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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man is seen in the Cardiology clinic after experiencing a heart attack a year ago. He was diagnosed with hypertension and diabetes during his hospitalization. The patient reports gaining 5kg in the last 6 months and wonders if any of his medications could be causing this weight gain. Which of his prescribed drugs may be contributing to his recent weight gain?
Your Answer: Metformin
Correct Answer: Gliclazide
Explanation:Weight gain is a common side effect of sulfonylureas.
Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but they are only effective if the pancreas is functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, which helps to increase insulin secretion. However, there are some potential side effects associated with these drugs.
One of the most common side effects of sulfonylureas is hypoglycaemia, which can be more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Weight gain is another possible side effect. In rare cases, sulfonylureas can cause hyponatraemia, which is a condition where the body retains too much water and sodium levels become too low. Other rare side effects include bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy. It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman comes for a check-up at the clinic. She was diagnosed with Hashimoto's thyroiditis three months ago and is currently on levothyroxine 75 mcg once daily. What is the most crucial blood test to evaluate her treatment progress?
Your Answer: Free T4
Correct Answer: TSH
Explanation:Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.
Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, vomiting and lethargy. His mother informs you he first developed 'flu-like symptoms' around four days ago. The patient has a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes. He is on a basal-bolus regimen but has not been taking his insulin regularly since he became unwell.
On examination, he is confused and is hyperventilating. His blood glucose is 22 mmol/L (<11.1 mmol/L) and his blood ketone level is 4.0 mmol/L (<0.6 mmol/L). You request an arterial blood gas (ABG).
pH 7.19 (7.35-7.45)
pO2 14.0 kPa (10-14 kPa)
pCO2 3.6 kPa (4.5-6.0 kPa)
Bicarbonate 12 mmol/L (22-28 mmol/L)
Given the results, you start the patient on IV resuscitation fluids. What is the next most appropriate step in management?Your Answer: Fixed-rate IV insulin infusion (0.1 units/kg/hour) AND stop all injectable insulins
Correct Answer: Fixed-rate IV insulin infusion (0.1 units/kg/hour) AND continue injectable long-acting insulin only
Explanation:Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 4
Correct
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A 65-year-old man has scheduled an elective inguinal hernia surgery and is a diabetic taking metformin once daily. His blood glucose levels have been well controlled. He is wondering what he should do with his medication before the surgery.
What advice would be appropriate for him?Your Answer: Continue metformin as normal the day before surgery
Explanation:Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old female patient complains of various symptoms that have persisted for the last four months. These symptoms include weight gain, especially around the abdomen, with noticeable purplish stretch marks, thin skin, and easy bruising. She has also been experiencing increased swelling in her ankles and a low mood. As part of the diagnostic process, a series of laboratory tests are conducted.
What electrolyte abnormality is anticipated in this patient?Your Answer: Hyperkalaemic metabolic acidosis
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:The patient is suffering from Cushing’s syndrome, which is characterized by an excess of cortisol. This can be caused by exogenous glucocorticoid therapy, autonomous overproduction by the adrenal glands, or increased production of adrenocorticotrophic hormone. High levels of cortisol can mimic the effects of aldosterone, leading to increased sodium and water retention and increased potassium excretion, resulting in hypokalemia. The increased resorption of bicarbonate in the tubules due to potassium depletion causes metabolic alkalosis. Hyperkalemic metabolic acidosis is not expected because cortisol’s effect on the mineralocorticoid receptor causes a loss of potassium. Hyperkalemic respiratory alkalosis is also not expected because cortisol’s effect on the mineralocorticoid receptor leads to potassium excretion. Additionally, any acid-base disturbance in Cushing’s syndrome is likely to be metabolically mediated rather than respiratory. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis is not expected because the concomitant loss of potassium and reabsorption of bicarbonate causes metabolic alkalosis.
Investigations for Cushing’s Syndrome
Cushing’s syndrome is a condition caused by excessive cortisol production in the body. There are various causes of Cushing’s syndrome, including iatrogenic, ACTH-dependent, and ACTH-independent causes. To diagnose Cushing’s syndrome, doctors typically perform tests to confirm the condition and determine its underlying cause.
General lab findings consistent with Cushing’s syndrome include hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis and impaired glucose tolerance. Ectopic ACTH secretion, which is often associated with small cell lung cancer, is characterized by very low potassium levels.
The two most commonly used tests to confirm Cushing’s syndrome are the overnight dexamethasone suppression test and the 24-hour urinary free cortisol test. The overnight dexamethasone suppression test is the most sensitive test and is used first-line to test for Cushing’s syndrome. Patients with Cushing’s syndrome do not have their morning cortisol spike suppressed. The 24-hour urinary free cortisol test measures the amount of cortisol in the urine over a 24-hour period.
To localize the cause of Cushing’s syndrome, doctors may perform additional tests such as high-dose dexamethasone suppression test, CRH stimulation, and petrosal sinus sampling of ACTH. An insulin stress test may also be used to differentiate between true Cushing’s and pseudo-Cushing’s. Overall, a combination of these tests can help diagnose Cushing’s syndrome and determine its underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman is referred by her General Practitioner due to irregular and unpredictable menstrual cycle and headaches. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain shows a midline lesion. Further investigations reveal that her prolactin level is 2314 ng/ml (normal range: 2–29 ng/ml). To reduce the prolactin level, which mediator is manipulated for medical treatment?
