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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man meets the criteria for initiating statin therapy for CVD prevention. He reports a history of persistent unexplained generalised muscle pains and so a creatine kinase (CK) level is checked on a blood test prior to starting treatment.
The CK result comes back and it is four times the upper limit of normal.
What is the most appropriate management approach in this instance?Your Answer: Statin therapy can be started but at a lower dose
Correct Answer: Statin therapy should not be started and a fibrate should be prescribed instead
Explanation:Statin Therapy and Creatine Kinase Levels
Prior to offering a statin, it is recommended to check creatine kinase (CK) levels in individuals with persistent generalised unexplained muscle pain, according to NICE guidelines. If CK levels are more than 5 times the upper limit of normal, statin therapy should not be started. The CK level should be rechecked after 7 days, and if it remains elevated to more than 5 times the upper limit of normal, a statin should not be initiated. However, if CK levels are elevated but less than 5 times the upper limit of normal, statin treatment can be initiated, but a lower dose is recommended. It is important to monitor CK levels in patients receiving statin therapy to ensure that muscle damage is not occurring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 72-year-old woman with hypertension, type 2 diabetes and osteoarthritis. She is currently taking 10 mg of ramipril once a day, 10 mg of amlodipine once a day, indapamide 2.5 mg once a day, 500mg of Metformin twice a day, co-codamol PRN and atorvastatin 20 mg at night.
During her visit to the clinic, her blood pressure (BP) is consistently elevated and today it is 160/98 mmHg. As per the NICE guidelines, you want to initiate another medication to help lower her BP. Her K+ level is 4.2 mmol/l.
What would be the most suitable additional medication to prescribe?Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:The patient is suffering from poorly controlled hypertension despite being on three medications, including an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a thiazide diuretic. If the patient’s potassium levels are below 4.5mmol/l, the next step would be to add spironolactone to their treatment plan. However, if their potassium levels are above 4.5mmol/l, a higher dose of thiazide-like diuretic treatment should be considered. It is important to note that bendroflumethiazide is not suitable in this case as the patient is already taking indapamide, and chlortalidone is also a thiazide-like diuretic and should not be added. Additionally, candesartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, should not be used in combination with an ACE inhibitor.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Correct
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You assess a patient who has been hospitalized with a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction in the ED. They have been administered aspirin 300 mg stat and glyceryl trinitrate spray (2 puffs). As per the latest NICE recommendations, which patients should be given ticagrelor?
Your Answer: All patients
Explanation:Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.
ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and oxygen therapy if the patient has low oxygen saturation.
For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI or unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool. Based on the risk assessment, decisions are made regarding whether a patient has coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.
This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines on the management of ACS. However, it is important to note that emergency departments may have their own protocols based on local factors. The full NICE guidelines should be reviewed for further details.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman who is increasingly short of breath on exertion is found to have a 4/6 systolic murmur heard best on her right sternal edge.
What is the single most appropriate investigation?
Your Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Aortic Stenosis
Aortic stenosis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. One of the most important diagnostic tests for aortic stenosis is an echocardiogram, which can provide valuable information about the extent of the stenosis and whether surgery is necessary. In addition, an angiogram may be performed to assess the presence of ischaemic heart disease, which often occurs alongside aortic stenosis.
Other diagnostic tests that may be used to evaluate aortic stenosis include a chest X-ray, which can reveal cardiac enlargement or calcification of the aortic ring, and an electrocardiogram, which may show evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy. Exercise testing is not recommended for symptomatic patients, but may be useful for unmasking symptoms in physically active patients or for risk stratification in asymptomatic patients with severe disease.
While lung function testing is not typically part of the routine workup for aortic stenosis, it is important for patients to be aware of the risks associated with rigorous exercise, as sudden death can occur in those with severe disease. Overall, a comprehensive diagnostic approach is essential for accurately assessing the extent of aortic stenosis and determining the most appropriate course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Correct
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You see a 70-year-old male smoker in clinic who describes symptoms of pain in his left leg which is exacerbated by exercise and relieved by rest.
On examination his pulses are weak in the left leg compared to the right. Suspecting intermittent claudication you arrange leg Dopplers. These show an ABPI (ankle brachial pressure Index) of 0.84.
What is the appropriate diagnosis for this man based on these findings?Your Answer: Peripheral arterial disease
Explanation:Understanding ABPI and its Interpretation
The Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) is a ratio that compares the systolic pressure in the ankle to that in the arm. It is a non-invasive test that helps diagnose peripheral arterial disease (PAD), a condition that affects blood flow to the legs and feet.
