developing breast cancer?

      Your Answer: A sister who has been diagnosed with breast cancer at 39

      Explanation:

      Factors to Consider for Referral for Genetic Assessment for Breast Cancer

      When deciding whether to refer a patient for genetic assessment for breast cancer, several factors need to be considered. These include the age of the patient, their sex, their relationship to the patient, and whether the relative’s breast cancer was bilateral. Additionally, any history of ovarian cancer in first degree relatives should be noted.

      For sex, any patient with a first degree male relative with breast cancer at any age should be referred. Age is also an important factor, with a referral recommended for first degree female relatives diagnosed with breast cancer under 40. If their breast cancer was bilateral, referral may be considered if the first primary relative was diagnosed under the age of 50.

      When it comes to the number of cases in relatives, focus on first and second degree relatives. If two first degrees or a first and second degree relative are diagnosed at any age, referral is recommended. Finally, a family history of ovarian cancer should also be taken into account. If a first or second degree relative has been diagnosed with breast cancer and another first degree relative has been diagnosed with ovarian cancer at any age, referral for genetic counselling is warranted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 27-year-old man comes back from a year-long trip to Central and South...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes back from a year-long trip to Central and South America. He complains of a lesion on his lower lip that has been ulcerating for the past 2 months. Upon examination, it is found that his nasal and oral mucosae are also affected. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chagas disease

      Correct Answer: Leishmaniasis

      Explanation:

      Leishmaniasis is the probable diagnosis for this patient, as the presence of a primary skin lesion accompanied by mucosal involvement is a typical indication of infection with Leishmania brasiliensis.

      Leishmaniasis: A Disease Caused by Sandfly Bites

      Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by the protozoa Leishmania, which are transmitted through the bites of sandflies. There are three main forms of the disease: cutaneous, mucocutaneous, and visceral. Cutaneous leishmaniasis is characterized by a crusted lesion at the site of the bite, which may be accompanied by an underlying ulcer. It is typically diagnosed through a punch biopsy from the edge of the lesion. Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis can spread to involve the mucosae of the nose, pharynx, and other areas. Visceral leishmaniasis, also known as kala-azar, is the most severe form of the disease and is characterized by fever, sweats, rigors, massive splenomegaly and hepatomegaly, poor appetite, weight loss, and grey skin. The gold standard for diagnosis is bone marrow or splenic aspirate. Treatment is necessary for cutaneous leishmaniasis acquired in South or Central America due to the risk of mucocutaneous leishmaniasis, while disease acquired in Africa or India can be managed more conservatively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man presents with a two day history of a gradual onset...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents with a two day history of a gradual onset painful, unilateral, red, tender testicle. He is not in a new relationship.

      Which one of these statements is true?

      Your Answer: Common urinary tract organisms are the most likely cause of infection in this case

      Explanation:

      Epididymo-orchitis: Causes and Treatment

      Epididymo-orchitis is a condition that affects the testicles and epididymis, which are the tubes that carry sperm. It is more commonly seen in older men and can be caused by either chlamydia or gonorrhoea, or by common urinary tract organisms.

      To diagnose the condition, urine testing for MSU and chlamydia or gonorrhoea can be done. However, due to the gradual onset of symptoms, empirical treatment should not be delayed. A 10-14 day course of quinolone is recommended as the first-line treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 63-year-old man initially reported experiencing itching on his back. Subsequently, he began...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man initially reported experiencing itching on his back. Subsequently, he began to experience abdominal discomfort, loss of appetite, weight loss, and fatigue. An x-ray was performed, which showed no abnormalities. What would be the gold standard management option?

