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Question 1
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A 30-year-old woman presents with acute pelvic pain and is found to have pelvic inflammatory disease. What is the leading cause of pelvic inflammatory disease in the United Kingdom?
Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease is primarily caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.
Understanding Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition that occurs when the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. The most common cause of PID is an ascending infection from the endocervix, often caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Other causative organisms include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.
To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests are often negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves a combination of antibiotics, such as oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.
Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis. PID can also lead to infertility, with the risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode, chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but recent guidelines suggest that removal of the IUD should be considered for better short-term clinical outcomes. Understanding PID and its potential complications is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 68-year-old man who has been diagnosed with severe Gram-positive sepsis is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU). However, he is starting to deteriorate despite being on the Sepsis Six Bundle. He is pyrexial and appears very unwell. On examination:
Investigation Results Normal value
Respiratory rate (RR) 30 breaths/minute 12–18 breaths/minute
Heart rate (HR) 120 bpm 60–100 bpm
Blood pressure (BP) 88/40 mmHg < 120/80 mmHg
You noted some bleeding along the cannulation site and on his gums. The coagulation profile showed prolonged prothrombin time, a decrease in fibrinogen level and marked elevation of D-dimer. He has some purpuric rash on his extremities.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the above condition?Your Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)
Explanation:Comparison of DIC, von Willebrand’s Disease, Liver Failure, Haemophilia, and Heparin Administration
Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) is a serious complication of severe sepsis that can lead to multiorgan failure and widespread bleeding. It is characterized by high prothrombin time and the use of fibrinogen for widespread clot formation, resulting in high levels of D-dimer due to intense fibrinolytic activity. DIC is a paradoxical state in which the patient is prone to clotting but also to bleeding.
Von Willebrand’s disease is an inherited disorder of coagulation that is usually autosomal dominant. There is insufficient information to suggest that the patient in this case has von Willebrand’s disease.
Liver failure could result in excessive bleeding due to disruption of liver synthetic function, but there is no other information to support liver failure in this case. Signs of hepatic encephalopathy or jaundice would also be expected.
Haemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder of coagulation that is characterized by prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and normal prothrombin time.
There is no information to suggest that heparin has been administered, and the bleeding time and platelet count would be normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for six years contacts the clinic with concerns. The patient reports infusing 1.5 litres of fluid into their abdomen but only being able to remove 1 litre at the end of their dwell. However, the patient is not experiencing any symptoms and does not have ankle oedema.
What could be causing this issue?Your Answer: Leak from catheter site
Correct Answer: Constipation
Explanation:Common Causes of Catheter Outflow Obstruction in Peritoneal Dialysis Patients
Constipation is a frequent cause of catheter outflow obstruction in patients who have been on peritoneal dialysis for a while. This can happen at any point and is due to the low-fiber renal diet that is recommended to avoid potassium and phosphate excess. The design of PD fluid with osmotic agents means that fluid should not be absorbed in significant quantities. If absorption is occurring, patients will show signs of fluid overload, such as swollen ankles, indicating that a higher concentration of osmotic agent is required. Leakage is noticeable as either fluid coming from the exit site or swelling around the exit site as fluid leaks into subcutaneous tissues.
Catheter malposition is often painful and tends to occur early on after insertion, not years after catheter placement. Kinking of the catheter also usually occurs early after insertion and may vary with position. It tends to cause problems with fluid inflow as well as outflow. By these common causes of catheter outflow obstruction, healthcare providers can better diagnose and treat peritoneal dialysis patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman experiences lower back pain that travels down her left leg while doing DIY work. She reports a severe, sharp, stabbing pain that worsens with movement. During the clinical examination, a positive straight leg raise test is observed on the left side, but there are no other notable findings. The patient is given appropriate pain relief. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this condition?
Your Answer: Lumbar spine x-ray
Correct Answer: Arrange physiotherapy
Explanation:A prolapsed disc is suspected based on the patient’s symptoms. However, even if an MRI scan confirms this diagnosis, the initial management would remain the same as most patients respond well to conservative treatment like physiotherapy.
Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient arrives with an abrupt onset of hemiparesis on the right side, affecting the face, arm, and leg. During the examination, you observe right-sided hemiparesis, aphasia, and a right homonymous hemianopia. The patient has a medical history of recurrent miscarriages, pulmonary embolisms, and deep vein thrombosis. The blood test results show a prolonged APTT. What could be the probable reason for the stroke?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome
Explanation:The symptoms indicate the possibility of antiphospholipid syndrome, which can be confirmed by a positive anti-Cardiolipin antibody test. It is crucial to keep in mind that hypercoagulable states and hyperviscosity can lead to strokes. Antiphospholipid syndrome is a type of thrombophilia disorder that causes hypercoagulation and a higher likelihood of forming clots, both arterial and venous. This increases the risk of ischaemic strokes.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.
Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner seeking assistance to quit smoking. She has been smoking ten cigarettes daily for the last 14 years and has no significant medical history. However, she is currently in her second trimester of pregnancy. What is the most suitable first-line smoking cessation option for this patient?
Your Answer: Behavioural therapy
Explanation:Smoking Cessation Options for Pregnant Women: A Review of Medications and Therapies
When it comes to quitting smoking during pregnancy or postpartum, behavioural therapy is the recommended first-line approach by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). Smoking cessation clinics can provide support for women who wish to quit smoking. Clonidine, a medication used for high blood pressure and drug withdrawal, has some effect on smoking cessation but is not licensed or recommended for this use by NICE. Bupropion, which reduces cravings and withdrawal effects, is contraindicated during pregnancy and breastfeeding. Nicotine replacement therapy can be used in pregnancy, but women should be informed of the risks and benefits and only used if behavioural support is ineffective. Varenicline, a medication that reduces cravings and the pleasurable effects of tobacco products, is contraindicated during pregnancy and breastfeeding due to its toxicity in studies. It is important for healthcare providers to discuss the available options with pregnant women and provide individualized recommendations for smoking cessation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Correct
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A 28-year-old female patient presents at the clinic for follow-up. She has been diagnosed with PCOS and is experiencing irregular and heavy menstrual cycles, excessive hair growth on her face and torso, and acne. Currently, she is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill but intends to switch to Dianette. What is the primary mechanism of action of Dianette?
Your Answer: Testosterone receptor antagonist
Explanation:Cyproterone Acetate and Ethinyloestradiol for PCOS Treatment
Cyproterone acetate and ethinyloestradiol are two active ingredients that are commonly used in the treatment of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). This medication works by reducing androgen synthesis through negative feedback on the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovary axis and by inhibiting androgen-synthesising enzymes. It is effective in reducing hirsutism and acne, but it does not have a positive impact on weight in patients with PCOS.
One of the main benefits of using cyproterone acetate and ethinyloestradiol is that it can help to reduce the symptoms of PCOS. However, there are also some potential long-term adverse effects associated with its use. These include an increased risk of venous thromboembolism and oestrogen-related cancers such as breast cancer. Therefore, it is important to carefully weigh the benefits and risks of using this medication before starting treatment. Overall, cyproterone acetate and ethinyloestradiol can be an effective treatment option for PCOS, but it should be used with caution and under the guidance of a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old man is brought into the emergency department after being involved in a motorcycle accident. He is minimally responsive, visibly pale, and groaning in pain.
Key findings from the initial A-E approach are:
Airway Patent
Breathing Chest clear and equal air entry bilaterally, respiratory rate 30 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 95%
Circulation Heart rate 160 beats per minute, blood pressure 80/50 mmHg
Disability GCS 9/15, blood glucose 7 mmol/L, pupils equal and reactive to light
Everything else Tense abdomen with diffuse tenderness
You make several attempts at siting a cannula but fail.
What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's hypotension?Your Answer: Call a senior to place a central line
Correct Answer: Call a trained individual to attempt intraosseous access
Explanation:Different Routes for Venous Access
There are various methods for establishing venous access, each with its own advantages and disadvantages. The peripheral venous cannula is easy to insert and has a wide lumen for rapid fluid infusions. However, it is unsuitable for administering vasoactive or irritant drugs and may cause infections if not properly managed. On the other hand, central lines have multiple lumens for multiple infusions but are more difficult to insert and require ultrasound guidance. Femoral lines are easier to manage but have high infection rates, while internal jugular lines are preferred. Intraosseous access is typically used in pediatric practice but can also be used in adults for a wide range of fluid infusions. Tunnelled lines, such as Groshong and Hickman lines, are popular for long-term therapeutic requirements and can be linked to injection ports. Finally, peripherally inserted central cannulas (PICC lines) are less prone to major complications and are inserted peripherally.
Overall, the choice of venous access route depends on the patient’s condition, the type of infusion required, and the operator’s expertise. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of each method and to properly manage any complications that may arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 9
Correct
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A 25-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department following a paracetamol overdose. He reports taking 40 tablets in the last 3 hours and has presented to the hospital within 10 minutes of ingesting the last tablet. He weighs 70kg. What is the best course of action to take next?
