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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are investigating the mechanisms of action of the currently available treatments for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
Regarding HIV, which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer: HIV is an adenovirus
Correct Answer: HIV may be transmitted by oral sex
Explanation:HIV: Transmission, Replication, and Types
HIV, or human immunodeficiency virus, is a virus that attacks the immune system and can lead to acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Here are some important facts about HIV transmission, replication, and types:
Transmission: HIV can be transmitted through certain body fluids, including blood, breast milk, and vaginal/seminal fluids. If these fluids come into contact with a mucous membrane or broken skin, HIV can be transmitted. This means that oral sex can also transmit HIV if vaginal/semen fluids come into contact with the oral cavity.
Replication: HIV is an RNA retrovirus that requires reverse transcriptase to replicate. It contains two copies of genomic RNA. When a target cell is infected, the virus is transcribed into a double strand of DNA and integrated into the host cell genome.
Types: HIV-1 is the most common type of HIV in the UK, whereas HIV-2 is common in West Africa. HIV-1 is more virulent and transmissible than HIV-2. Both types can be transmitted by blood and sexual contact (including oral sex).
Depletion of CD4 T cells: HIV principally targets and destroys CD4 T cells (helper T cells). As a result, humoral and cell-mediated responses are no longer properly regulated, and a decline in immune function results.
Overall, understanding how HIV is transmitted, replicates, and the different types can help in prevention and treatment efforts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician seeking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease and had an ectopic pregnancy that was treated with methotrexate a year ago. Additionally, she is a heavy smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes per day. Her family history is significant for BRCA1 mutation in her mother and sister, but she declines genetic testing. What would be an absolute contraindication for the COCP in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smoker
Explanation:The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is a popular form of birth control, but it is not suitable for everyone. There are absolute contraindications, which mean that the COCP should not be used under any circumstances, and relative contraindications, which require careful consideration before prescribing.
Absolute contraindications include smoking 15 or more cigarettes a day and being over 35 years old, hypertension, major surgery with prolonged immobilization, secondary Raynaud’s disease, systemic lupus erythematosus, positive for antiphospholipid syndrome, current or history of venous thromboembolism, migraine with aura, current breast cancer, liver cirrhosis, viral hepatitis, and diabetic nephropathy/retinopathy/neuropathy.
Relative contraindications include smoking less than 15 cigarettes a day and being over 35 years old, being 6 weeks to 6 months postpartum and breastfeeding, being less than 21 days postpartum and not breastfeeding, having a body mass index of 35 or higher, having a family history of venous thromboembolism in a first-degree relative, having migraines without aura, having a history of breast cancer without recurrence for 5 years, using certain anticonvulsants, having dyslipidemia, undergoing rifampicin therapy, and having a previous use of methotrexate.
A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or prior ectopic pregnancy is not considered a contraindication to the use of the COCP. The possibility of a BRCA mutation is a controversial topic, and while there is evidence of a small increase in breast cancer risk with COCP use, it is not an absolute contraindication. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best form of birth control for individual circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has been experiencing a burning sensation on passing urine with frequency for the past two days, and she also has some lower abdominal pain. She has no unusual vaginal discharge and denies any recent sexual contact. This is the first time she has experienced anything like this.
She is a non-smoker and a well-controlled asthmatic on regular inhalers (daily beclomethasone and salbutamol as needed) but has no other medical problems or medication apart from the oral combined contraceptive pill.
On examination her heart rate is 85 beats per minute, blood pressure 110/70 mmHg, and temperature 36.8°C.
Abdominal examination – soft abdomen, no guarding, mildly tender hypogastric region, active bowel sounds.
Urinalysis:
Leukocytes –
Nitrites ++
Blood +
Bilirubin –
Protein +
Glucose –
Ketones –
What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urinary tract infection (UTI)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Symptoms of Urethritis
Symptoms of urethritis, such as dysuria, urgency, frequency, suprapubic tenderness, strangury, flank or back pain, haematuria, and a change in the smell of urine, can be caused by various conditions. A diagnosis of urinary tract infection (UTI) is likely if three or more symptoms are present, especially if dysuria and frequency are both present. A midstream urine specimen should be sent for testing, and appropriate antibiotic treatment should be based on regional guidelines.
