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  • Question 1 - You are seeing a 65-year-old patient in the outpatient clinic who complains of...

    Correct

    • You are seeing a 65-year-old patient in the outpatient clinic who complains of weight loss and a painless, growing penile sore that has been present for more than two months. The patient has a history of genital warts. What tests would be suitable for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Immunoassay for Human Immunodeficiency Virus

      Explanation:

      Penile cancer is strongly linked to sexually transmitted diseases, including HIV infection. Therefore, it would be advisable to conduct an HIV test in cases where penile cancer is suspected. Liver function tests may not be as relevant as an HIV test since penile cancer is unlikely to spread to the liver. Instead, it can spread locally to lymph nodes, bones, and even the brain. Herpes is not a likely cause of penile cancer as it typically causes painful lesions that disappear within a week. Chancroid, caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, can cause painful lesions, while syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, can cause a painless ulcer known as a chancre. However, a chancre would not cause weight loss, and the lesion typically resolves within six to eight weeks, even without treatment.

      Understanding Penile Cancer: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Penile cancer is a rare type of cancer that is typically characterized by squamous cell carcinoma. It is a condition that affects the penis and can cause a variety of symptoms, including penile lump and ulceration. There are several risk factors associated with penile cancer, including human immunodeficiency virus infection, human papillomavirus virus infection, genital warts, poor hygiene, phimosis, paraphimosis, balanitis, and age over 50.

      When it comes to treating penile cancer, there are several options available, including radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and surgery. The prognosis for penile cancer can vary depending on the stage of the cancer and the treatment options chosen. However, the overall survival rate for penile cancer is approximately 50% at 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      72.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of palpitations that have...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man comes to his GP clinic complaining of palpitations that have been ongoing for the past day. He has no significant medical history. There are no accompanying symptoms of chest pain or difficulty breathing. Physical examination is normal except for an irregularly fast heartbeat. An electrocardiogram reveals atrial fibrillation with a rate of 126 bpm and no other abnormalities. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Admit patient

      Explanation:

      Admission to hospital is necessary for this patient as they are a suitable candidate for electrical cardioversion.

      Atrial Fibrillation and Cardioversion: Elective Procedure for Rhythm Control

      Cardioversion is a medical procedure used in atrial fibrillation (AF) to restore the heart’s normal rhythm. There are two scenarios where cardioversion may be used: as an emergency if the patient is haemodynamically unstable, or as an elective procedure where a rhythm control strategy is preferred. In the elective scenario, cardioversion can be performed either electrically or pharmacologically. Electrical cardioversion is synchronised to the R wave to prevent delivery of a shock during the vulnerable period of cardiac repolarisation when ventricular fibrillation can be induced.

      According to the 2014 NICE guidelines, rate or rhythm control should be offered if the onset of the arrhythmia is less than 48 hours, and rate control should be started if it is more than 48 hours or is uncertain. If the AF is definitely of less than 48 hours onset, patients should be heparinised and may be cardioverted using either electrical or pharmacological means. However, if the patient has been in AF for more than 48 hours, anticoagulation should be given for at least 3 weeks prior to cardioversion. An alternative strategy is to perform a transoesophageal echo (TOE) to exclude a left atrial appendage (LAA) thrombus. If excluded, patients may be heparinised and cardioverted immediately.

      NICE recommends electrical cardioversion in this scenario, rather than pharmacological. If there is a high risk of cardioversion failure, it is recommended to have at least 4 weeks of amiodarone or sotalol prior to electrical cardioversion. Following electrical cardioversion, patients should be anticoagulated for at least 4 weeks. After this time, decisions about anticoagulation should be taken on an individual basis depending on the risk of recurrence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      63.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of dysuria and increased urinary...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of dysuria and increased urinary frequency. She is in good health otherwise and does not show any signs of sepsis. During a urine dip test at the doctor's office, blood, leukocytes, protein, and nitrites are detected. The patient has a medical history of asthma, which she manages with salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers, hypertension, which she treats with amlodipine 10mg daily and ramipril 5mg daily, and stage 3 chronic kidney disease. Which antibiotic should be avoided when treating this patient's urinary tract infection?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      When prescribing antibiotics for patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD), it is important to consider the patient’s level of renal function. Nitrofurantoin, an antibiotic commonly used to treat urinary tract infections, should be avoided in patients with CKD stage 3 or higher due to the risk of treatment failure and potential side effects caused by drug accumulation. Nitrofurantoin requires adequate glomerular filtration to be effective, and an eGFR of less than 40-60ml/min means the drug is unlikely to work. Additionally, nitrofurantoin can cause side effects such as peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity, and pulmonary reactions and fibrosis, particularly in patients with impaired renal function. Amoxicillin and co-amoxiclav are safer options for patients with CKD, although dose reduction may be necessary in severe cases. Ciprofloxacin also requires dose reduction in CKD to avoid crystalluria. Patients taking nitrofurantoin should be aware that the drug may cause urine discoloration, and it is generally safe to use during pregnancy except at full term.

      Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure

      When it comes to prescribing medication for patients with renal failure, it is important to be aware of which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin should be avoided, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin. These drugs can potentially harm the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.

      On the other hand, some drugs can be used with dose adjustment. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as medications like digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, furosemide, and opioids, may require a lower dose in patients with chronic kidney disease. It is important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose as needed.

      Finally, there are some drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics like erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as medications like diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease. However, it is still important to monitor these patients closely and adjust the dose if necessary.

      In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits of each drug. By avoiding certain drugs, adjusting doses of others, and monitoring patients closely, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and effectiveness of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      50.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old man who has been recently started on insulin for type I...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man who has been recently started on insulin for type I diabetes presents for a check-up at his local General Practice Surgery.
      He admits to feeling a bit confused as to what he should be doing with his insulin since this was explained to him at the Diabetes Clinic while he was still in shock. He was provided with a blood glucose monitor but is unsure when he needs to use it.
      How often should the patient be checking his blood glucose?
      Select the SINGLE best option from the list below.

      Your Answer: At least four times a day, including before each meal and before bed, increase during periods of illness and before, during and after sport

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Self-Monitoring Blood Glucose in Diabetes Management

      Self-monitoring of blood glucose is a crucial aspect of diabetes management. According to the National Institute of Clinical Excellence (NICE) guidelines, blood glucose should be checked at least four times a day, including before each meal and before bed. More frequent monitoring is recommended during periods of illness and before, during, and after sport. Blood glucose targets should be 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals and at other times of the day. Additionally, glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) levels should be checked every 3-6 months with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower. Checking blood glucose only during illness or once a day is not recommended as it can lead to complications such as hypoglycaemia and hyperglycaemia. Regular self-monitoring of blood glucose is essential for good diabetes management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old woman was diagnosed with angina after presenting to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman was diagnosed with angina after presenting to the Emergency Department with exertional chest pain. She had a positive exercise test at the Cardiology Clinic and was started on aspirin, metoprolol, rosuvastatin and a glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray.
      Eight months later, she presented to her General Practitioner with an increasing frequency of anginal episodes. These responded to GTN spray and did not occur at rest.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate additional medication?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      The treatment of stable angina involves lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is either a beta-blocker or a calcium-channel blocker (CCB), depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a beta-blocker at the maximum tolerated dose is not controlling angina, a long-acting dihydropyridine CCB, such as amlodipine, modified-release nifedipine, or modified-release felodipine, should be added. Aspirin and a statin should also be given, along with sublingual GTN to abort angina attacks.

