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Question 1
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient visits the clinic with symptoms of diarrhoea and a stool culture is ordered. The microbiology laboratory at the nearby hospital sends you the results. Can you identify which of the following is not a part of the normal flora found in the large bowel and faecal matter?
Your Answer: Shigella spp
Explanation:Shigella and Other Pathogenic Organisms in the Colon
Shigella is a bacterium that attaches itself to the lining of the colon and can lead to dysentery. While other organisms may also be present in the colon, they typically do not cause harm unless antibiotic therapy is administered. In such cases, these organisms may grow uncontrollably and become pathogenic, resulting in conditions such as antibiotic-associated colitis. Therefore, it is important to monitor the presence of these organisms in the colon and use antibiotics judiciously to prevent the development of harmful infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which nerve provides the motor supply to the brachialis muscle?
Your Answer: Median and musculocutaneous nerve
Correct Answer: Radial and musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation:The Brachialis Muscle: Anatomy and Innervation
The brachialis muscle is responsible for flexing the forearm and is located in the anterior half of the humerus and intermuscular septa. It attaches to the coronoid process and tuberosity of the ulna at the elbow joint. The main nerve supply for the brachialis muscle is the musculocutaneous nerve, with C6 and radial nerve also playing a role. Additionally, the lateral part of the brachialis muscle is supplied by branches from the C7 root. Overall, the brachialis muscle is an important muscle for forearm flexion and is innervated by multiple nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 3
Correct
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What is the way in which trimethoprim works?
Your Answer: Inhibition of folic acid metabolism
Explanation:Trimethoprim Mechanism of Action
Trimethoprim works by inhibiting the activity of an enzyme called dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR). This enzyme is responsible for converting dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid, which is a crucial step in the synthesis of purines and DNA in bacteria. By blocking DHFR, trimethoprim disrupts the bacterial cell’s ability to produce these essential components, ultimately leading to the inhibition of bacterial growth and replication. This mechanism of action makes trimethoprim an effective antibiotic for treating bacterial infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a patient who seems to have aspirated a coin. Do you anticipate the coin to be stuck in the right main bronchus based on your assessment? At what level on the chest x-ray would you expect to observe the coin if it is lodged in the right main bronchus?
Your Answer: T2/T3
Correct Answer: T4/T5
Explanation:Anatomy of the Lower Respiratory Tract
The lower respiratory tract is composed of two main structures: the trachea and the bronchial tree. The trachea is approximately 10-12 cm in length and divides into the left and right bronchus at the carina, which is located at the level of the sternal angle. This junction is situated at the second right costal cartilage and the manubrium sternum, around the T4/5 level.
The left main bronchus travels downwards and laterally, passing beneath the arch of the aorta and anterior to the thoracic aorta and esophagus. It eventually reaches the hilum of the lung and divides into two lobar bronchi. On the other hand, the right main bronchus is wider, shorter, and runs more vertically than the left main bronchus. It passes directly to the hilum of the lung and divides into three lobar bronchi.
If a foreign object is inhaled, it is more likely to enter the right lung through the right main bronchus. This is because the right main bronchus is wider and more vertical than the left main bronchus. An x-ray can detect the foreign object below the T4/5 level, which is the point of bifurcation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 5
Correct
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Which statement accurately describes the alternative hypothesis in a randomized controlled trial comparing drug A to placebo for treating nocturnal enuresis?
Your Answer: The alternative hypothesis is assumed to be incorrect until proven otherwise
Explanation:Null and Alternative Hypotheses in Statistical Hypothesis Testing
In statistical hypothesis testing, we use null and alternative hypotheses to determine whether there is a significant difference or association between the variables we are interested in. The null hypothesis assumes that there is no difference or association, while the alternative hypothesis assumes that there is.
When conducting hypothesis testing, we start by assuming that the null hypothesis is true and calculate the probability (p value) of observing the actual results under this assumption. If the p value is less than 5% (p<0.05), we reject the null hypothesis and accept the alternative hypothesis. It is important to note that neither the null nor alternative hypothesis is more likely to be true than the other. The purpose of hypothesis testing is to determine which hypothesis is more supported by the data. By using statistical methods to test our hypotheses, we can make informed decisions and draw conclusions based on the evidence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has been referred for investigation of Peutz-Jegher syndrome due to his family history. His grandmother passed away at the age of 30 from colonic carcinoma associated with the syndrome. What is the most probable mode of inheritance for Peutz-Jegher syndrome?
Your Answer: Autosomal recessive
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Peutz-Jegher Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder with Pigmentation and Bowel Abnormalities
Peutz-Jegher syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by the presence of perioral pigmentation and multiple hamartomas in the bowel. Initially, it was believed that these hamartomas did not increase the risk of developing cancer. However, recent studies have shown that individuals with Peutz-Jegher syndrome are at an increased risk of developing various types of cancer, including breast, colon, and pancreatic cancer. This condition is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, which means that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the mutated gene from one parent to develop the disorder. Regular screening and surveillance are recommended for individuals with Peutz-Jegher syndrome to detect any potential cancerous growths early on.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 7
Correct
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A study examines the effectiveness of a new antiplatelet agent versus aspirin in preventing stroke in a diabetic population over a ten year period. The results show that the incidence of stroke in the aspirin treated group is 6%, while the group treated with the new drug has a rate of 3% (p <0.001). What is the relative risk reduction in stroke associated with the new medication?
Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:Relative Risk Reduction in Medical Publications
When reading medical publications, it is important to understand the concept of relative risk reduction. This calculation compares the risk of an event occurring in one group (such as patients taking a new medication) to the risk in another group (such as patients taking a standard medication).
For example, if a study found that a new medication reduced the risk of stroke by 1.5%, compared to a standard medication, the absolute risk reduction would be 1.5%. However, the relative risk reduction would be 50%, because the new medication reduced the risk of stroke by half compared to the standard medication.
It is important to note that while a relative risk reduction may sound impressive, it is crucial to also consider the absolute risk reduction. In the example above, while the relative risk reduction is 50%, the actual number of strokes prevented is only 15 per 1000 patients treated. both the relative and absolute risk reduction can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following is passed down in an autosomal dominant manner?
Your Answer: Beta thalassaemia
Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis
Explanation:Genetic Disorders
Neurofibromatosis is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, meaning that only one copy of the abnormal gene is needed to develop the condition. Beta thalassaemia, on the other hand, is a recessively inherited disorder. If an individual has one copy of the abnormal gene, they are said to have thalassaemia minor, while those with two copies develop thalassaemia major. Prader-Willi syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that is characterized by insatiable appetite, hyperglycaemia, and short stature. Finally, Down’s syndrome is another chromosomal disorder that affects individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 9
Correct
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Which nerve root is associated with the ankle reflex test performed during a neurological examination of the lower limbs where the foot is held in external rotation, the knee is flexed, and the Achilles tendon is struck with a tendon hammer while observing the calf?
