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  • Question 1 - A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a swollen left upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a swollen left upper eyelid that has been bothering him for the past 3 months. He recalls noticing a bump on the eyelid that was uncomfortable at first, but it gradually grew into a hard lump. He denies any pain at present and has not experienced any vision problems. Upon examination, the eye appears to be in good health. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hordeolum externa

      Correct Answer: Chalazion

      Explanation:

      A painless, firm lump in the eyelid is indicative of a chalazion or Meibomian cyst. This occurs when the Meibomian gland becomes blocked, resulting in the formation of a cyst. It is often a consequence of an internal stye (hordeolum internum). Although cysts may resolve on their own, they may require topical antibiotics if they become infected. The absence of pain and the prolonged history suggest that it is not an internal or external stye. Blepharitis and ectropion are unlikely to cause a lump in the eyelid.

      Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues. One such issue is blepharitis, which is inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Another problem is a stye, which is an infection of the glands in the eyelids. Chalazion, also known as Meibomian cyst, is another eyelid problem that can occur. Entropion is when the eyelids turn inward, while ectropion is when they turn outward.

      Styes can come in different forms, such as external or internal. An external stye is an infection of the glands that produce sebum or sweat, while an internal stye is an infection of the Meibomian glands. Treatment for styes typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only being recommended if there is also conjunctivitis present. A chalazion, on the other hand, is a painless lump that can form in the eyelid due to a retention cyst of the Meibomian gland. While most cases will resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old man is advised on the genetics of Huntington's disease. What is...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man is advised on the genetics of Huntington's disease. What is the best explanation for the concept of anticipation?

      Your Answer: Earlier age of onset in successive generations

      Explanation:

      Trinucleotide repeat disorders exhibit earlier onset in successive generations due to anticipation, which is often accompanied by an escalation in symptom severity.

      Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that occur due to an abnormal number of repeats of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides. These expansions are unstable and can enlarge, leading to an earlier age of onset in successive generations, a phenomenon known as anticipation. In most cases, an increase in the severity of symptoms is also observed. It is important to note that these disorders are predominantly neurological in nature.

      Examples of trinucleotide repeat disorders include Fragile X, Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, spinocerebellar ataxia, spinobulbar muscular atrophy, and dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy. Friedreich’s ataxia is unique in that it does not demonstrate anticipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with a concern that he...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) with a concern that he has been experiencing hearing loss in his left ear. He occasionally hears a buzzing sound in this ear, but it is not bothersome and does not affect his daily life. He is worried about the hearing loss as his mother had to use hearing aids at a young age. Otoscopy of his right ear is performed and is normal except for a slightly pinkish tympanic membrane. The GP decides to conduct some tuning fork tests. What is the most likely set of findings that will be observed?

      Your Answer: Left ear Rinne’s test bone conduction > air conduction; Weber’s test lateralises to the right

      Correct Answer: Webers test lateralises to the left ear. Rinnes test would shows bone conduction > air conduction on the left

      Explanation:

      When conducting a hearing assessment, tuning fork tests can provide valuable information about the type and location of hearing loss.

      Weber’s and Rinne’s Tests for Different Types of Hearing Loss

      Example 1:
      – Weber’s test lateralizes to the left ear
      – Rinne’s test shows bone conduction > air conduction on the left

      These results suggest conductive hearing loss, which is typical of otosclerosis. This condition affects young adults and involves the replacement of normal bone with spongy bone, leading to stapes fixation and progressive hearing loss.

      Example 2:
      – Weber’s test lateralizes to the right ear
      – Rinne’s test shows air conduction > bone conduction on the left

      These results also suggest conductive hearing loss, but in this case, it is likely due to a different cause other than otosclerosis. Unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus, a positive family history, and a pinkish tympanic membrane on examination are all typical features of otosclerosis, which is not present in this patient.

      Example 3:
      – Weber’s test lateralizes to the right ear
      – Rinne’s test shows bone conduction > air conduction on the right

      These results suggest conductive hearing loss on the right side, which could be due to a variety of causes. However, the clinical features reported in this patient suggest a possible diagnosis of otosclerosis, which would give a conductive hearing loss on the left side rather than the right.

      Example 4:
      – Weber’s test lateralizes to the left ear
      – Rinne’s test shows air conduction > bone conduction on the right

      These results suggest sensorineural hearing loss on the right side, which could be due to conditions such as vestibular schwannoma or viral labyrinthitis. However, this does not match the reported hearing loss on the left side in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      56.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A human immunodeficiency virus-1 (HIV-1)-positive woman develops multiple raised purple lesions on her...

    Correct

    • A human immunodeficiency virus-1 (HIV-1)-positive woman develops multiple raised purple lesions on her legs. Her CD4 count is 96 cells/mm3 (normal range: > 600 mm3) and her viral load measures greater than 500 000 copies/ml.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kaposi’s sarcoma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Raised Nodular Lesion: Common Skin Conditions in HIV-1 Patients

      Kaposi’s sarcoma is a prevalent tumour in HIV-1-positive individuals and a leading cause of death in these patients. It is an AIDS-defining illness in 15% of patients and commonly occurs with a CD4 count of fewer than 200 cells/mm3. Other common tumours in HIV-1 include non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and those caused by human papillomavirus. Basal cell carcinoma, the most common non-melanoma skin cancer, typically presents with a single, shiny, pearlised nodule and may ulcerate, but does not match the description in this scenario. Cryoglobulinaemia, a condition associated with hepatitis C infection, causes a vasculitic rash and does not match this scenario’s description. Fixed drug eruption describes the development of one or more annular or oval erythematous plaques resulting from systemic exposure to a drug and does not tend to cause raised nodular lesions. Melanoma is typically black/darkly pigmented and usually a single lesion, therefore it does not match the description in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old patient presents with a month-long fever and occasional afebrile episodes. Blood...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient presents with a month-long fever and occasional afebrile episodes. Blood cultures and infection screening have yielded negative results. During examination, the patient has a temperature of 38°C and nontender lymph nodes in the neck. What is the most crucial step in reaching a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lymph node biopsy

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Lymph Node Biopsy in Diagnosing Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

      When it comes to diagnosing Hodgkin’s lymphoma, a lymph node biopsy is the most reliable method. Fine-needle aspiration should not be used as the sole method for diagnosis. In addition to the biopsy, a thorough evaluation should include a medical history and examination, blood tests, liver function tests, serum protein tests, HIV testing, chest radiograph, CT scans, and bone marrow biopsy. Gallium scans can also be performed to document radioisotope uptake by the tumor. Lymphangiography may be necessary if the presentation of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is subdiaphragmatic. While a raised ESR can indicate Hodgkin’s lymphoma, it is not the most important step in obtaining a diagnosis. Similarly, repeating a CRP test or blood cultures would not be appropriate if the initial results were negative. In summary, a lymph node biopsy is crucial in diagnosing Hodgkin’s lymphoma and should be the first step in the evaluation process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman with a dichorionic twin pregnancy is concerned about the possibility...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a dichorionic twin pregnancy is concerned about the possibility of her twins having Down's syndrome. What is the most suitable investigation to perform in this case?