Your Answer: Somatostatin
Correct Answer: Dopamine
Explanation:Targeting Hormones in Prolactinoma Treatment
Prolactinoma is a pituitary lesion that results in excessive prolactin secretion. To reduce prolactin levels, dopamine agonists like bromocriptine are used to target dopamine receptors in the anterior pituitary. While increased prolactin can indirectly decrease gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) secretion, GnRH receptors are not a therapeutic target in prolactin disorders. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) increases adrenocorticotropic hormone secretion and is not a target in prolactin disorders. Somatostatin decreases thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and growth hormone secretion but does not affect prolactin levels. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) increases prolactin and TSH release, but its use is limited due to side-effects on thyroid regulation and the superiority of dopamine agonists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding gestational diabetes is accurate?
Your Answer: All pregnant women are screened for gestational diabetes with a serum glucose
Correct Answer: Women of Afro-Caribbean origin are at an increased risk
Explanation:Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 8
Correct
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A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, low mood, and difficulty passing stools. Upon conducting a set of initial blood tests, the following results are obtained:
Calcium 3.2 mmol/l
Albumin 38 g/l
What is the most effective diagnostic test to identify the underlying reason for his elevated calcium levels?Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone
Explanation:Parathyroid hormone levels serve as a valuable tool in identifying the underlying causes of hypercalcaemia, with malignancy and primary hyperparathyroidism being the most prevalent culprits. If the parathyroid hormone levels are normal or elevated, it indicates the presence of primary hyperparathyroidism.
Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia
Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. In most cases, two conditions account for 90% of hypercalcaemia cases. The first is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients. The second is malignancy, which is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. For this reason, measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial when investigating patients with hypercalcaemia.
Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. It is important to note that hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization in patients with Paget’s disease of the bone, although this condition is usually normal.
In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is essential in investigating patients with hypercalcaemia. Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 45 year-old-woman of African origin is diagnosed with type II diabetes by her General Practitioner. Her haemoglobin A1c was found to be 58 mmol/mol (normal range < 48 mmol/mol) on routine bloods for her annual hypertension review. Her body mass index (BMI) is 30 kg/m2.
Along with Metformin (an oral hypoglycaemic agent), which of the following is the most appropriate dietary recommendation for this patient?Your Answer: Weight loss of 10–20% (initially after diagnosis)
Correct Answer: Low-fat dairy and oily fish
Explanation:Dietary Recommendations for Type II Diabetes Management
Managing type II diabetes requires a comprehensive approach that includes lifestyle modifications and medication. One crucial aspect of diabetes management is a healthy, balanced diet. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines on dietary recommendations for people with type II diabetes.
Low-fat dairy and oily fish are recommended to control the intake of saturated and trans fatty acids. Oily fish contains Omega-3 fatty acids, which are cardio-protective. High-fibre foods with carbohydrates with a low glycaemic index, such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and pulses, are also recommended.
Sucrose-containing foods should be limited, and care should be taken to avoid excess energy intake. NICE discourages the use of foods marketed specifically for people with type II diabetes, as they are often higher in calories.
Weight loss is an essential aspect of diabetes management, particularly for overweight individuals. NICE recommends a weight loss target of 5-10% for overweight adults with type II diabetes. Those who achieve a weight loss of 10% or more in the first five years after diagnosis have the greatest chance of seeing their disease go into remission.
In summary, a healthy, balanced diet that includes low-fat dairy, oily fish, high-fibre foods with low glycaemic index carbohydrates, and limited sucrose-containing foods is crucial for managing type II diabetes. Weight loss is also an essential aspect of diabetes management, particularly for overweight individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 10
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with metastatic lung cancer visits the general practice clinic complaining of lethargy and nausea. His full blood count, thyroid function test, calcium and liver function tests all come back normal. However, his urea and electrolytes reveal significant hyponatraemia, while the rest of the results are normal. He has a reduced plasma osmolality and increased urine osmolality. He is haemodynamically stable and euvolaemic.
What is the most probable diagnosis from the options below?Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Abnormal Urine Osmolality: A Brief Overview
Abnormal urine osmolality can be indicative of various underlying conditions. Here are some of the possible causes and how to differentiate them:
Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)
SIADH is characterized by excessive secretion of ADH, leading to hyperosmolar urine and low plasma osmolality. It can be caused by central nervous system disorders, malignancies, and drugs. Treatment involves fluid restriction and addressing the underlying cause.Cranial Diabetes Insipidus
This condition is caused by the hypothalamus not producing enough vasopressin, resulting in extreme thirst and polyuria. However, urine osmolality is reduced, not elevated.Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus
Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is caused by the kidneys becoming resistant to the effect of vasopressin/ADH, leading to large volumes of dilute urine with reduced osmolality. Causes include electrolyte imbalances, medications, and renal tubular acidosis.Addison’s Disease
This condition is characterized by reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. Deficiency of mineralocorticoid leads to increased sodium excretion from the kidneys, resulting in hyponatremia associated with hyperkalemia. However, in this case, the patient has normal potassium levels.Primary Polydipsia
This condition is caused by excessive water drinking despite no physiological stimulus, resulting in dilute polyuria. However, in this patient, the urine osmolality is concentrated, making this diagnosis unlikely. A fluid deprivation test can help confirm or rule out this condition.In summary, abnormal urine osmolality can be indicative of various underlying conditions, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the correct diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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