      However, if a patient is taking a beta-blocker, a non-rate-limiting long-acting dihydropyridine CCB should be used instead of diltiazem, as the combination of diltiazem and a beta-blocker can lead to life-threatening bradycardia and heart failure. If a patient cannot tolerate a beta-blocker or CCB, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Ivabradine should only be used on specialist advice and cannot be initiated if the resting heart rate is less than 70 bpm. Nicorandil induces vasodilation of arterioles and large coronary arteries by activating potassium channels. Verapamil should also be avoided in combination with a beta-blocker, as it can result in life-threatening bradycardia and heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      62.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old homeless person is brought into the general practice surgery, having been...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old homeless person is brought into the general practice surgery, having been found nearby in a disoriented state.
      On examination, they have neck stiffness and a non-blanching rash on their arms. Their vital signs are stable except for fever and tachycardia. They score 13/15 on the Glasgow Coma Scale. An ambulance has been called to transfer them to the hospital.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate action to perform while awaiting the ambulance?

      Your Answer: Administer a dose of parenteral benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Actions for Suspected Bacterial Meningitis with Non-Blanching Rash

      When a patient presents with suspected bacterial meningitis and a non-blanching rash, it is crucial to take appropriate actions promptly. Administering a single dose of parenteral benzylpenicillin at the earliest opportunity is recommended, but this should not delay the transfer to the hospital. It is also important to notify the regional Public Health consultant about the suspected case.

      While administering paracetamol for fever and starting the patient on high-flow oxygen may be necessary in some cases, they would not take priority over the administration of parenteral benzylpenicillin. Additionally, an IV fluid bolus is not indicated unless the patient’s vital signs are unstable. By taking these appropriate actions, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcome for patients with suspected bacterial meningitis and non-blanching rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Which of the following conditions is not screened for in the blood spot...

    Correct

    • Which of the following conditions is not screened for in the blood spot screening test for infants?

      Your Answer: Galactosaemia

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Blood Spot Screening: Identifying Potential Health Risks in Newborns

      Neonatal blood spot screening, also known as the Guthrie test or heel-prick test, is a routine procedure performed on newborns between 5-9 days of life. The test involves collecting a small sample of blood from the baby’s heel and analyzing it for potential health risks. Currently, there are nine conditions that are screened for, including congenital hypothyroidism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, phenylketonuria, medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD), maple syrup urine disease (MSUD), isovaleric acidaemia (IVA), glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1), and homocystinuria (pyridoxine unresponsive) (HCU).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old man is diagnosed with Addison’s disease.
    What should be prescribed in combination...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man is diagnosed with Addison’s disease.
      What should be prescribed in combination with hydrocortisone to benefit him?

      Your Answer: Fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Addison’s Disease

      Addison’s disease is a condition in which the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones. To manage this condition, patients are typically given replacement therapy with both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid medications. Fludrocortisone is a common mineralocorticoid medication used in this treatment. However, dexamethasone, aspirin, and both types of contraceptive pills have no role in the treatment of Addison’s disease. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of various neurological symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of various neurological symptoms that have persisted for the past few weeks. The doctor suspects that he may be experiencing idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH).
      What is the primary symptom associated with IIH?

      Your Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Clinical Features of Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH)

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is a condition that presents with non-specific complaints, making it difficult to diagnose. However, there are several clinical features that can help identify the condition. The most common symptom is a severe daily headache, often described as pulsatile, that may be associated with nausea and vomiting. Other symptoms include pulse-synchronous tinnitus, transient visual obscurations, visual loss, neck and back pain, diplopia, and photophobia. IIH can occur in any age group but is most commonly seen in women of childbearing age. Horizontal diplopia occurs in about 33% of patients with IIH, while hearing loss is a rare presentation. Tinnitus is described by two-thirds of patients, with pulse-synchronous tinnitus being a relatively specific symptom for elevated intracranial pressure. By understanding these clinical features, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and manage IIH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 55 year old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of a cough with green sputum and palpitations. She reports feeling very sick, feverish, and tired. Upon examination, she exhibits bronchial breathing at her right base, with a respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation of 95% on room air. Her heart sounds are normal, but her heartbeat is irregularly irregular, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute and blood pressure of 90/40 mmHg. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a fast ventricular rate. The patient has no prior history of atrial fibrillation. What is the initial treatment that should be administered?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Intravenous fluids

      Explanation:

      Patient is septic from pneumonia and has developed atrial fibrillation. Treatment should focus on resolving the sepsis with IV fluids and antibiotics, which may also resolve the AF. If AF persists, other treatment options may be considered.

      Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. Instead, the Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognize sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, and septic shock as a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favor.

      To manage sepsis, it is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of the infection and support the patient regardless of the cause or severity. However, if any red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started immediately. This includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.

      NICE released its own guidelines in 2016, which focus on the risk stratification and management of patients with suspected sepsis. For risk stratification, NICE recommends using red flag and amber flag criteria. If any red flags are present, the sepsis six should be started immediately. If any amber flags are present, the patient should be closely monitored and managed accordingly.

      To help identify and categorize patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasizing the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old teacher is referred to the Respiratory Clinic with a 6-month history...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old teacher is referred to the Respiratory Clinic with a 6-month history of progressive shortness of breath and dry cough. She denies fever or weight loss and there is no past medical history of note. She reports smoking 5 cigarettes a day for 3 years whilst at college but has since stopped. There are no known allergies.
      On examination, her respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute with an oxygen saturation of 94% on air. There are audible crackles at the lung bases with expiratory wheeze.
      She is referred for spirometry testing:
      Forced expiratory volume (FEV1): 60% predicted
      Forced vital capacity (FVC): 80% predicted
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Obstructive Lung Disease: Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency

      Alpha-1 antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is a genetic disorder that causes emphysematous changes in the lungs due to the loss of elasticity. This disease presents similarly to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with symptoms such as shortness of breath, cough, and wheeze. However, AAT deficiency typically affects young men between 30-40 years old and is exacerbated by smoking. Spirometry testing reveals an obstructive pattern of disease (FEV1/FVC < 0.7). Other potential diagnoses for obstructive lung disease include hypersensitivity pneumonitis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. However, these are less likely in this patient’s case. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is caused by allergen exposure and presents with acute symptoms such as fever and weight loss. Kartagener’s syndrome is a genetic disease that leads to recurrent respiratory infections and bronchiectasis. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is characterized by progressive fibrosis of the lung parenchyma and typically affects individuals between 50-70 years old. In contrast to AAT deficiency, spirometry testing in fibrotic disease would show a result greater than 0.7 (FEV1/FVC > 0.7).

      In conclusion, AAT deficiency should be considered in the differential diagnosis for a patient presenting with obstructive lung disease, particularly in young men with a smoking history. Spirometry testing can help confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      283
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 42-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of migraine and is administered a...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man experiences a sudden onset of migraine and is administered a subcutaneous injection of sumatriptan, resulting in the alleviation of his symptoms.
      What is the mechanism of action of the drug?

      Your Answer: Blocking adrenergic receptors

      Correct Answer: Causing vasoconstriction of cranial arteries

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mechanisms of Sumatriptan: A Migraine and Cluster Headache Treatment

      Sumatriptan is a medication commonly used to treat migraine and cluster headaches. It works by activating specific serotonin receptors (5-HT1D and 5-HT1B) found on cranial and basilar arteries, causing vasoconstriction of these blood vessels. This medication can be administered orally, by subcutaneous injection, or intranasally.

      It is important to note that sumatriptan has no effect on adrenergic receptors or acetylcholinesterase receptors. It is also not a cyclooxygenase (COX) inhibitor or an opioid receptor agonist or antagonist.