      Your Answer: Nuchal translucency ultrasonography on each twin

      Explanation:

      There are several methods for screening and diagnosing Down’s syndrome in pregnancy. The nuchal translucency scan, which measures fluid in the fetal neck, is best done between 11 and 14 weeks and can detect an increased risk of genetic syndromes. The triple screen, which measures levels of certain hormones in the mother’s blood, is done in the second trimester and can detect up to 69% of cases in singleton pregnancies, but may have a higher false positive or false negative in twin pregnancies. Amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling are invasive diagnostic tests that can detect chromosomal disorders with high accuracy, but carry a small risk of pregnancy loss. The routine anomaly scan should not be used for Down’s syndrome screening. Cell-free fetal DNA screening is a newer method that can detect about 99% of Down’s syndrome pregnancies, but is currently only offered by private clinics at a high cost. A positive screening result suggests an increased risk for Down’s syndrome, and definitive testing with chorionic villous sampling or amniocentesis is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 80-year-old man has been experiencing recurrent falls due to orthostatic hypotension. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man has been experiencing recurrent falls due to orthostatic hypotension. Despite trying conservative measures such as increasing fluid and salt intake, reviewing medications, and wearing compression stockings, he still experiences dizziness upon standing. What medication options are available to alleviate his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Dobutamine

      Correct Answer: Fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Fludrocortisone and midodrine are two medications that can be used to treat orthostatic hypotension. However, doxazosin, a medication used for hypertension, can actually worsen orthostatic hypotension. Prochlorperazine is used for vertigo and isoprenaline and dobutamine are not used for orthostatic hypotension as they are ionotropic agents used for patients in shock.

      Fludrocortisone works by increasing renal sodium reabsorption and plasma volume, which helps counteract the physiological orthostatic vasovagal reflex. Its effectiveness has been supported by two small observational studies and one small double-blind trial, leading the European Society of Cardiology to give it a Class IIa recommendation.

      To manage orthostatic hypotension, patients should be educated on lifestyle measures such as staying hydrated and increasing salt intake. Vasoactive drugs like nitrates, antihypertensives, neuroleptic agents, or dopaminergic drugs should be discontinued if possible. If symptoms persist, compression garments, fludrocortisone, midodrine, counter-pressure manoeuvres, and head-up tilt sleeping can be considered.

      Understanding Syncope: Causes and Evaluation

      Syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness caused by a sudden decrease in blood flow to the brain. This condition is characterized by a rapid onset, short duration, and complete recovery without any medical intervention. It is important to note that syncope is different from other causes of collapse, such as epilepsy. To better understand syncope, the European Society of Cardiology has classified it into three categories: reflex syncope, orthostatic syncope, and cardiac syncope.

      Reflex syncope, also known as neurally mediated syncope, is the most common cause of syncope in all age groups. It can be triggered by emotional stress, pain, or other situational factors such as coughing or gastrointestinal issues. Orthostatic syncope occurs when there is a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing up, and it is more common in older patients. Cardiac syncope is caused by heart-related issues such as arrhythmias, structural abnormalities, or pulmonary embolism.

      To evaluate syncope, doctors may perform a series of tests, including a cardiovascular examination, postural blood pressure readings, ECG, carotid sinus massage, tilt table test, and 24-hour ECG monitoring. These tests help to identify the underlying cause of syncope and determine the appropriate treatment plan. By understanding the causes and evaluation of syncope, patients and healthcare providers can work together to manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant has been diagnosed with syphilis during...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant has been diagnosed with syphilis during her routine booking visit bloods. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Recommend termination of pregnancy and administer antibiotic therapy

      Correct Answer: IM benzathine penicillin G

      Explanation:

      Management of Syphilis

      Syphilis can be effectively managed with intramuscular benzathine penicillin as the first-line treatment. In cases where penicillin cannot be used, doxycycline may be used as an alternative. After treatment, nontreponemal titres such as rapid plasma reagin (RPR) or Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) should be monitored to assess the response. A fourfold decline in titres is often considered an adequate response to treatment.

      It is important to note that the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur following treatment. This reaction is characterized by fever, rash, and tachycardia after the first dose of antibiotic. Unlike anaphylaxis, there is no wheezing or hypotension. The reaction is thought to be due to the release of endotoxins following bacterial death and typically occurs within a few hours of treatment. However, no treatment is needed other than antipyretics if required.

      In summary, the management of syphilis involves the use of intramuscular benzathine penicillin or doxycycline as an alternative. Nontreponemal titres should be monitored after treatment, and the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur but does not require treatment unless symptomatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which one of the following statements regarding gestational diabetes is accurate? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding gestational diabetes is accurate?

      Your Answer: Women of Afro-Caribbean origin are at an increased risk

      Explanation:

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 59-year-old woman comes in for a routine check-up with her primary care...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old woman comes in for a routine check-up with her primary care physician. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is currently taking metformin and sitagliptin. During her last visit, her blood pressure was measured at 161/88 mmHg and she was advised to undergo 7 days of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring.

      During this visit, her average ambulatory blood pressure is recorded as 158/74 mmHg. All other observations are stable and her cardiorespiratory examination is unremarkable. Her blood sugar level is 6.2 mmol/L.

      What medication would be recommended to manage this patient's blood pressure?

      Your Answer: Lisinopril

      Explanation:

      Regardless of age, ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetics.

      Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that there was little difference in outcomes between patients who had tight blood pressure control (targets < 130/85 mmHg) and those with more relaxed control (< 140-160/90-100 mmHg), except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke in the former group. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. Further management then follows that of non-diabetic patients. It is important to note that autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. Therefore, the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, particularly when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 16-year-old boy with Marfan syndrome is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy with Marfan syndrome is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He has been researching possible complications of his condition online and is worried about potential cardiac issues.
      Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most probable in this patient?

      Your Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy

      Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities Associated with Marfan Syndrome

      Marfan syndrome is commonly associated with cardiac abnormalities, with aortic root dilatation being the most prevalent, found in approximately 80% of cases. This can lead to aortic regurgitation and even dissection. While there is some evidence of a slight increase in atrial septal defects in Marfan syndrome patients, it is not as common as aortic regurgitation or mitral valve prolapse. Dilated cardiomyopathy can also present in Marfan syndrome patients, although it is not as prevalent as aortic root dilatation or regurgitation. Pulmonary regurgitation is also increased in incidence in Marfan syndrome, but it is still less common than aortic regurgitation. Finally, while persistent ductus arteriosus is more commonly found in Marfan syndrome patients than in the general population, the association is relatively weak. Overall, Marfan syndrome patients should be monitored closely for these cardiac abnormalities to ensure proper management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 75-year-old patient with a history of hypertensive retinopathy comes in for an...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old patient with a history of hypertensive retinopathy comes in for an eye examination. Upon fundoscopy, only retinal arteriole tortuosity is observed without any other abnormalities. Based on the Keith-Wagener classification, what grade of hypertensive retinopathy is most likely represented in this case?