      Your Answer: Urgent CT scan

      Explanation:

      Urgent CT Scan for Pancreatic Cancer in Elderly Patients with Red Flag Symptoms

      An urgent direct access CT scan is recommended within two weeks for patients aged 60 and over who have experienced weight loss and any of the following symptoms: diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes. CT scan is preferred over ultrasound unless CT is not available. Endoscopy is not necessary as the symptoms do not suggest stomach or oesophageal cancer, which would present with more dysphagia and dyspepsia. While a gastroenterology opinion may be required, it should not be requested routinely as the patient’s red flag symptoms warrant a more urgent approach. Although the patient is currently medically stable, an immediate referral to the medical assessment unit is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Samantha is a 70 year old woman who is attending hospital for chemotherapy...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 70 year old woman who is attending hospital for chemotherapy for breast cancer. She is struggling with the cost of transportation to and from the hospital and is currently receiving pensioners credit. What advice would you give to Samantha?

      Your Answer: Eligible for refund from social services

      Correct Answer: Eligible to claim travel refund from hospital

      Explanation:

      He can claim a refund for his travel expenses from the hospital.

      Travel Refund for Hospital Visits

      If you are required to attend a hospital for treatment, you may be eligible for a refund for your travel expenses. The criteria for eligibility include receiving Income Support, the guarantee element of Pension Credit, income-based Jobseekers Allowance, income-related Employment and Support Allowance, Universal Credit, or having a valid NHS tax exemption certificate. Additionally, if you receive a valid war pension and are being treated for your war disability, you may also be eligible. If you require someone to travel with you for medical reasons, their travel costs may also be covered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and obesity...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and obesity comes in for a visit after experiencing a late period. Upon taking a urinary hCG test, it comes back positive. She is currently taking the following medications:

      - Orlistat 120mg three times a day
      - Simvastatin 40 mg once a day
      - Aspirin 75 mg once a day
      - Metformin 1g twice a day
      - Paracetamol 1g four times a day
      - Aqueous cream as needed

      Which medication should be discontinued immediately?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Simvastatin

      Explanation:

      Prescribing Considerations for Pregnant Patients

      When it comes to prescribing medication for pregnant patients, it is important to exercise caution as very few drugs are known to be completely safe during pregnancy. Some countries have developed a grading system to help guide healthcare professionals in their decision-making process. It is important to note that the following drugs are known to be harmful and should be avoided: tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, sulphonamides and trimethoprim, quinolones, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin II receptor antagonists, statins, warfarin, sulfonylureas, retinoids (including topical), and cytotoxic agents.

      In addition, the majority of antiepileptics, including valproate, carbamazepine, and phenytoin, are potentially harmful. However, the decision to stop such treatments can be difficult as uncontrolled epilepsy poses its own risks. It is important for healthcare professionals to carefully weigh the potential risks and benefits of any medication before prescribing it to a pregnant patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      41.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A completely well pregnant woman in her 20s comes to see you because...

    Incorrect

    • A completely well pregnant woman in her 20s comes to see you because she has been in contact with a child who has been diagnosed with measles.

      Her exposure to the child was within six days of the onset of rash in the affected child. She has not been immunised against measles and she doesn't think that she has contracted measles in the past.

      How would you manage this woman?

      Your Answer: Advise her to re-attend immediately if she becomes unwell

      Correct Answer: Offer immediate MMR immunisation

      Explanation:

      Managing Measles Exposure in Pregnant Women

      When a pregnant woman is exposed to measles, it is crucial for GPs to know how to respond appropriately. Simply reassuring her that no further action is necessary or to re-attend if she becomes unwell is not enough. Instead, GPs should offer an urgent blood test to check for measles IgG if there is no history of the patient receiving two doses of measles containing vaccine or if she is not known to be immune from previous measles disease.

      If the patient is immune, GPs can reassure her that the risk of measles is low and advise her to contact her GP or midwife if she develops a rash. However, if the patient is non-immune and has been exposed within six days of onset of rash in the suspected or confirmed case, GPs can offer human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG) after checking IgG for measles first rather than giving HNIG empirically.