Your Answer: Give him activated charcoal and start him on acetylcysteine immediately
Explanation:If there is uncertainty about the time of overdose but it could be toxic, if the overdose was staggered over a period of more than an hour, if the plasma-paracetamol level is above the treatment line on the treatment graph, or if the overdose was taken 8-36 hours before presenting, the BNF recommends starting acetylcysteine immediately. In this case, since the second bullet point is true, there is no need to wait for plasma-paracetamol levels to come back from the lab, although it may still be helpful to take them before beginning treatment. Additionally, the BNF warns that doses as low as 150 mg/kg within 24 hours can be fatal, and in this case, the individual has taken 16g of paracetamol, which equates to 246 mg/kg for their weight of 65 kg.
Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A young man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, tiredness, and pallor. Upon conducting a full blood count, it is revealed that he has acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Among the following options, which is linked to the poorest prognosis in ALL?
Your Answer: Pre-B phenotype
Correct Answer: Philadelphia chromosome present
Explanation:Prognostic Factors in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are several factors that can affect the prognosis of a patient with ALL. Good prognostic factors include having the FAB L1 type, common ALL, a pre-B phenotype, and a low initial white blood cell count. On the other hand, poor prognostic factors include having the FAB L3 type, B or T cell type, the Philadelphia translocation (t(9;22)), increasing age at diagnosis, male sex, CNS involvement, and a high initial white blood cell count (e.g. > 100).
It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these prognostic factors when diagnosing and treating patients with ALL. By identifying these factors, they can better predict the outcome of the disease and tailor treatment plans accordingly. Patients with good prognostic factors may have a better chance of survival and may require less aggressive treatment, while those with poor prognostic factors may need more intensive therapy. Overall, the prognostic factors in ALL can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents for her routine cervical smear. The GP informs her that the result is positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) and schedules a follow-up smear in 12 months. At the second smear, the same result is obtained, and the GP schedules another follow-up smear in 12 months. However, at the third smear (now 37 years old), the hrHPV result is negative. The patient has no significant medical or family history.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Repeat smear in 3 years
Explanation:The correct course of action for a patient who has a second repeat smear at 24 months that is hrHPV negative is to return to routine recall in 3 years. If the result had been positive, the patient would need to be recalled in 12 months for a repeat smear. Referring for colposcopy would only be necessary if the patient had tested positive for hrHPV. Repeating the smear in 3 months or 12 months would also be incorrect, as the patient has already had two smears and the third result will determine the next course of action. Repeating the smear in 5 years would only be appropriate for older women during routine screening.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 2-day history of feeling generally unwell. She reports discomfort and distension in her abdomen, as well as loose stools and dyspnea on exertion. Upon examination, there is generalised abdominal tenderness without guarding, and all observations are within normal range. The patient is currently undergoing fertility treatment and received a gonadorelin analogue injection the previous week. What is the most probable diagnosis based on this information?
Your Answer: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)
Explanation:Ovulation induction can lead to ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) as a potential side effect. The symptoms of OHSS often involve gastrointestinal discomfort such as bloating, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Additionally, patients may experience shortness of breath, fever, peripheral edema, and oliguria. OHSS can range in severity from mild to life-threatening, with complications such as dehydration, thromboembolism, acute kidney injury (AKI), and pulmonary edema. Severe OHSS typically has a delayed onset compared to milder cases. In the given scenario, the patient received a GnRH agonist injection within the past week, indicating that her symptoms may be less severe.
Ovulation induction is often required for couples who have difficulty conceiving naturally due to ovulation disorders. Normal ovulation requires a balance of hormones and feedback loops between the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and ovaries. There are three main categories of anovulation: hypogonadotropic hypogonadal anovulation, normogonadotropic normoestrogenic anovulation, and hypergonadotropic hypoestrogenic anovulation. The goal of ovulation induction is to induce mono-follicular development and subsequent ovulation to lead to a singleton pregnancy. Forms of ovulation induction include exercise and weight loss, letrozole, clomiphene citrate, and gonadotropin therapy. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome is a potential side effect of ovulation induction and can be life-threatening if not managed promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A newborn is admitted to the paediatric cardiology intensive care unit with congenital transposition of the great arteries (TGA) identified on pre-natal scans. The baby was delivered spontaneously at 38 weeks. What is the most crucial medication to administer until the neonate can undergo surgery in a few days?