      Your Answer: Grade 1

      Explanation:

      Grade 1 hypertensive retinopathy is characterized by tortuosity and silver wiring on fundoscopy, while Grade 0 would show no abnormal findings despite a diagnosis of hypertension.

      Understanding Hypertensive Retinopathy: Keith-Wagener Classification

      Hypertensive retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes due to high blood pressure. The Keith-Wagener classification is a system used to categorize the different stages of hypertensive retinopathy. Stage I is characterized by narrowing and twisting of the blood vessels in the eyes, as well as an increased reflection of light known as silver wiring. In stage II, the blood vessels become compressed where they cross over veins, leading to arteriovenous nipping. Stage III is marked by the appearance of cotton-wool exudates, which are white patches on the retina caused by blocked blood vessels. Additionally, there may be flame and blot hemorrhages that can collect around the fovea, resulting in a ‘macular star.’ Finally, stage IV is the most severe stage and is characterized by papilloedema, which is swelling of the optic disc at the back of the eye. Understanding the Keith-Wagener classification can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage hypertensive retinopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 16-year-old girl comes to see her doctor because she has not yet...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to see her doctor because she has not yet begun menstruating. During the physical examination, you observe that she has a short stature and a webbed neck. What would you anticipate hearing when listening to her heart?

      Your Answer: Late systolic

      Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur

      Explanation:

      The ejection systolic murmur present in this patient is likely due to her Turner’s syndrome, which is associated with a bicuspid aortic valve. A continuous machinery murmur, late systolic murmur, and mid-late diastolic murmur are less likely causes, as they are associated with different conditions that are not commonly seen in patients with Turner’s syndrome.

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of deteriorating vision. Upon examination with mydriatic drops, pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy is discovered. The patient is referred to an ophthalmologist. However, later that evening while driving home, he experiences reduced visual acuity and pain in his left eye. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Although mydriatic drops can cause acute angle closure glaucoma, this situation is more frequently encountered in exams than in actual medical practice.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 20 year-old with no notable medical history enrolls at a new GP...

    Correct

    • A 20 year-old with no notable medical history enrolls at a new GP clinic upon moving to a different city. The clinic checks his immunization records and sends him an invite to get vaccinated. What vaccination should he get if he hasn't received it before?

      Your Answer: Men ACWY

      Explanation:

      The Meningitis ACWY vaccine is being gradually introduced and is recommended for all children during their 9th or 10th year of school. Instead of the Men C booster, they should receive this vaccination. The catch-up program is currently targeting individuals under the age of 25 who are starting university for the first time. It is recommended that they receive the vaccine a few weeks before beginning their studies.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 pre-school booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.

      It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      7.7
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  • Question 16 - A 53-year-old male smoker presents to the emergency department with a sore throat...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old male smoker presents to the emergency department with a sore throat that has been bothering him for a day. He reports feeling generally unwell and has a hoarse voice, but no cough. He has been unable to swallow for the past three hours and is spitting out saliva. During examination, he has a temperature of 38ºC and trismus. There are no obvious abnormalities in his oropharynx, and his tonsils appear normal. Additionally, he has bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Immediate ENT evaluation

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with acute sore throat but no visible signs in the oropharynx, and experiences severe symptoms such as difficulty swallowing, sepsis, or trismus, it is crucial to seek urgent evaluation from an ENT specialist. This is because these symptoms may indicate a deeper airway infection, such as supraglottitis, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, the patient should not be discharged without a thorough examination, including flexible nasendoscopy. If supraglottitis is diagnosed, treatment should involve IV antibiotics, IV dexamethasone, and adrenaline nebulizers. The patient should be closely monitored in an airway monitored bed, such as in an ENT ward or ICU if necessary.

      Sore throat is a term used to describe various conditions such as pharyngitis, tonsillitis, and laryngitis. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, throat swabs and rapid antigen tests should not be routinely carried out for patients with a sore throat. Pain relief can be managed with paracetamol or ibuprofen, and antibiotics are not typically necessary. However, in cases where there is marked systemic upset, unilateral peritonsillitis, a history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, or when three or more Centor criteria are present, antibiotics may be indicated. The Centor and FeverPAIN scoring systems can be used to determine the likelihood of isolating Streptococci. If antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin or clarithromycin (for penicillin-allergic patients) can be given for a 7 or 10 day course. It is worth noting that a single dose of oral corticosteroid may reduce the severity and duration of pain, although this has not yet been incorporated into UK guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 57-year-old man with a history of gout complains of a painful and...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man with a history of gout complains of a painful and swollen first metatarsophalangeal joint. He is currently on allopurinol 400 mg once daily for gout prophylaxis. What is the recommended course of action for his allopurinol therapy?

      Your Answer: Continue allopurinol in current dose

      Explanation:

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old man with hypertension controlled with lisinopril undergoes blood testing for fatigue....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with hypertension controlled with lisinopril undergoes blood testing for fatigue. The results show an eGFR >90 ml/min/1.73 m2 (reference range >90 ml/min/1.73 m2) and normal U&Es, and urinalysis is normal. He had a previous USS of the renal tract two years ago which was reported as normal.
      Which class of CKD does he belong to?

      Your Answer: No CKD

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Kidney Disease Stages and GFR Categories

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition characterized by a gradual loss of kidney function over time. To assess the severity of CKD, healthcare professionals use a staging system based on the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which measures how well the kidneys are filtering waste from the blood.

      A GFR of >90 without other evidence of kidney disease indicates normal renal function. However, if the GFR falls below this level, the patient may be classified into one of the following stages:

      – CKD stage 2: GFR 60-89 ml/min/1.73 m2 (mildly decreased)
      – CKD stage 3a: GFR 45-59 ml/min/1.73 m2 (mildly to moderately decreased)
      – CKD stage 3b: GFR 30-44 ml/min/1.73 m2 (moderately to severely decreased)
      – CKD stage 4: GFR 15-29 ml/min/1.73 m2 (severely decreased)
      – CKD stage 5: GFR <15 ml/min/1.73 m2 (kidney failure) To further assess the risk of adverse outcomes, the 2008 NICE guideline on CKD recommends subdividing stage 3 into 3a and 3b and adding the suffix P to denote significant proteinuria at any stage. Significant proteinuria is defined as a urinary albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 30 mg/mmol or higher. Understanding the GFR categories and CKD stages can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage CKD, as well as educate patients on their kidney function and potential risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 5-year-old girl comes to the GP with her father. He is concerned...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl comes to the GP with her father. He is concerned that she is not growing as well as her classmates. The father reports that the child experiences foul-smelling diarrhoea about 3-4 times a week and complains of abdominal pain.
      During the examination, the girl has a distended belly and thin buttocks. She has fallen 3 centile lines and now falls on the 15th centile.
      What would be the most suitable first test to perform?

