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  • Question 1 - The father of a preteen boy persistently makes comments suggesting that his son...

    Correct

    • The father of a preteen boy persistently makes comments suggesting that his son is overweight. This is despite the boy being a healthy weight. The father has always felt insecure about his own weight ever since his son was born. The boy becomes upset about his weight and starts to withdraw from social activities and is referred to see a therapist.

      Which of the following dynamic processes best explains the behavior of the son?

      Your Answer: Projective identification

      Explanation:

      The mother seems to transfer her own feelings of insecurity onto her daughter, who internalizes them even though she has a healthy weight. This phenomenon is known as projective identification, where the projected emotions are adopted and experienced as one’s own.

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which cytochrome gene plays the most significant role in the metabolism of antidepressants?...

    Incorrect

    • Which cytochrome gene plays the most significant role in the metabolism of antidepressants?

      Your Answer: 2C9

      Correct Answer: 2D6

      Explanation:

      Debrisoquine hydroxylase is the primary enzyme responsible for metabolizing several antidepressants, such as tricyclics, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), venlafaxine, and others. Approximately 5 out of 100 individuals are poor metabolisers, which can lead to increased side effects from medications that rely on CYP2D6 for metabolism. Conversely, ultra-rapid metabolisers may require higher than average doses of these medications due to their highly active forms of the enzyme.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - In what conditions are Kuru plaques occasionally observed? ...

    Correct

    • In what conditions are Kuru plaques occasionally observed?

      Your Answer: Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

      Explanation:

      Pathology Findings in Psychiatry

      There are several pathology findings that are associated with various psychiatric conditions. Papp-Lantos bodies, for example, are visible in the CNS and are associated with multisystem atrophy. Pick bodies, on the other hand, are large, dark-staining aggregates of proteins in neurological tissue and are associated with frontotemporal dementia.

      Lewy bodies are another common pathology finding in psychiatry and are associated with Parkinson’s disease and Lewy Body dementia. These are round, concentrically laminated, pale eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions that are aggregates of alpha-synuclein.

      Other pathology findings include asteroid bodies, which are associated with sarcoidosis and berylliosis, and are acidophilic, stellate inclusions in giant cells. Barr bodies are associated with stains of X chromosomes and are inactivated X chromosomes that appear as a dark staining mass in contact with the nuclear membrane.

      Mallory bodies are another common pathology finding and are associated with alcoholic hepatitis, alcoholic cirrhosis, Wilson’s disease, and primary-biliary cirrhosis. These are eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions in hepatocytes that are made up of intermediate filaments, predominantly prekeratin.

      Other pathology findings include Schaumann bodies, which are associated with sarcoidosis and berylliosis, and are concentrically laminated inclusions in giant cells. Zebra bodies are associated with Niemann-Pick disease, Tay-Sachs disease, of any of the mucopolysaccharidoses and are palisaded lamellated membranous cytoplasmic bodies seen in macrophages.

      LE bodies, also known as hematoxylin bodies, are associated with SLE (lupus) and are nuclei of damaged cells with bound anti-nuclear antibodies that become homogeneous and loose chromatin pattern. Verocay bodies are associated with Schwannoma (Neurilemoma) and are palisades of nuclei at the end of a fibrillar bundle.

      Hirano bodies are associated with normal aging but are more numerous in Alzheimer’s disease. These are eosinophilic, football-shaped inclusions seen in neurons of the brain. Neurofibrillary tangles are another common pathology finding in Alzheimer’s disease and are made up of microtubule-associated proteins and neurofilaments.

      Kayser-Fleischer rings are associated with Wilson’s disease and are rings of discoloration on the cornea. Finally, Kuru plaques are associated with Kuru and Gerstmann-Sträussler syndrome and are sometimes present in patients with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD). These are composed partly of a host-encoded prion protein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Pharmacokinetics can be described as the study of how drugs are absorbed, distributed,...

    Correct

    • Pharmacokinetics can be described as the study of how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body.

      Your Answer: Pharmacokinetics is the study of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion of drugs

      Explanation:

      Pharmacokinetics is the study of how drugs are affected by the body. This includes how drugs are absorbed into the bloodstream, distributed throughout the body, metabolized into different forms, and eliminated from the body. The acronym ADME is often used to remember these processes. Absorption refers to the transportation of the drug from the site of administration to the bloodstream. Hydrophobic drugs are absorbed better than hydrophilic ones. Distribution refers to the movement of the drug from the bloodstream to other areas of the body. Metabolism involves the conversion of the drug into different forms, often to make it more easily excreted by the kidneys. This process occurs in two phases, involving reduction of hydrolysis in phase 1 and conjugation in phase 2. Excretion refers to the elimination of the drug from the body, which mainly occurs through the kidneys and biliary system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the term used to describe a delusion that is both systematic...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe a delusion that is both systematic and rational?

      Your Answer: Rationalised

      Correct Answer: Systematised

      Explanation:

      Delusional Structure

      Delusions can be categorized based on their logical consistency and organization. Logical delusions are consistent with logical thinking, while paralogical delusions are not. Delusions can also be organized, integrated into a formed concept, of unorganized. Highly organized, logical delusions are referred to as systematized.

      The relationship between delusional beliefs and reality can also be described in different ways. Polarized delusions mix fact and delusion together, while juxtaposed delusions exist side by side with facts but do not interact. Autistic delusions completely disregard actual reality, and the patient lives in a delusional world.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - In comparison to which method of administration, is bioavailability defined as the proportion...

    Incorrect

    • In comparison to which method of administration, is bioavailability defined as the proportion of a drug that enters the systemic circulation after being administered through a specific route?

      Your Answer: Oral

      Correct Answer: Intravenous

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bioavailability in Drug Trials

      Bioavailability is a crucial factor in drug trials, as it determines the percentage of a drug that reaches the systemic circulation after administration. This can be affected by factors such as absorption and metabolic clearance. For example, if a drug called X is administered orally and only 60% reaches the systemic circulation, its bioavailability is 0.6 of 60%. However, if the same drug is administered intravenously, plasma levels may reach 100%.