      In addition to its effects on blood vessels, sumatriptan has been shown to decrease the activity of the trigeminal nerve, which is responsible for its effectiveness in treating cluster headaches.

      Overall, understanding the mechanisms of sumatriptan can help healthcare professionals and patients better understand how this medication works to alleviate the symptoms of migraine and cluster headaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 33-year-old man who is HIV positive comes to the clinic complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old man who is HIV positive comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath and a dry cough. He has been homeless and has not been keeping up with his outpatient appointments or taking his antiretroviral medication. Upon examination, his respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute and there are scattered crackles in his chest. His oxygen saturation is 96% on room air but drops quickly after walking. Based on the likely diagnosis of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, what is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

      Your Answer: Co-trimoxazole

      Explanation:

      The treatment for Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia involves the use of co-trimoxazole, a combination of trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole.

      Pneumocystis jiroveci Pneumonia in HIV Patients

      Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (formerly known as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia) is a common opportunistic infection in individuals with AIDS. Pneumocystis jiroveci is an organism that is classified as a fungus by some and a protozoa by others. Patients with a CD4 count below 200/mm³ should receive prophylaxis for PCP. Symptoms of PCP include dyspnea, dry cough, fever, and few chest signs. Pneumothorax is a common complication of PCP, and extrapulmonary manifestations are rare.

      Chest X-rays typically show bilateral interstitial pulmonary infiltrates, but other findings such as lobar consolidation may also be present. Sputum tests often fail to show PCP, and bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) is often necessary to demonstrate the presence of the organism. Treatment for PCP includes co-trimoxazole and IV pentamidine in severe cases. Aerosolized pentamidine is an alternative treatment but is less effective and carries a risk of pneumothorax. Steroids may be used if the patient is hypoxic, as they can reduce the risk of respiratory failure and death.

      In summary, PCP is a common opportunistic infection in individuals with AIDS, and prophylaxis should be given to those with a CD4 count below 200/mm³. Symptoms include dyspnea, dry cough, and fever, and chest X-rays typically show bilateral interstitial pulmonary infiltrates. Treatment includes co-trimoxazole, IV pentamidine, and steroids if the patient is hypoxic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 75-year-old man came to the clinic with painless, blurry vision in his...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man came to the clinic with painless, blurry vision in his right eye. He reported no other ocular symptoms and had a history of bilateral cataract surgery five years ago. What is the most probable reason for his vision impairment?

      Your Answer: Posterior capsule opacification

      Explanation:

      Blurred vision years after cataract surgery may be caused by posterior capsule opacification, which can occur even after the cataract has been removed and an artificial lens has been implanted.

      Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.

      Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.

      Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      48.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old male patient presents to discuss his recent blood test results. He...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male patient presents to discuss his recent blood test results. He has been taking ramipril for 6 weeks and his blood pressure has been well controlled. His baseline creatinine level was 92 µmol/L. However, his most recent creatinine level has increased to 118 µmol/L and he is concerned about the potential impact on his kidney function.

      What would be the most suitable course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Continue current dose of ramipril and check urea and electrolytes at 3 months

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.

      ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.

      Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      44.6
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old known to be HIV positive comes to the clinic complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old known to be HIV positive comes to the clinic complaining of diarrhoea that has been ongoing for 2 days. What is the probable cause of his diarrhoea?

      Your Answer: Cryptosporidium

      Explanation:

      Patients with HIV infection commonly experience diarrhoea as a result of Cryptosporidium, while respiratory infection may be caused by Histoplasmosis.

      Diarrhoea in HIV Patients: Causes and Management

      Diarrhoea is a common symptom experienced by patients with HIV. It can be caused by the virus itself, known as HIV enteritis, or by opportunistic infections. The most common infective cause of diarrhoea in HIV patients is Cryptosporidium, an intracellular protozoa with an incubation period of 7 days. Symptoms can range from mild to severe diarrhoea, and diagnosis is made through a modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain of the stool. Unfortunately, treatment is difficult, and supportive therapy is the mainstay of management.

      Other possible causes of diarrhoea in HIV patients include Cytomegalovirus, Mycobacterium avium intracellulare, and Giardia. Mycobacterium avium intracellulare is an atypical mycobacteria that is typically seen when the CD4 count is below 50. Symptoms include fever, sweats, abdominal pain, and diarrhoea, and diagnosis is made through blood cultures and bone marrow examination. Management involves the use of rifabutin, ethambutol, and clarithromycin.

      In summary, diarrhoea is a common symptom experienced by HIV patients, and it can be caused by a variety of opportunistic infections. While treatment can be difficult, supportive therapy can help manage symptoms. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential causes of diarrhoea in HIV patients and to work with their patients to develop an appropriate management plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old man presents to the colorectal surgeons with recurrent episodes of bright...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the colorectal surgeons with recurrent episodes of bright red rectal bleeding over the past 5 months. During examination, a muco-epithelial defect is observed in the posterior midline of the anus. However, a complete digital rectal exam (DRE) could not be performed due to severe pain. Despite trying bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN), the patient has experienced little relief. What is the recommended next step in managing this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Seton insertion

      Correct Answer: Sphincterotomy

      Explanation:

      For cases of anal fissures that do not respond to conservative management, sphincterotomy may be considered as the next step. This is likely the case for the patient in question, who has not seen improvement with laxatives, lubricants, and topical GTN. While a high-fibre diet is important in managing anal fissures, it should be initiated alongside other conservative measures. If the patient had a perianal abscess, incision and drainage would be the appropriate treatment. For haemorrhoids, rubber band ligation would be the management, while anal fistulae would require seton insertion.

      Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.

      Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.

      Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.

      In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      34.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a 3-month history of a non-productive cough,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a 3-month history of a non-productive cough, dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain, especially when climbing stairs. She reports intermittent fevers of up to 39°C and a 3.5-kg weight loss. She complains of wrist and ankle pain that has interfered with her work. She smokes two packets of cigarettes per day. Her full blood count is normal and serum ANA is negative. On examination there are red nodules over her lower legs.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Goodpasture's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is a condition where non-caseating granulomata develop in at least two organs, causing systemic inflammation. It is most common in African-Caribbean women and often affects the lungs, causing symptoms such as dry cough, dyspnea, and weight loss. Erythema nodosum is also frequently seen in patients with sarcoidosis. Histoplasmosis, Goodpasture’s syndrome, adenocarcinoma of the lung, and systemic lupus erythematosus are all possible differential diagnoses, but the absence of specific features makes sarcoidosis more likely in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      77.9
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  • Question 19 - A 68-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with severe inflammation of his...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with severe inflammation of his first metatarsophalangeal joint. He reports swelling and tenderness of the joint and a sample of fluid is sent for microscopy. He has a medical history of hypertension and duodenal ulcers.
      What is the most suitable initial medication to prescribe?
      Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: Colchicine

      Explanation:

      Managing Gout: Treatment Options and Contraindications

      Gout is a type of arthritis caused by the deposition of urate crystals in the synovial fluid. Chronic hyperuricemia is the primary cause of this condition. The acute management of gout involves the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or colchicine as first-line treatment. However, the maximum dose of NSAIDs should be prescribed until 1-2 days after the symptoms have settled, and gastroprotection may also be necessary. Colchicine has a slower onset of action and may cause diarrhea as a side effect. Oral steroids or intra-articular steroid injections may be considered if NSAIDs and colchicine are contraindicated. Allopurinol is not recommended during the acute phase but is useful for preventing recurrent attacks of gout. Diclofenac and indomethacin are contraindicated in patients with duodenal ulcers, and colchicine is a suitable alternative for the treatment of gout. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is not useful in the treatment of gout as it does not have anti-inflammatory or analgesic properties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 29-year-old woman with a four year history of ulcerative colitis is prescribed...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman with a four year history of ulcerative colitis is prescribed azathioprine to prevent relapses. What vaccine should she avoid during this treatment?