      It is important to note that pregnant women should not be offered MMR vaccine. Measles infection in pregnancy can lead to intrauterine death and preterm delivery, and severe illness in the mother, but is not associated with congenital infection or damage. While HNIG may not prevent measles, it has been shown to attenuate the illness. However, there is no evidence that it prevents intrauterine death or preterm delivery. By following these guidelines, GPs can effectively manage measles exposure in pregnant women and prevent further harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old man presents with a 72-hour history of lower abdominal pain, dysuria,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a 72-hour history of lower abdominal pain, dysuria, and frequent urination. He has no prior history of urinary issues and no significant medical history. Upon urine dipstick testing, leucocytes and nitrites are positive while blood and protein are negative. What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe oral antibiotics

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, men with symptoms of a lower UTI should receive oral antibiotics such as trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, based on local microbiology protocols. This patient’s dipstick test is positive for nitrites, indicating a UTI, and he should be treated accordingly.

      Intravenous antibiotics are not typically necessary for UTI treatment unless the patient experiences rigors, chills, vomiting, or confusion. Therefore, this option is not appropriate for this patient.

      Men with UTIs should not be routinely referred to urology unless the infection is recurrent. The two-week rule pathway should be followed for patients aged 45 and over with unexplained visible haematuria or aged 60 and over with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test.

      While it may be important to rule out a sexually transmitted infection, this patient’s symptoms suggest a UTI, and there is no indication of an STI in his medical history. Therefore, empirical antibiotics should be administered initially.

      Although it is important to perform a urinary MC+S test to assess for resistant bacteria, antibiotic treatment should not be delayed while waiting for the results. In this case, prompt treatment is necessary to prevent the infection from spreading or causing sepsis.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
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  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of increased clumsiness. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of increased clumsiness. She reports difficulty gripping objects and has spilled her tea on herself multiple times. The woman also mentions feeling extremely fatigued and describes her legs as feeling heavy. She has experienced a few falls, including one where she hit her head. After a neurological exam, the GP suspects motor neurone disease but is considering other diagnoses based on which of the following symptoms or signs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduction in eye movements

      Explanation:

      Motor neurone disease typically spares eye movements, as extraocular eye muscles are often unaffected. The disease is characterized by progressive paralysis, with a mix of upper and lower motor neurone signs that can result in increased or decreased tone and weakness. Fasciculations are a common lower motor neurone sign, while foot drop is an early manifestation of the disease. Patients with MND may also develop bulbar symptoms, such as speech and swallowing difficulties, which can increase their risk of aspiration and pneumonia.

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that is not yet fully understood. It can manifest with both upper and lower motor neuron signs and is rare before the age of 40. There are different patterns of the disease, including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. Some of the clues that may indicate a diagnosis of motor neuron disease include fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs or symptoms, a combination of lower and upper motor neuron signs, and wasting of small hand muscles or tibialis anterior.

      Other features of motor neuron disease include the fact that it doesn’t affect external ocular muscles and there are no cerebellar signs. Abdominal reflexes are usually preserved, and sphincter dysfunction is a late feature if present. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is made based on clinical presentation, but nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy. Electromyography may show a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is often used to rule out cervical cord compression and myelopathy as differential diagnoses. It is important to note that while vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 16 - You see a 40-year-old lady in your GP clinic who has recently started...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 40-year-old lady in your GP clinic who has recently started a new relationship and would like to discuss contraception with you. She is particularly interested in the progesterone-only implant (IMP).

      Which statement below is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The IMP has not been shown to affect bone mineral density

      Explanation:

      The use of Nexplanon® IMP is not limited by age and is licensed for contraception for a period of 3 years. It contains 68 mg etonogestrel and doesn’t pose an increased risk of VTE, stroke, or MI. Additionally, it has not been found to have a significant impact on bone mineral density (BMD). While the progesterone-only injectable contraceptive may initially decrease BMD, this effect is not exacerbated by menopause.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      0
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  • Question 17 - A 6-year-old girl is referred to the enuresis clinic by her pediatrician. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is referred to the enuresis clinic by her pediatrician. Her mother initially contacted the pediatrician concerned with ongoing bedwetting and it turns out that the girl has never had a 'dry night'.