      One way to potentially increase bioavailability is through the rectal route, which bypasses around two thirds of the first-pass metabolism. This is because the rectum’s venous drainage is two thirds systemic (middle and inferior rectal vein) and one third portal (superior rectal vein). As a result, drugs administered rectally may reach the circulatory system with less alteration and in greater concentrations. Understanding bioavailability and exploring different administration routes can help optimize drug efficacy in clinical trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A teenage boy visits the emergency department with a complaint of his leg...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage boy visits the emergency department with a complaint of his leg feeling like it's being twisted. Upon examination, his leg appears normal. However, his eyes are bloodshot and his fingers are stained with tar. What type of experience does he report?

      Your Answer: Akathisia

      Correct Answer: Paraschemazia

      Explanation:

      Paraschemazia: A Distorted Perception of the Body

      Paraschemazia is a condition where individuals experience a sensation that parts of their body are twisted of separated from the rest of their body. This feeling can be associated with the use of hallucinogenic drugs, an epileptic aura, of migraines. The perception of the body being distorted of separated can be distressing for individuals experiencing this condition. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of this symptom and its potential causes to provide appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which type of injury of damage typically leads to utilization behaviour? ...

    Correct

    • Which type of injury of damage typically leads to utilization behaviour?

      Your Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Abnormal Motor Behaviours Associated with Utilization Behaviour

      Utilization behaviour (UB) is a condition where patients exhibit exaggerated and inappropriate motor responses to environmental cues and objects. This behaviour is automatic and instrumentally correct, but not contextually appropriate. For instance, a patient may start brushing their teeth when presented with a toothbrush, even in a setting where it is not expected. UB is caused by frontal lobe lesions that result in a loss of inhibitory control.

      Other motor abnormalities associated with UB include imitation behaviour, where patients tend to imitate the examiner’s behaviour, and the alien hand sign, where patients experience bizarre hand movements that they cannot control. Manual groping behaviour is also observed, where patients automatically manipulate objects placed in front of them. The grasp reflex, which is normal in infants, should not be present in children and adults. It is an automatic tendency to grip objects of stimuli, such as the examiner’s hand.

      Environmental Dependency Syndrome is another condition associated with UB. It describes deficits in personal control of action and an overreliance on social and physical environmental stimuli to guide behaviour in a social context. For example, a patient may start commenting on pictures in an examiner’s office, believing it to be an art gallery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      9.4
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  • Question 9 - When is the highest risk period for agranulocytosis caused by clozapine? ...

    Incorrect

    • When is the highest risk period for agranulocytosis caused by clozapine?

      Your Answer: Within the first week

      Correct Answer: 4-18 weeks

      Explanation:

      Agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition, is a rare side effect of clozapine occurring in approximately 1% of patients. The period of maximum risk for developing agranulocytosis is between 4-18 weeks after starting treatment. It is important for patients taking clozapine to have regular blood tests and be registered with the Clozaril Patient Monitoring Service to monitor for this side effect. It is worth noting that the risk of agranulocytosis is not related to the dose of clozapine. For more information on the treatment of schizophrenia, the book Contemporary Issues in the Treatment of Schizophrenia edited by Shriqui CL and Nasrallah HA may be of interest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Who are the co-authors of the book 'Social origins of depression'? ...

    Correct

    • Who are the co-authors of the book 'Social origins of depression'?

      Your Answer: George Brown

      Explanation:

      The objective of the book ‘Social origins of Depression’ was to identify the societal elements that play a role in the onset of depression, particularly in women.

      History of major works in psychiatry
      Michel Foucault – Madness and civilization
      Sigmund Freud – The interpretation of dreams, Beyond the Pleasure Principle, The Psychopathology of everyday life
      Thomas Szasz – The myth of mental illness
      Erving Goffman – Asylums, The Presentation of Self in Everyday Life
      Ronald Laing – The divided self
      Emile Durkheim – Le suicide. Durkheim proposed social causes for suicide. Until his work was published, suicide had been thought of as an individual act only.
      Tom Main – The Ailment
      Jerome Frank – Persuasion and Healing
      George Brown and Tirril Harris – Social origins of depression

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - How can we identify typical developmental milestones in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can we identify typical developmental milestones in children?

      Your Answer: Cruising at 6 weeks

      Correct Answer: Able to babble at the age of 6 months

      Explanation:

      The Emergence of Social Smiling in Infants

      Wormann (2014) discusses the emergence of social smiling in infants, which is usually interpreted as the first positive expression directed towards a cause. This occurs when an infant with an initially expressionless face examines the face of another person, and their face and eyes light up while the corners of their mouth pull upward. The age of the first appearance of the social smile varies across cultures, ranging from the fifth to seventh week. Additionally, there are differences in its duration and frequency between the second and seventh month of life. Understanding these milestones is important for a basic understanding of normal child development.

      Child Development Milestones:
      4 weeks Responds to noise (either by crying, of quieting), follows an object moved in front of eyes
      6 weeks Begins social smiling*
      3 months Holds head steady on sitting
      6 months Rolls from stomach to back, starts babbling
      7 months Transfers objects from hand to hand, looks for dropped object
      9 months Sits unsupported, begins to crawl
      12 months Cruising (walking by holding furniture)
      18 months Walks without assistance, speaks about 10-20 words
      2 years Runs, climbs up and down stairs alone, makes 2-3 word sentences
      3 years Dresses self except for buttons and laces, counts to 10, feeds themself well
      4 years Hops on one foot, copies a cross
      5 years Copies a triangle, skips

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What waveform represents a frequency range of 12-30Hz? ...

    Incorrect

    • What waveform represents a frequency range of 12-30Hz?

      Your Answer: Theta

      Correct Answer: Beta

      Explanation:

      Electroencephalography

      Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.

      Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.

      Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.

      Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.

      Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.

      Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What defence mechanism is commonly observed in individuals in the paranoid-schizoid position? ...

    Incorrect

    • What defence mechanism is commonly observed in individuals in the paranoid-schizoid position?

      Your Answer: Displacement

      Correct Answer: Splitting

      Explanation:

      Melanie Klein, a prominent psychoanalyst, introduced two significant concepts in her work: the paranoid-schizoid position and the depressive position. The paranoid-schizoid position is a state of mind where the individual perceives the world as fragmented, dividing it into good and bad. This position is characterized by the defense mechanism of splitting, where the individual separates the good and bad aspects of themselves and others.