      Your Answer: Yellow fever

      Explanation:

      Patients who are immunosuppressed, such as those taking azathioprine, should not receive live attenuated vaccines including BCG, MMR, oral polio, yellow fever, and oral typhoid.

      Types of Vaccines and Their Characteristics

      Vaccines are essential in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their characteristics to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Live attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to immunocompromised patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, including rabies and hepatitis A, are safe for everyone. Toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, use inactivated toxins to generate an immune response. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, such as pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus, use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins to make them more immunogenic. Influenza vaccines come in different types, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. Hepatitis B vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto aluminium hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology. Understanding the different types of vaccines and their characteristics is crucial in making informed decisions about vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 68-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of urinary frequency and dysuria that...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of urinary frequency and dysuria that has been present for 2 days. Upon urine dip, she tests positive for blood, leucocytes, nitrites, and protein. Her medical history includes rheumatoid arthritis treated with methotrexate and hypertension treated with ramipril. She has no known allergies. The patient is worried because she has been cautioned about an antibiotic that she should avoid due to her current medications.
      What medication has she been warned about from the list provided?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Understanding Trimethoprim: Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Use in Pregnancy

      Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. Its mechanism of action involves interfering with DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase. This can potentially interact with methotrexate, which also inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. However, the use of trimethoprim can also lead to adverse effects such as myelosuppression and a transient rise in creatinine. The drug can competitively inhibit the tubular secretion of creatinine, resulting in a temporary increase that reverses upon stopping the drug. Additionally, trimethoprim can block the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a hyperkalaemic distal RTA (type 4). It can also inhibit creatinine secretion, often leading to an increase in creatinine by around 40 points, but not necessarily causing AKI.

      When it comes to the use of trimethoprim in pregnancy, caution is advised. The British National Formulary (BNF) warns of a teratogenic risk in the first trimester due to its folate antagonist properties. As such, manufacturers advise avoiding the use of trimethoprim during pregnancy. It is important to understand the potential risks and benefits of using this antibiotic and to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with central abdominal pain. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with central abdominal pain. She has vomited twice since the onset of the pain and has not passed any wind or faeces in the last twelve hours. Her medical history includes a partial small bowel resection due to traumatic perforation. On examination, her abdomen appears distended and there is generalised tenderness on palpation. Her blood tests reveal a Hb level of 153 g/L (115 - 160), platelets of 312 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC count of 10.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), bilirubin of 17 µmol/L (3 - 17), ALP of 78 u/L (30 - 100), ALT of 29 u/L (3 - 40), and amylase of 880 U/L (70 - 300). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Correct Answer: Small bowel obstruction

      Explanation:

      Elevated serum amylase levels are not always indicative of acute pancreatitis, as they can also be seen in cases of small bowel obstruction. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing abdominal pain, vomiting, and a lack of bowel movements or gas, which are all typical symptoms of small bowel obstruction. The fact that the patient has a history of abdominal surgery further supports this diagnosis, despite the misleading blood test results. Acute cholecystitis, on the other hand, presents with different symptoms such as fever, right upper quadrant pain, and systemic distress, and does not typically cause elevated amylase levels. Acute pancreatitis may also be considered as a differential diagnosis, but it is not associated with a lack of bowel movements or gas, and previous bowel surgery is not a risk factor. Ascending cholangitis and large bowel obstruction can also be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and test results.

      Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      67.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 16-year-old boy with Marfan syndrome is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy with Marfan syndrome is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He has been researching possible complications of his condition online and is worried about potential cardiac issues.
      Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most probable in this patient?

      Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities Associated with Marfan Syndrome

      Marfan syndrome is commonly associated with cardiac abnormalities, with aortic root dilatation being the most prevalent, found in approximately 80% of cases. This can lead to aortic regurgitation and even dissection. While there is some evidence of a slight increase in atrial septal defects in Marfan syndrome patients, it is not as common as aortic regurgitation or mitral valve prolapse. Dilated cardiomyopathy can also present in Marfan syndrome patients, although it is not as prevalent as aortic root dilatation or regurgitation. Pulmonary regurgitation is also increased in incidence in Marfan syndrome, but it is still less common than aortic regurgitation. Finally, while persistent ductus arteriosus is more commonly found in Marfan syndrome patients than in the general population, the association is relatively weak. Overall, Marfan syndrome patients should be monitored closely for these cardiac abnormalities to ensure proper management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old woman complains of right elbow pain that has been persistent for...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman complains of right elbow pain that has been persistent for the last month without any apparent cause. During examination, she experiences pain when resisting wrist extension while the elbow is extended. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lateral epicondylitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.

      To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - What is the most commonly associated condition with primary sclerosing cholangitis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most commonly associated condition with primary sclerosing cholangitis?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a condition that affects the bile ducts, causing inflammation and fibrosis. The cause of this disease is unknown, but it is often associated with ulcerative colitis, with 4% of UC patients having PSC and 80% of PSC patients having UC. Crohn’s disease and HIV are also less common associations. Symptoms of PSC include cholestasis, jaundice, pruritus, right upper quadrant pain, and fatigue. Diagnosis is typically made through endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP), which show multiple biliary strictures giving a ‘beaded’ appearance. A liver biopsy may also be performed, but it has a limited role in diagnosis. Complications of PSC include cholangiocarcinoma in 10% of cases and an increased risk of colorectal cancer.

      Overall, understanding primary sclerosing cholangitis is important for early diagnosis and management of the disease. With proper treatment and monitoring, patients can manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 38-year-old woman comes in for her routine anatomy ultrasound scan at 20...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes in for her routine anatomy ultrasound scan at 20 weeks’ gestation. The ultrasound reveals significant fetal structural abnormalities, such as holoprosencephaly, cleft palate, short limbs, polydactyly, bilateral club feet, enlarged kidneys, and polyhydramnios.
      What is the probable underlying condition of the unborn child?

      Your Answer: Potter syndrome

      Correct Answer: Patau syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Genetic Disorders and Their Prenatal Ultrasound Findings

      Prenatal ultrasound is a valuable tool for detecting genetic disorders in fetuses. Here are some common genetic disorders and their associated ultrasound findings:

      1. Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13): This disorder has a prevalence of 1 per 6500 births. Fetuses with Trisomy 13 may show brain anomalies, midfacial hypoplasia, ventriculomegaly, microcephaly, cleft lip and palate, and cardiac defects.

      2. Cystic Fibrosis (CF): Hyperechogenic fetal bowel is often associated with severe diseases, notably CF.

      3. Down Syndrome: 20% of all second-trimester Down syndrome fetuses have major structural anomalies, including polyhydramnios, double bubble, and large cardiac septal defects.

      4. Klinefelter Syndrome: This disorder results from two or more X chromosomes in boys and may cause infertility and small testicles.

      5. Potter Syndrome: This disorder is suspected whenever the combination of intrauterine growth retardation and severe oligohydramnios is seen. It consists of pulmonary hypoplasia, growth restriction, abnormal facies, and limb abnormalities.

      In conclusion, prenatal ultrasound can help detect genetic disorders in fetuses, allowing for early intervention and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - During a standard cranial nerve assessment, the subsequent results are noted: Rinne's test: Air...