      Your Answer: IgA TTG antibodies

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is coeliac disease, which can be confirmed by testing for IgA TTG antibodies. To determine the appropriate antibiotic, a stool sample would be necessary to diagnose gastroenteritis. The hydrogen breath test is typically used to diagnose irritable bowel syndrome or certain food intolerances. Endoscopy is more frequently used in adults who are suspected of having cancer. An abdominal X-ray may be beneficial in cases where obstruction is suspected. Coeliac disease is a digestive disorder that is becoming more prevalent and is characterized by an adverse reaction to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye.

      Coeliac Disease in Children: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis

      Coeliac disease is a condition that affects children and is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in cereals. This sensitivity leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Children usually present with symptoms before the age of 3, coinciding with the introduction of cereals into their diet. The incidence of coeliac disease is around 1 in 100 and is strongly associated with HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8. Symptoms of coeliac disease include failure to thrive, diarrhoea, abdominal distension, and anaemia in older children. However, many cases are not diagnosed until adulthood.

      Diagnosis of coeliac disease involves a jejunal biopsy showing subtotal villous atrophy. Screening tests such as anti-endomysial and anti-gliadin antibodies are also useful. Duodenal biopsies can show complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, as well as dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Increased number of intraepithelial lymphocytes and vacuolated superficial epithelial cells can also be observed.

      In summary, coeliac disease is a condition that affects children and is caused by sensitivity to gluten. It is important to be aware of the symptoms and to seek medical attention if necessary. Diagnosis involves a biopsy and screening tests, and treatment involves a gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 48-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner complaining of feeling dizzy and...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner complaining of feeling dizzy and experiencing shortness of breath during physical activity. He has a bicuspid aortic valve and is waiting for valve replacement surgery.
      Which of the following murmurs would be the most likely to occur in this patient?

      Your Answer: Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal edge

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Heart Murmurs Based on Location and Type

      Heart murmurs are abnormal sounds heard during a heartbeat and can indicate various cardiac conditions. The location and type of murmur can help differentiate between different conditions.

      Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal edge: This is typical for aortic stenosis, which is more likely to occur in a bicuspid aortic valve. The murmur may radiate to the carotids. Pulmonary stenosis, hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, and atrial septal defect can also cause this type of murmur, but the location would be different.

      Ejection systolic murmur loudest over the 2nd intercostal space, left sternal edge: This location is typical for pulmonary stenosis, not aortic stenosis. The patient’s history indicates symptomatic aortic stenosis, making this finding inconsistent.

      Early diastolic murmur loudest over the 3rd intercostal space, left sternal edge: This type and location of murmur is typical for aortic regurgitation, not aortic stenosis. The location is Erb’s point, where S1 and S2 should both be heard.

      Mid-diastolic murmur loudest over the apex: This type and location of murmur is typical for mitral stenosis, not aortic stenosis. The apex is the mitral area, located at the 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line.

      Pansystolic murmur loudest over the apex: This type and location of murmur is typical for mitral regurgitation, not aortic stenosis. The apex is the mitral area, located at the 5th intercostal space in the midclavicular line.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of breathlessness and a...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of breathlessness and a dry cough that has persisted for three weeks. She is a non-smoker and consumes 10 units of alcohol per week. The patient has a target rash on both of her lower limbs, and her chest x-ray reveals reticulonodular shadowing on the left lung. The medical team diagnoses her with bacterial pneumonia. What is the probable causative agent responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Based on the dry cough, symmetrical target-shaped rash with a central blister (erythema multiforme), and radiological findings, it is likely that the woman has Mycoplasma. While pneumococcal pneumonia is the most common type of pneumonia in the community, it would typically present with lobar consolidation on an x-ray and a productive cough, rather than a dry one. Klebsiella pneumonia is more common in alcoholics, but the woman’s drinking habits, while exceeding the recommended limit for women (14 units per week), are not severe enough to increase her risk of Klebsiella. Additionally, Klebsiella pneumonia typically causes a cavitating pneumonia in the upper lobes.

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae: A Cause of Atypical Pneumonia

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that causes atypical pneumonia, which is more common in younger patients. This disease is associated with various complications such as erythema multiforme and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Epidemics of Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically occur every four years. It is important to recognize atypical pneumonia because it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to the bacteria lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.

      The disease usually has a gradual onset and is preceded by flu-like symptoms, followed by a dry cough. X-rays may show bilateral consolidation. Complications may include cold agglutinins, erythema multiforme, erythema nodosum, meningoencephalitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, bullous myringitis, pericarditis/myocarditis, and gastrointestinal and renal problems.

      Diagnosis is generally made through Mycoplasma serology and a positive cold agglutination test. Management involves the use of doxycycline or a macrolide such as erythromycin or clarithromycin.

      In comparison to Legionella pneumonia, which is caused by a different type of bacteria, Mycoplasma pneumoniae has a more gradual onset and is associated with different complications. It is important to differentiate between the two types of pneumonia to ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A newborn is delivered at term via vaginal delivery with no complications, however...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn is delivered at term via vaginal delivery with no complications, however she is not showing signs of breathing at one minute. Her heart rate is >110bpm, but she is floppy and has a blue colouration. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: 5 mouth-to-mouth rescue breaths

      Correct Answer: 5 breaths of air via face mask

      Explanation:

      Performing airway suction should be avoided unless there is clear evidence of thick meconium causing obstruction, as it may lead to reflex bradycardia in infants. Chest compressions are not necessary if the heart rate (HR) is above 100 beats per minute (bpm). CPR should only be initiated if the HR drops below 60 bpm. If there are no signs of breathing due to fluid in the lungs, administering five breaths through a 250ml ambu bag is a more effective and hygienic approach than using mouth-to-mouth resuscitation in a hospital setting.

      The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      22.5
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  • Question 23 - A 54-year-old man with a history of epilepsy presents with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with a history of epilepsy presents with a complaint of numbness in his hands and feet after a recent change in medication. Upon examination, he exhibits reduced sensation in a glove-and-stocking distribution and a decreased ankle reflex. Additionally, he has lymphadenopathy in the cervical and inguinal region and bleeding gums. Which medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin: Mechanism of Action and Adverse Effects

      Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects, which can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic. Acute effects include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic effects include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia. Idiosyncratic effects include fever, rashes, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Teratogenic effects are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease. Although routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked before dosing in cases of dose adjustment, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old man presents with complaints of weight loss and fatigue that have...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents with complaints of weight loss and fatigue that have been ongoing for several months. Upon examination, the only notable finding is pallor. A blood film reveals the presence of immature blasts, and genetic testing shows the presence of a chromosomal translocation t(9;22) - the Philadelphia chromosome. Further investigations reveal the following results: Hb of 95 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), leukocytes of 62 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l), and PLT of 101 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)

      Explanation:

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a rare form of cancer that occurs due to the abnormal growth of myeloid precursors or blasts. This leads to an increase in white blood cells and a decrease in the normal functions of the bone marrow, resulting in anaemia and thrombocytopenia. CML is most commonly seen in people between the ages of 60 and 70 and has a slow onset that can last for months or even years. The majority of cases are caused by a genetic mutation called the Philadelphia chromosome, which produces a protein that promotes the growth of cancer cells. Symptoms of CML include fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, abdominal distension, and left upper quadrant pain. Treatment for CML involves inhibiting the genetic mutation with a drug called imatinib.

      Acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that occurs due to the abnormal growth of immature lymphocytes, which replace the normal cells of the bone marrow and lead to a decrease in blood cell production. ALL is most commonly seen in children and presents with symptoms such as anaemia, fever, and abdominal pain. Diagnosis is made through bone marrow biopsy and genetic analysis, which can reveal chromosomal abnormalities associated with the disease.

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL) is a type of cancer that typically presents with enlarged lymph nodes and is associated with the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are abnormal B cells. Multiple myeloma (MM) is a cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to a decrease in blood cell production and other symptoms such as hypercalcemia and kidney dysfunction. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL) is a type of cancer that arises from the abnormal growth of B cells, T cells, or natural killer cells and can be caused by genetic mutations, infections, or chronic inflammation. Symptoms of NHL include enlarged lymph nodes throughout the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      24.5
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  • Question 25 - A 70-year-old man has been diagnosed with active tuberculosis and started on antibiotics....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man has been diagnosed with active tuberculosis and started on antibiotics. He has a history of chronic kidney disease stage 4 and atrial fibrillation treated with warfarin. His INR taken 2 days after starting treatment is elevated at 7.8. Which antibiotic is the likely cause of this result?

      Your Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      The cytochrome p450 system is inhibited by isoniazid, which leads to a decrease in the metabolism of warfarin. This results in an increase in the INR and prolongation of its effects. Although erythromycin is metabolized by the cytochrome p450 system, it is not used in the initial phase of anti-tuberculosis treatment. Levofloxacin is not typically used in the initial phase of anti-tuberculosis treatment, but it may be used in combination with other agents if standard treatment is discontinued due to hepatotoxicity. Pyridoxine, which is vitamin B6, is not utilized in the treatment of tuberculosis.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 26-year-old female comes to your clinic after experiencing recurrent miscarriages and no...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female comes to your clinic after experiencing recurrent miscarriages and no successful pregnancies. She has been referred to you for further evaluation. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
      - APTT: 42 (normal range: 27-35)
      - Platelets: 95 (normal range: 150-400)
      - PT: 12 seconds (normal range: 11-14)
      What could be the possible reason for these abnormalities?

      Your Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by an elevated APTT and normal PT, and can lead to thrombocytopenia. AITP only causes a decrease in platelets, while vWD and hemophilia A only affect the APTT. Although unfractionated heparin can prolong the APTT, low platelets are a rare long-term side effect and are unlikely to be the cause of her repeated miscarriages.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      24.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 67-year-old male with a history of multiple myeloma presents with confusion. Blood...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male with a history of multiple myeloma presents with confusion. Blood tests are taken and the following results are obtained:

      Adjusted calcium 3.1 mmol/l

      What would be the best initial approach to manage this situation?

      Your Answer: Admit for IV normal saline

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for hypercalcaemia is IV fluid therapy.

      Managing Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood. The initial management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres per day. This helps to flush out the excess calcium from the body. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates may be used to further lower the calcium levels. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximal effect being seen at 7 days.

      Calcitonin is another option for managing hypercalcaemia. It works quicker than bisphosphonates but is less commonly used due to its short duration of action. Steroids may be used in sarcoidosis, a condition that can cause hypercalcaemia.

      Loop diuretics such as furosemide may also be used in hypercalcaemia, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration. However, they should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion.

      In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates or other medications depending on the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      23.9
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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to self-neglect and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to self-neglect and suspected neurological event causing motor function loss. Upon examination, he presents with hypothermia and weakness on the right side. The patient reports discontinuing his regular medications and experiencing dizziness, restlessness, and electric shock sensations throughout his body. Which medication cessation is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      Discontinuation syndrome, characterized by dizziness, electric shock sensations, and anxiety, is a common occurrence when SSRIs are abruptly stopped. This is why it is recommended to gradually taper off the medication. The patient in this scenario stopped their medication abruptly due to a suspected neurological event, leading to the onset of discontinuation syndrome. Atorvastatin, bisoprolol, and gabapentin are not typically associated with these symptoms when stopped abruptly.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      38.7
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  • Question 29 - A 14-year-old girl has been found to be regularly skipping school, frequently arguing...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl has been found to be regularly skipping school, frequently arguing with other students and has been caught smoking on several occasions. Her general practitioner suspects a diagnosis of conduct disorder. She has already been diagnosed with anxiety disorder. She is not currently on any medications.
      Given the new suspected diagnosis of conduct disorder, what is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer for cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Management of Conduct Disorder: Interventions and Referrals

      Conduct disorder is a psychiatric condition characterized by persistent patterns of aggressive and antisocial behavior. The management of conduct disorder involves a combination of pharmacological and psychosocial interventions. Here are some of the key interventions and referrals for managing conduct disorder:

      Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT): CBT techniques are used as part of the psychosocial interventions for conduct disorder. These techniques are considered as part of the first-line management of conduct disorder.

      Methylphenidate: Methylphenidate is a medication that is used in the treatment of ADHD, which is often a coexisting condition with conduct disorder. This medication should only be initiated and coordinated by a specialist in secondary care (such as CAMHS).

      Antidepressant Medications: Antidepressant medications should not be the first line in the management of conduct disorder, particularly with no coexisting health conditions. If there were depressive symptoms, these medications could be considered but are generally avoided in this age group.

      Psychosocial Interventions: Psychosocial interventions are important in the management of conduct disorder. These include child-focussed programmes, multimodal interventions and parent training programmes. These interventions would be considered first-line management for conduct disorder if there was not the co-existing complicating factor of ADHD.

      Referral to Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS): Patients presenting with symptoms of conduct disorder with a significant complicating factor should be referred to CAMHS for specialist assessment. These factors include mental health problems, neurodevelopmental disorder, learning disability or difficulty, and substance misuse. However, if the patient has already been referred to CAMHS, re-referral would not be necessary.

      Managing Conduct Disorder: Interventions and Referrals

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      26.6
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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old student taking the oral contraceptive pill develops pain and soreness around...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student taking the oral contraceptive pill develops pain and soreness around the genitals. She has just completed an elective year in the United States (USA). On examination, there are multiple, shallow and tender ulcers at the skin and mucous membrane of the vagina.
      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chancroid

      Correct Answer: Genital herpes

      Explanation:

      Sexually Transmitted Diseases: Causes and Symptoms

      Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are infections that are spread through sexual contact. There are various types of STDs, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Genital herpes is caused by herpes simplex viruses, with type 2 being responsible for the majority of cases. It can present as vesicular lesions around the genitals, rectum or mouth, but most individuals are asymptomatic. Granuloma inguinale is a chronic bacterial infection that results in nodular lesions that evolve into ulcers. Chancroid is a bacterial STD caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, characterised by painful necrotising genital ulcers. Primary syphilis is caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, with lesions beginning as solitary, raised, firm, red papules that can be several centimetres in diameter. Lymphogranuloma venereum is an uncommon STD caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, characterised by self-limited genital papules or ulcers, followed by painful inguinal and/or femoral lymphadenopathy. Non-infectious causes include fixed drug reactions, Behçet’s disease, neoplasms and trauma. It is important to consider these alternative causes if evaluations for the infectious aetiologies do not lead to a diagnosis. HIV infection should always be considered and tested for.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      39.9
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  • Question 31 - You encounter the mother of a 9-month-old baby who was born premature (at...