      On the other hand, the depressive position follows the paranoid-schizoid position and is characterized by the ability to accept ambivalence, where something can be both good and bad. This position represents a more integrated state of mind, where the individual can hold conflicting emotions and thoughts simultaneously. These concepts have been influential in psychoanalytic theory and have contributed to our understanding of the human psyche.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A middle-aged individual reports regularly wearing their partner's clothing without feeling sexually aroused,...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged individual reports regularly wearing their partner's clothing without feeling sexually aroused, maintaining a positive relationship with their partner, and having no desire to permanently identify as the opposite gender. What diagnosis would be most appropriate for this individual's situation?

      Your Answer: Fetishistic transvestism

      Correct Answer: Dual-role transvestism

      Explanation:

      Types of Gender and Sexual Identity

      Dual-role transvestism refers to the act of wearing clothing typically associated with the opposite sex without experiencing discomfort with one’s biological gender of a desire to permanently live as the opposite sex. This behavior is not accompanied by sexual arousal, which distinguishes it from fetishistic transvestism. Fetishistic transvestism, on the other hand, involves wearing clothing of the opposite sex for the purpose of sexual arousal. Transsexualism is a desire to live as a member of the opposite sex, often accompanied by discomfort with one’s biological gender and a desire for gender reassignment. Sexual dysfunction encompasses a range of difficulties with sexual desire and performance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Diagnosis
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - What is evaluated in the 'Hayling test'? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is evaluated in the 'Hayling test'?

      Your Answer: Visual-spatial capacity

      Correct Answer: Sentence completion

      Explanation:

      Assessing Executive Function with the Hayling and Brixton Tests

      The Hayling and Brixton tests are two assessments designed to evaluate executive function. The Hayling Sentence Completion Test consists of two sets of 15 sentences, with the last word missing. In the first section, participants complete the sentences, providing a measure of response initiation speed. The second part, the Hayling, requires participants to complete a sentence with a nonsense ending word, suppressing a sensible one. This provides measures of response suppression ability and thinking time. Performance on such tests has been linked to frontal lobe dysfunction and dysexecutive symptoms in everyday life.

      The Brixton Test is a rule detection and rule following task. Impairments on such tasks are commonly demonstrated in individuals with dysexecutive problems. Overall, these tests provide valuable insights into executive function and can help identify areas of weakness that may require intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - The Hardy-Weinberg principle concerns which of the following? ...

    Correct

    • The Hardy-Weinberg principle concerns which of the following?

      Your Answer: Allelic frequency in populations

      Explanation:

      Hardy-Weinberg Principle and Allele Frequency

      Allele frequency refers to the proportion of a population that carries a specific variant at a particular gene locus. It can be calculated by dividing the number of individual alleles of a certain type by the total number of alleles in a population. The Hardy-Weinberg Principle states that both allele and genotype frequencies in a population remain constant from generation to generation unless specific disturbing influences are introduced. To remain in equilibrium, five conditions must be met, including no mutations, no gene flow, random mating, a sufficiently large population, and no natural selection. The Hardy-Weinberg Equation is used to predict the frequency of alleles in a population, and it can be used to estimate the carrier frequency of genetic diseases. For example, if the incidence of PKU is one in 10,000 babies, then the carrier frequency in the general population is 1/50. Couples with a previous child with PKU have a 25% chance of having another affected child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old man is experiencing anxiety and wants to rate his level of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is experiencing anxiety and wants to rate his level of anxiety. Which rating scale would be most suitable for him to use?

      Your Answer: All of the above

      Correct Answer: Beck's depression inventory (BDI)

      Explanation:

      The Beck depression inventory (BDI of BDI-II) was created by Dr. Aaron T. Beck to measure the severity of depression. It consists of 21 multiple choice questions, with each answer being assigned a score from 0-3. The total score ranges from 0-63, with scores of 0-9 indicating minimal depression, 10-18 indicating mild depression, 19-29 indicating moderate depression, and 30-63 indicating severe depression.

      The Hamilton rating scale for depression (HAM-D) is a clinician-rated scale used to monitor the severity of depression and assess the effects of treatment.

      The standard assessment of depressive disorders (SADD) is a semi-structured, clinician-rated instrument developed by the WHO for assessing depressive disorders.

      The Montgomery-Asberg depression rating scale (MADRS) is a clinician-rated diagnostic questionnaire consisting of 10 items used to measure the severity of depressive episodes in patients with mood disorders. Each item can be scored from 0-6, with a maximum score of 60. There is also a self-rated version of MADRS called MADRS-S, which consists of 9 questions and has a maximum score of 54.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is a true statement about Levinson's theory of human development? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about Levinson's theory of human development?

      Your Answer: He proposed that each life sequence consisted of three core stages

      Correct Answer: Stages are based on age ranges rather than on developmental events

      Explanation:

      Erik Erikson and Daniel Levinson expanded the understanding of adult development. Erikson proposed a life-span model of human development consisting of eight successive psychosocial stages, each associated with an inherent conflict of crisis that the individual must encounter and successfully resolve to proceed with development. Levinson proposed a developmental theory consisting of universal stages of phases that extend from the infancy state to the elderly state, based on biographical interviews of 40 men in America. Both theorists maintained that personality develops in a predetermined order and builds upon each previous stage, and that failure to successfully negotiate a stage can result in a reduced ability to complete further stages and therefore a more unhealthy personality and sense of self. However, Levinson’s theory is age-based rather than event-based, and his model proposed a ‘life sequence’ consisting of a series of alternating stable (structure-building) periods and cross-era transitional (structure-changing) periods, with transitional periods typically lasting 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What statement accurately describes ionotropic receptors? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement accurately describes ionotropic receptors?

      Your Answer: The onset of their effect is slow compared to metabotropic receptors

      Correct Answer: GABA-A is an example of an ionotropic receptor

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters are substances used by neurons to communicate with each other and with target tissues. They are synthesized and released from nerve endings into the synaptic cleft, where they bind to receptor proteins in the cellular membrane of the target tissue. Neurotransmitters can be classified into different types, including small molecules (such as acetylcholine, dopamine, norepinephrine, serotonin, and GABA) and large molecules (such as neuropeptides). They can also be classified as excitatory or inhibitory. Receptors can be ionotropic or metabotropic, and the effects of neurotransmitters can be fast of slow. Some important neurotransmitters include acetylcholine, dopamine, GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin. Each neurotransmitter has a specific synthesis, breakdown, and receptor type. Understanding neurotransmitters is important for understanding the function of the nervous system and for developing treatments for neurological and psychiatric disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is the condition caused by inheriting a deletion of chromosome 15q from...