Your Answer: Tibial nerve S1, S2
Explanation:The Tibial Nerve and Ankle Reflex
The ankle reflex is controlled by the tibial nerve, which originates from the S1 and S2 nerve roots. This nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve and is responsible for supplying the posterior muscles of the leg and knee joint. The tibial nerve forms in the popliteal fossa and runs downwards on the tibialis posterior.
As it travels, the tibial nerve provides sensation and motor function to the muscles in the leg and knee joint. It terminates by dividing into the medial and lateral plantar nerves. These nerves are responsible for providing sensation to the sole of the foot and controlling the muscles that move the foot and toes.
Overall, the tibial nerve plays a crucial role in the ankle reflex and the overall function of the leg and foot. Its proper functioning is essential for maintaining balance and mobility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the function of aldosterone in the kidney?
Your Answer: Excrete sodium and retain potassium
Correct Answer: Retain sodium and excrete potassium
Explanation:The Role of Aldosterone in Sodium and Potassium Balance
Aldosterone is a hormone that plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of sodium and potassium in the body. It works by retaining sodium while excreting potassium. This process is the final stage of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis, which is activated when there is reduced blood flow to the kidneys. The goal of this axis is to increase fluid volume by retaining sodium and water.
To maintain electrochemical balance, it is necessary to excrete potassium while retaining sodium. This is because sodium is the primary ion responsible for maintaining fluid balance, while potassium is essential for proper muscle and nerve function. Therefore, aldosterone acts to retain sodium at the expense of potassium, ensuring that the body maintains the proper balance of these two ions.
In summary, aldosterone is a hormone that plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of sodium and potassium in the body. It works by retaining sodium while excreting potassium, which is necessary for proper fluid and electrolyte balance. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis is activated when there is reduced blood flow to the kidneys, and its goal is to increase fluid volume by retaining sodium and water.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 70-year-old man with a history of two previous TIAs and an inferior myocardial infarction. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 40 cigarettes per day. You suspect the presence of an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) and are curious about the typical characteristics of a large AAA that has not yet ruptured.
Your Answer: Severe back pain
Correct Answer: Distal lower limb emboli and chronic ischaemia
Explanation:Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a dilation or widening of the arterial wall, usually resulting from a weakness. Most AAAs are infrarenal and fusiform, with saccular aneurysms involving a localized out-pocketing. They are often asymptomatic but can cause severe pain and have a high mortality rate if ruptured. Ischemia-related erectile dysfunction is not typically associated with expanding AAA, and progressive renal failure is more likely due to renovascular disease or hypertensive nephropathy. Back pain and weight loss are not features of AAA, and a stable AAA should not cause mesenteric ischemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a myocardial infarction. Upon assessment, the nursing staff observes her blood pressure to be 90/50 mmHg and her pulse to be only 32. The ECG confirms that she is experiencing complete heart block. As you attempt to determine the location of the MI, you consider the typical position of the sinoatrial node, which serves as the cardiac pacemaker.
Your Answer: In the right atrium near the entrance of the inferior vena cava
Correct Answer: In the right atrium near the entrance of the superior vena cava
Explanation:The Conducting System of the Heart
The conducting system of the heart is responsible for initiating and coordinating the contractions of the heart muscle. It begins at the sinoatrial (SA) node, which is located in the right atrium and acts as the cardiac pacemaker. The SA node produces the first contraction signal, which rapidly propagates through the walls of both atria. This signal is then picked up by the atrioventricular (AV) node, located in the interatrial septum near the opening of the coronary sinus. The AV bundle runs along the septum, allowing conduction to pass through the insulating fibrous skeleton of the heart. The AV bundle divides into right and left bundles, which then divide into subendocardial branches (Purkinje fibres) that extend into the walls of the respective ventricles, allowing for contraction of the ventricles.
The SA node and AV node are supplied by the right coronary artery in most people, but can also be supplied by the circumflex branch of the left coronary artery. Damage to these nodes can be temporary and recoverable, but anterior wall myocardial infarctions (MIs) can cause permanent damage to the conducting system, requiring a permanent pacemaker. In cases where the normal conduction system fails, an escape rhythm may originate in the ventricles, producing a wide complex escape rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Activation of which receptor is believed to enhance the activity of brown fat, resulting in the production of heat/energy?
Your Answer: Alpha-2 receptor
Correct Answer: Beta-3 receptor
Explanation:The Role of Beta-3 Adrenoceptors and Brown Fat Cells in Energy Metabolism
The beta-3 adrenoceptor found on brown fat cells is believed to play a crucial role in increasing lipolysis and thermogenesis. However, despite the potential benefits, beta-3 adrenoreceptor agonists that have been tested so far have not shown any significant impact on weight loss or energy expenditure.
In the past, fat was considered to be an inactive substance. However, recent research has revealed that fat is actually an endocrine organ that produces hormones that regulate energy metabolism. This discovery has shed new light on the complex mechanisms involved in maintaining a healthy weight and has opened up new avenues for exploring potential treatments for obesity and related conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 14
Correct
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In a clinical trial of statin therapy for the secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease, it was found that the therapy reduced cardiovascular mortality from 12% to 8% over a period of five years.
Assuming standard therapy as the baseline, what is the number of patients that need to be treated with statin therapy to prevent one death over five years?Your Answer: 25
Explanation:The Effectiveness of a Drug in Reducing Post-Myocardial Infarction Mortality
The drug has been found to decrease the likelihood of death after a myocardial infarction by 4% over a period of five years. This means that if 100 individuals were treated with the drug, we could expect to prevent four deaths. In other words, for every 25 people treated with the drug, one death could be prevented. This information highlights the potential benefits of this drug in reducing mortality rates in individuals who have experienced a myocardial infarction. It is important to note, however, that this drug may not be suitable for everyone and should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 15
Correct
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A 57-year-old man is currently admitted to the ward following a fundoplication procedure for a hiatus hernia. He has been experiencing worsening chest and epigastric pain 48 hours after the operation, and a chest x-ray has revealed bilateral small pleural effusions. As a healthcare provider, you are concerned about the possibility of oesophageal perforation. Considering the patient's recent fundoplication, where would you anticipate the most probable site of oesophageal perforation to be?
Your Answer: T10
Explanation:The Anatomy and Function of the Oesophagus and Gastro-Oesophageal Junction
The oesophagus is a muscular tube that runs from the pharynx to the stomach, measuring approximately 25 cm in length and 2 cm in diameter. Its muscle layer is arranged in both longitudinal and circular orientations and can be divided into thirds, with the top third being striated, the middle third being mixed striated and smooth, and the bottom third being completely smooth. The oesophagus enters the abdomen via the oesophageal hiatus in the diaphragm and continues for a further 2-3 cm before reaching the gastro-oesophageal junction.