      The pediatrician has provided general advice on diet, fluid intake, and toileting behavior, though the mother says the bedwetting has not resolved. Despite the use of a reward system, the girl still wets the bed at night and the mother is getting worried.

      She speaks to the enuresis clinic and is sent home with an intervention.

      What intervention is likely to be recommended?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      If general advice has not been effective in treating nocturnal enuresis in a child, an enuresis alarm is typically the first-line option recommended by NICE guidelines. However, it may be worth exploring alternative reward systems to ensure the child is motivated to make the necessary effort. It is assumed that the mother can appropriately motivate their child, so this may not be a route taken by the clinic. If the enuresis alarm doesn’t work, pharmacological interventions such as desmopressin, oxybutynin, and unlicensed tolterodine may be considered.

      Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children

      Nocturnal enuresis, also known as bedwetting, is a common condition in children. It is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine during sleep in children aged 5 years or older who have not yet achieved continence. There are two types of nocturnal enuresis: primary and secondary. Primary enuresis occurs when a child has never achieved continence, while secondary enuresis occurs when a child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing nocturnal enuresis, it is important to look for possible underlying causes or triggers such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset urinary tract infections. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Lifting and waking techniques and reward systems, such as star charts, can also be effective.

      The first-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up when they start to wet the bed. If an enuresis alarm is not effective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin can be used for short-term control, such as for sleepovers. It is important to note that reward systems should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights, such as using the toilet to pass urine before sleep. By following these management strategies, children with nocturnal enuresis can achieve continence and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 18 - A 26-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance on how to prevent acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance on how to prevent acute mountain sickness (AMS) during his upcoming Andes expedition. He specifically asks for advice other than gradual ascent. What would be the most suitable recommendation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetazolamide (Diamox)

      Explanation:

      There is evidence to suggest that Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, can be effective in preventing AMS. It is worth noting that there seems to be a link between physical fitness and the likelihood of developing AMS.

      Altitude-related disorders are caused by chronic hypobaric hypoxia at high altitudes and can be classified into three types: acute mountain sickness (AMS), high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE), and high altitude cerebral edema (HACE). AMS is a self-limiting condition that typically occurs above 2,500-3,000m and presents with symptoms such as headache, nausea, and fatigue. Physical fitness may increase the risk of AMS, and gaining altitude at a rate of no more than 500m per day is recommended. Acetazolamide is a commonly used medication to prevent AMS, and descent is the recommended treatment.

      HAPE and HACE are potentially fatal conditions that affect a minority of people above 4,000m. HAPE presents with pulmonary edema symptoms, while HACE presents with headache, ataxia, and papilloedema. The management of both conditions involves descent and the use of medications such as dexamethasone and nifedipine for HAPE, and dexamethasone for HACE. Oxygen may also be used if available. The effectiveness of different treatments for these conditions has only been studied in small trials, but they all seem to work by reducing systolic pulmonary artery pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      0
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  • Question 19 - You encounter a 45-year-old woman in your women's health clinic. She is perimenopausal...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 45-year-old woman in your women's health clinic. She is perimenopausal with irregular periods and some vasomotor symptoms that she is managing well. She had been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) for birth control, but since her divorce, she no longer needs it. However, she has noticed that it helps with her menopausal symptoms, which worsen during the pill-free week, and is hesitant to discontinue it. She has no significant medical history, and her blood pressure and BMI are within normal limits. She has never smoked.

      Which of the following statements regarding the COCP is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The COCP may help to maintain bone mineral density in the perimenopause

      Explanation:

      Using combined hormonal contraceptive pills (CHC) can be beneficial for women in their 40s and beyond. It can reduce menstrual bleeding and pain, as well as alleviate menopausal symptoms. CHC with levonorgestrel or norethisterone are recommended as they have a lower risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other progestogens. However, it is important to note that there are risks associated with CHC use, and women should be informed of these before deciding to use it. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health advises that CHC can be used until age 50, but after that, women should switch to non-hormonal methods as the risks of CHC generally outweigh the benefits. Women who wish to continue using CHC after age 50 should be assessed on an individual basis. Extended or continuous CHC regimens can also be used for contraception and to manage menstrual or menopausal symptoms. Additionally, CHC is associated with a reduced risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer that can last for several decades after stopping use. Finally, CHC may help maintain bone mineral density during the perimenopause compared to not using hormones.

      Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old female presents with pain at the elbow which she has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents with pain at the elbow which she has been aware of for the last two weeks.

      Which of the following would be consistent with a diagnosis of tennis elbow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pain on wrist extension against resistance

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tennis Elbow

      Tennis elbow, also known as lateral epicondylitis, is a condition caused by overuse or strain of the extensor muscles in the forearm. It is most commonly seen in individuals in their fourth decade of life. Symptoms include pain in the lateral epicondyle region during resisted extension of the fingers and wrist.

      Management of tennis elbow involves reducing strenuous activity for at least six weeks, with or without the use of a wrist splint. Local injection with corticosteroid and anaesthetic agents may also be an option. Surgical treatment is only considered for those with persistent symptoms that do not respond to other forms of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 21 - A 27-year-old female patient attends a medication review at the clinic. Upon reviewing...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female patient attends a medication review at the clinic. Upon reviewing her medical history, it is noted that she had a Mirena coil inserted due to menorrhagia. She was previously diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia, which was believed to be caused by heavy periods. She has been taking ferrous sulfate for the past four weeks, and her hemoglobin levels have improved from 110 g/L to 130 g/L. She reports that her heavy periods have significantly improved. The patient inquires whether she should continue taking her iron tablets. As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue iron tablets and recheck full blood count in 3 months, and if normal then stop and monitor full blood count every 3 months for one year

      Explanation:

      As per the current NICE CKS guidance, it is recommended to continue iron replacement for 3 months after correcting iron deficiency anaemia, and then discontinue it.

      However, in the case of this patient, it is too early to stop the iron tablets as it takes at least 3 months for iron stores to replenish. Once the replacement is adequate, prophylactic iron is not necessary as the patient’s menorrhagia has resolved.

      It is important to check haemoglobin levels 2-4 weeks after starting iron tablets, and a rise of approximately 2 g/100 mL over 3-4 weeks is expected. If there is insufficient improvement despite adherence to treatment, specialist referral should be considered. In this patient’s case, the haemoglobin levels have risen adequately, and there is no need for referral.

      Iron deficiency anaemia is a prevalent condition worldwide, with preschool-age children being the most affected. The lack of iron in the body leads to a decrease in red blood cells and haemoglobin, resulting in anaemia. The primary causes of iron deficiency anaemia are excessive blood loss, inadequate dietary intake, poor intestinal absorption, and increased iron requirements. Menorrhagia is the most common cause of blood loss in pre-menopausal women, while gastrointestinal bleeding is the most common cause in men and postmenopausal women. Vegans and vegetarians are more likely to develop iron deficiency anaemia due to the lack of meat in their diet. Coeliac disease and other conditions affecting the small intestine can prevent sufficient iron absorption. Children and pregnant women have increased iron demands, and the latter may experience dilution due to an increase in plasma volume.

      The symptoms of iron deficiency anaemia include fatigue, shortness of breath on exertion, palpitations, pallor, nail changes, hair loss, atrophic glossitis, post-cricoid webs, and angular stomatitis. To diagnose iron deficiency anaemia, a full blood count, serum ferritin, total iron-binding capacity, transferrin, and blood film tests are performed. Endoscopy may be necessary to rule out malignancy, especially in males and postmenopausal females with unexplained iron-deficiency anaemia.

      The management of iron deficiency anaemia involves identifying and treating the underlying cause. Oral ferrous sulfate is commonly prescribed, and patients should continue taking iron supplements for three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to replenish iron stores. Iron-rich foods such as dark-green leafy vegetables, meat, and iron-fortified bread can also help. It is crucial to exclude malignancy by taking an adequate history and appropriate investigations if warranted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 22 - A 26-year-old man comes to you with complaints of a persistent sore throat...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man comes to you with complaints of a persistent sore throat and occasional hoarseness that has been bothering him for a few months. He expresses concern that there may be something lodged in his throat, but he is able to swallow without difficulty. He denies any significant weight loss and has no notable medical or family history.