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is not the cause of these symptoms, as it typically presents with unexplained pelvic pain, deep dyspareunia, abnormal vaginal bleeding, and purulent vaginal or cervical discharge. Bladder cancer is also unlikely without a history or risk factors, and the presenting feature is typically painless gross haematuria. Gonococcal infection, a sexually transmitted infection, may cause similar symptoms but is less likely without a history of sexual contact and in the absence of leukocytes on dipstick testing. It may also cause increased or altered vaginal discharge, lower abdominal pain, and dysuria without frequency.
Nephrotic syndrome, which causes heavy proteinuria and peripheral oedema affecting the ankles and legs, is not a likely cause of these symptoms. However, a UTI may be asymptomatic and diagnosed solely by routine dip testing, which may show positive results for nitrites and/or leukocytes indicating bacterial infection. Dipstick testing should not be used to diagnose UTIs in patients with indwelling urinary catheters.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A teenage girl has missed taking her combined contraception pill (standard strength) in the middle of her pill pack and it has been almost 48 hours since her last pill. She is sexually active on a regular basis.
What is the most appropriate guidance to provide her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The missed pill must be taken as soon as it is remembered and the remaining pills should be taken at the correct time
Explanation:How to Handle a Missed Birth Control Pill
If you miss a birth control pill, it’s important to know what to do next. Here are some guidelines:
1. The missed pill must be taken as soon as it is remembered and the remaining pills should be taken at the correct time.
2. If one pill has been missed and it is 48–72 h since the last pill in the current pack or is 24–48 h late starting the new pack, the missed pill should be taken as soon as it is remembered. The remaining pills should be continued at the usual time.
3. Emergency contraception is not usually required but may need to be considered if pills have been missed earlier in the pack or in the last week of the previous pack.
4. If you miss a pill but remember before taking the next one, take the missed pill as soon as possible and continue the pack as normal.
5. If you miss a pill and don’t remember until it’s time to take the next one, take the missed pill as soon as possible and use a backup method of contraception for the next seven days.
6. If you miss two or more pills, follow the instructions on the package or talk to your healthcare provider.
Remember, it’s important to take your birth control pills as directed to ensure their effectiveness. If you have any questions or concerns, talk to your healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man provides his general practitioner with a semen specimen, as part of an investigation for failure to conceive over a 2-year period.
In semen analysis, which of the following is incompatible with normal fertility?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sperm count of 5 million per ml of ejaculate
Explanation:Understanding Semen Analysis: Normal Values for Sperm Count, Volume, pH, Viability, and Motility
Semen analysis is a crucial test to evaluate male fertility. The World Health Organisation (WHO) has established reference values for semen parameters, including sperm count, volume, pH, viability, and motility.
The normal sperm count is 15 million per ml of ejaculate, and a sample should be submitted to the lab within an hour of collection for accurate results. A sperm count of 5 million per ml of ejaculate is considered low and may indicate infertility.
The semen volume should be 1.5 ml or more, and a volume of 3 ml per ejaculation is considered normal. The ejaculate pH should be 7.2 or more, and a pH below 7.0 may indicate an infection or obstruction in the reproductive tract.
Sperm viability refers to the percentage of live sperm in the sample. The normal viability is 58% or more live sperm, and a lower percentage may indicate poor sperm quality or function.
Sperm motility refers to the ability of sperm to move and swim towards the egg. The normal sperm should be 40% or more motile, and 32% or more should have progressive motility. A motility of 55% four hours after ejaculation is considered normal.
In conclusion, understanding the normal values for semen analysis can help diagnose male infertility and guide appropriate treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old student visits the Genitourinary Medicine (GUM) Clinic with concerns about a recent sexual encounter. He had unprotected sex with a woman and has since developed a purulent urethral discharge and painful urination. Gram-negative diplococci were identified in specimens taken from him. What is the probable causative organism for this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Explanation:Diagnosing and Differentiating Sexually Transmitted Infections
Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a common health concern, and prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and further transmission. One such STI is gonorrhoeae, caused by the bacterium N. gonorrhoeae. Symptoms include purulent discharge, dysuria, and frequency, and if left untreated, can lead to infertility.
Herpes simplex, another STI, typically presents with ulceration, which is not seen in this patient. Candida albicans, a type of yeast, is an unlikely diagnosis in men and would present with balanitis and white discharge. Chlamydia trachomatis, while similar in presentation, does not show Gram-negative diplococci on microscopy. However, up to 50% of patients with gonorrhoeae may also have coexisting chlamydia infection, so antibiotic regimes should cover both. Ciprofloxacin is effective, but drug-resistant strains of N. gonorrhoeae are emerging, so alternative antibiotics may be necessary.