The gastro-oesophageal junction is a specialised area of circular muscle that permits the passage of food by relaxing during swallowing. It is also where the non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium mucosa changes to simple columnar epithelium. A hiatus hernia occurs when the gastro-oesophageal junction and/or part of the stomach protrudes through a defect in the diaphragm into the thorax, causing acid reflux and inflammation.
Treatment for a hiatus hernia typically involves medication such as antacids, Gaviscon, H2 antagonists, and proton pump inhibitors. However, if the hernia is large or symptoms persist, surgery may be necessary. Nissen’s fundoplication is a surgical procedure that involves pulling the hernia back into the abdomen, repairing the hole in the diaphragm, and wrapping the stomach around the abdominal portion of the oesophagus to increase pressure and prevent reflux.
In conclusion, the oesophagus and gastro-oesophageal junction play important roles in the digestive system. their anatomy and function can help diagnose and treat conditions such as hiatus hernia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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The following laboratory results were returned in a 7-week-old girl admitted with six days of severe projectile vomiting:
pH 7.51 (7.36-7.44)
PO2 12 KPa/95 mmHg (11.3-12.6)
PCO2 4.7 KPa/35 mmHg (4.7-6.0)
Blood Urea 11 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Na+ 131 mmol/L (137-144)
K+ 3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Chloride 83 mmol/L (95-107)
What is true concerning this patient?Your Answer: An x ray of the abdomen is likely to show dilated loops of small bowel
Correct Answer: He should be resuscitated immediately with normal saline
Explanation:Diagnosis and Treatment of a Dehydrated Infant with Pyloric Stenosis
When diagnosing a dehydrated infant, it is important to consider the biochemical picture. In the case of a hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis, pyloric stenosis is highly likely. This occurs due to high sodium and proton losses from gastric fluids, leading to compensatory increased renal potassium excretion to conserve H+. It is important to note that this is a metabolic, rather than respiratory alkalosis, as CO2 is not reduced.
One physical symptom to look out for in a dehydrated infant with pyloric stenosis is a sunken fontanelle. This occurs due to severe dehydration. When treating this condition, it is recommended to resuscitate the infant with normal saline first. It is not expected to see a dilated bowel, as pyloric obstruction is present rather than small bowel obstruction. Overall, it is important to consider the biochemical and physical symptoms when diagnosing and treating a dehydrated infant with pyloric stenosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 17
Correct
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You are requested to assess a 76-year-old female patient who has been admitted with severe diarrhea. She had recently undergone a course of ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection and reports that the diarrhea started a few days after starting the antibiotics. Upon examination, she appears severely dehydrated and has a BP of 130/80 mmHg, with a 30 mmHg postural drop and an elevated pulse rate. You suspect that she may be suffering from Clostridium difficile infection. What measures can be taken to reduce its spread?
Your Answer: Patients should be barrier nursed, and staff should use infectious precautions
Explanation:The SIGHT Protocol for Dealing with Clostridium Difficile Infection
The SIGHT protocol provides guidelines for proper barrier nursing, use of protective gear, and effective hand washing when dealing with patients suspected of having Clostridium difficile infection. Patients with suspected C. difficile should be isolated, and if the infection is confirmed, they should remain isolated until they are free of diarrhea for at least 48 hours. It is important to note that alcohol hand rub should never be used as a substitute for thorough hand washing. Additionally, it is crucial to list Clostridium difficile as the cause of death on the death certificate for monitoring purposes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the estimated occurrence rate of congenital talipes equinovarus?
Your Answer: 1 in 100,000 live births
Correct Answer: 1 in 1000 live births
Explanation:Talipes Equinovarus Deformity: A Common Congenital Orthopaedic Abnormality
Talipes equinovarus deformity is a relatively common congenital orthopaedic abnormality, occurring in about 1 in 1000 live births. This condition is also known as clubfoot, and it is characterized by a foot that is turned inward and downward. The deformity can affect one or both feet and can range from mild to severe.
Despite being a congenital condition, the exact cause of talipes equinovarus is not fully understood. However, it is believed to be a combination of genetic and environmental factors. The condition can be diagnosed during pregnancy through ultrasound, and treatment typically involves a combination of stretching, casting, and bracing. In severe cases, surgery may be necessary.
Overall, while talipes equinovarus deformity can be a challenging condition to manage, early diagnosis and treatment can lead to successful outcomes and improved quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue. She has a history of primary hypothyroidism and is currently on a daily dose of 150 micrograms of thyroxine. What is the most effective test for evaluating the adequacy of thyroid hormone replacement in primary hypothyroidism?
Your Answer: Free T3 and T4 concentrations
Correct Answer: TSH
Explanation:The Significance of Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone in Assessing Thyroid Status
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is a highly sensitive indicator of thyroid status. A normal TSH result indicates that thyroid hormone replacement is adequate and that the individual is in a state of euthyroidism. On the other hand, an elevated TSH level with normal thyroid hormone concentrations may suggest poor compliance with medication, while a suppressed TSH level with normal high thyroxine (T4) levels may indicate over-replacement. Therefore, TSH plays a crucial role in assessing thyroid function and ensuring appropriate management of thyroid disorders. Proper interpretation of TSH results can guide clinicians in making informed decisions regarding medication dosages and treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man who lives alone and prepares his own food is discovered to have multiple ecchymotic haemorrhagic areas surrounding his hair follicles. The hairs are broken, and various haematomas are present in the muscles of his arms and legs. Other than the absence of teeth, the remainder of the physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory testing reveals a normal prothrombin time, APTT, and a full blood count that is normal except for a haematocrit of 28%. Which deficiency is most likely to account for this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Vitamin K
Correct Answer: Vitamin C
Explanation:Scurvy: Symptoms and Causes
Scurvy is a medical condition that occurs due to a lack of vitamin C in the diet. This deficiency leads to impaired collagen synthesis, which can cause a range of symptoms. The most common signs of scurvy include gum swelling, bleeding, and infection, as well as loose teeth and mucosal petechiae. In severe cases, patients may also experience scleral icterus, which is a yellowing of the eyes, and pale conjunctiva. Children with scurvy may suffer from fractures, dislocations, and tenderness of bones, while bleeding into muscles and joints is also possible.
One of the most recognizable symptoms of scurvy is the appearance of the skin. Patients may develop perifollicular hyperkeratotic papules, which are small bumps around hair follicles. They may also experience perifollicular haemorrhages, which are small spots of bleeding around hair follicles. Other skin symptoms include purpura, which is a rash of purple spots, and ecchymoses, which are larger areas of bruising.