    Incorrect

    • During a standard cranial nerve assessment, the subsequent results are noted: Rinne's test: Air conduction > bone conduction in both ears Weber's test: Localises to the right side What is the significance of these test outcomes?

      Your Answer: Right conductive deafness

      Correct Answer: Left sensorineural deafness

      Explanation:

      If there is a sensorineural issue during Weber’s test, the sound will be perceived on the healthy side (right), suggesting a problem on the opposite side (left).

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.

      On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      8.6
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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old woman is recommended varenicline to aid in her smoking cessation. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is recommended varenicline to aid in her smoking cessation. What is the mechanism of action of varenicline?

      Your Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

      Correct Answer: Nicotinic receptor partial agonist

      Explanation:

      NICE guidance recommends offering nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline, or bupropion to patients for smoking cessation, with no preference for one medication over another. NRT should be offered in combination for those with high nicotine dependence or inadequate response to single forms. Varenicline should be started a week before the target stop date and monitored for adverse effects, including nausea and suicidal behavior. Bupropion should also be started before the target stop date and is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Pregnant women should be tested for smoking and referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services, with first-line interventions being cognitive behavior therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support. NRT may be used if other measures fail, but varenicline and bupropion are contraindicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - You receive a letter from an endocrinology consultant following a referral that you...

    Correct

    • You receive a letter from an endocrinology consultant following a referral that you made for a 25 year old gentleman who has been newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. The consultant requests that you start the patient on carbimazole 15mg daily with a repeat thyroid function test (TFT) in 4 weeks. What is the most crucial advice to give the patient?

      Your Answer: Attend for urgent medical review if develops any symptoms of infection e.g. sore throat or fever

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carbimazole and Its Mechanism of Action

      Carbimazole is a medication used to manage thyrotoxicosis, a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. It is typically administered in high doses for six weeks until the patient becomes euthyroid, or has a normal thyroid function. The drug works by blocking thyroid peroxidase, an enzyme responsible for coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, which ultimately reduces thyroid hormone production.

      In contrast to propylthiouracil, another medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis, carbimazole only has a central mechanism of action. Propylthiouracil, on the other hand, also has a peripheral action by inhibiting 5′-deiodinase, an enzyme that reduces peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.

      While carbimazole can be effective in managing thyrotoxicosis, it is not without its adverse effects. One of the most serious side effects is agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a severe reduction in white blood cells. Additionally, carbimazole can cross the placenta, but may be used in low doses during pregnancy.

      Overall, carbimazole is a medication that can be effective in managing thyrotoxicosis, but it is important to be aware of its mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Patients should always consult with their healthcare provider before starting any new medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      87.8
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  • Question 30 - A 49-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward with severe loin to...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward with severe loin to groin abdominal pain. A CT-KUB reveals a right-sided renal calculus. When you take her medical history, she confesses that she has been feeling unwell for the past few weeks with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, constipation and altered mood.
      Her blood tests show an estimated glomerular filtration rate of >60 ml/min, adjusted calcium of 3.1 mmol/l (2.1-2.6 mmol/l), phosphate of 0.6 mmol/l (0.8-1.4 mol/l), and parathyroid hormone of 5.1 pmol/l (1.2-5.8 pmol/l).
      What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is caused by parathyroid adenoma or hyperplasia. The typical biochemical markers are low phosphate and high serum calcium levels. However, the parathyroid hormone level may be high or inappropriately normal. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is caused by chronic hypocalcemia, such as in chronic kidney disease, where serum calcium levels are low or normal, but parathyroid hormone levels are high. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism is a result of autonomous parathyroid production and usually occurs in patients with end-stage renal disease. Sarcoidosis and type 1 renal tubular acidosis are rare causes of hypercalcemia.

      Understanding Primary Hyperparathyroidism

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition commonly seen in elderly females, characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, with hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, and carcinoma being less common causes. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, those who do experience symptoms may have polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension. Primary hyperparathyroidism is also associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN I and II).

      To diagnose primary hyperparathyroidism, doctors may look for raised calcium levels and low phosphate levels, as well as perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan. A characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism is the pepperpot skull. Treatment options include total parathyroidectomy, conservative management, and the use of calcimimetics like cinacalcet. Calcimimetics mimic the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.

      In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can be asymptomatic or present with a range of symptoms. It is most commonly caused by a solitary adenoma and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia. Diagnosis involves blood tests and imaging, while treatment options include surgery and medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 28-year-old man with psoriasis affecting the scalp and legs visits his General...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with psoriasis affecting the scalp and legs visits his General Practitioner with ongoing symptoms despite using once-daily Betnovate® (a potent steroid) and a vitamin D analogue for six weeks.
      What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer to Dermatology

      Correct Answer: Stop steroid treatment and continue vitamin D analogue twice daily

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis management follows a stepwise approach, as per NICE guidelines. In this case, the patient has already received eight weeks of potent steroid with a vitamin D analogue. The next step is to stop the steroid and increase the vitamin D analogue to twice daily. Steroids should not be used at the same site for more than eight weeks, and patients require a 4-week steroid-free break. If symptoms persist, twice-daily steroids or a coal tar preparation can be tried. Referral to Dermatology may be necessary for severe cases, but starting the next stage of treatment while awaiting review is appropriate. An ultra-potent steroid may be considered after the steroid-free break or as a short course if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A child is born with a genetic condition that is inherited in an...

    Incorrect

    • A child is born with a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. The parents are informed of this. What is the most likely condition that the child has?

      Your Answer: Phenylketonuria

      Correct Answer: Myotonic dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disorder causing muscle weakness and wasting. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease affecting chloride transport and causing thick mucus secretions. Homocystinuria is an autosomal recessive disorder of methionine metabolism leading to accumulation of homocysteine and its metabolites. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive disease causing mental retardation due to the inability to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine. Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive disorder causing deformed red blood cells and oxygen deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 68-year-old man comes to your clinic accompanied by his daughter. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to your clinic accompanied by his daughter. He reports having painless swelling in his fingers that has been persistent. When inquiring about his medical history, he denies any issues except for a nagging cough. During the examination of his hands, you observe an increased curvature of the nails and a loss of the angle between the nail and nail bed. Considering the potential diagnoses, what would be the most crucial step to take?

      Your Answer: Hand X-ray

      Correct Answer: Urgent chest X-ray

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines for suspected lung cancers, individuals over the age of 40 with finger clubbing should undergo a chest X-ray. Given that this patient is 70 years old and has a persistent cough and finger clubbing, an urgent chest X-ray is necessary to investigate the possibility of lung cancer or mesothelioma. Pain relief medication such as oral analgesia or ibuprofen gel is not necessary as the patient is not experiencing any pain, which would be indicative of osteoarthritis. Reassurance is not appropriate in this case as finger clubbing in individuals over the age of 40 requires immediate investigation.

      Referral Guidelines for Lung Cancer

      Lung cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The 2015 NICE cancer referral guidelines provide clear advice on when to refer patients for further assessment. According to these guidelines, patients should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral if they have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or if they are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis.

      For patients aged 40 and over who have two or more unexplained symptoms, or who have ever smoked and have one or more unexplained symptoms, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered within two weeks to assess for lung cancer. These symptoms include cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, and appetite loss.

      In addition, an urgent chest x-ray should be considered within two weeks for patients aged 40 and over who have persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis.

      Overall, these guidelines provide clear and specific criteria for when to refer patients for further assessment for lung cancer. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive timely and appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      17
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  • Question 34 - A 49-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of daily abdominal bloating and...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of daily abdominal bloating and cramps for the last 3 weeks. During the examination, the doctor palpates a small pelvic mass. What is the most suitable next test to perform?