Your Answer: Corticosteroids
Correct Answer: Alprostadil
Explanation:To maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in cyanotic congenital heart diseases, prostaglandin E1 is recommended. This is particularly important in cases of transposition of the great arteries (TGA), where alprostadil is given to ensure some flow of oxygenated blood to the body. Neonatal apnoea is managed with caffeine, but it is not the primary medication used in TGA. Corticosteroids are administered to pregnant women at risk of premature birth to stimulate surfactant production in the neonatal lungs. NSAIDs such as ibuprofen and indomethacin can be used to close a persistent or symptomatic patent ductus arteriosus in babies.
Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, is a common occurrence in newborns. Peripheral cyanosis, which affects the hands and feet, is often seen in the first 24 hours of life and can be caused by crying or illness. Central cyanosis, on the other hand, is a more serious condition that occurs when the concentration of reduced hemoglobin in the blood exceeds 5g/dl. To differentiate between cardiac and non-cardiac causes of central cyanosis, doctors may use the nitrogen washout test, which involves giving the infant 100% oxygen for ten minutes and then measuring arterial blood gases. A pO2 of less than 15 kPa indicates cyanotic congenital heart disease, which can be caused by conditions such as tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries, and tricuspid atresia.
If cyanotic congenital heart disease is suspected, initial management involves supportive care and the use of prostaglandin E1, such as alprostadil, to maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in ductal-dependent congenital heart defects. This can serve as a temporary measure until a definitive diagnosis is made and surgical correction is performed.
Acrocyanosis, a type of peripheral cyanosis, is a benign condition that is often seen in healthy newborns. It is characterized by bluish discoloration around the mouth and extremities, such as the hands and feet, and is caused by vasomotor changes that result in peripheral vasoconstriction and increased tissue oxygen extraction. Unlike other causes of peripheral cyanosis that may indicate significant pathology, such as septic shock, acrocyanosis occurs immediately after birth in healthy infants and typically resolves within 24 to 48 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man presents to your GP clinic with complaints of leg pain. He reports that he has been experiencing this pain for the past 3 months. The pain is described as achy and gradually increasing in severity, particularly when he walks his dog uphill every morning. What is the most likely contributing factor to his condition?
Your Answer: Diabetes
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Peripheral arterial disease is often caused by smoking, which is a significant risk factor. The patient is likely experiencing intermittent claudication, an early symptom of PVD. While diabetes is also a risk factor, smoking has a stronger association with the development of this condition. Pain in the calf muscles due to statin therapy typically occurs at rest, and atorvastatin therapy can rarely lead to peripheral neuropathy. Alcohol and… (the sentence is incomplete and needs further information to be rewritten properly).
Understanding Peripheral Arterial Disease: Intermittent Claudication
Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) can present in three main patterns, one of which is intermittent claudication. This condition is characterized by aching or burning in the leg muscles following walking, which is typically relieved within minutes of stopping. Patients can usually walk for a predictable distance before the symptoms start, and the pain is not present at rest.
To assess for intermittent claudication, healthcare professionals should check the femoral, popliteal, posterior tibialis, and dorsalis pedis pulses. They should also perform an ankle brachial pressure index (ABPI) test, which measures the ratio of blood pressure in the ankle to that in the arm. A normal ABPI result is 1, while a result between 0.6-0.9 indicates claudication. A result between 0.3-0.6 suggests rest pain, and a result below 0.3 indicates impending limb loss.
Duplex ultrasound is the first-line investigation for PAD, while magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) should be performed prior to any intervention. Understanding the symptoms and assessment of intermittent claudication is crucial for early detection and management of PAD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with sudden onset compressive chest pain radiating to the left upper limb. He has a medical history of obesity, hypertension and hyperlipidaemia, and is a smoker. Based on the initial assessment, you determine that there is a 40% likelihood that he is having an acute myocardial infarction. You order an ECG and cardiac enzymes for further evaluation.
What is the significance of the 40% estimate in this scenario?Your Answer: Likelihood ratio
Correct Answer: Prior probability
Explanation:Understanding Probability and Prevalence Measures in Medical Diagnosis
Probability and prevalence measures are essential in medical diagnosis. The prior probability estimates the likelihood of a disease before obtaining further data, while the posterior probability is the new probability after additional data is obtained. The odds ratio measures the association between an exposure and an outcome, while the likelihood ratio compares the likelihood of a test result in a patient with and without the target disorder. Prevalence refers to the proportion of people in a given population who have the disease at a specific point in time. Understanding these measures is crucial in making accurate diagnoses and treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with a sudden and severe headache. Upon examination, she is spontaneously opening her eyes and localising to painful stimuli, but is disoriented. What would be the most appropriate initial investigation?