In conclusion, scurvy is a serious medical condition that can cause a range of symptoms. It is caused by a lack of vitamin C in the diet, which leads to impaired collagen synthesis. If left untreated, scurvy can cause significant damage to the body, including bleeding, infection, and bone fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 21
Correct
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A 40-year-old man presents with complaints of weakness and fatigue. Upon examination, his blood pressure is found to be 145/100 mm Hg. Further testing reveals hypokalaemia and hypomagnesaemia. What diagnostic investigation would you choose to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Plasma renin to aldosterone ratio
Explanation:Underlying Causes of Hypertension in Young Patients
Hypertension in young patients may have underlying secondary causes, as illustrated in this scenario. The patient in question was diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, a relatively common cause of hypertension. This condition is characterized by high levels of aldosterone, suppressed renin, alkalosis, low potassium and magnesium, and normal or high sodium levels.
It is important to consider differential diagnoses, such as renal artery stenosis, when evaluating young patients with hypertension. Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by adrenal adenoma (Conn’s syndrome), adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma (rare), or glucocorticoid deficiency (also known as glucocorticoid-remediable aldosteronism). It is important to note that glucocorticoid deficiency only affects cortisol levels, leading to increased ACTH levels and aldosterone production. This is different from Addison’s disease, which involves deficiencies in both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid hormones.
In conclusion, hypertension in young patients may have underlying secondary causes, and it is important to consider differential diagnoses when evaluating these patients. Primary hyperaldosteronism is a common cause of hypertension and can be caused by various factors, including adrenal adenoma, adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma, and glucocorticoid deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 22
Correct
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A 25-year-old female patient complains of a painful cystic lump that is discharging caseous/white material and appears erythematosus, located to the left of her vaginal opening. Based on your knowledge of anatomy, what type of cyst is most likely causing these symptoms?
Your Answer: Bartholin's cyst
Explanation:Anatomy of the Female Genitalia
The female genitalia is composed of various structures that serve different functions. The labia majora are folds of skin that provide protection for the urethral and vaginal orifices. On the other hand, the labia minora are hairless skin folds that surround the vestibule of the vagina. The vestibule is the space between the labia minora that contains the openings of the urethra, vagina, and ducts of the greater and lesser vestibular glands.
The greater vestibular glands, also known as Bartholin’s gland, are located on each side of the vestibule and produce a small amount of mucous-like fluid. The fluid helps keep the entrance to the vagina moist. The ducts of these glands pass deep to the bulbs of the vestibule and drain down a short tube called the Bartholin’s gland duct. However, if the duct becomes blocked, a fluid-filled swelling called a cyst may develop. The size of the cyst can vary from small to as big as a golf ball.
In summary, the female genitalia is composed of various structures that work together to perform different functions. the anatomy of the female genitalia is important in maintaining good reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 23
Correct
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In the context of acid-base balance, what compensatory mechanisms would be observed in an individual who has a pH of 7.20 (normal range: 7.35-7.45) and is experiencing metabolic acidosis?
Your Answer: Increased respiratory rate
Explanation:Compensation Mechanisms in Metabolic Acidosis
In metabolic acidosis, the level of bicarbonate in the blood is low, which is not a compensation. To counteract this, the body increases the respiratory rate to lower the level of CO2 in the blood, resulting in a respiratory alkalosis. This compensatory mechanism is aimed at increasing the blood pH. However, there is a limit to how much the increased respiratory rate can compensate for the metabolic acidosis.
In summary, the body has several mechanisms to compensate for metabolic acidosis, including respiratory alkalosis. While an increased respiratory rate can help to increase the blood pH, it is not a complete solution and has its limits. these compensation mechanisms is important in diagnosing and treating metabolic acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 24
Correct
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What is the significant transformation that takes place enabling children to synthesize their own vitamin K?
Your Answer: Gastrointestinal bacterial colonisation
Explanation:Vitamin K in Newborns and Adults
Most of the vitamin K in adults is produced through the metabolism of precursors by intestinal bacteria. However, newborns are vitamin K deficient for several reasons, including immature hepatic metabolism, low placental transfer, and no oral intake of vitamin K or its precursors. As a result, all newborns receive intramuscular vitamin K, often within the delivery room, to reduce the risk of vitamin K deficiency bleeding, which can lead to intracerebral bleeding and other serious complications.
The production of vitamin K in adults is influenced by the development of hepatic metabolic enzymes and the colonization of intestinal bacteria during the first year of life. Small bowel length is typically not a limiting factor in normal children, although some infants may experience a short bowel syndrome after surgical resection of major sections of bowel. Despite these differences, there is no significant change in the portal circulation, renal clearance, or breakdown of clotting factors between newborns and adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 25
Correct
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What changes occur in the flow of blood through the heart within the first 24 hours after birth?
Your Answer: Increase in pulmonary arterial flow
Explanation:Pulmonary Resistance and Blood Flow Changes at Birth
At birth, the entry of air into the lungs causes the lung tissue to expand, resulting in a significant reduction in pulmonary arterial resistance. This reduction in resistance leads to an increase in pulmonary arterial flow, which in turn reduces right-sided heart pressure and facilitates increased arterial flow into the lungs. As a result, blood flow into the left ventricle increases, causing left-side pressures to exceed right-side pressures. This reversal of flow in the foramen ovale, from right-to-left to left-to-right, stimulates permanent closure of the foramen, reducing right-to-left shunting.
Furthermore, the fall in pulmonary resistance causes a rise in pulmonary arterial flow, which leads to a decrease in heart rate. Although there may be a temporary increase in heart rate during birth, the heart rate falls progressively from the third trimester. Overall, the reduction in pulmonary resistance and subsequent increase in pulmonary arterial flow play a crucial role in the transition from fetal to neonatal circulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 26
Correct
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What is the underlying theory behind administering betamethasone during antenatal care before premature labor?
Your Answer: Stimulate surfactant production
Explanation:Surfactant and its Importance in Premature Birth
Surfactant is a substance that is crucial for the proper functioning of the lungs. It is produced in response to corticosteroid administration in the third trimester of pregnancy. Premature birth can lead to surfactant deficiency lung disease (SDLD), which can be a serious complication with significant morbidity and mortality. This is because surfactant is only produced in the third trimester, and infants born early may not have enough of it.
The production of surfactant is stimulated by a rise in fetal cortisol levels, which activates the secretion of surfactant from type 2 pneumocytes. If premature delivery is expected, two injections of betamethasone are given at least 24 hours before delivery. This exogenous corticosteroid administration has been shown to significantly reduce SDLD and its complications.