    Correct

    • You encounter the mother of a 9-month-old baby who was born premature (at 30 weeks) and has recently been discharged from hospital after being admitted for 'breathing difficulties'. During the hospital stay, the baby received an injection called palivizumab, but the mother cannot remember the purpose of this medication. Can you explain the medication and its indication?

      Your Answer: Monoclonal antibody used to prevent respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)

      Explanation:

      To prevent respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) in children who are at a higher risk of severe disease, palivizumab, a monoclonal antibody, is administered. Infants who are premature, have lung or heart abnormalities, or are immunocompromised are among those at risk of developing RSV.

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 32 - A 45-year-old man with a chronic history of back pain visits his GP...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man with a chronic history of back pain visits his GP with complaints of left eye pain and sensitivity to light. Upon examination, the pupil appears small and oval-shaped, accompanied by ciliary congestion. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      It is possible that his chronic back pain is related to HLA-B27, which is often associated with anterior uveitis. As for his red eye, it could be indicative of either glaucoma or uveitis. Glaucoma typically presents with severe pain, haloes, and a semi-dilated pupil, while uveitis is characterized by a small, fixed oval pupil and ciliary flush.

      Understanding the Causes of Red Eye

      Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.

      Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.

      Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.

      Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.

      Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.

      By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      9.7
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  • Question 33 - A 28-year-old newly qualified nurse presents with a bilateral erythematous rash on both...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old newly qualified nurse presents with a bilateral erythematous rash on both hands. She has recently moved from the Philippines and has no significant medical history. The suspected diagnosis is contact dermatitis. What is the most appropriate test to determine the underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Skin patch test

      Explanation:

      The skin patch test can be beneficial in this scenario as it has the potential to detect irritants in addition to allergens.

      Types of Allergy Tests

      Allergy tests are used to determine if a person has an allergic reaction to a particular substance. There are several types of allergy tests available, each with its own advantages and limitations. The most commonly used test is the skin prick test, which is easy to perform and inexpensive. Drops of diluted allergen are placed on the skin, and a needle is used to pierce the skin. A wheal will typically develop if a patient has an allergy. This test is useful for food allergies and pollen.

      Another type of allergy test is the radioallergosorbent test (RAST), which determines the amount of IgE that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. Results are given in grades from 0 (negative) to 6 (strongly positive). This test is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (e.g. pollen), and wasp/bee venom.

      Skin patch testing is useful for contact dermatitis. Around 30-40 allergens are placed on the back, and irritants may also be tested for. The patches are removed 48 hours later, and the results are read by a dermatologist after a further 48 hours. Blood tests may be used when skin prick tests are not suitable, for example if there is extensive eczema or if the patient is taking antihistamines. Overall, allergy tests are an important tool in diagnosing and managing allergies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      17.4
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  • Question 34 - A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Addison's disease. What medications are typically...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Addison's disease. What medications are typically prescribed in combination for this condition?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone + fludrocortisone

      Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone + fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.

      During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 14-year-old girl is referred to haematology due to heavy and prolonged periods...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl is referred to haematology due to heavy and prolonged periods that have not responded well to tranexamic acid and the combined oral contraceptive pill. Her blood tests reveal Hb of 10.3 g/dl, Plt of 239 * 109/l, WBC of 6.5 * 109/l, PT of 12.9 secs, and APTT of 37 secs. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Von Willebrand's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease

      Von Willebrand’s disease is a common inherited bleeding disorder that is usually passed down in an autosomal dominant manner. It behaves like a platelet disorder, with symptoms such as nosebleeds and heavy menstrual bleeding being common, while joint and muscle bleeding are rare. The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and acts as a carrier molecule for factor VIII.

      There are three types of Von Willebrand’s disease. Type 1 is the most common and is characterized by a partial reduction in von Willebrand factor. Type 2 is further divided into four subtypes, each with a different abnormality in the von Willebrand factor. Type 3 is the most severe form and is caused by a total lack of von Willebrand factor, inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.

      Diagnosis of Von Willebrand’s disease involves tests such as a prolonged bleeding time, APTT, factor VIII levels, and platelet aggregation with ristocetin. Management options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of von Willebrand factor, and factor VIII concentrate. While there is no clear correlation between symptomatic presentation and type of Von Willebrand’s disease, common themes among patients include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising in the absence of trauma, and menorrhagia in females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      124.9
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 4-month-old girl presents with vomiting, yellowing of the skin and dehydration. Tests...

    Correct

    • A 4-month-old girl presents with vomiting, yellowing of the skin and dehydration. Tests show low potassium levels and metabolic alkalosis.
      What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Correction of metabolic derangements

      Explanation:

      Management of Infantile Pyloric Stenosis: Correction of Metabolic Derangements

      Infantile pyloric stenosis is a common condition in newborns, characterized by a hypertrophied pylorus that causes projectile vomiting and hungry feeding. The electrolyte abnormality associated with this condition is hypokalaemic hypochloraemic alkalosis. Before undergoing surgery, it is crucial to correct these metabolic abnormalities in consultation with a pediatrician and anesthetist. Ramstedt’s pyloromyotomy is the definitive surgical treatment for infantile pyloric stenosis. Upper GI endoscopy is not necessary for diagnosis if the clinical presentation is clear. Feeding jejunostomy and total parenteral nutrition are not appropriate initial management options. During surgery, the umbilicus should be excluded from the operative field to prevent staphylococcus aureus infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - You have just received a 70-year-old man into the resuscitation room who had...

    Incorrect

    • You have just received a 70-year-old man into the resuscitation room who had a witnessed collapse after complaining of chest pain. There was no pulse, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) was performed at the scene. CPR is ongoing upon patient arrival in the Emergency Department. Pulse check demonstrates no palpable central pulse, and there is no respiratory effort. A 3-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) demonstrates no coordinated electrical activity or recognisable complexes, looking very much like a wandering flat line.
      What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: 1 mg of adrenaline 1 : 1000 intramuscularly (IM), and continue CPR

      Correct Answer: 1 mg of adrenaline 1 : 10 000 intravenously (IV), and continue CPR

      Explanation:

      Managing Cardiac Arrest: Correct and Incorrect Approaches

      When dealing with a patient in cardiac arrest, it is crucial to follow the correct management protocol. In the case of a patient in asystole, CPR 30:2 (compressions: ventilations) should be initiated, along with 1 mg of adrenaline 10 ml of 1:10 000 IV every other cycle of CPR. Direct current (DC) shock is not indicated for asystole. Adrenaline 1:1000 IM is not appropriate for cardiac arrest situations, as it is used in anaphylaxis. External pacing is unlikely to be successful in the absence of P-wave asystole. Atropine is indicated in severe bradycardia, not asystole. It is essential to follow the correct approach to manage cardiac arrest effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 35-year-old woman complains of rectal bleeding and discomfort during bowel movements for...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman complains of rectal bleeding and discomfort during bowel movements for the past two weeks. She has a history of poor dietary habits and chronic constipation. Upon wiping, she notices fresh blood on the toilet paper. During examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender, and rectal examination is painful but reveals no masses.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhoids

      Correct Answer: Anal fissure

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Anal Pain: Understanding the Causes

      Anal pain can be a distressing symptom that can have various underlying causes. One of the most common causes is an anal fissure, which is a painful tear in the anal canal. This condition is often caused by trauma from hard or painful bowel movements and is associated with low-fiber diets.

