00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 14-month-old baby is presented by his mother who is worried about his...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old baby is presented by his mother who is worried about his persistent eczematous rashes, pruritus, loose stools and colic symptoms for a few weeks. The mother is uncertain about the frequency of occurrence but reports that it is happening daily. Despite using emollients, there has been no improvement. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Immunoglobulin E (IgE)-mediated cows’ milk protein allergy

      Correct Answer: Non-IgE-mediated cows’ milk protein allergy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Non-IgE-Mediated Cows’ Milk Protein Allergy

      When a child presents with a combination of cutaneous and gastrointestinal symptoms, an allergy to cows’ milk protein is the most likely cause. This is especially true for infants who are being weaned onto cows’ milk, as in this case. However, it’s important to note that this type of allergy is often confused with lactose intolerance, which is a different condition altogether.

      One key indicator that this is a non-IgE-mediated allergy is the presence of an eczematous rash rather than an immediate reaction following ingestion. This is in contrast to an IgE-mediated reaction, which would result in an urticarial rash and occur immediately after milk was ingested.

      It’s also worth noting that this is not likely to be eczema, as the symptoms have not improved with emollients and there are accompanying gastrointestinal symptoms. Similarly, a peanut allergy can be ruled out as the symptoms do not fit the diagnosis of an IgE-mediated reaction.

      Overall, understanding the nuances of non-IgE-mediated cows’ milk protein allergy is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      52.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the most appropriate next step in managing a 40-year-old woman who...

    Correct

    • What is the most appropriate next step in managing a 40-year-old woman who presents with yellowing of the skin and eyes, fatigue, and intense itching, and has a history of coeliac disease? Her test results show elevated bilirubin, positive anti-mitochondrial antibodies, and normal kidney function.

      Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Primary Biliary Cholangitis

      Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is an inflammatory condition that affects middle-aged, overweight women. The most common symptoms are fatigue and pruritis, along with elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is the preferred treatment for PBC as it slows disease progression. Cholestyramine can effectively control pruritis, but it does not affect overall mortality in PBC. Liver transplantation is reserved for cases where medical alternatives have failed. Loratadine is not indicated for PBC, and prednisolone is used in the treatment of autoimmune hepatitis, which is a different condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which one of the following statements regarding allergy testing is inaccurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding allergy testing is inaccurate?

      Your Answer: Skin prick testing should be read after 48 hours

      Explanation:

      The results of skin prick testing can be interpreted after 15-20 minutes, while skin patch testing requires 48 hours after the patch is removed to be read.

      Types of Allergy Tests

      Allergy tests are used to determine if a person has an allergic reaction to a particular substance. There are several types of allergy tests available, each with its own advantages and limitations. The most commonly used test is the skin prick test, which is easy to perform and inexpensive. Drops of diluted allergen are placed on the skin, and a needle is used to pierce the skin. A wheal will typically develop if a patient has an allergy. This test is useful for food allergies and pollen.

      Another type of allergy test is the radioallergosorbent test (RAST), which determines the amount of IgE that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. Results are given in grades from 0 (negative) to 6 (strongly positive). This test is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (e.g. pollen), and wasp/bee venom.

      Skin patch testing is useful for contact dermatitis. Around 30-40 allergens are placed on the back, and irritants may also be tested for. The patches are removed 48 hours later, and the results are read by a dermatologist after a further 48 hours. Blood tests may be used when skin prick tests are not suitable, for example if there is extensive eczema or if the patient is taking antihistamines. Overall, allergy tests are an important tool in diagnosing and managing allergies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 62-year-old woman complains of blood in her stool and unintentional weight loss....

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman complains of blood in her stool and unintentional weight loss. During rectal examination, you notice a suspicious lesion below the pectinate line, which raises concern for cancer. You proceed to check for any signs of lymphadenopathy.
      Where would you anticipate discovering enlarged lymph nodes?

      Your Answer: Inguinal

      Explanation:

      Lymph Node Drainage in the Pelvic Region

      The lymphatic drainage in the pelvic region is an important aspect of the body’s immune system. There are several lymph nodes in this area that drain different parts of the body. Here is a breakdown of the lymph node drainage in the pelvic region:

      1. Inguinal: The inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal inferior to the pectinate line. These nodes then drain into the lateral pelvic nodes.

      2. External iliac: The external iliac nodes drain the adductor region of the upper thigh, glans, clitoris, cervix, and upper bladder.

      3. Inferior mesenteric: The inferior mesenteric nodes drain the sigmoid, upper rectum, and descending colon.

      4. Internal iliac: The internal iliac nodes drain the rectum and the part of the anal canal superior to the pectinate line.