Adrenal and cerebral maturation cannot be artificially accelerated, but adrenaline secretion increases with the stress of birth. Surfactant helps to reduce pulmonary vascular resistance by facilitating air entry at birth and expansion of lung tissue. Therefore, it is important to ensure that premature infants have adequate levels of surfactant to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 27
Incorrect
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In the liver, what is the primary enzyme responsible for converting glucose to glucose-6-phosphate during glycolysis?
Your Answer: Pyruvate kinase
Correct Answer: Glucokinase (hexokinase type IV)
Explanation:Hexokinases and Glucokinase in Glycolysis
Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate is the first step in glycolysis, and is facilitated by hexokinases, a group of enzymes. Mammals have four types of hexokinases, with tissue-specific expression and characteristics. Hexokinases I-III are known as ‘low Km hexokinases’ due to their high affinity for glucose, even at low concentrations. This allows them to convert any available glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, which is then trapped inside the cell and available for energy production. These hexokinases are expressed in many tissues, especially those with high energy requirements like muscle.
On the other hand, glucokinase has a higher Km, which allows the reaction rate to vary significantly within the physiological glucose range. This makes it a ‘glucose sensor’ with tissue-dependent expression, particularly in liver and pancreatic beta cells. Glucokinase plays a crucial role in regulating glucose homeostasis. In beta cells, it regulates glucose-stimulated insulin release, while in the liver, it regulates the balance of glycogen/glucose interconversion and glucose export.
Mutations in glucokinase can lead to loss-of-function or gain-of-function effects. Loss-of-function mutations cause a form of MODY (type II) and result in persistent hyperglycemia. Gain-of-function mutations can cause hyperinsulinemia and hypoglycemia in children. Due to the latter effect, there is interest in developing glucokinase activators as a potential treatment for type 2 diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 28
Correct
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A study has shown that the chance of a heart attack in people over 50 is 3% and that the chance of a heart attack in people under 50 is 1%. The study states that the percentage change in the probability of a heart attack occurring due to age is 200%. Which of the following best describes the name of the calculation that the study has performed?
Your Answer: Relative risk
Explanation:Different Risk Calculations
When it comes to calculating the effectiveness of a treatment, there are several different risk calculations to consider. One of these is relative risk, which measures the proportion of strokes that would be prevented by a particular treatment. Absolute risk, on the other hand, looks at the proportion of all patients who would benefit from the treatment. For example, if a treatment reduces the risk of stroke by 2%, the relative risk would be 2%, while the absolute risk would also be 2%.
Another important calculation is the number needed to treat, which indicates how many patients would need to receive the treatment in order for one of them to benefit. In the above example, the number needed to treat would be 50. It’s important to note that this is not the same as a percentage, as it represents a ratio rather than a proportion.
Finally, sensitivity and specificity are calculations used to determine the accuracy of test results, and are not directly related to the effectiveness of a treatment. By these different risk calculations, healthcare professionals can better evaluate the potential benefits and drawbacks of different treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A woman complains of persistent indigestion that has not responded to over the counter ranitidine. She is started on a proton pump inhibitor, and the dose is then increased without effect. Gastrin levels are measured at 100,000 (NR <200 pmol/l).
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer: Peptic ulcer disease
Correct Answer: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Explanation:Rare but Beloved Medical Conditions in Examinations
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, also known as gastrinoma, is a rare medical condition caused by a tumour that secretes gastrin. This leads to excessive acid production that is not easily treated with proton pump inhibitors, except in high doses. Another rare medical condition is insulinoma, which causes hypoglycaemia due to excessive insulin production. Lastly, Plummer-Vinson syndrome is a combination of iron deficiency anaemia and oesophageal webs that cause difficulty in swallowing. These medical conditions are not commonly encountered in clinical practice, but they are much beloved in medical examinations. It is important for medical students to be familiar with these conditions and their symptoms in order to provide accurate diagnoses and treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 30
Correct
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Which statement accurately describes the null hypothesis in a randomized controlled trial comparing drug A to placebo for low back pain treatment?
Your Answer: The null hypothesis is assumed to be correct until proven otherwise
Explanation:The Glasgow coma scale is a widely used tool to assess the severity of brain injuries. It is scored between 3 and 15, with 3 being the worst and 15 the best. The scale comprises three parameters: best eye response, best verbal response, and best motor response. The verbal response is scored from 1 to 5, with 1 indicating no response and 5 indicating orientation.
A score of 13 or higher on the Glasgow coma scale indicates a mild brain injury, while a score of 9 to 12 indicates a moderate injury. A score of 8 or less indicates a severe brain injury. Healthcare professionals rely on the Glasgow coma scale to assess the severity of brain injuries and determine appropriate treatment. The score is the sum of the scores as well as the individual elements. For example, a score of 10 might be expressed as GCS10 = E3V4M3.
Best eye response:
1- No eye opening
2- Eye opening to pain
3- Eye opening to sound
4- Eyes open spontaneouslyBest verbal response:
1- No verbal response
2- Incomprehensible sounds
3- Inappropriate words
4- Confused
5- OrientatedBest motor response:
1- No motor response.
2- Abnormal extension to pain
3- Abnormal flexion to pain
4- Withdrawal from pain
5- Localizing pain
6- Obeys commands -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 31
Incorrect
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You assess a client who complains of excessive sweating.
What is the physiological process through which sweating results in heat dissipation?Your Answer: Increased convection
Correct Answer: Increased conduction
Explanation:The Effect of Humidity on Heat Loss
Sweating is a natural response of the body to regulate its temperature. When sweat evaporates from the skin, it takes away heat and cools the body. However, the effectiveness of this process is affected by the humidity in the air. High humidity reduces the rate of evaporation, which means less heat is taken away from the body. As a result, individuals may feel hotter and more uncomfortable in humid conditions.
This phenomenon is due to the fact that humidity affects the efficacy of heat loss via conduction. When the air is dry, sweat evaporates quickly, leading to increased heat conduction away from the skin. However, when the air is humid, the moisture in the air makes it harder for sweat to evaporate. This reduces the rate of heat loss and makes it more difficult for the body to regulate its temperature.
Overall, the effect of humidity on heat loss is an important factor to consider when assessing the comfort level of individuals in different environments. this relationship can help us design better cooling systems and improve our ability to adapt to different weather conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 32
Correct
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What plasma glucose level is indicative of diabetes mellitus in a patient with symptoms?
Your Answer: Fasting plasma glucose 7.1 mmol/L
Explanation:Diagnosis of Diabetes Based on Plasma Glucose Concentrations
The diagnosis of diabetes is determined by analyzing plasma glucose concentrations. A fasting plasma glucose level above 7 mmol/L or a random glucose level above 11.1 mmol/L indicates diabetes mellitus. To confirm the diagnosis, two plasma glucose readings must be taken according to these parameters in an asymptomatic patient. However, in a symptomatic patient, only one reading is required. It is important to note that the threshold for diagnosis is not 7.1 mmol/L, but rather any value above 7.0 mmol/L. Candidates should be cautious not to misread or misinterpret the question and options. If the options do not make sense, it is recommended to review the question and options to ensure that they have been read correctly and not misunderstood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 33
Correct
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What are the typical changes in the haematogenous system during infancy?