Finally, Trichomonas vaginalis, an anaerobic protozoan infection, is ruled out by the microscopy result. Accurate diagnosis and differentiation of STIs are essential for effective treatment and prevention of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A teenage patient has been diagnosed with a chlamydial infection following a recent sexually transmitted infection (STI) screen. The patient has agreed to treatment of the infection and has no known allergies, however, you are concerned about compliance.
Which of the following would be most appropriate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Azithromycin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Chlamydia: A Comparison of Antibiotics
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium C.trachomatis. It can be asymptomatic, particularly in females, and if left untreated, can lead to fertility issues and pelvic inflammatory disease. To combat this, national campaigns are encouraging testing and awareness. The recommended treatment for chlamydia is azithromycin, which is safe for patients with a penicillin allergy and has a short course of treatment. Erythromycin is an alternative for pregnant patients, while doxycycline and ofloxacin have similar efficacy but concerns regarding compliance and antibiotic resistance. Amoxicillin is only recommended for use in pregnancy or breastfeeding. It is important to consider the appropriate antibiotic based on the patient’s clinical situation and therapeutic indications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man visits the Urology Clinic after being referred by his GP due to a painful genital ulcer. The patient reports that the skin lesion has evolved over time, initially presenting as pustular after he returned from South America. During the examination, you observe that the ulcer base is filled with a foul-smelling yellow discharge, and there is tender lymphadenopathy on one side upon palpation. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chancroid
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Genital Ulcer Disease: A Case of Chancroid
A patient presents with a genital ulcer, which has developed from a papule to a painful ulcer. The lesion is diagnosed as chancroid, a sexually transmitted disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. Chancroid is endemic in Asia, South America, and Africa, and typically presents as a single lesion in men and multiple lesions in women. Painful unilateral lymphadenopathy may be present, which can progress to suppurative buboes.
Other possible differential diagnoses include genital herpes, which produces multiple painful and itchy ulcers, and syphilis, which produces a single painless ulcer (chancre) at an early stage. However, due to the patient’s recent travel and the presence of pain, these are less likely diagnoses.
Donovanosis, or granuloma inguinale, is caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and produces multiple nodules that burst into painless ulcers. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is minimal, making this an unlikely differential. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, produces a painless ulcer at the contact site, but the patient’s ulcer is painful. In the second stage of LGV infection, painful lymphadenopathy and bubo development occur.
In conclusion, chancroid is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s genital ulcer, and other differential diagnoses should be considered based on clinical presentation and travel history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman, a mother of three, comes to see you on day 20 postpartum and asks for contraception. She is currently alternating between breastfeeding and bottle-feeding her newborn, struggling with sleepless nights, and wants a referral for Fallopian tube ligation as she explains that, at present, she does not want any other children. She is a smoker.
Which of the following is the best method of contraception in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progesterone-only pill
Explanation:Contraception Options for Postpartum Women: A Guide for Healthcare Providers
Postpartum women have unique contraceptive needs and considerations. In this guide, we will discuss the various contraception options available for postpartum women and their suitability based on individual circumstances.
Progesterone-Only Pill
The progesterone-only pill is a safe option for women who are breastfeeding and < six weeks postpartum. It can be started immediately after delivery and is the first-line management for women who cannot take the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). The pill thickens mucous, preventing sperm from entering the uterus, and suppresses ovulation. However, compliance can be an issue, and long-acting progesterone contraceptives may be more appropriate. Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COCP) The COCP should not be used before six weeks postpartum in breastfeeding women and before 21 days in non-breastfeeding women. A risk assessment should be performed, and contraindications, such as smoking and age over 35, should be considered. Intrauterine System The intrauterine system is a highly effective long-acting reversible contraceptive that can be inserted at the time of delivery or within the first 48 hours postpartum. Delayed insertion until after four weeks postpartum is recommended to reduce the risk of uterine perforation. No Contraception Required Breastfeeding can suppress ovulation, but if a woman is not exclusively breastfeeding, contraception should be offered. The patient’s wishes should be established, and contraception should be discussed at the 6-week postpartum check. Tubal Ligation (Sterilisation) Tubal ligation is a permanent form of contraception that should not be considered until after six weeks postpartum. The patient should be counselled regarding the risks and benefits, the low success of reversibility, and the possibility of future desire for children. Male sterilisation should be considered first, and both partners should be present for the consultation. In conclusion, healthcare providers should consider individual circumstances and preferences when discussing contraception options with postpartum women. A thorough risk assessment and counselling should be performed before recommending any form of contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain for the last day. She reports that she has had some bloody vaginal discharge. She is currently sexually active. She has a fever of 38.1 °C. On examination, she has uterine tenderness and there is severe cervical motion tenderness.