      Patients with anal fissures typically experience severe pain during bowel movements, which can lead to constipation and worsening symptoms. However, medical therapy with stool-bulking agents and fiber supplementation can help resolve acute anal fissures in most cases.

      Other potential causes of anal pain include distal colonic polyps, anal warts, hemorrhoids, and rectal carcinoma. Distal colonic polyps are slow-growing overgrowths of the colonic mucosa that carry a small risk of becoming malignant. Anal warts are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) and can present as painless bumps or eruptions in the anogenital area.

      Hemorrhoids are swollen blood vessels in the lower rectum that can cause rectal bleeding, pain, pruritus, or prolapse. Rectal carcinoma is a rare but serious condition that can cause bleeding, change in bowel habits, abdominal pain, and malaise.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of anal pain is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment. A thorough physical examination and medical history can help identify the underlying cause and guide management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 70-year-old woman was taken to hospital with a sudden-onset, mild, right hemiparesis...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman was taken to hospital with a sudden-onset, mild, right hemiparesis and an inability to speak. A CT scan showed evidence of a recent left hemisphere infarction. She was found to be in atrial fibrillation and was anticoagulated. While in hospital she had a right-sided focal seizure and was treated with phenytoin. She made a good recovery over the next 6 weeks and was discharged home. When she was seen in the follow-up clinic 3 months later, anticoagulation was continued, but the phenytoin was stopped. Now, 2 months later, she has been re-admitted having developed a mild right hemiparesis and drowsiness over the previous 10 days. On further questioning, her husband remembers that she tripped over the rug in the lounge about 10 days earlier. Her INR (international normalised ratio) is 5.1.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her deterioration?
      Select the SINGLE most likely cause from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Left hemisphere intracerebral haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Left subdural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Left Subdural Haematoma from Other Causes of Deteriorating Neurological Function in a Patient on Warfarin

      Subdural haemorrhage (SDH) is a condition where blood accumulates in the subdural space around the brain, often as a result of trauma. It is more common in older patients and those on anticoagulants, such as warfarin. SDH typically presents with fluctuating conscious level, gradual progression of headaches, altered conscious level, and focal neurological deficits. It can be mistaken for dementia in older patients.

      In a patient on warfarin with a supratherapeutic INR, a minor head injury can lead to slowly progressive deterioration in neurological function over days or weeks, which is classic for SDH. Recurrent seizures are unlikely without another insult to the brain, and the clinical picture described does not fit with seizures. Further cardioembolic stroke is also unlikely, as warfarin at a therapeutic INR greatly reduces the risk of stroke. Concurrent lobar pneumonia could cause drowsiness and worsening of residual weakness, but focal neurology would be unusual. Left hemisphere intracerebral haemorrhage is a possibility, but symptoms would develop rapidly rather than gradually.

      Therefore, in a patient on warfarin with a history of head injury and slowly progressive deterioration in neurological function over days, left subdural haematoma is the most likely cause. Intercurrent infection could also cause deterioration, but not specifically of the right hemiparesis, unless the patient had made a less than complete recovery. Recurrent seizures are uncommon, but could cause deterioration if the patient was in partial status epilepticus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      63.1
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 3-year-old girl with Down syndrome is brought to see her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl with Down syndrome is brought to see her General Practitioner by her father who has concerns about her motor development which are echoed by her daycare provider. There are no concerns about her speech and she is usually well apart from a few episodes of constipation in the past for which she has received laxatives. Neurological examination is normal. Abdominal examination reveals mild distension and tenderness in the left upper quadrant.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
      .

      Your Answer: Otosclerosis

      Correct Answer: Glue ear

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hearing Loss in Children

      Hearing loss in children can be caused by various factors. Two common causes are glue ear and otosclerosis. Glue ear, also known as otitis media with effusion, is the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear without acute inflammation. It can lead to conductive hearing loss, recurrent ear infections, speech delay, and behavioral problems. Children with Down syndrome and cleft palate are at higher risk of developing glue ear. On the other hand, otosclerosis is the abnormal growth of bone in the middle ear, resulting in gradual hearing loss in early adulthood.

      It is important to note that speech delay alone may not indicate autistic spectrum disorder. Children with this disorder typically exhibit issues with social interactions, non-verbal communication, and restrictive behaviors. In contrast, selective mutism is an anxiety disorder that causes a child to be unable to speak in certain situations. Impacted ear wax can also cause hearing loss or speech delay, but it can be diagnosed through ear examination.

      In summary, a child with recurrent earache and retracted tympanic membranes is more likely to have glue ear, especially if they have Down syndrome or cleft palate. It is important to monitor their development closely, especially if they also have a learning disability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      58
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - Samantha is a 55-year-old woman who has been experiencing difficulty breathing. She undergoes...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 55-year-old woman who has been experiencing difficulty breathing. She undergoes a spirometry evaluation with the following findings: a decrease in forced vital capacity (FVC), an increase in the forced expiratory volume in one second to forced vital capacity ratio (FEV1:FVC ratio), and a decrease in the transfer factor for carbon monoxide (TLCO), indicating impaired gas exchange. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.

      The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.

      Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.

      The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 25-year-old man has recurrent, persistent, intrusive, distressing thoughts and images of his...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man has recurrent, persistent, intrusive, distressing thoughts and images of his friends getting hurt. He reports that these thoughts seem to originate from his own mind, but he considers them to be irrational.
      Which symptom is he reporting?

      Your Answer: Obsessions

      Explanation:

      Understanding Psychiatric Symptoms: Obsessions, Compulsions, Delusions, Hallucinations, and Thought Interference

      Psychiatric symptoms can be complex and difficult to understand. Here are some explanations of common symptoms:

      Obsessions are intrusive thoughts, images, or impulses that repetitively and stereotypically enter a person’s mind. They are often distressing and patients try unsuccessfully to resist them. Common themes include aggression, dirt and contamination, fear of causing harm, religion, and sex.

      Compulsions are repetitive and stereotyped acts or rituals that are often carried out as an attempt to neutralize distressing obsessional thoughts. Patients typically recognize these behaviors as pointless and ineffective, and try to resist them, often unsuccessfully.

      Delusions are false, fixed, and firmly held beliefs that are not in keeping with a person’s social, cultural, and religious background. Patients typically do not recognize them as false or irrational and do not try to resist them, even if they find them distressing.