    Incorrect

    • What is the condition caused by inheriting a deletion of chromosome 15q from the father?

      Your Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy

      Correct Answer: Prader-Willi

      Explanation:

      Genomic Imprinting and its Role in Psychiatric Disorders

      Genomic imprinting is a phenomenon where a piece of DNA behaves differently depending on whether it is inherited from the mother of the father. This is because DNA sequences are marked of imprinted in the ovaries and testes, which affects their expression. In psychiatry, two classic examples of genomic imprinting disorders are Prader-Willi and Angelman syndrome.

      Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a deletion of chromosome 15q when inherited from the father. This disorder is characterized by hypotonia, short stature, polyphagia, obesity, small gonads, and mild mental retardation. On the other hand, Angelman syndrome, also known as Happy Puppet syndrome, is caused by a deletion of 15q when inherited from the mother. This disorder is characterized by an unusually happy demeanor, developmental delay, seizures, sleep disturbance, and jerky hand movements.

      Overall, genomic imprinting plays a crucial role in the development of psychiatric disorders. Understanding the mechanisms behind genomic imprinting can help in the diagnosis and treatment of these disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is a pathological characteristic observed in individuals with Alzheimer's disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a pathological characteristic observed in individuals with Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer: Hyperphosphorylated amyloid-beta

      Correct Answer: Hyperphosphorylated tau

      Explanation:

      Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by both macroscopic and microscopic changes in the brain. Macroscopic changes include cortical atrophy, ventricular dilation, and depigmentation of the locus coeruleus. Microscopic changes include the presence of senile plaques, neurofibrillary tangles, gliosis, degeneration of the nucleus of Meynert, and Hirano bodies. Senile plaques are extracellular deposits of beta amyloid in the gray matter of the brain, while neurofibrillary tangles are intracellular inclusion bodies that consist primarily of hyperphosphorylated tau. Gliosis is marked by increases in activated microglia and reactive astrocytes near the sites of amyloid plaques. The nucleus of Meynert degenerates in Alzheimer’s, resulting in a decrease in acetylcholine in the brain. Hirano bodies are actin-rich, eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions which have a highly characteristic crystalloid fine structure and are regarded as a nonspecific manifestation of neuronal degeneration. These changes in the brain contribute to the cognitive decline and memory loss seen in Alzheimer’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - What is a true statement about the placebo effect? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about the placebo effect?

      Your Answer: The placebo response is greater in mild rather than severe illness

      Explanation:

      The placebo response rate is on the rise in published studies, which is believed to be due to a larger number of patients with less severe forms of illness participating in these studies.

      Understanding the Placebo Effect

      In general, a placebo is an inert substance that has no pharmacological activity but looks, smells, and tastes like the active drug it is compared to. The placebo effect is the observable improvement seen when a patient takes a placebo, which results from patient-related factors such as expectations rather than the placebo itself. Negative effects due to patient-related factors are termed the nocebo effect.

      Active placebos are treatments with chemical activity that mimic the side effects of the drug being tested in a clinical trial. They are used to prevent unblinding of the drug versus the placebo control group. Placebos need not always be pharmacological and can be procedural, such as sham electroconvulsive therapy.

      The placebo effect is influenced by factors such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the branding of the compound. The placebo response is greater in mild illness, and the response rate is increasing over time. Placebo response is usually short-lived, and repeated use can lead to a diminished effect, known as placebo sag.

      It is difficult to separate placebo effects from spontaneous remission, and patients who enter clinical trials generally do so when acutely unwell, making it challenging to show treatment effects. Breaking the blind may influence the outcome, and the expectancy effect may explain why active placebos are more effective than inert placebos. Overall, understanding the placebo effect is crucial in clinical trials and personalized medicine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - At what stage of cognitive development, as per Jean Piaget, do children exhibit...

    Correct

    • At what stage of cognitive development, as per Jean Piaget, do children exhibit egocentric behavior?

      Your Answer: Preoperational stage

      Explanation:

      Piaget’s theory of cognitive development highlights that Preoperational children are egocentric, meaning they view the world solely from their own perspective and cannot comprehend that others may have different viewpoints. Piaget believed that cognitive development is a result of the interplay between innate abilities and environmental factors, and progresses through four distinct stages: the sensorimotor stage, Preoperational stage, concrete operational stage, and formal operational stage. While Piaget’s theory has greatly contributed to our understanding of cognitive development, it has also faced criticism over time. Other notable theories in this field include Vygotsky’s theory, Bruner’s theory, and the information-processing approach. Vygotsky’s theory, for instance, examines human development across three levels: cultural, interpersonal, and individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the Glasgow Coma Scale score of an elderly patient who, after...

    Correct

    • What is the Glasgow Coma Scale score of an elderly patient who, after experiencing a stroke, displays signs of confusion, responds to painful stimuli with purposeful movement, and is able to engage in a basic conversation but still appears disoriented?

      Your Answer: 11

      Explanation:

      The score is 11, with E2, V4, and M5 contributing to it.

      The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to assess the depth of coma and impaired consciousness. Scores range from 3 to 15, with impaired consciousness rated as mild, moderate, of severe. The scale assesses eye opening response, verbal response, and motor response, with specific criteria for scoring each behavior. The final score is a combination of these three scores.
      Scoring Guide;
      Eye opening response
      4 Spontaneous opening
      3 Opens to verbal stimuli
      2 Opens to pain
      1 No response
      Verbal response
      5 Orientated
      4 Confused conversation
      3 Inappropriate words
      2 Incoherent
      1 No response
      Motor response
      6 Obeys commands
      5 Purposeful movement to painful stimuli
      4 Withdraws in response to pain
      3 Flexion in response to pain (decorticate posturing)
      2 Extension in response to pain (decerebrate posturing)
      1 No response

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      110.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - In an elderly patient with decreased kidney function, which substance is most likely...