      During your examination, you observe mild redness in the oropharynx, but the neck appears normal and there are no palpable masses.

      What would be the best course of action in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a trial of a proton pump inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Understanding Laryngopharyngeal Reflux

      Laryngopharyngeal reflux (LPR) is a condition that occurs when stomach acid flows back into the throat, causing inflammation in the larynx and hypopharynx mucosa. It is a common diagnosis, accounting for approximately 10% of ear, nose, and throat referrals. Symptoms of LPR include a sensation of a lump in the throat, hoarseness, chronic cough, dysphagia, heartburn, and sore throat. The external examination of the neck should be normal, with no masses, and the posterior pharynx may appear erythematous.

      Diagnosis of LPR can be made without further investigations in the absence of red flags. However, the NICE cancer referral guidelines should be reviewed for red flags such as persistent, unilateral throat discomfort, dysphagia, and persistent hoarseness. Lifestyle measures such as avoiding fatty foods, caffeine, chocolate, and alcohol can help manage LPR. Additionally, proton pump inhibitors and sodium alginate liquids like Gaviscon can also be used to manage symptoms.

      In summary, Laryngopharyngeal reflux is a common condition that can cause discomfort and inflammation in the throat. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if red flags are present. Lifestyle measures and medication can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 23 - In a nursing home, an outbreak of diarrhoea and vomiting has occurred, starting...

    Incorrect

    • In a nursing home, an outbreak of diarrhoea and vomiting has occurred, starting with residents and quickly spreading to staff. Which organism is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Norovirus

      Explanation:

      Norovirus Gastroenteritis: Symptoms, Incubation Period, and Prevention

      Norovirus gastroenteritis, commonly known as winter vomiting disease, is a highly contagious illness that often occurs during the winter season. However, outbreaks can happen anytime and in various settings, including hospitals, nursing homes, schools, military establishments, and cruise ships. The incubation period ranges from 12 to 48 hours, with symptoms such as fever, nausea, vomiting, watery diarrhea, and abdominal pain. The disease is self-limiting and usually lasts between 12 and 60 hours. While it poses a risk to frail or immunocompromised individuals, strict hygiene measures can prevent the spread of the virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 24 - A 20-year-old male presents at your clinic with symptoms resembling the flu. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male presents at your clinic with symptoms resembling the flu. He has recently been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and seeks guidance on managing his diabetes during illness. What is one of the 'sick-day rules' that insulin-dependent diabetics should follow when they are sick?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aim to drink at least 3L of fluid

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that patients consume a minimum of 3 liters of fluids within a 24-hour period. Patients should maintain their regular insulin routine but monitor their blood glucose levels more frequently, making options 1 and 2 incorrect. It is not advisable to replace main meals with sugary foods, but if a patient is having difficulty eating, they may consume sugary beverages. Additionally, ketone levels should be checked more frequently, every 3-4 hours or more frequently based on the results.

      Managing Diabetes Mellitus during Illness: Sick Day Rules

      When a patient with diabetes mellitus becomes unwell, it is important to provide them with key messages to manage their condition. Increasing the frequency of blood glucose monitoring to at least four hourly is crucial, as well as encouraging fluid intake of at least 3 litres in 24 hours. If the patient is struggling to eat, sugary drinks may be necessary to maintain carbohydrate intake. Educating patients to have a box of sick day supplies can also be helpful. Access to a mobile phone has been shown to reduce the progression of ketosis to diabetic ketoacidosis.

      Patients taking oral hypoglycemic medication should continue taking their medication even if they are not eating much. However, metformin should be stopped if the patient is becoming dehydrated due to its potential impact on renal function. Patients on insulin must not stop taking it, as this can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis. They should continue their normal insulin regime and check their blood sugars frequently. If ketone levels are raised and blood sugars are also raised, corrective doses of insulin may be necessary. The corrective dose varies by patient, but a rule of thumb is the total daily insulin dose divided by 6 (maximum 15 units).