An ABPI of less than 0.9 indicates the presence of PAD, while an ABPI of less than 0.8 suggests a higher risk of developing ulcers. An ABPI of less than 0.5 indicates critical ischaemia, a severe form of PAD that can lead to tissue damage and even amputation.
On the other hand, an ABPI of more than 1.5 is likely due to non-compressible vessels, which means that the arteries are too stiff to be accurately measured. In such cases, the ABPI cannot be relied upon to guide clinical decisions.
In summary, the ABPI is a useful tool in diagnosing and assessing the severity of PAD. Healthcare professionals should interpret the results carefully and take appropriate action based on the patient’s individual circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A 72-year-old man visits his General Practitioner for a medication review for his chronic congestive heart failure. His recent echocardiogram indicates an ejection fraction of 35%. He reports experiencing more shortness of breath, especially when lying down, gaining 2 kg in weight over the past few weeks, and having ankle swelling. What is the appropriate medication class to prescribe for quick relief of symptoms?
Your Answer: Loop diuretics
Explanation:Treatment Options for Symptomatic Heart Failure
Symptomatic heart failure can be managed with various medications. Loop diuretics such as furosemide can provide relief from symptoms of fluid overload. However, it doesn’t alter the prognosis. Aldosterone antagonists may be considered for patients who remain symptomatic despite a combination of loop diuretics, ACE inhibitors, and beta-blockers. ACE inhibitors should be given to all patients with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40% or less, regardless of symptom severity, as it has been shown to improve ventricular function, reduce mortality, and hospital admission. Beta-blockers should also be used in patients with symptomatic heart failure and a left ventricular ejection fraction ≤ 40%, as long as they are tolerated and not contraindicated. Digoxin is used for rate control but is not recommended for rapid symptom relief.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old accountant presents with severe central chest pain. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention and a right coronary artery occlusion is successfully stented. Post-procedure, there are no complications and echocardiography shows an ejection fraction of 50%. The patient inquires about the impact on his driving as he relies on his car for commuting to work. What guidance should you provide regarding his ability to drive?
Your Answer: Stop driving for at least 6 weeks, inform the DVLA
Correct Answer: Stop driving for at least 1 week, no need to inform the DVLA
Explanation:Driving can resume after hospital discharge if the patient has successfully undergone coronary angioplasty and there are no other disqualifying conditions. However, if the patient is a bus, taxi, or lorry driver, they must inform the DVLA and refrain from driving for a minimum of 6 weeks.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man has been feeling ill for 2 weeks with fatigue, loss of appetite, and night sweats. During examination, he has a temperature of 38.5oC and a loud mid-systolic ejection murmur in the second right intercostal space with a palpable thrill. What is the most appropriate intervention for this man?
Your Answer: Urgent Echocardiogram
Correct Answer: Blood culture
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis of Infective Endocarditis and Criteria for Diagnosis
Infective endocarditis is a condition that involves inflammation of the heart valves caused by various organisms, including Streptococcus viridans. The lack of a dedicated blood supply to the valves reduces the immune response in these areas, making them susceptible to infection, especially if they are already damaged. A new or changing heart murmur, typical of aortic stenosis, may indicate the presence of infective endocarditis, particularly if accompanied by a fever.
To diagnose infective endocarditis, the Duke criteria require the presence of two major criteria, one major and three minor criteria, or five minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical infective endocarditis microorganisms and evidence of vegetations on heart valves on an echocardiogram. Minor criteria include a predisposing factor such as a heart valve lesion or intravenous drug abuse, fever, embolism, immunological problems, or a single positive blood culture.
Immediate hospital admission is necessary for patients suspected of having infective endocarditis. Blood cultures should be taken before starting antibiotics, and an echocardiogram should be carried out urgently. While aortic stenosis is a common cause of heart murmurs, a new or changing murmur accompanied by a fever should raise suspicion of infective endocarditis.
Criteria for Diagnosing Infective Endocarditis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Correct
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Sophie is a 65-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation after experiencing some palpitations. She has no other medical history and only takes atorvastatin for high cholesterol. She has no symptoms currently and her observations are stable with a heart rate of 75 beats per minute. Her CHA2DS2-VASc score is 0.