    Correct

    • In an elderly patient with decreased kidney function, which substance is most likely to build up in their body?

      Your Answer: Amisulpride

      Explanation:

      Patients with renal impairment should avoid taking amisulpride and sulpiride. This is because amisulpride is eliminated through the kidneys, and in cases of renal insufficiency, the dosage should be reduced, and intermittent treatment should be considered.

      Prescribing medication for elderly individuals requires consideration of their unique pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics. As the body ages, changes in distribution, metabolism, and excretion can affect how medication is absorbed and processed. For example, reduced gastric acid secretion and motility can impact drug absorption, while a relative reduction of body water to body fat can alter the distribution of lipid soluble drugs. Additionally, hepatic metabolism of drugs decreases with age, and the kidneys become less effective, leading to potential accumulation of certain drugs.

      In terms of pharmacodynamics, receptor sensitivity tends to increase during old age, meaning smaller doses may be needed. However, older individuals may also take longer to respond to treatment and have an increased incidence of side-effects. It is important to start with a lower dose and monitor closely when prescribing medication for elderly patients, especially considering the potential for interactions with other medications they may be taking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You are requested to assess a 40-year-old male patient who is currently admitted...

    Correct

    • You are requested to assess a 40-year-old male patient who is currently admitted to the hospital for treatment of severe depression. The nursing staff reports that he is experiencing tachycardia, hypertension, and has a fever of 38°C. Upon examination, you observe that the patient is confused and exhibiting myoclonus. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serotonin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Serotonin syndrome is a serious condition that can be life-threatening and presents with a variety of symptoms affecting cognitive, autonomic, and somatic functions. It can be mistaken for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), but the presence of myoclonus can help differentiate between the two conditions. Treatment involves discontinuing medications and, in severe cases, using a serotonin antagonist. Benzodiazepines may also be used to manage agitation. Akathisia is a type of movement disorder, while hyperthermia can occur in both serotonin syndrome and NMS. Encephalopathy refers to a general dysfunction of the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Your elderly client informs you that she had a sudden realization that she...

    Incorrect

    • Your elderly client informs you that she had a sudden realization that she was a member of Spice Girls. This awareness came out of nowhere.

      Is this an instance of:

      Your Answer: Delusional memory

      Correct Answer: Autochthonous delusion

      Explanation:

      Delusions that originate within the mind without any external influence are known as autochthonous. This term, derived from the Greek word for from the soil, emphasizes that the idea is self-generated rather than being triggered by a sensory experience of other external factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychological Development
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - Among the following groups, which has the highest occurrence of individuals with poor...

    Correct

    • Among the following groups, which has the highest occurrence of individuals with poor metabolism of CYP2D6?

      Your Answer: Africans and African-Americans

      Explanation:

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - If two adults with an autosomal recessive condition have a child, what is...

    Incorrect

    • If two adults with an autosomal recessive condition have a child, what is the likelihood that the child will also have of develop the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100%

      Explanation:

      Mendelian Inheritance (Pedigrees)

      Mendelian inheritance refers to the transmission patterns of genetic conditions caused by a mutation in a single gene. There are four types of Mendelian inheritance patterns: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, X-linked recessive, and X-linked dominant. Each pattern follows a predictable inheritance pattern within families.

      Autosomal dominant conditions are expressed in individuals who have just one copy of the mutant allele. Affected males and females have an equal probability of passing on the trait to offspring. In contrast, autosomal recessive conditions are clinically manifest only when an individual has two copies of the mutant allele. X-linked recessive traits are fully evident in males because they only have one copy of the X chromosome, while women are rarely affected by X-linked recessive diseases. X-linked dominant disorders are clinically manifest when only one copy of the mutant allele is present.

      Common examples of conditions with specific inheritance patterns include neurofibromatosis type 1 and 2, tuberous sclerosis, achondroplasia, Huntington disease, Noonan’s syndrome for autosomal dominant; phenylketonuria, homocystinuria, Hurler’s syndrome, galactosaemia, Tay-Sach’s disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, Wilson’s disease, cystic fibrosis for autosomal recessive; vitamin D resistant rickets, Rett syndrome for X-linked dominant; and cerebellar ataxia, Hunter’s syndrome, Lesch-Nyhan for X-linked recessive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which receptor genes' promoter polymorphisms are strongly linked to weight gain caused by...

    Incorrect

    • Which receptor genes' promoter polymorphisms are strongly linked to weight gain caused by antipsychotic medications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5-HT2C

      Explanation:

      Genome-wide association studies (GWAS) have demonstrated that individuals carrying specific variant alleles in the promoter region of the 5-HT2C receptor gene are less susceptible to significant weight gain when undergoing antipsychotic treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Under which classification does Flupentixol fall? ...

    Incorrect

    • Under which classification does Flupentixol fall?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thioxanthene

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - What is the primary mechanism of action of Valdoxan (agomelatine), an antidepressant? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary mechanism of action of Valdoxan (agomelatine), an antidepressant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Melatonin (MT) receptor agonism

      Explanation:

      Agomelatine (Valdoxan) is a novel antidepressant that functions as an agonist at both MT1 and MT2 receptors, while also acting as a 5HT2C antagonist. Unlike most other antidepressants, it does not affect monoamine uptake.
      First-generation antipsychotics work by antagonizing D2 receptors.
      Benzodiazepines exert their effects by potentiating GABA.
      Noradrenaline reuptake inhibition is a common mechanism of action for many antidepressants, including SNRIs and tricyclics.
      SSRI (and other) antidepressants function by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - What is the most frequently reported side-effect of methylphenidate? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequently reported side-effect of methylphenidate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nausea

      Explanation:

      ADHD medications can be classified into stimulant and non-stimulant drugs. The therapeutic effects of these drugs are believed to be mediated through the action of noradrenaline in the prefrontal cortex. Common side effects of these drugs include decreased appetite, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and nausea. Stimulant drugs like dexamphetamine, methylphenidate, and lisdexamfetamine inhibit the reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline. Non-stimulant drugs like atomoxetine, guanfacine, and clonidine work by increasing noradrenaline levels in the synaptic cleft through different mechanisms. The most common side effects of these drugs are decreased appetite, somnolence, headache, and abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 25-year-old South Asian female graduate is preparing for a job interview.
    She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old South Asian female graduate is preparing for a job interview.
      She reports difficulty focusing, forgetfulness, and persistent feelings of sadness. Additionally, she experiences tension in her head and neck and occasional vision disturbances.
      What culture-specific syndrome is most probable in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brain fag

      Explanation:

      Culture-bound disorders are mental health conditions that are specific to certain cultural settings and may be related to other diagnostic categories such as anxiety disorders of psychosis. Examples of these disorders include windigo and brain fag, which are depressive states, latah and piblokto, which are hysterical states, and amok, which is a dissociative state.