      Possible indications for hospital admission include suspicion of underlying illness requiring hospital treatment, inability to keep fluids down for more than a few hours, persistent diarrhea, significant ketosis in an insulin-dependent diabetic despite additional insulin, blood glucose persistently >20 mmol/l despite additional insulin, patient unable to manage adjustments to usual diabetes management, and lack of support at home (e.g., a patient who lives alone and is at risk of becoming unconscious). By following these sick day rules, patients with diabetes mellitus can better manage their condition during illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 25 - A teenager presents with rash which clinically looks like Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP).
    Which statement...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager presents with rash which clinically looks like Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP).
      Which statement is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The condition normally lasts six months

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schönlein Purpura: Symptoms and Duration

      Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP) is a condition characterized by a rash on the back and thighs that is palpable and non-blanching, but is a non-thrombocytopenic purpura. Children with HSP may experience abdominal pain and bloody stools, which are cardinal symptoms of the disease. The kidneys are also often involved, and patients may have frank haematuria. The disease typically lasts about four weeks and resolves spontaneously.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 26 - A 29-year-old male presents with persistent fatigue, myalgia, poor concentration and irritability following...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old male presents with persistent fatigue, myalgia, poor concentration and irritability following a flu like illness 18 months previously.

      A diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is made.

      What is the appropriate initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychoanalysis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Chronic Fatigue Syndrome

      Chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) is a debilitating condition that affects many individuals. To receive a diagnosis of CFS, a patient must have severe chronic fatigue lasting four months or longer (three months in children or young people) and have other medical conditions excluded by clinical diagnosis. Additionally, they must have four or more of the following symptoms: impaired memory or concentration, sore throat, tender lymph nodes, muscle pain, joint pain without swelling or redness, headaches, unrefreshing sleep, or post-exertional malaise lasting more than 24 hours.

      For those with mild or moderate CFS, cognitive behavioral therapy and/or graded exercise therapy should be offered and provided to those who choose these approaches. These interventions have the clearest research evidence of benefit. Other treatment options have not been shown to be effective in treating CFS. It is important for individuals with CFS to work with their healthcare provider to find the best treatment plan for their specific needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old man rapidly develops fever (39oC), sore throat, dry cough, malaise, widespread...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man rapidly develops fever (39oC), sore throat, dry cough, malaise, widespread muscle and joint aches and retro-orbital headache.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: influenza

      Explanation:

      influenza: Causes, Symptoms, and Impact

      influenza, commonly known as the flu, is a viral infection that affects up to 15% of the population each year. The virus undergoes minor mutations, known as antigenic drift, which causes seasonal epidemics. In some cases, major changes in antigens can produce a new virus subtype, known as antigenic shift, which can result in a major epidemic due to little population immunity.

      Symptoms of influenza include fever, cough, sore throat, body aches, and fatigue. While most cases are mild, the virus can be highly infectious with a ratio of infections to clinical cases between 3:1 and 9:1. In an average year, there are 50-200 GP consultations for influenza or flu-like illnesses per 100,000 of the population per week.

      influenza can have a significant impact on mortality rates, with more than 20,000 deaths worldwide each year. During epidemics, this number can be much higher. Typically, seasonal influenza has a greater effect on mortality rates in the elderly, while swine flu tends to affect children and young adults.

      While influenza is the most likely cause of flu-like symptoms, other conditions should also be considered in the differential diagnosis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or if there are underlying health conditions that may increase the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 28 - Which renal disorder is most likely to occur in elderly patients with gouty...