What is the most important initial investigation in helping to reach a diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pregnancy test
Explanation:The Importance of Initial Investigations in a Patient with Lower Abdominal Pain: A Case Study
When a patient presents with lower abdominal pain, it is important to conduct initial investigations to determine the underlying cause. In this case study, the patient exhibits symptoms consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease, but it is crucial to rule out an ectopic pregnancy as it can lead to serious complications.
Pregnancy Test: The most important initial investigation for women of childbearing age who present with abdominal pain is a pregnancy test. This test can quickly determine if the patient is pregnant and if an ectopic pregnancy is a possibility.
Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR): While an ESR test can identify infection and inflammation, it is of limited diagnostic or therapeutic benefit in this case and would not affect the patient’s management.
Abdominal Ultrasound: Although an abdominal ultrasound can identify potential issues, such as an ectopic pregnancy, a pregnancy test should take priority in this case.
Cervical and Urethral Swab: A swab can identify sexually transmitted diseases that may be causing pelvic inflammatory disease, but it is not the most important initial investigation.
Full Blood Count: While a full blood count can identify potential infections and provide a baseline for admission, it is unlikely to help reach a diagnosis and is not the most important initial investigation.
In conclusion, initial investigations are crucial in determining the underlying cause of lower abdominal pain. In this case, a pregnancy test is the most important initial investigation to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, followed by other tests as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes in seeking advice on contraception. She has recently entered a new relationship and has been using barrier methods of contraception, but would like to explore other options for convenience. Her periods have become irregular over the past year, but she is otherwise healthy with a history of mild hypertension that is managed with ramipril. She does not drink but is a smoker, consuming around 20 cigarettes per day. What would be the most suitable form of contraception for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Progesterone-only pill (POP)
Explanation:The progesterone-only pill (POP) is a suitable contraceptive option for this patient, especially since she is over 35 years old and a smoker. Other options to consider include the copper intrauterine device (IUD), the levonorgestrel IUS, and sterilization. Natural family planning may not be effective due to the patient’s irregular periods, which could be a sign of approaching menopause. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is not a contraceptive and therefore not recommended. Even though the patient is approaching menopause, she is still having periods, so contraception is still necessary. The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is not advisable due to the patient’s age and smoking status, but the POP or implant could be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman visits a gynaecologist to discuss her options for contraception. The doctor suggests the insertion of a copper-bearing intrauterine device (IUD) and explains its mechanism of action and potential risks. What is the frequency of uterine perforations as a complication of IUD placement?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 1000
Explanation:Understanding the Risks and Mechanisms of Copper-Bearing IUDs
Copper-bearing intrauterine devices (IUDs) are a popular form of reversible contraception that work through various mechanisms, including thickening cervical mucous, inhibiting sperm mobility, and reducing the likelihood of implantation. However, there are absolute contraindications to their use, such as pregnancy or recent childbirth, irregular vaginal bleeding, and gynecological cancer. Complications can include bleeding, pain, infection, discharge, and rare occurrences of uterine perforation, pelvic infection, expulsion, and ectopic pregnancy. The risk of uterine perforation is quoted as 1 in 1000 insertions, making it a rare but important consideration for those considering copper-bearing IUDs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the Genitourinary Medicine (GUM) Clinic with a rash. Upon examination, the doctor observes numerous flesh-colored, hemispherical papules with a central indentation, measuring around 4 mm in diameter, covering the upper thighs and shaft of the penis. The diagnosis is molluscum contagiosum. What would be a suitable treatment plan for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No treatment is advised
Explanation:Molluscum Contagiosum: Diagnosis and Treatment Options
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin disease that can be transmitted through sexual and non-sexual means. It results in flesh-colored, hemispherical papules with a central indentation, typically found on the genitalia, lower abdomen, and upper thighs. The incubation period is 3-12 weeks, and lesions can persist for up to two years before resolving on their own.
Diagnosis is made through clinical examination and electron microscopy of lesion particles. Treatment is not routinely recommended due to the self-resolving nature of the disease. However, cosmetic treatments such as benzoyl peroxide and podophyllotoxin may be used in adults with unsightly lesions on exposed areas or affecting quality of life.