      Brain fag is commonly observed in West African students and is a reaction to extreme stress, often related to school work. Symptoms include difficulty concentrating, memory problems, low mood, and sometimes pain around the head and neck, and blurred vision.

      Amok is a dissociative state that is more prevalent in Malaysia. It is characterized by symptoms such as neurasthenia, depersonalization, rage, automatism, and violent acts.

      Latah is a condition similar to Tourette’s syndrome, where an exaggerated startle response leads to abnormal behavior such as screaming, cursing, dancing movements, and uncontrollable laughter. Upon provocation, affected individuals may also shout obscene utterances, imitate a word, gesture, of action, of automatically obey commands that they would not normally follow.

      Piblokto, traditionally found among Eskimo women, presents with attacks of screaming, crying, and running naked through the snow.

      Wendigo is a depressive condition characterized by the delusion that one has become cannibalistic. It is mostly observed in Native Americans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Which gene, present in an extra copy in individuals with Down's syndrome, is...

    Incorrect

    • Which gene, present in an extra copy in individuals with Down's syndrome, is associated with an elevated risk of developing Alzheimer's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amyloid precursor protein

      Explanation:

      The increased likelihood of Alzheimer’s disease in individuals with Down’s syndrome is believed to be linked to their inheritance of an additional copy of the amyloid precursor protein (APP) found on chromosome 21.

      Genetics plays a role in the development of Alzheimer’s disease, with different genes being associated with early onset and late onset cases. Early onset Alzheimer’s, which is rare, is linked to three genes: amyloid precursor protein (APP), presenilin one (PSEN-1), and presenilin two (PSEN-2). The APP gene, located on chromosome 21, produces a protein that is a precursor to amyloid. The presenilins are enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments, and alterations in the ratios of these fragments can lead to plaque formation. Late onset Alzheimer’s is associated with the apolipoprotein E (APOE) gene on chromosome 19, with the E4 variant increasing the risk of developing the disease. People with Down’s syndrome are also at high risk of developing Alzheimer’s due to inheriting an extra copy of the APP gene.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - You are asked to assess a 75 year old woman on a geriatric...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to assess a 75 year old woman on a geriatric ward who presents with sudden dizziness and vomiting. During your examination, you notice that the right side of her face seems to have lost sensation, and her left arm and leg also appear to have lost sensation to pain and temperature. What is your suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery occlusion

      Explanation:

      Posterior inferior cerebellar artery occlusion/infarct, also known as Wallenberg’s syndrome of lateral medullary syndrome, can cause a sudden onset of dizziness and vomiting. It can also result in ipsilateral facial sensory loss, specifically for pain and temperature, and contralateral sensory loss for pain and temperature of the limbs and trunk. Nystagmus to the side of the lesion, ipsilateral limb ataxia, dysphagia, and dysarthria are also common symptoms. Additionally, this condition can cause ipsilateral pharyngeal and laryngeal paralysis.

      Brain Blood Supply and Consequences of Occlusion

      The brain receives blood supply from the internal carotid and vertebral arteries, which form the circle of Willis. The circle of Willis acts as a shunt system in case of vessel damage. The three main vessels arising from the circle are the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), middle cerebral artery (MCA), and posterior cerebral artery (PCA). Occlusion of these vessels can result in various neurological deficits. ACA occlusion may cause hemiparesis of the contralateral foot and leg, sensory loss, and frontal signs. MCA occlusion is the most common and can lead to hemiparesis, dysphasia/aphasia, neglect, and visual field defects. PCA occlusion may cause alexia, loss of sensation, hemianopia, prosopagnosia, and cranial nerve defects. It is important to recognize these consequences to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which symptom is unlikely to be the first one noticed in a person...

    Incorrect

    • Which symptom is unlikely to be the first one noticed in a person with normal pressure hydrocephalus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Headache and other symptoms commonly associated with hydrocephalus may not be present in normal pressure hydrocephalus due to the fact that intracranial pressure does not typically remain elevated.

      Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a type of chronic communicating hydrocephalus, which occurs due to the impaired reabsorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) by the arachnoid villi. Although the CSF pressure is typically high, it remains within the normal range, and therefore, it does not cause symptoms of high intracranial pressure (ICP) such as headache and nausea. Instead, patients with normal pressure hydrocephalus usually present with a classic triad of symptoms, including incontinence, gait ataxia, and dementia, which is often referred to as wet, wobbly, and wacky. Unfortunately, this condition is often misdiagnosed as Parkinson’s of Alzheimer’s disease.

      The classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus, also known as Hakim’s triad, includes gait instability, urinary incontinence, and dementia. On the other hand, non-communicating hydrocephalus results from the obstruction of CSF flow in the third of fourth ventricle, which causes symptoms of raised intracranial pressure, such as headache, vomiting, hypertension, bradycardia, altered consciousness, and papilledema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - Which cognitive heuristic best explains why Drug B captured a higher market share...

    Incorrect

    • Which cognitive heuristic best explains why Drug B captured a higher market share than Drug A, despite both drugs having similar efficacy and mechanisms of action, with Drug A marketed as having a 50% failure rate and Drug B marketed as having a 50% success rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Framing

      Explanation:

      Heuristics: Cognitive Shortcuts that can Lead to Diagnostic Errors

      In the 1970s, Tversky and Kahneman proposed that humans use cognitive heuristics, of mental shortcuts, to simplify complex decision-making processes. However, these heuristics can also lead to systematic errors. One such heuristic is the representativeness bias, where individuals judge the likelihood of an event based on how closely it resembles a stereotype. For example, a person described as shy and detail-oriented may be more likely to be perceived as a librarian than a farmer.