      Your Answer: FSH level

      Correct Answer: CA125 level

      Explanation:

      If females over 50 experience bloating and abdominal cramps, it is important to consider the possibility of ovarian cancer. The recommended course of action is to conduct a serum CA125 test. If the results show elevated levels, an abdominal and pelvic ultrasound should be scheduled. This information is based on NICE CG122 guidelines.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      51.2
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history of intermittent chest pains. She states that these started in the afternoon and have gotten worse. The pain is central and seems to improve when she sits on her chair and leans forward. She has a past medical history of hypertension. The GP decides to perform an electrocardiogram (ECG).
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following best describes what might be seen on the ECG?
      Select the SINGLE most likely ECG finding from the list below.

      Your Answer: Widespread concave ST-segment elevation

      Correct Answer: Widespread concave ST-segment elevation and PR segment depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding ECG Findings in Acute Pericarditis

      Acute pericarditis is a condition that commonly presents with central pleuritic chest pain, relieved on leaning forward. One of the main ECG findings in acute pericarditis is widespread concave ST-segment elevations with PR-segment depression, which is 85% specific for the condition. Absent P waves are not typically caused by acute pericarditis, and ST-segment elevation in the anterior leads is more suggestive of anterior myocardial infarction. U waves are not characteristic ECG findings in acute pericarditis and are associated with other conditions. Other clinical features of acute pericarditis are largely dependent on the underlying cause. It is important to understand these ECG findings to aid in the diagnosis and management of acute pericarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      60.3
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 14-year-old girl is referred to haematology due to heavy and prolonged periods...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl is referred to haematology due to heavy and prolonged periods that have not responded well to tranexamic acid and the combined oral contraceptive pill. Her blood tests reveal Hb of 10.3 g/dl, Plt of 239 * 109/l, WBC of 6.5 * 109/l, PT of 12.9 secs, and APTT of 37 secs. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia B

      Correct Answer: Von Willebrand's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease

      Von Willebrand’s disease is a common inherited bleeding disorder that is usually passed down in an autosomal dominant manner. It behaves like a platelet disorder, with symptoms such as nosebleeds and heavy menstrual bleeding being common, while joint and muscle bleeding are rare. The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and acts as a carrier molecule for factor VIII.

      There are three types of Von Willebrand’s disease. Type 1 is the most common and is characterized by a partial reduction in von Willebrand factor. Type 2 is further divided into four subtypes, each with a different abnormality in the von Willebrand factor. Type 3 is the most severe form and is caused by a total lack of von Willebrand factor, inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.

      Diagnosis of Von Willebrand’s disease involves tests such as a prolonged bleeding time, APTT, factor VIII levels, and platelet aggregation with ristocetin. Management options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of von Willebrand factor, and factor VIII concentrate. While there is no clear correlation between symptomatic presentation and type of Von Willebrand’s disease, common themes among patients include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising in the absence of trauma, and menorrhagia in females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 28-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department at 37 weeks gestation...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient arrives at the Emergency Department at 37 weeks gestation with blurred vision and severe headache. She reports upper abdominal pain for the last few hours. Upon examination, her blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg and urinalysis shows proteinuria. While taking her medical history, she experiences a tonic-clonic seizure. What is the appropriate pharmacological treatment to stop this seizure?

      Your Answer: Intravenous lorazepam

      Correct Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulfate

      Explanation:

      When a seizure is suspected to be caused by eclampsia, the recommended first-line treatment is intravenous magnesium sulfate, given as a loading dose followed by an infusion. In the case of convulsive status epilepticus, intravenous lorazepam is the preferred in-hospital treatment, with phenytoin as an alternative if lorazepam is ineffective. Glucose may be administered if hypoglycemia is a contributing factor. It is not appropriate to administer oral medications to a patient with a decreased level of consciousness. (Adapted from BMJ Best Practice – Pre-eclampsia)

      Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment

      Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.

      In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 45-year-old man attends for a truck driver medical assessment. His blood pressure...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man attends for a truck driver medical assessment. His blood pressure (BP) is noted to be 190/100 mmHg. He is a heavy drinker. He is feeling generally well in himself. You request blood tests:
      Result Normal
      Sodium (mmol/l) 138 135-145
      Potassium (mmol/l) 4.0 3.5-5.0
      Urea (mmol/l) 4.8 1.7-8.3
      Creatinine (µmol/l) 152 59-104
      You decide to perform a work-up to exclude a secondary cause for his hypertension. An ultrasound scan of the renal tract reveals a small atrophic left kidney.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cushing’s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Hypertension: Differential Diagnosis

      Hypertension in a young patient may indicate a secondary cause, such as renovascular disease. In this case, a small kidney on ultrasound and elevated creatinine levels suggest renal artery stenosis as a possible cause. Other potential diagnoses, such as Cushing’s syndrome, acromegaly, and phaeochromocytoma, are less likely based on the absence of corresponding symptoms and signs. Polycystic kidney disease, which can also cause hypertension, would typically present with bilateral renal enlargement rather than atrophy. A thorough differential diagnosis is important to identify the underlying cause of hypertension and guide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      32
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 50-year-old male presents to his GP complaining of feeling unwell. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents to his GP complaining of feeling unwell. He has a medical history of osteoarthritis and has been taking over-the-counter ibuprofen. Additionally, he has bipolar disorder and takes lithium and sodium valproate orally. He reports experiencing abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhoea, and blurred vision. On examination, his vital signs are normal, but he exhibits a coarse tremor and muscle twitching. Neurological examination reveals hyperreflexia, and his abdomen is mildly tender without signs of peritonitis. He mentions that he is fasting for religious reasons but continues to take all of his medication. What is the most likely cause of his current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate toxicity

      Correct Answer: Lithium toxicity

      Explanation:

      Lithium toxicity can cause symptoms such as diarrhoea, vomiting, abdominal pain, coarse tremor, weakness, seizures, muscle twitches, and blurred vision. This patient is likely experiencing lithium toxicity due to dehydration from fasting, resulting in high serum lithium levels. The normal range is 0.4-1.0, and toxicity symptoms occur when levels exceed 1.5. It is important to avoid non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications like ibuprofen, as they can decrease lithium excretion. Common side effects of lithium include a fine tremor, metallic taste in the mouth, thirst, polyuria, and weight gain. Sodium valproate can cause hair loss, nausea, diarrhoea, weight gain, drowsiness, and a small increased risk of suicidal thoughts. Symptoms of sodium valproate toxicity include central nervous system depression, ataxia, tachycardia, and electrolyte disturbances. Although ibuprofen can cause gastrointestinal upset, it is not responsible for most of this patient’s symptoms and is therefore an incorrect answer.

      Understanding Lithium Toxicity

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. However, it has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and a long plasma half-life, making it crucial to monitor its levels in the blood. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.

      Symptoms of lithium toxicity include a coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and even coma. It is important to manage toxicity promptly, as mild to moderate cases may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline. However, severe cases may require hemodialysis to remove excess lithium from the body. Some healthcare providers may also use sodium bicarbonate to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, although evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.

      In summary, understanding lithium toxicity is crucial for healthcare providers and individuals taking lithium. Monitoring lithium levels in the blood and promptly managing toxicity can prevent serious complications and ensure the safe use of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 62-year-old woman has a left hemisphere stroke due to thromboembolic occlusion of...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman has a left hemisphere stroke due to thromboembolic occlusion of the left middle cerebral artery (MCA). She does not have a visual field deficit on confrontation testing and makes a good neurological recovery within seven days, being able to walk unaided. She is left with minor weakness of her right hand.
      What advice is she most likely to be given by the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA)?