Saline baths, acyclovir, corticosteroids, and metronidazole are not appropriate treatments for molluscum contagiosum. Saline baths are used for itch relief in conditions like eczema, acyclovir is for herpes zoster infection, corticosteroids are not recommended for viral skin diseases, and metronidazole is used for rosacea.
In conclusion, molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin disease that can be diagnosed through clinical examination and electron microscopy. Treatment is not routinely recommended, but cosmetic options may be used in certain cases. Other treatments, such as saline baths, acyclovir, corticosteroids, and metronidazole, are not appropriate for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You review a 35-year-old woman with a history of menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea. She has started a new relationship and wants some advice on the best method of contraception.
An ultrasound scan from six months ago showed three subserosal fibroids ranging in size from 1 to 2 cm in maximal dimension, without uterine distortion.
Her medical history includes migraines with aura, which are well controlled at present.
Which of the following is the best suited method of contraception for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel intrauterine system
Explanation:Contraceptive Options for Women with Menorrhagia and Fibroids
Women with menorrhagia and small fibroids may benefit from the levonorgestrel intrauterine system as a first-line contraceptive option. This device reduces bleeding by 90% and offers a convenient, long-acting method of contraception with a low failure rate. However, if the intrauterine system is not acceptable, the progesterone-only pill is a reasonable alternative.
For women with larger fibroids or uterine distortion, alternative forms of contraception should be offered, such as the COCP, progesterone implant, injections, or barrier methods. It is important to inform patients that any form of contraception they choose does not protect against sexually transmitted infections.
The intrauterine copper device is another long-acting reversible contraceptive option, but it is not recommended for women with pre-existing menorrhagia due to the risk of heavier bleeding. While this device is non-hormonal and over 99% effective in preventing pregnancy, it is an invasive procedure and carries a risk of expulsion and uterine perforation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A sexually active teenager has forgotten two of her combined contraceptive pills. The pills have been missed in the third week of the packet (days 15–21).
What is the most appropriate advice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The most recent pill should be taken immediately and continue with the remaining pills. Condoms should be used until seven consecutive pills have been taken and omit the pill-free interval week. Start the new pack.
Explanation:Guidance for Missed Birth Control Pills
When a woman misses a birth control pill, it can be confusing to know what to do next. Here is some guidance for different scenarios:
1. One missed pill: Take the most recent pill immediately and continue with the remaining pills. Use condoms until seven consecutive pills have been taken and omit the pill-free interval week. Start the new pack.
2. One missed pill (less than 24 hours late): Take the missed pill as soon as possible. There is no need for extra precautions provided the woman omits the pill-free week and starts the new pack immediately. Use condoms until seven consecutive active pills have been taken.
3. Two missed pills: Take both missed pills and use extra precautions for the next seven days. Continue the pack as usual.
4. Two missed pills (less than 48 hours late): Take the most recently missed pill as soon as possible. There is no indication for emergency contraception if the preceding seven pills prior to the missed pills have been taken correctly. Use condoms until seven consecutive active pills have been taken after missing tablets. If this is not the case, emergency contraception should be considered.
5. Two missed pills (more than 48 hours late): Do not take the missed pills. Continue the packet as usual but use condoms for the next seven days. Take the most recent pill as soon as possible and use condoms until seven consecutive active pills have been taken.
Remember, it is important to always read the instructions that come with your specific birth control pill and to consult with a healthcare provider if you have any concerns or questions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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After fertilisation, which part of the spermatozoon remains in the cytoplasm of the oocyte?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nucleus
Explanation:During fertilization, the nucleus of the sperm carries the genetic material needed to create the paternal pronucleus and subsequently the zygote. The acrosome discharges its hydrolytic enzymes to help the sperm penetrate through the corona radiata and the zona pellucida. The sperm nucleus enters the cytoplasm of the egg, along with the midpiece, mitochondria, centrosome, and kinocilium of the sperm. Fertilization triggers changes in the chemistry of the zona pellucida and the discharge of cortical granules in the egg cytoplasm, which prevent additional sperm from fertilizing the egg. The sperm nucleus decondenses to form the haploid male pronucleus, which fuses with the haploid female pronucleus to form a diploid zygote nucleus. The midpiece and kinocilium of the sperm are destroyed, while the plasma membrane covering the tail remains attached to the egg plasma membrane. Mitochondrial diseases are inherited exclusively along the maternal line because the male mitochondria are destroyed soon after fertilization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fever, malaise and headache. During the examination, the GP notices a macular rash on her trunk and limbs. The patient confirms that the rash is not causing any itching. The GP suspects that the patient may have developed secondary syphilis. If the patient had untreated chancre-associated primary syphilis, how many weeks would it take for secondary syphilis to appear?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2–8 weeks
Explanation:The Timeline and Symptoms of Secondary Syphilis
Secondary syphilis is a multisystem disease that usually develops between 2 and 8 weeks following the appearance of a chancre. In women, chancres can be found on the labia, vulva, or cervix, making it easy to miss the primary stage.