      Another heuristic is the availability bias, where individuals favor recent and readily available information over more accurate but less accessible information. This can lead to overestimating the frequency of certain events, such as violent crime. The anchoring-and-adjustment bias occurs when individuals lock onto salient features in a patient’s initial presentation and fail to adjust their impression in light of new information.

      The framing effect is another bias where individuals react differently to a choice depending on how the information is presented. For example, a pharmaceutical company may present a drug as having a 95% cure rate, making it seem superior to a drug with a 2.5% failure rate. Base rate neglect occurs when individuals ignore underlying incident rates of population-based knowledge, leading to unnecessary testing of treatment.

      Confirmation bias is a tendency to interpret information to fit preconceived diagnoses, rather than considering alternative explanations. The conjunction rule is the incorrect belief that the probability of multiple events being true is greater than a single event. Finally, diagnostic momentum occurs when clinicians continue a course of action initiated by previous clinicians without considering new information.

      Overall, while heuristics can be useful in simplifying complex decision-making processes, they can also lead to diagnostic errors if not used appropriately. It is important for clinicians to be aware of these biases and actively work to avoid them in their practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A forensic psychiatrist evaluates a woman in custody who is accused of murdering...

    Incorrect

    • A forensic psychiatrist evaluates a woman in custody who is accused of murdering her 4 year old daughter. The woman has a background of schizophrenia. She confesses to the psychiatrist that she committed the crime and provides a detailed description of the event. The psychiatrist observes that although she appeared somewhat disturbed by her recollection of the incident, her level of disturbance was significantly lower than anticipated. What does this imply?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blunt affect

      Explanation:

      The women’s affect is not flat as she displays some emotions, but they seem to be blunted and less intense than anticipated. However, her emotions are appropriate and in line with the situation, indicating that they are not incongruous.

      Mental State Exam – Mood and Affect

      Affect is a term used to describe a patient’s present emotional responsiveness, which is indicated by their facial expression and tone of voice. It can be described as being within normal range, constricted (where the affect is restricted in range and intensity), blunted (similar to constricted but a bit more so), of flat (where there are virtually no signs of affective expression). Mood, on the other hand, is a more prolonged prevailing state of disposition. A feeling is an active experience of somatic sensation of a passive subjective experience of an emotion, while an emotion is best thought of as a feeling and memory intertwined. Apathy is the absence of feeling. It is important to distinguish between affect and mood, as affect is momentary and mood is more prolonged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      0
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  • Question 40 - A 65-year-old patient was recently diagnosed with diabetes and was prescribed medication. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient was recently diagnosed with diabetes and was prescribed medication. He now presents with weight loss and increased thirst.
      Which investigation is most likely to help make the correct diagnosis of this weight loss and increased thirst?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fasting glucose

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is type 2 diabetes mellitus. It is important to note that the patient is experiencing weight loss, which is more commonly associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus of new onset type 2 diabetes mellitus. A fasting glucose test can aid in making a diagnosis and provide insight into the cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      While abnormalities related to dehydration may be observed in U&Es, this investigation alone would not be sufficient for a diagnosis. LFTs and FBC may be useful as routine blood tests, but they would not provide an explanation for the patient’s clinical presentation.

      If the patient is taking lithium, measuring lithium levels could be helpful in identifying potential side effects such as increased thirst. However, lithium is more commonly associated with weight gain rather than weight loss, so it may not be relevant in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Assessment
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - How can the four principles of medical ethics be stated? ...

    Incorrect

    • How can the four principles of medical ethics be stated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autonomy, Beneficence, Non-maleficence and Justice

      Explanation:

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 42 - A mutation affecting the transcriptional activity of a new gene associated with Alzheimer's...

    Incorrect

    • A mutation affecting the transcriptional activity of a new gene associated with Alzheimer's disease is reported. The mutation is most likely to be in which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Promoter region

      Explanation:

      Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.

      Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.

      The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 43 - What is the tool used to evaluate the intelligence of children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the tool used to evaluate the intelligence of children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: WISC

      Explanation:

      The WISC, a commonly utilized IQ assessment for children, consists of ten distinct evaluations that generate performance and verbal IQ scores, as well as an overall IQ score. NART, on the other hand, is a measure of premorbid IQ, while Rivermead assesses visual memory. WAIS is the adult version of the Wechsler intelligence scale, and the Wisconsin card sorting test evaluates executive function, specifically the frontal lobe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Description And Measurement
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      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Which of these options represents a primary reinforcer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these options represents a primary reinforcer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Food

      Explanation:

      Operant Conditioning: Reinforcement, Punishment, and More

      Operant conditioning, also known as instrumental learning, is a theory of learning developed by B.F. Skinner. It suggests that people learn by interacting with their environment. Reinforcement and punishment are key concepts in operant conditioning. A reinforcer is a stimulus of event that increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Reinforcement can be positive of negative. Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by adding a rewarding stimulus, while negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior is strengthened by removing an unpleasant stimulus. A punisher is a stimulus that decreases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated. Positive punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by adding an unpleasant stimulus, while negative punishment occurs when a behavior is reduced in frequency by removing a pleasant stimulus.

      Primary reinforcers are instinctual desires such as food, water, social approval, and sex. Secondary reinforcers, also known as conditioned reinforcers, are not innately appreciated and people have to learn to like them through classical conditioning of other methods. Secondary reinforcers include things such as money. Different patterns of reinforcement have different influences on the response. There are five main reinforcement schedules: fixed interval, variable interval, fixed ratio, variable ratio, and random. Variable ratio schedules are most resistant to extinction.

      Shaping and chaining are techniques used when an exact behavior cannot be performed and so cannot be rewarded. Shaping involves rewarding successive, increasingly accurate approximations to the behavior, while chaining involves breaking a complex task into smaller, more manageable sections. Escape conditioning refers to a situation whereby an aversive situation is removed after a response. It is a form of negative reinforcement. Habituation refers to the phenomenon whereby there is a decrease in response to a stimulus over time. Covert sensitization is a technique used whereby someone learns to use mental imagery to associate a behavior with a negative consequence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
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  • Question 45 - A client in their 60s reports experiencing a tremor that fluctuates significantly. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A client in their 60s reports experiencing a tremor that fluctuates significantly. Upon observation, you observe that the tremor subsides when the client is distracted. What type of tremor do you suspect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psychogenic tremor

      Explanation:

      Types of Tremor

      Essential Tremor

      Otherwise known as benign essential tremor, this is the most common type of tremor. It is not associated with any underlying pathology. It usually begins in the 40’s, affects mainly the hands, and is slowly progressive. It tends to worsen with heightened emotion. It usually presents with unilateral upper limb involvement then progresses to both limbs.