      Your Answer: No driving restriction necessary

      Correct Answer: Must not drive for 1 month

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions Following a Stroke or TIA

      After experiencing a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) or stroke, patients must not drive for at least one month, regardless of the severity. If clinical recovery is satisfactory, non-HGV drivers may resume driving after one month. However, if residual neurological deficits persist after one month, including visual field defects, cognitive defects, and impaired limb function, patients must not drive until these signs have fully resolved. Minor limb weakness alone does not require notification to the DVLA unless restriction to certain types of vehicles is needed.

      If a patient has only minor weakness to the hand, they can resume driving after one month. However, if they wish to drive a group 2 vehicle, such as a large goods vehicle (LGV), they must wait at least two years. The DVLA may refuse or revoke a license for one year following a stroke or TIA, but patients can be considered for licensing after this period if there is no residual impairment likely to affect safe driving and no other significant risk factors. Licensing may be subject to satisfactory medical reports, including exercise electrocardiographic (ECG) testing.

      In cases of doubt, driving assessments may be carried out at specialist rehabilitation centers. It is essential to contact the DVLA for an overview of the main restrictions for drivers with neurological and other conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 40 year old male is brought to the Emergency Department following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old male is brought to the Emergency Department following a severe beating. Upon arrival, his eyes are shut and only open in response to pain. He emits a single groan and withdraws from painful stimuli. What is his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

      Your Answer: 14

      Correct Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      The GCS score for this patient is 654, which can be remembered as MoVE. This scoring system assesses the patient’s level of consciousness by evaluating their eye opening, verbal response, and motor function. In this case, the patient’s eyes are closed but will open in response to pain, earning a score of 2 out of 4. The patient is unable to speak but makes a groaning sound, earning a score of 2 out of 5. The patient also flexes in response to pain, earning a score of 4 out of 6. GCS scores are regularly monitored in patients with head injuries to detect any changes in their neurological status, which could indicate swelling or bleeding.

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.

      The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.

      The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.

      The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.

      The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.

      Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of multiple sclerosis for a few years...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of multiple sclerosis for a few years has been struggling with increased muscle stiffness and trouble with fluid movements. Despite taking baclofen for a year, there has been no improvement. What medication should be considered next to alleviate these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Correct Answer: Gabapentin

      Explanation:

      Spasticity in multiple sclerosis is caused by demyelination along the nerves that control movement, resulting in stiffness that can sometimes be helpful but can also become painful. Physiotherapy exercises are the simplest and most effective treatment, but first-line medications such as baclofen and gabapentin are also recommended. Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant that can be effective against muscle spasms, while diazepam is a muscle relaxant that may be more useful at night due to side effects at higher doses. Botulinum toxin and dantrolene sodium can be considered if conventional treatments prove ineffective, but are not used as first-line for spasticity. The NICE multiple sclerosis guideline recommends gabapentin as one of the first drugs to try in the treatment of spasms and spasticity.

      Multiple sclerosis is a condition that cannot be cured, but its treatment aims to reduce the frequency and duration of relapses. In the case of an acute relapse, high-dose steroids may be administered for five days to shorten its length. However, it is important to note that steroids do not affect the degree of recovery. Disease-modifying drugs are used to reduce the risk of relapse in patients with MS. These drugs are typically indicated for patients with relapsing-remitting disease or secondary progressive disease who have had two relapses in the past two years and are able to walk a certain distance unaided. Natalizumab, ocrelizumab, fingolimod, beta-interferon, and glatiramer acetate are some of the drugs used to reduce the risk of relapse in MS.

      Fatigue is a common problem in MS patients, and amantadine is recommended by NICE after excluding other potential causes such as anaemia, thyroid problems, or depression. Mindfulness training and CBT are other options for managing fatigue. Spasticity is another issue that can be addressed with first-line drugs such as baclofen and gabapentin, as well as physiotherapy. Cannabis and botox are currently being evaluated for their effectiveness in managing spasticity. Bladder dysfunction is also a common problem in MS patients, and anticholinergics may worsen symptoms in some patients. Ultrasound is recommended to assess bladder emptying, and intermittent self-catheterisation may be necessary if there is significant residual volume. Gabapentin is the first-line treatment for oscillopsia, which is a condition where visual fields appear to oscillate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having lung cancer.
    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed as having lung cancer.
      Which of the following statements is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Paraneoplastic syndromes occur more commonly with squamous-cell carcinomas.

      Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia may occur without bone metastasis.

      Explanation:

      Paraneoplastic syndromes are a group of disorders that can occur in patients with certain types of cancer, but are not caused by metastases, infections, metabolic disorders, chemotherapy, or coagulation disorders. These syndromes can present with a variety of symptoms affecting different body systems. Some of these syndromes are specific to certain types of cancer and may be the first sign of the disease. Therefore, if a patient presents with symptoms of a paraneoplastic syndrome, it is important to consider the possibility of an underlying malignancy. While certain paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with specific types of cancer, there can be some overlap.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 32-year-old woman begins taking Cerazette (desogestrel) on the 7th day of her...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman begins taking Cerazette (desogestrel) on the 7th day of her menstrual cycle. After how much time can she consider it a reliable form of birth control?

      Your Answer: 2 days

      Explanation:

      Contraceptives – Time to become effective (if not used on the first day of period):
      Immediate: IUD
      2 days: Progestin-only pill (POP)
      7 days: Combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, intrauterine system (IUS)

      Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.

      In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP with bloody discharge from her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP with bloody discharge from her left nipple. She is extremely worried as she has discovered a small lump on the same breast while examining it after noticing the discharge. She has no medical history and does not take any regular medication. She mentions that her sister had breast cancer a few years ago. She denies any injury to the area. She has never given birth and still has regular periods. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibroadenoma

      Correct Answer: Duct papilloma

      Explanation:

      The presence of blood-stained discharge and a small lumpy mass in this patient suggests that they may have duct papilloma. This condition typically affects middle-aged women and develops in the lactiferous ducts beneath the nipple, causing a lumpy mass and bloody discharge. While fat necrosis can also occur in women with large breasts, it is less likely in this case as the patient has not reported any trauma. Fibroadenoma, on the other hand, is not associated with bloody nipple discharge and is typically found in younger women as a firm, non-tender mass. Fibroadenosis, which causes painful and lumpy breasts, is most commonly seen in middle-aged women and may worsen before menstruation.

      Breast Disorders: Common Features and Characteristics

      Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Fibroadenoma is a non-tender, highly mobile lump that is common in women under the age of 30. Fibroadenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by lumpy breasts that may be painful, especially before menstruation. Breast cancer is a hard, irregular lump that may be accompanied by nipple inversion or skin tethering. Paget’s disease of the breast is associated with a reddening and thickening of the nipple/areola, while mammary duct ectasia is characterized by dilatation of the large breast ducts, which may cause a tender lump around the areola and a green nipple discharge. Duct papilloma is characterized by local areas of epithelial proliferation in large mammary ducts, while fat necrosis is more common in obese women with large breasts and may mimic breast cancer. Breast abscess, on the other hand, is more common in lactating women and is characterized by a red, hot, and tender swelling. Lipomas and sebaceous cysts may also develop around the breast tissue.