      5. Superior mesenteric: The superior mesenteric nodes drain parts of the upper gastrointestinal tract, specifically the duodenum and jejunum.

      Understanding the lymph node drainage in the pelvic region is important for diagnosing and treating certain conditions. By knowing which lymph nodes drain which parts of the body, healthcare professionals can better identify the source of an infection or cancer and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 4-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 4-week history of diarrhoea, opening her bowels up to 2–3 times per day. She also complains of intermittent bloating and abdominal pain mostly prior to opening her bowels. There is no history of fever or vomiting and she has no past medical history of note. She returned from Thailand two weeks ago.
      Stool microscopy: trophozoites and cysts are seen.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the recommended management for this patient?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Diarrhoeal Illnesses: Understanding the Appropriate Treatment

      Giardiasis is a diarrhoeal illness caused by the protozoa Giardia lamblia, which is spread through contaminated food, water or faeces. The disease can last up to six weeks and presents with symptoms such as abdominal bloating, flatulence or malabsorption. Metronidazole is the preferred treatment for giardiasis due to its effectiveness and improved compliance.

      Doxycycline is used to treat cholera, a severe disease that causes watery diarrhoea and dehydration. However, the chronic duration of symptoms and presence of parasitic organisms make cholera unlikely.

      Ciprofloxacin is used to treat urinary-tract infections and some diarrhoeal illnesses such as cholera and Campylobacter jejuni infections. However, Campylobacter is usually self-limiting and has a much shorter duration of illness, making it an unlikely diagnosis.

      Clindamycin is not classically used to treat giardiasis and should be used with caution due to the increased risk of developing antibiotic-associated colitis and opportunistic infections such as Clostridium difficile.

      Co-amoxiclav may be used to treat intra-abdominal infections such as biliary sepsis, but it is not indicated for giardiasis.

      In summary, understanding the appropriate use of antibiotics for diarrhoeal illnesses is crucial in providing effective treatment and avoiding unnecessary risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      28.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old man experiences abrupt facial swelling, hives, and respiratory distress following consumption...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man experiences abrupt facial swelling, hives, and respiratory distress following consumption of shellfish at a Chinese eatery. What is the most suitable course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular adrenaline - 0.5ml of 1 in 1,000

      Explanation:

      The recommended adult dose of adrenaline for anaphylaxis is 500 mcg, which is equivalent to 0.5 ml of a 1 in 1,000 solution.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.

      The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.

      Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 15-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms of tingling and...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms of tingling and irritation in his mouth and throat on two or three occasions in the past year. Most recently, he suffered from swelling of his throat and difficulty breathing after receiving a local anaesthetic for tooth extraction at the dentist. He reports that his father died of a suspected allergic reaction when he was 42 years old.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 129 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.8 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 341 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 5 mm/hour 1–20 mm/hour
      Patch testing Mild reaction to grass pollens
      C4 Low
      C3 Normal
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Hereditary angio-oedema

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this patient is hereditary angio-oedema, also known as hereditary angioneurotic oedema. This is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a congenital deficiency of the C1 inhibitor protein, which is mapped to chromosome 11. In some cases, C1 inhibitor levels are normal but have reduced function. Symptoms typically appear during adolescence and include recurrent attacks of pain, tingling, or itching, particularly around the mouth and pharynx, which may be triggered by increased circulating sex steroids or dental anaesthesia using lidocaine. Diagnosis is made by measuring complement levels, with C4 always low during attacks and often low in between, while C3 and C1q are always normal. Treatment involves using C1 inhibitor concentrate during acute attacks and danazol to increase C4 levels and reduce the frequency and severity of attacks. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated due to the risk of bradykinin accumulation. Acquired angio-oedema, which is caused by an acquired C1 inhibitor deficiency and is associated with lymphoproliferative disorders, is a different condition. Protein C deficiency is a genetic prothrombotic condition that does not explain this patient’s symptoms, and somatisation disorder is unlikely given the clear test abnormalities related to the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      49.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 15-year-old boy presents to his General Practitioner as he has been suffering...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents to his General Practitioner as he has been suffering from recurrent infections for the last few months. He has also been losing weight. He has taken four courses of antibiotics in the last six months for various respiratory tract infections. He also experienced an episode of shingles that took a few years to clear after becoming secondarily infected.
      On examination, he is pale and underweight, with a body mass index (BMI) of 17.5 kg/m2. He has fine, downy hair on his back, abdomen and forearms. His temperature is 35.9 °C. His blood pressure is 90/45 mmHg while his pulse is 52 bpm.
      What is the most likely cause of this patient’s immunodeficiency?