    Incorrect

    • Which renal disorder is most likely to occur in elderly patients with gouty arthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urolithiasis

      Explanation:

      Gout and Kidney Disease: Prevalence and Risks

      Gout, a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, is associated with an increased risk of kidney disease. The prevalence of nephrolithiasis (kidney stones) in people with gout is higher than in the general population, and chronic urate nephropathy can lead to inflammation and fibrosis in the kidneys. Screening for kidney disease is important for patients with gout, as the prevalence of CKD stage ≥3 is 24%. However, end-stage CKD is less common in gout patients. It is important to note that glomerulosclerosis is associated with diabetes mellitus, while glomerulonephritis is an acute inflammation of the kidney caused by an immune response, and pyelonephritis is due to bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 29 - You are requested to evaluate an elderly patient with advanced esophageal cancer. The...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate an elderly patient with advanced esophageal cancer. The patient has metastatic cancer and is receiving palliative care with home visits. The patient reports increasing trouble in swallowing over the past few weeks, which is now hindering their ability to consume food properly. The patient describes the feeling of food getting stuck while swallowing. There is no pain while swallowing. What is the most suitable treatment to alleviate these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Managing Dysphagia in Palliative Care

      When managing dysphagia in a palliative care setting, it is crucial to identify the underlying cause of the condition. Depending on the cause, different treatments may be necessary. For instance, a physical obstruction caused by a tumour may require a corticosteroid such as dexamethasone, while oesophageal spasm may respond to a muscle relaxant like nifedipine or baclofen.

      In the case of a patient with oesophageal cancer who experiences progressive difficulty in swallowing and food getting stuck on the way down, the most likely cause is a gradually enlarging tumour mass causing obstruction and progressive dysphagia. In this scenario, dexamethasone is the most appropriate treatment to prescribe.

      It is worth noting that oesophageal spasm typically causes odynophagia in addition to dysphagia. Therefore, a careful assessment of the patient’s symptoms and medical history is necessary to determine the most effective treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 30 - An 80-year-old gentleman presents to you with a complaint of a change in...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old gentleman presents to you with a complaint of a change in bowel habit. He reports that over the last 1-2 months he has gone from having firm stools passed once a day to looser stools passed 3-4 times a day. He has noticed some vague lower abdominal pains and has lost 2-3 kilograms in weight, he denies any blood loss per rectum or black stools. He says he otherwise feels OK. He was seen about 2 weeks ago by a colleague who sent a stool sample to the lab and ordered some initial investigations.

      On examination, you note pale conjunctiva and angular stomatitis, you cannot elicit any focal abdominal signs and rectal examination is normal.

      The stool sample was negative and the bloods have revealed a haemoglobin of 94 g/L (normal range 125-165). Thyroid function, renal function, liver function and coeliac screen are all normal. ESR is 68 (normal <20). You are expecting the ferritin to be low, but it returns as 568 (normal range 15-300). On further review of the full blood count you note an MCV of 72.6 (normal range 76-96). The remainder of the full blood count including white blood cell count and platelet count are within normal limits.

      You refer the patient urgently for colorectal investigation.

      Which of the following further blood investigations will most likely help determine the underlying cause of this patient's anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune screen

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of Blood Results in a Patient with Suspected Colorectal Malignancy

      In this case, a patient presents with symptoms suggestive of a colorectal malignancy and iron deficiency, with a microcytic anaemia. Urgent referral for lower GI investigation is necessary.

      Upon examination of the blood results, an elevated ESR and ferritin are present, indicating an underlying systemic condition causing inflammation or infection. However, the GI malignancy is the likely cause of these elevations. It is important to note that ferritin is an acute phase respondent and may not necessarily rule out iron deficiency. Therefore, serum iron and total iron binding capacity tests are necessary to confirm iron deficiency.

      B12 deficiency and haemolytic anaemia can cause elevated MCV measurements, but they are not the most likely underlying diagnoses in this case. A haemoglobinopathy, such as thalassaemia, could also cause microcytic anaemia, but it is not the most probable option based on the patient’s presentation. Vasculitis or other autoimmune conditions are also unlikely based on the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Children And Young People (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Kidney And Urology (2/2) 100%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (0/1) 0%
Genomic Medicine (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Equality, Diversity And Inclusion (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
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