      Common Features and Characteristics of Breast Disorders

      Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Each of these disorders has its own unique features and characteristics that can help identify them. Understanding these features and characteristics can help women identify potential breast disorders and seek appropriate medical attention. It is important to note that while some breast disorders may be benign, others may be malignant or premalignant, and further investigation is always warranted. Regular breast exams and mammograms can also help detect breast disorders early, increasing the chances of successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of pain, redness, and blurring...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of pain, redness, and blurring of vision in his left eye. Upon fundoscopy, a combination of white and red retinal lesions was observed, indicating chorioretinitis. What is the essential test that must be performed to determine the underlying cause of chorioretinitis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

      Correct Answer: HIV test

      Explanation:

      Performing an HIV test is crucial in patients with AIDS, as it is the primary diagnostic tool for identifying the underlying cause. While options 1, 2, and 3 may be necessary as baseline investigations in most patients, they are not sufficient for diagnosing the specific condition in this case.

      Causes of Chorioretinitis

      Chorioretinitis is a medical condition that affects the retina and choroid, which are the layers of tissue at the back of the eye. There are several causes of chorioretinitis, including syphilis, cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis.

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. It can cause chorioretinitis as part of its secondary stage. Cytomegalovirus is a common virus that can cause chorioretinitis in people with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection that can be contracted from contaminated food or water, and it can cause chorioretinitis in some cases.

      Sarcoidosis is a condition that causes inflammation in various parts of the body, including the eyes. It can lead to chorioretinitis in some cases. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs, but it can also spread to other parts of the body, including the eyes. It can cause chorioretinitis as a rare complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A toddler is brought to your clinic as the mother has noticed some...

    Incorrect

    • A toddler is brought to your clinic as the mother has noticed some skin lesions on the child's face. Upon examination, you observe multiple small white papules on the nose. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Molluscum contagiosum

      Correct Answer: Milia

      Explanation:

      Milia, which are often found on the face of newborns, are a normal occurrence and can be seen in up to 50% of babies. They typically disappear on their own within a few weeks.

      Understanding Milia: Small, Benign Cysts on the Face

      Milia are small cysts that are filled with keratin and are typically found on the face. These cysts are benign and are not harmful to one’s health. Although they can appear at any age, they are more commonly found in newborns. Milia are often described as small, white bumps that are painless and do not cause any discomfort.

      While the exact cause of milia is unknown, they are thought to occur when dead skin cells become trapped in the skin’s surface. They can also develop as a result of using heavy skin care products or as a side effect of certain medications. In most cases, milia will disappear on their own without any treatment. However, if they persist or become bothersome, a dermatologist may recommend treatment options such as extraction or chemical peels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset chest pain. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril. His vital signs are as follows: BP 153/90 mmHg in his right arm and 130/80 in his left arm, heart rate 89/minute, temperature 37.2ºC, respiration rate 17/minute, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Upon examination, the patient has absent pulses in his right leg and diminished pulses in his left leg.

      What is the recommended diagnostic test for this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: D-dimer levels

      Correct Answer: CT angiography chest/abdomen/pelvis

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms of thoracic aortic dissection and is stable, CT angiography is the preferred diagnostic test. This imaging technique provides a clear view of the aorta and helps plan surgical intervention if necessary. In cases of proximal aortic dissection, inter-arm blood pressure measurements may reveal a difference of over 20 mmHg, with the right arm showing higher pressure due to its proximity to the heart. The absence or reduction of femoral pulses on one or both sides is also a common finding. While a chest x-ray may show signs associated with aortic dissection, it is not specific enough for diagnosis. Transesophageal echocardiography (TOE) is used to confirm the diagnosis if CT angiography is inconclusive or if the patient is unstable. Transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) is less sensitive and specific than TOE for detecting aortic dissection.

      Understanding Aortic Dissection: Classification, Investigation, and Management

      Aortic dissection is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is classified according to the location of the tear in the aorta, with type A affecting the ascending aorta in two-thirds of cases, and type B affecting the descending aorta distal to the left subclavian origin in one-third of cases. The DeBakey classification further divides aortic dissection into type I, which originates in the ascending aorta and propagates to at least the aortic arch, and type II, which is confined to the ascending aorta. Type III originates in the descending aorta and rarely extends proximally but will extend distally.

      To diagnose aortic dissection, imaging studies such as chest x-ray and CT angiography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis are essential. Transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE) may be more suitable for unstable patients who cannot undergo CT scanning. Management of type A aortic dissection requires surgical intervention, but blood pressure should be controlled to a target systolic of 100-120 mmHg while awaiting surgery. Type B aortic dissection can be managed conservatively with bed rest and IV labetalol to reduce blood pressure and prevent progression.

      Complications of aortic dissection depend on the location of the tear. Backward tears can lead to aortic incompetence/regurgitation and myocardial infarction, while forward tears can cause unequal arm pulses and blood pressure, stroke, and renal failure. Endovascular repair of type B aortic dissection may have a role in the future. It is important to remember that patients may present acutely and be clinically unstable, so the choice of investigations and management should take this into account.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 55-year-old man requests a PSA test due to his father's recent prostate...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man requests a PSA test due to his father's recent prostate cancer diagnosis. You perform a digital rectal exam and inform him that his prostate feels normal. After further conversation, you agree to proceed with the test. What is the appropriate timing for PSA testing to ensure accurate results?

      Your Answer: PSA testing can be done after abstaining from ejaculation or vigorous exercise for 12 hours

      Correct Answer: PSA testing can be done after abstaining from ejaculation or vigorous exercise for 48 hours

      Explanation:

      To ensure accurate results, NICE recommends avoiding PSA testing for at least the following periods: 6 weeks after a prostate biopsy, 4 weeks after a confirmed urinary infection, 1 week after a digital rectal examination, and 48 hours after vigorous exercise or ejaculation, as these factors may cause an increase in PSA levels.

      Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by both normal and cancerous prostate cells. It is commonly used as a marker for prostate cancer, but its effectiveness as a screening tool is still debated. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has released guidelines for handling requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. While a recent European trial showed a reduction in prostate cancer deaths, it also revealed a high risk of over-diagnosis and over-treatment. As a result, the National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a screening programme, but rather allow men to make an informed decision. The PCRMP recommends age-adjusted upper limits for PSA levels, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. PSA levels can also be raised by factors such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, and urinary tract infections.

      The specificity and sensitivity of PSA testing are poor, with a significant number of men with elevated PSA levels not having prostate cancer, and some with normal PSA levels having the disease. Various methods are used to add meaning to PSA levels, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring changes in PSA levels over time. It is also debated whether digital rectal examination causes a rise in PSA levels. It is important to note that PSA testing should be postponed after certain events, such as ejaculation or instrumentation of the urinary tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 25-year-old actress visits your clinic seeking advice on contraception. She expresses concern...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old actress visits your clinic seeking advice on contraception. She expresses concern about weight gain as she needs to maintain her figure for her profession. Which contraceptive method has been linked to weight gain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Depo Provera (Medroxyprogesterone acetate)

      Explanation:

      Weight gain is a known side effect of the Depo Provera contraceptive method. Additionally, it may take up to a year for fertility to return after discontinuing use, and there is an increased risk of osteoporosis and irregular bleeding. Other contraceptive methods such as the combined pill, progesterone only pill, and subdermal implant do not have a proven link to weight gain.

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucus thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Renal Medicine/Urology (3/3) 100%
Cardiovascular (4/7) 57%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (5/6) 83%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (4/4) 100%
Infectious Diseases (2/2) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Neurology (4/5) 80%
Respiratory Medicine (2/4) 50%
Ophthalmology (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/3) 33%
Immunology/Allergy (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Genetics (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (3/3) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (1/2) 50%
Passmed