      Your Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection

      Correct Answer: Malnutrition

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of immunodeficiency in an adolescent with weight loss and recurrent infection

      Malnutrition, primary immunodeficiency, cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, and diabetes mellitus are among the possible causes of immunodeficiency in an adolescent with weight loss and recurrent infection. Malnutrition can suppress the immune system and is often associated with anorexia nervosa, which can be characterized by a very low body mass index (BMI), lanugo hair growth, hypothermia, bradycardia, and hypotension. Primary immunodeficiency syndromes, which are usually inherited as single-gene disorders, tend to present in infancy or early childhood with poor growth and weight gain and recurrent, prolonged, severe, or atypical infections. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a herpes virus that can cause serious complications in immunocompromised individuals or congenital cases, but is usually asymptomatic in immunocompetent individuals. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection can result in immunodeficiency by infecting and destroying CD4 cells, and should be suspected in individuals with prolonged, severe, or recurrent infections, particularly if they are a member of a high-risk group. Diabetes mellitus, especially type I, can also cause dysfunction of the immune system and increase the risk of infection. However, in an adolescent with a low BMI, type II diabetes would be very unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      509
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department after consuming a cake containing...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department after consuming a cake containing hazelnut chocolate spread. He has a known allergy to tree nuts and has previously been hospitalized due to an anaphylactic reaction.

      Upon examination, he displays a widespread, confluent erythematous urticarial rash at flexor sites. He is speaking in full sentences and has no signs of oral or peri-oral edema. There is no audible wheeze.

      His vital signs indicate a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min, 98% oxygen saturation in room air, a heart rate of 115 beats/min, and a blood pressure of 97/68 mmHg.

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: IM adrenaline + IV chlorphenamine

      Correct Answer: IM adrenaline only

      Explanation:

      In cases of anaphylaxis, the most crucial drug to administer is IM adrenaline, even if the patient does not have breathing difficulties. This patient is displaying signs of anaphylaxis, such as tachycardia and hypotension. The recommended site for administering IM adrenaline is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. If the patient responds well to the first dose, they may be discharged after two hours of symptom resolution.

      IV chlorphenamine is no longer part of the initial management for anaphylaxis. Instead, non-sedating oral antihistamines are preferred after initial treatment. IV chlorphenamine may be used later in management if IM adrenaline is insufficient, and it can be continued orally or by injection for 24-48 hours to prevent relapse.

      IV hydrocortisone was previously recommended as an adjuvant drug in the management of acute anaphylaxis. However, due to the lack of evidence and delayed onset of action, it is no longer recommended in the initial management of anaphylaxis.

      Oral chlorphenamine is not the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its sedating properties. Non-sedating oral antihistamines, such as cetirizine, are preferred in the management of allergic reactions and in stabilized patients after acute anaphylaxis has resolved (2021 Resus Council Guidelines). If the patient’s urticaria symptoms persist, a non-sedating antihistamine may be prescribed.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.

      The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.

      Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      56.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 12-month-old boy is due to receive his vaccinations today.
    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-month-old boy is due to receive his vaccinations today.
      Which of the following vaccines are most likely to be given to a child at 12 months old?

      Your Answer: Six-in-one vaccine

      Correct Answer: MMR, Hib/meningitis C, meningitis B and pneumococcal

      Explanation:

      Vaccination Schedule for Infants in the UK

      In the UK, infants are recommended to receive a series of vaccinations to protect them from various diseases. Here is a breakdown of the vaccination schedule and when each vaccine is given.

      UK Infant Vaccination Schedule

      MMR, Hib/Men C, Men B, and Pneumococcal Vaccines

      At one year of age, infants are given the MMR, Hib/Men C, and the third dose of both the Men B and pneumococcal vaccines.

      Pneumococcal, Rotavirus, Men B, and MMR Vaccines

      The pneumococcal and rotavirus vaccines are given at eight weeks, while the Men B vaccine is given at 8 weeks, 16 weeks, and one year. The MMR vaccine is given at 12-14 months.

      MMR, Rotavirus, and Pneumococcal Vaccines

      The MMR vaccine is given at 12-14 months, while the rotavirus and pneumococcal vaccines are given at eight weeks, 16 weeks, and one year.

      Rotavirus, MMR, Six-in-One, and Men B Vaccines

      The rotavirus and six-in-one vaccines are given at eight weeks, while the Men B vaccine is given at 8 weeks, 16 weeks, and one year. The MMR vaccine is given at 12-14 months.

      Six-in-One Vaccine

      The six-in-one vaccine is given at eight weeks, 12 weeks, and 16 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      12.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Immunology/Allergy (5/10) 50%
Passmed