      Hallucinations are sensory experiences that occur without an external stimulus that could produce such perception. They can be perceptions in any sensory modality, such as hearing a voice in the absence of anyone actually talking.

      Thought interference consists of a patient’s firm belief that an external entity is interfering with their thoughts, usually by introducing thoughts in their mind, stealing thoughts from them, or being able to access their thoughts. Patients usually lack insight into these pathological experiences.

      Understanding these symptoms can help individuals and their loved ones seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of urinary frequency, dysuria,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of urinary frequency, dysuria, suprapubic pain and back pain. The symptoms have been getting worse over the past 48 hours. During examination, she is febrile and tachycardic. She has no history of urinary infections.
      What is the most suitable investigation to arrange for this patient next?
      Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Urinary microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate investigation to arrange for a patient presenting with symptoms suggestive of a urinary tract infection or pyelonephritis is urinary microscopy and culture. It is important to obtain a sample before starting empirical antibiotics to guide subsequent antibiotic choice if the initial course is ineffective. While genital swabs may be useful if there is a history of sexually transmitted infection, they are not as important as urine culture in this situation. Cystoscopy and ultrasound scans of the abdomen may be useful in other situations, but are not urgently indicated in this case. Similarly, a CTKUB would not be useful in investigating the cause of the infection, which can be determined through urine culture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 48-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic with a history of hip...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic with a history of hip and back pain that has been getting worse over the past 3 years. The patient reports that the hip pain is more severe when bearing weight and improves with rest. During the examination, you observe frontal bossing and leg bowing.

      What is the initial treatment option that should be considered for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Alendronate

      Explanation:

      Bisphosphonates are the primary treatment for Paget’s disease of the bone.
      Replacing vitamin D is not an effective treatment for Paget’s disease.
      Radiotherapy is used to treat osteosarcoma, not Paget’s disease.
      Cinacalcet is used to treat hypercalcemia caused by hyperparathyroidism, not Paget’s disease.

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.

      Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.

      Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

      Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. Her oxygen saturation is 90%. After receiving oxygen, she experiences ventricular fibrillation and has a GCS of 3. ALS is initiated. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and multiple pulmonary emboli. What additional medication should be considered for her management during ALS?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Correct Answer: Alteplase

      Explanation:

      During CPR, thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolism (PE) is suspected. Alteplase is a suitable option for advanced life support (ALS) in such cases. This is particularly relevant for patients who present with symptoms suggestive of a PE and have a medical history of previous pulmonary emboli. Thrombolysis can be a life-saving intervention for these patients.

      Adenosine is not appropriate for this situation as it is a class 5 antiarrhythmic used mainly for supraventricular tachycardia. Apixaban is an anticoagulant that is useful for long-term treatment and prevention of pulmonary emboli, but it is not suitable for immediate use in a hemodynamically unstable patient requiring advanced life support. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that is used in peripheral arterial disease and acute coronary syndrome, but it has no role in the acute treatment of a life-threatening pulmonary embolism.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      36
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 78-year-old female comes to the cardiology clinic complaining of persistent shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old female comes to the cardiology clinic complaining of persistent shortness of breath that is hindering her daily activities. She has a medical history of dilated cardiomyopathy and is currently taking candesartan, bisoprolol, and furosemide. An echocardiogram reveals a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%. What would be the most suitable long-term treatment to enhance this patient's prognosis?

      Your Answer: Dobutamine

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The initial management for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction involves prescribing an ACE inhibitor (or ARB, as in this patient’s case) and a beta-blocker. However, since the patient’s symptoms are not under control despite taking these medications, it is recommended to add spironolactone (a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist) to their treatment plan.

      Bendroflumethiazide is not a suitable long-term management option for heart failure, as thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics are not recommended.
      Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, is contraindicated for chronic heart failure.
      Dobutamine, an inotrope, may be used in acute decompensated heart failure but is not appropriate for stable management of chronic heart failure.
      Ramipril is not a suitable option for this patient as they are already taking candesartan, another angiotensin II receptor blocker.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 7-week-old male infant was presented to the GP clinic by his anxious...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-week-old male infant was presented to the GP clinic by his anxious mother. She complains of a 2-week history of inadequate feeding and weight gain, accompanied by fast breathing, especially during feeding. The mother became extremely worried when she observed a bluish tint on her baby's skin this morning.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Explanation:

      TOF is the primary reason for cyanotic congenital heart disease, which usually manifests at 1-2 months of age. While transposition of the great arteries is also a significant cause of this condition, it typically presents within the first 24 hours of life. Ventricular septal defect and atrioventricular septal defect are not associated with cyanotic congenital heart disease.

      Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.

      Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.

      The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 56-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents for follow-up. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents for follow-up. He is currently on lisinopril 10 mg once daily, simvastatin 40 mg once daily, and aspirin 75mg once daily. His blood pressure is well managed at 126/78 mmHg. However, he informs the healthcare provider that he is scheduled for a tooth extraction next week. What guidance should be provided regarding his aspirin regimen?

      Your Answer: Stop 24 hours before, restart 12 hours after procedure

      Correct Answer: Take aspirin as normal

      Explanation:

      According to the BNF section on ‘Prescribing in dental practice’, patients who are taking anti-platelets should not discontinue their medication and should continue taking it as prescribed.

      The Mechanism and Guidelines for Aspirin Use in Cardiovascular Disease

      Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By inhibiting the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, leading to changes in guidelines. Aspirin is now recommended as a first-line treatment for patients with ischaemic heart disease, but it should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. The medication can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a drug safety update in January 2010, reminding prescribers that aspirin is not licensed for primary prevention. NICE now recommends clopidogrel as a first-line treatment following an ischaemic stroke and for peripheral arterial disease. However, the situation is more complex for TIAs, with recent Royal College of Physician (RCP) guidelines supporting the use of clopidogrel, while older NICE guidelines still recommend aspirin + dipyridamole – a position the RCP state is ‘illogical’. Despite these changes, aspirin remains an important medication in the treatment of cardiovascular disease, and its use should be carefully considered based on individual patient needs and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss her fertility and the possibility...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss her fertility and the possibility of conceiving. She is worried about the risk of spina bifida after a friend had a baby with the condition. The patient has no notable medical history and no family history of birth defects. What is the recommended dosage of the supplement used to prevent neural tube defects during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy?

      Your Answer: 5 milligrams

      Correct Answer: 400 micrograms

      Explanation:

      To prevent neural tube defects in the foetus, it is crucial to consume folic acid. It is advised that women who are planning to conceive should take a supplement of 400 micrograms of folic acid daily. This dose should be continued until the 12th week of pregnancy. If there is a family history or a previous pregnancy affected by neural tube defects, the recommended dose should be increased.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      167
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 21-year-old soccer player comes to you with complaints of shoulder and lower...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old soccer player comes to you with complaints of shoulder and lower back pain. He reports that his back has been getting stiffer over the past few months and has worsened. During the examination, you find out that he is also experiencing enthesitis of the Achilles tendon. You suspect a particular diagnosis and want to confirm it. What antigen's presence would confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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