      Parkinsonian Tremor

      This tremor is associated with Parkinson’s disease. It is classically described as ‘pill rolling’ due to the characteristic appearance of the fingers.

      Cerebellar Tremor

      Otherwise known as an intention tremor. This is a slow, coarse tremor which gets worse with purposeful movement. This is seen in lithium toxicity (note that the tremor seen as a side effect of long term lithium is fine and classed as physiological).

      Psychogenic Tremor

      Also known as a hysterical tremor. This type of tremor tends to appear and disappear suddenly and is hard to characterise due to its changeable nature. It tends to improve with distraction.

      Physiologic Tremor

      This is a very-low-amplitude fine tremor that is barely visible to the naked eye. It is present in every normal person while maintaining a posture of movement. It becomes enhanced and visible in many conditions such as anxiety, hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal, and as drug induced side effects.

      It is useful to have a basic idea about the frequencies of different types of tremor.

      Type of Tremor Frequency

      Intention 2-3Hz

      Parkinsonian 5Hz

      Essential 7Hz

      Physiological 10Hz

      Psychogenic variable

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 46 - What is the lifetime prevalence of suicide completion among individuals diagnosed with borderline...

    Incorrect

    • What is the lifetime prevalence of suicide completion among individuals diagnosed with borderline personality disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 9-12%

      Explanation:

      It is estimated that around 10% of individuals diagnosed with borderline personality disorder will ultimately take their own lives. While there may be some variation in the findings of different studies, this figure is widely accepted as the general rate of completed suicide among this population over an extended period of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Advanced Psychological Processes And Treatments
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  • Question 47 - What is the process that involves the transfer of amino acids to the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the process that involves the transfer of amino acids to the ribosome during translation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: tRNA

      Explanation:

      Genomics: Understanding DNA, RNA, Transcription, and Translation

      Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a molecule composed of two chains that coil around each other to form a double helix. DNA is organised into chromosomes, and each chromosome is made up of DNA coiled around proteins called histones. RNA, on the other hand, is made from a long chain of nucleotide units and is usually single-stranded. RNA is transcribed from DNA by enzymes called RNA polymerases and is central to protein synthesis.

      Transcription is the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template, and it consists of three main steps: initiation, elongation, and termination. RNA polymerase binds at a sequence of DNA called the promoter, and the transcriptome is the collection of RNA molecules that results from transcription. Translation, on the other hand, refers to the synthesis of polypeptides (proteins) from mRNA. Translation takes place on ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm, where mRNA is read and translated into the string of amino acid chains that make up the synthesized protein.

      The process of translation involves messenger RNA (mRNA), transfer RNA (tRNA), and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNAs, of tRNAs, connect mRNA codons to the amino acids they encode, while ribosomes are the structures where polypeptides (proteins) are built. Like transcription, translation also consists of three stages: initiation, elongation, and termination. In initiation, the ribosome assembles around the mRNA to be read and the first tRNA carrying the amino acid methionine. In elongation, the amino acid chain gets longer, and in termination, the finished polypeptide chain is released.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which defense mechanism is the least advanced of developed in terms of maturity?...

    Incorrect

    • Which defense mechanism is the least advanced of developed in terms of maturity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Projection

      Explanation:

      Projection is classified as an underdeveloped defense mechanism, as it is considered immature. Freud proposed the idea that defenses evolve along a spectrum of personality growth. As an illustration, as time passes and the connections between the frontal lobe and the limbic system continue to myelinate, the defense mechanism commonly seen in adolescence, acting out (such as impulsive and momentarily soothing outbursts), may give rise to reaction formation and potentially even altruism in the future.

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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  • Question 49 - A child comes to the clinic, they say hello and take a seat....

    Incorrect

    • A child comes to the clinic, they say hello and take a seat. You ask them how their day was to which they answer 'good'. They are then asked to name their favorite animal to which they answer dog. They are then asked what sound a cat makes and they answer woof. They are then asked what color the sky is and they answer green. What sign do they exhibit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perseveration

      Explanation:

      Perseveration: The Clinical Symptoms in Chronic Schizophrenia and Organic Dementia

      Perseveration is a common behavior observed in patients with organic brain involvement. It is characterized by the conscious continuation of an act of an idea. This behavior is frequently seen in patients with delirium, epilepsy, dementia, schizophrenia, and normal individuals under extreme fatigue of drug-induced states.

      In chronic schizophrenia and organic dementia, perseveration is a prominent symptom. Patients with these conditions tend to repeat the same words, phrases, of actions over and over again, even when it is no longer appropriate of relevant to the situation. This behavior can be frustrating for caregivers and family members, and it can also interfere with the patient’s ability to communicate effectively.

      In schizophrenia, perseveration is often associated with disorganized thinking and speech. Patients may jump from one topic to another without any logical connection, and they may repeat the same words of phrases in an attempt to express their thoughts. In organic dementia, perseveration is a sign of cognitive decline and memory impairment. Patients may repeat the same stories of questions, forgetting that they have already asked of answered them.

      Overall, perseveration is a common symptom in patients with organic brain involvement, and it can have a significant impact on their daily functioning and quality of life. Understanding this behavior is essential for effective management and treatment of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
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  • Question 50 - A 35 year old anxious man, during the course of his therapy, says...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old anxious man, during the course of his therapy, says that he is calm but the whole world is anxious. Which of the following defense mechanisms does this illustrate?:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Projection

      Explanation:

      Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation

      Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.

      Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.

      Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.

      Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Classification And Assessment (3/6) 50%
Psychopharmacology (4/7) 57%
Neurosciences (2/5) 40%
Social Psychology (1/2) 50%
Psychological Development (1/4) 25%
Diagnosis (0/1) 0%
Genetics (1/2) 50%
Description And Measurement (0/1) 0%
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