Your Answer: Extramedullary haematopoiesis stops
Explanation:Haematopoiesis and Immunological Development in Infancy
At birth, the liver is responsible for producing blood cells, but this process stops within the first year of life. Haematopoiesis, or the production of blood cells, can also occur outside of the bone marrow, known as Extramedullary haematopoiesis. During fetal development, the liver and spleen are responsible for haematopoiesis while the bone marrow develops. However, once the infant is born, the bone marrow takes over the production of blood cells, and haematopoiesis in the liver and spleen ceases. In some cases, such as beta-thalassaemia major, Extramedullary haematopoiesis can continue and expand to other areas of the body.
Immunoglobulin production begins after six months, with maternal IgG providing most of the antibody coverage for the first three months of life. This means that infants are most vulnerable to encapsulated bacterial infections between three and nine months of age. Lymphatic tissue mass remains relatively unchanged during infancy but increases during early childhood, which may account for the increase in viral infections experienced by children. Neutrophil production does not increase unless there is a bacterial infection present, and the total white cell count decreases during infancy. Additionally, the production of fetal haemoglobin, or HbF, decreases steadily during the first year of life as it is replaced by HbA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 34
Correct
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A 40-year-old male patient complains of paraesthesia in the central area of the dorsum of his foot and proximal toes, except the fifth. The first dorsal web space has normal sensation. Additionally, he experiences some weakness in foot eversion. Which nerve is most likely to be affected?
Your Answer: The superficial peroneal nerve
Explanation:The superficial peroneal nerve supplies peroneus longus and brevis, the deep peroneal nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the leg, and the tibial nerve supplies several muscles.
The sural nerve provides sensory innervation to the dorsum of the lateral toes, while the common peroneal nerve supplies the posterolateral aspect of the thigh and knee. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 35
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes the results of a randomized controlled trial comparing the effectiveness of drug A and drug B in treating diabetes mellitus, where 100 patients were assigned to each group and the HbA1c levels were found to be 53 mmol/mol in group A and 56 mmol/mol in group B with a p-value of 0.8?
Your Answer: Chi square test is appropriate
Correct Answer: The 95% confidence interval of the difference in HbA1c between the two groups contains 0
Explanation:Interpretation of Statistical Results
When interpreting statistical results, it is important to consider the confidence interval and the appropriate statistical test to use. If the 95% confidence interval of the difference between two groups contains 0, then the difference is not statistically significant. Therefore, the confidence interval should contain 0. It is also important to use the appropriate statistical test for the data being analyzed. For example, the chi square test is used for categorical variables, while the Student’s t test is more appropriate for continuous variables.
The sample size should also be considered when interpreting statistical results. However, it is not possible to judge if the sample size is too small without knowing the statistical power. The statistical power is the probability of correctly rejecting a false null hypothesis. In situations where there is no difference between two groups, only a type II error is possible. This means that we may fail to reject a false null hypothesis. However, the type II error cannot be determined without knowing the statistical power of the study. Therefore, it is important to consider all of these factors when interpreting statistical results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 36
Correct
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In a study investigating the usefulness of serum procalcitonin level in early detection of bacteraemia, 50 febrile patients aged 60 and above were tested for both serum procalcitonin and bacterial culture. The results showed that a serum procalcitonin level above 0.5 microgram/L had a sensitivity of 85% in detecting bacteraemia.
Which statement below accurately reflects the findings of the study?Your Answer: 85% of the patients who have bacteraemia would be expected to have serum procalcitonin level above 0.5 microgram/L
Explanation:Sensitivity in Medical Testing
When it comes to medical testing, sensitivity is an important concept to understand. It refers to the proportion of diseased cases that are correctly identified as positive by the test. In other words, sensitivity tells us how good a test is at detecting a particular condition or disease.
For example, if we know that 85% of patients with bacteraemia have a serum procalcitonin level above 0.5 microgram/L, we can say that the sensitivity of a test for bacteraemia is 85%. This means that if we were to test a group of patients for bacteraemia using this test, we would expect 85% of those who actually have the condition to test positive.
It’s important to note that sensitivity is not affected by the number of patients being tested. Whether we test 10 patients or 1000 patients, the sensitivity of the test remains the same. However, sensitivity can be influenced by other factors such as the quality of the test and the criteria used to define a positive result. By sensitivity, healthcare professionals can make more informed decisions about which tests to use and how to interpret the results.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 37
Correct
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What is the target age group for routine human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination in the United Kingdom (UK) for girls?
Your Answer: 12 to 13
Explanation:HPV Vaccination Programme in the UK
The Department of Health (DH) in the UK started administering the bivalent vaccine Cervarix® to girls in school year 8, aged 12 to 13, as part of the routine HPV vaccination programme in September 2008. However, from September 2012, the DH replaced Cervarix with Gardasil, which protects against HPV types 16 and 18, as well as genital warts caused by HPV types 6 and 11. The primary target age for vaccination is still 12 to 13, as the incidence of HPV infection increases significantly after the age of 14. Although it is ideal to vaccinate girls before they become sexually active, those who are already sexually active by the age of 12 to 13 can still receive the vaccine, although its effectiveness may be reduced post-exposure to HPV.
A catch-up programme was also introduced in September 2008 to vaccinate girls aged 15 to 18, but this is not the primary aim of the DH programme. Currently, girls aged 8 to 11 are not offered routine vaccination, although some experts suggest that it may be appropriate to lower the age of vaccination due to the trend towards younger age at first intercourse, which increases the risk of potential exposure to HPV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 38
Correct
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A known opiate-abuser in his mid-twenties is observed injecting a substance and subsequently collapsing on the street. He is immediately transported to the emergency department. What acid-base disturbance would be anticipated in this scenario?
Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis
Explanation:Opiate Injection and Respiratory Acidosis
When a person injects opiates, it can lead to respiratory depression. This means that the person’s breathing will slow down, causing an increase in carbon dioxide (CO2) levels in the body. As a result, the person may experience respiratory acidosis, which is a condition where the blood becomes too acidic due to the buildup of CO2. This can lead to symptoms such as confusion, drowsiness, and shortness of breath. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if someone is experiencing these symptoms after injecting opiates. Proper treatment can help prevent further complications and ensure a safe recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 39
Correct
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A 59-year-old man is discharged from the surgical team after undergoing a successful sigmoid colectomy to remove a localized adenocarcinoma. He is a smoker and has no other medical history. On the sixth postoperative day, he visits the clinic for a follow-up appointment and reports feeling well without complications in the wound healing process.