Your Answer: Lumbar puncture (LP)
Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT)
Explanation:Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
Subarachnoid haemorrhage can be diagnosed with a high degree of accuracy through an urgent CT scan, which can confirm the condition in 95% of patients. In most cases, a lumbar puncture is not necessary unless the patient’s medical history suggests the need for one and the CT scan results are normal. If a bloody tap is suspected, the number of red blood cells should decrease with each successive sample. If an LP is performed six hours after the onset of symptoms, the supernatant fluid should be examined for xanthochromia after centrifugation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthetics & ITU
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Question 17
Correct
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An 80-year-old nursing home resident with end-stage dementia has an acute bowel obstruction; she is not a suitable candidate for surgical intervention.
Which of the following medications may be most effective in reducing her discomfort?Your Answer: Loperamide hydrochloride
Explanation:Medications for Managing Bowel Obstruction in End-of-Life Care
Bowel obstruction during end-of-life care can be managed without surgery or nasogastric tube placement. Loperamide hydrochloride, an antidiarrhoeal medication, can provide relief by reducing bowel motility when used with an opiate analgesic. Ondansetron, an antiemetic, can treat nausea but may cause constipation by slowing gastric stasis. Dexamethasone can alleviate bowel discomfort by reducing inflammation and oedema caused by a tumour obstructing the bowel. Lorazepam can help alleviate distress or anxiety caused by symptoms, but it does not improve them. Paracetamol is a weak analgesic and is unlikely to relieve discomfort in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Palliative Care
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A clinical trial compared the effectiveness of two anti-anginal medications in reducing stable angina pain while walking on flat ground. The study found that 65% of patients who took drug A and 60% of patients who took drug B achieved the primary outcome.
If a patient wants to avoid stable angina pain while walking on flat ground, how many more patients need to be treated with drug A compared to drug B?Your Answer: 5
Correct Answer: 20
Explanation:Number Needed to Treat (NNT)
When analyzing the results of a randomized controlled clinical trial, the number needed to treat (NNT) is a useful metric to consider. It is calculated by taking 100 divided by the absolute risk reduction (ARR). For example, if the ARR is 5%, then the NNT would be 20 (100/5).
The NNT provides a more intuitive of the results compared to other metrics such as relative risk reduction (RRR) or ARR. It represents the number of patients who need to be treated in order to prevent one additional negative outcome. In the example above, for every 20 patients treated, one negative outcome would be prevented.
Overall, the NNT is a valuable tool for clinicians and researchers to evaluate the effectiveness of treatments and interventions. It allows for a more practical interpretation of study results and can aid in making informed decisions about patient care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of abdominal pain and a positive pregnancy test, despite having an intrauterine system. She is urgently referred to the emergency department where an ultrasound scan confirms a tubal ectopic pregnancy with a visible heartbeat. The patient has never been pregnant before but desires to have a family in the future. There is no history of sexually transmitted infections. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Methotrexate
Correct Answer: Salpingectomy
Explanation:For women without other risk factors for infertility, salpingectomy is the preferred first-line treatment for ectopic pregnancy requiring surgical management, rather than salpingostomy. This is the case for a patient with visible foetal heartbeat and pain, as expectant management would be inappropriate and methotrexate is not suitable. Misoprostol is also not appropriate as it is used for incomplete miscarriages, which is not the case for this patient.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A radiologist examining a routine chest X-ray in a 50-year-old man is taken aback by the presence of calcification of a valve orifice located at the upper left sternum at the level of the third costal cartilage.
Which valve is most likely affected?Your Answer: The mitral valve
Correct Answer: The pulmonary valve
Explanation:Location and Auscultation of Heart Valves
The heart has four valves that regulate blood flow through its chambers. Each valve has a specific location and can be auscultated to assess its function.
The Pulmonary Valve: Located at the junction of the sternum and left third costal cartilage, the pulmonary valve is best auscultated at the level of the second left intercostal space parasternally.
The Aortic Valve: Positioned posterior to the left side of the sternum at the level of the third intercostal space, the aortic valve is best auscultated in the second right intercostal space parasternally.
The Mitral Valve: Found posteriorly to the left side of the sternum at the level of left fourth costal cartilage, in the fifth intercostal space in mid-clavicular line, the mitral valve can be auscultated to assess its function.
The Valve of the Coronary Sinus: The Thebesian valve of the coronary sinus is an endocardial flap that plays a role in regulating blood flow through the heart.
The Tricuspid Valve: Located behind the lower mid-sternum at the level of the fourth and fifth intercostal spaces, the tricuspid valve is best auscultated over the lower sternum.
Understanding the location and auscultation of heart valves is essential for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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