Symptoms of secondary syphilis include mild fever, malaise, and headache. A rash on the trunk and limbs is also common, which may involve the palms and soles of the feet. If left untreated, the rash can last up to 12 weeks.
It’s important to note that clinical manifestations of secondary syphilis will resolve without treatment, but relapse may occur within the first year.
In summary, the timeline for secondary syphilis is between 2 and 8 weeks following the chancre, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, and a rash on the trunk and limbs. Early detection and treatment are crucial to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A health-conscious 29-year-old woman attends a drop-in Genito-urinary Medicine Clinic for a routine sexual transmitted infection (STI) screen. Her results indicate that she has contracted Chlamydia.
Which of the following would be the most suitable antibiotic treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg 12 hourly for 7 days
Explanation:Common Antibiotics for Chlamydia Treatment: Dosage and Suitability
Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. Antibiotics are the primary treatment for chlamydial infection. However, not all antibiotics are suitable for treating this infection. Here are some common antibiotics used for chlamydia treatment, their recommended dosage, and their suitability for this infection.
Doxycycline 100 mg 12 hourly for 7 days
This is the recommended treatment for Chlamydia in adults/children over 13 years, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines and British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) guidance.Doxycycline 100 mg 12-hourly for 3 days
Even though doxycycline is used to treat infection with Chlamydia, a course of 100 mg 12-hourly over 3 days is not sufficient. Doxycycline 100 mg 12-hourly for 7 days is the recommended course.Amoxicillin 500 mg every 8 hours for 7 days
Amoxicillin targets Gram-positive bacteria and is hence an unsuitable antibiotic for chlamydial infection.Azithromycin 3 g orally single dose
A dose of 3 g per day is much too high. The recommended dose for azithromycin to treat chlamydial infection is 1 g orally per day.Clarithromycin 250 mg for 14 days
Clarithromycin is not typically used to treat infection with C. trachomatis. It is most commonly used to treat respiratory tract infections, soft tissue infections and as part of the treatment for H. pylori eradication. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with two children visits the Gynaecology Clinic, referred by her general practitioner. She has decided that she wants to undergo a tubal ligation procedure to prevent any future pregnancies after discussing it with her partner. During her consultation, she asks about the potential risks associated with the procedure.
What is a commonly acknowledged potential outcome of tubal ligation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ectopic pregnancy
Explanation:Understanding the Potential Risks and Side Effects of Female Sterilisation
Female sterilisation is a permanent contraceptive procedure that involves blocking the Fallopian tubes. While it is highly effective, it is important for women to understand the potential risks and side effects before undergoing the procedure.
Risks and Side Effects of Female Sterilisation
Explanation: Female sterilisation is a surgical procedure that permanently blocks the Fallopian tubes, preventing the passage of gametes. While it is a highly effective form of contraception, it is important for women to be aware of the potential risks and side effects before undergoing the procedure.
One of the main risks of female sterilisation is the possibility of ectopic pregnancy, which occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside of the uterus. While the risk is low, it is important for women to be aware of this potential complication.
Other risks and side effects of female sterilisation include complications during the procedure, such as the need for laparotomy under the same anesthesia, as well as the irreversibility of the procedure and the need to consider alternative contraceptive methods.
It is also important to note that depression is a rare side effect of hormonal contraceptives, but is not seen with interventional approaches such as tubal ligation. Similarly, while unprotected intercourse can increase the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs), it would be unreasonable to label STIs after tubal ligation as a complication.
Finally, weight gain is associated with hormonal contraceptives such as the combined oral contraceptive pill, but there is no evidence to suggest that tubal ligation causes weight gain. Women may also experience increased abdominal cramps during menstruation when using a non-hormonal intrauterine device (IUD) such as the copper IUD.
Overall, it is important for women to have a thorough understanding of the potential risks and side effects of female sterilisation before making a decision about whether or not to undergo the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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