During the surgery, the anaesthetist prescribed an ACE inhibitor to manage his hypertension. As a precautionary measure, you decide to conduct some blood tests. The patient's blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg, and he has no fever. The results of the blood tests are as follows:
- Sodium: 137 mmol/l (137-144)
- Potassium: 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-4.9)
- Urea: 4.8 mmol/l (2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine: 71 µmol/l (60-110)
- CRP: 29 mg/l (<10)
- Full blood count: Normal
What is the most probable reason for the elevated CRP levels?Your Answer: CRP is often raised non-specifically postoperatively
Explanation:C reactive protein (CRP) is a protein that increases with infection and inflammation, but can also be elevated postoperatively due to tissue damage. It may be elevated in the presence of a tumor but does not provide specific information about the tumor. High sensitivity CRP (hsCRP) is useful in assessing cardiovascular risk, but the level of CRP in this patient is much higher and does not provide information about cardiovascular risk. ACE inhibitors do not cause an elevation of CRP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 40
Correct
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A 25-year-old female has been suffering from myalgias, pleural effusion, pericarditis, and arthralgias without any joint deformity for a few years now. What would be the most suitable next step in investigating her condition?
Your Answer: Anti-nuclear antibody
Explanation:The role of anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) in diagnosing systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is crucial. When a patient presents with symptoms such as polyarthropathy, myalgia, pericarditis, and effusions, SLE is often the suspected diagnosis. To confirm this, doctors may use a test called ANA.
However, ANA can also be positive in other autoimmune diseases such as scleroderma, Sjogren’s syndrome, Raynaud’s disease, juvenile chronic arthritis, RhA antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, and autoimmune hepatitis. If the ANA test is negative, it is unlikely that the person has SLE.
It is important to note that ANAs are present in approximately 5% of the normal population, usually in low titres, and these individuals have no disease. Titres of lower than 1:80 are less likely to be significant, and even higher titres are insignificant with aging over age 60 years. Therefore, doctors must interpret ANA results in the context of the patient’s symptoms and medical history to make an accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 41
Correct
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A 35-year-old man is curious about maintaining a healthy diet. He currently weighs 106 Kg and stands at a height of 1.76 m. To the nearest decimal point, what is his estimated body mass index (BMI)?
Your Answer: 34
Explanation:BMI and its Calculation
Body:
Body Mass Index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on a person’s weight and height. It is calculated by dividing the weight of an individual in kilograms by the square of their height in meters. The resulting number is then used to determine whether a person is underweight, normal weight, overweight, or obese.
To calculate BMI, one needs to divide their weight by the square of their height. For instance, if an individual weighs 106 kilograms and their height is 1.76 meters, their BMI would be calculated as 106/(1.76)2, which equals 34.22. This means that the person’s BMI falls within the obese range, indicating that they have excess body fat.
In conclusion, BMI is a useful tool for assessing a person’s weight status and the risk of developing weight-related health problems. It is important to note that BMI is not a perfect measure of body fat and should be used in conjunction with other health indicators.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 42
Correct
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A patient with severe sepsis, who is suffering from a urinary tract infection, is found to have a multi-drug resistant Escherichia coli. What is the probable mechanism of resistance?
Your Answer: Extended spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL) production
Explanation:ESBL-Producing E. coli and Treatment Options
Some strains of E. coli bacteria have the ability to produce an enzyme called extended-spectrum beta-lactamase (ESBL), which can render certain antibiotics ineffective. Specifically, ESBL can inactivate second and third generation cephalosporins, which are commonly used to treat bacterial infections. In such cases, the most effective class of drugs for treating these infections are the carbapenems. It is important to note that carbapenems should be used judiciously and only when necessary, as overuse can lead to the development of carbapenem-resistant bacteria. Therefore, it is crucial to properly identify and diagnose ESBL-producing E. coli infections to ensure appropriate treatment and prevent the spread of antibiotic resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A study investigating the effectiveness of D-dimer testing in detecting DVT analyzed the medical records of 800 patients. To be eligible for the study, D-dimer had to be measured and DVT must have been confirmed by ultrasound.
Out of the 800 patients, 720 had positive D-dimers and 80 had negative D-dimers.
What is the sensitivity of D-dimer measurement in identifying DVT?Your Answer: 10%
Correct Answer: 95%
Explanation:Sensitivity in Medical Testing
Medical testing involves the use of various diagnostic tools to identify the presence or absence of a disease. One important aspect of medical testing is sensitivity, which refers to the proportion of individuals with the disease who are correctly identified by the test. For instance, if 950 out of 1000 people with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) are correctly identified as having the condition, the sensitivity of the test is 95%.
Highly sensitive tests are particularly useful for ruling out diseases. This means that if the test is negative, it is unlikely that the person has the disease. To remember this, you can use the mnemonic spin and snout, which stands for specificity for ruling in (spin) and sensitivity for ruling out (snout).
In addition to sensitivity, medical testing also involves positive predictive value and negative predictive value. Positive predictive value refers to the odds of having the disease if the test is positive, while negative predictive value refers to the odds of not having the disease if the test is negative. these values can help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about patient care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male patient presents to the Emergency department with signs of pneumonia. Upon examination, a right middle lobe pneumonia is detected on his chest X-ray. Where is the optimal location to auscultate breath sounds from the affected lobe?
Your Answer: Anteriorly, just to the right of the midline
Correct Answer: Mid-axillary line, 5th intercostal space
Explanation:Anatomy of the Lungs
The lungs are divided into lobes by the pleura, with the right lung having three lobes and the left lung having two. The lobes are separated by the oblique and horizontal fissures. The oblique fissure separates the inferior and superior lobes and runs from the spine of T3 to the sixth rib. The horizontal fissure is only present in the right lung and separates the superior and middle lobes. It starts in the oblique fissure near the back of the lung and runs horizontally forward, cutting the front border at the level of the fourth costal cartilage.
Auscultation of the lungs is similar on both sides of the posterior chest wall, with the lower two-thirds corresponding to the inferior lobes and the upper third corresponding to the superior lobe. On the anterior chest wall, the area above the nipples corresponds to the superior lobes, with the apices being audible just above the clavicles. The area below the nipples corresponds to the inferior lobes. The middle lobe of the right lung is the smallest and is wedge-shaped, including the lower part of the anterior border and the anterior part of the base of the lung. It is best heard in the axilla, but can also be heard in the back or at the lateral margin of the right chest (anterior axillary line).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 45
Incorrect
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In a study investigating the usefulness of serum procalcitonin level in detecting bacteraemia in febrile patients, 100 consecutive individuals were tested for both serum procalcitonin and bacterial culture. The study found that a serum procalcitonin level below 0.5 microgram/L had a negative predictive value of 95% in identifying bacteraemia.
What does this negative predictive value signify?Your Answer: 5% of the patients who do not have bacteraemia would be expected to have serum procalcitonin level above 0.5 microgram/L
Correct Answer: 5% of the patients who have serum procalcitonin level below 0.5 microgram/L would be expected to have bacteraemia
Explanation:Negative Predictive Value in Bacteraemia Testing
Negative predictive value is the proportion of patients who test negative for a disease and do not actually have it. In the case of bacteraemia testing, if a patient has a serum procalcitonin level below 0.5 microgram/L, they are considered negative for the disease. It is estimated that 95% of these patients do not have bacteraemia, while 5% do have the disease.
It is important to note that the number of patients being tested does not affect the negative predictive value. This value is solely based on the proportion of patients who test negative and do not have the disease. negative predictive value is crucial in accurately interpreting test results and making informed medical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male presents with black tarry stools. He has a history of chronic alcoholism for 30 years, consuming approximately a litre of vodka daily. During an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy, oesophageal varices with bleeding and a small gastric ulcer were discovered. Due to active gastrointestinal bleeding, he was kept nil by mouth and given intravenous infusions of 5% glucose plus 0.45% sodium chloride solution at a rate of 60 ml/hour and 60 ml of 50% glucose water every 6 hours. Initially, he showed no signs of confusion, and his ammonia levels were normal. However, he later developed polymorphic VT, and refeeding syndrome is suspected. What electrolyte changes would you anticipate?
Your Answer: High Phosphate, low potassium, low magnesium
Correct Answer: Low Phosphate, low potassium, low magnesium
Explanation:Refeeding Syndrome
Refeeding syndrome is a condition that occurs when nutrition is reintroduced to individuals who have been starved, severely malnourished, or metabolically stressed due to severe illness. This syndrome is characterized by metabolic disturbances that can be attributed to the resumption of glycaemia, which leads to increased insulin and decreased secretion of glucagon. As a result, insulin stimulates glycogen, fat, and protein synthesis, which requires minerals such as phosphate and magnesium, as well as cofactors such as thiamine. Furthermore, insulin stimulates the uptake of potassium into the cell, which can lead to low levels of potassium, magnesium, and phosphate.
To treat refeeding syndrome, it is essential to correct the electrolyte imbalances that occur. This can be achieved through careful monitoring of the patient’s electrolyte levels and providing appropriate supplementation as needed. By the underlying mechanisms of refeeding syndrome and taking appropriate measures to correct electrolyte imbalances, healthcare professionals can effectively manage this condition and prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 47
Correct
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A 48 month study compared two treatments for hypertension in patients over the age of 60.
The null hypothesis was that there was no difference between the two treatments.
The primary outcome was reduction of systolic blood pressure below 140 mmHg. This outcome was reached in 75% of patients taking treatment A and 80% of patients taking treatment B. The results were reported as being significant with a p-value of 0.05.
What is the correct interpretation of the P value?Your Answer: There is a 5% probability of finding this result if there is no difference between the regimens
Explanation:The Misunderstood P Value
The P value is often misunderstood and over-interpreted. It is important to note that the P value only indicates the probability of obtaining the results by chance if there was no difference between the regimens being compared. It does not provide information on the actual difference between the regimens or the likelihood of one being better than the other. This confusion has led to the increased use of confidence intervals as a more informative measure.
Goodman SN’s article Toward Evidence-Based Medical Statistics delves deeper into this issue and highlights the fallacy of relying solely on P values. It is crucial to understand the limitations of the P value and to use it in conjunction with other statistical measures to draw accurate conclusions. By doing so, we can ensure that our research is evidence-based and reliable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 48
Incorrect
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What are the differences in surface anatomy of abdominal organs from birth to 10 years of age?
Your Answer: The kidneys become more easily palpable
Correct Answer: The bladder descends and becomes impalpable
Explanation:Developmental Changes in Palpation of Abdominal Organs
In infants, the bladder is located higher in the pelvis, making it palpable even when empty. However, as the child grows, the pelvis descends, and the bladder becomes less palpable unless it is very full. The kidneys, on the other hand, are difficult to palpate in all individuals, regardless of age. Intra-abdominal masses in infants may grow to a large size before they are noticed.
The large bowel completes its rotation from right to left in utero, generating the ascending, transverse, and descending colon. This process is finished by the third trimester and does not continue after birth. The liver is normally palpable one finger’s breadth below the costal margin in infants, but this physiological hepatomegaly recedes during the first few years. The spleen may be slightly enlarged at birth, but it is not normally palpable below the costal margin at any time during childhood or adulthood.
In summary, the palpation of abdominal organs changes as a child grows and develops. While some organs may be palpable in infants, they become less so as the child ages. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these developmental changes to accurately assess and diagnose any potential issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 49
Incorrect
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What is the receptor for thyroid hormone?
Your Answer: A cell surface receptor
Correct Answer: A nuclear receptor
Explanation:The Thyroid Hormone Receptor and its Role in Gene Transcription
The thyroid hormone receptor is a type of nuclear receptor that plays a crucial role in gene transcription. When it binds to tri-iodothyronine (T3), it is able to interact with the thyroid hormone response element (TRE) located in the promoter region of genes that are responsive to thyroid hormone. This interaction leads to the initiation of transcription, which is the process by which genetic information is copied from DNA to RNA.
In simpler terms, the thyroid hormone receptor acts like a key that unlocks the door to certain genes in our DNA. When it binds to T3, it is able to open up the door and allow the transcription process to begin. This is important because thyroid hormone plays a critical role in regulating many physiological processes in the body, including metabolism, growth, and development. By controlling the expression of genes that are responsive to thyroid hormone, the thyroid hormone receptor helps to ensure that these processes are functioning properly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 50
Correct
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A 26-year-old rugby player presents to the clinic with complaints of decreased sensation in the upper right shoulder region. He has a history of multiple anterior shoulder dislocations. Upon examination, you note reduced sensation over the regimental badge area. What nerve is most likely to have been affected?
Your Answer: Axillary
Explanation:The Axillary Nerve and its Functions
The axillary nerve is a terminal branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, carrying fibres from C5 and C6. It has both sensory and motor components, with the former innervating the regimental badge area over the upper arm and the latter innervating teres minor and deltoid muscles. The nerve passes through the quadrangular space in the posterior aspect of the arm, alongside the posterior circumflex humeral artery, before winding around the surgical neck of the humerus.
The axillary nerve can be damaged by repeated anterior shoulder dislocation, which may cause potential harm to the nerve. Rapid intervention to relocate the shoulder can help reduce the risk of damage to the axillary nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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