What would be the appropriate next step in managing Sophie's condition?Your Answer: Arrange for an echocardiogram
Explanation:When a patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA2DS2-VASc score that suggests they do not need anticoagulation, it is recommended to perform a transthoracic echo to rule out valvular heart disease. The CHA2DS2-VASc score is used to assess the risk of stroke in AF patients, and anticoagulant treatment is generally indicated for those with a score of two or more. Rivaroxaban is an anticoagulant that can be used in AF, but it is not necessary in this scenario. Aspirin should not be used to prevent stroke in AF patients. If a patient requires rate control for fast AF, beta-blockers are the first line of treatment. Digoxin is only used for patients with a more sedentary lifestyle and doesn’t protect against stroke. It is important to perform a transthoracic echo in AF patients, especially if it may change their management or refine their risk of stroke and need for anticoagulation.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.
When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.
For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You start a patient on atorvastatin after their cholesterol was found to be raised in the context of a QRISK of 15%. You repeat the blood tests 6 months after starting treatment.
Which of the following blood results does NICE recommend using to determine the next course of action?Your Answer: Creatine kinase
Correct Answer: Non-HDL cholesterol
Explanation:Monitoring Statin Treatment for Primary Prevention
Following the initiation of statin treatment for primary prevention, it is recommended to have a repeat blood test after 3 months. The non-HDL cholesterol level should be interpreted to guide the next steps in management. The goal of treatment is to reduce non-HDL levels by 40% of the patient’s baseline. If adherence, timing of the dose, and lifestyle measures are in place, an increase in dose may be necessary.
It is not routine to investigate creatine kinase in this context, but it would be helpful to investigate unexplained muscle symptoms. Liver function tests are not an option, but NICE advises testing these 3 months and 12 months following statin initiation. If stable, no further monitoring for LFTs is required after this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female presents to the rapid access transient ischaemic attack clinic with a history of transient loss of vision in the right eye over the past three weeks. Upon examination, a carotid ultrasound reveals a 48% stenosis of her right carotid artery and an ECG shows sinus rhythm. The patient was initiated on aspirin 300 mg od by her GP after the first episode. What is the optimal course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Carotid endarterectomy
Correct Answer: Clopidogrel
Explanation:According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, patients diagnosed with ischaemic stroke or TIA without paroxysmal or permanent atrial fibrillation should be prescribed antiplatelet therapy for long-term vascular prevention. The standard treatment is clopidogrel 75 mg daily, which is licensed for use in ischaemic stroke and can be used off-label for TIA. If clopidogrel and aspirin are contraindicated or cannot be tolerated, modified-release dipyridamole 200 mg twice daily may be used. Aspirin 75 mg daily can be used if both clopidogrel and modified-release dipyridamole are contraindicated or cannot be tolerated. If clopidogrel cannot be tolerated, aspirin 75 mg daily with modified-release dipyridamole 200 mg twice daily may be used. The 2012 Royal College of Physicians National clinical guidelines for stroke now recommend using clopidogrel following a TIA, which aligns with current stroke guidance.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.
Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.
Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You see a 65-year-old gentleman who you have recently diagnosed with heart failure and an ejection fraction of 35%. You have titrated him up to the maximum dose of ACE-I and his renal function, sodium and potassium have all remained within normal limits for the past three months.
According to NICE, how often should he now have his treatment monitored?Your Answer: Every 12 months
Correct Answer: No further monitoring required
Explanation:Monitoring ACE-I Treatment
According to NICE guidelines, it is recommended to monitor ACE-I treatment every 6 months once the maximum tolerated dose has been reached. This ensures that the treatment is still effective and that any potential side effects are identified and managed promptly. Additionally, it is important to review the treatment if the person becomes acutely unwell. This allows for adjustments to be made to the treatment plan as needed. Regular monitoring and review of ACE-I treatment can help improve patient outcomes and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman was recently diagnosed with atrial fibrillation during a routine pulse check. She has a medical history of fatty liver disease and well-managed hypertension, which is treated with amlodipine. Her weekly alcohol consumption is 14 units.
Her blood test results are as follows:
- Hb 110 g/L (115 - 160)
- Creatinine 108 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- Estimated GFR (eGFR) 57 mL/min/1.73 m² (>90)
- ALT 50 u/L (3 - 40)
To evaluate her bleeding risk before initiating anticoagulation therapy, her ORBIT score is computed.
What factors would increase this patient's ORBIT score?Your Answer: Anaemia and eGFR <60
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The ORBIT score includes anaemia and renal impairment as factors that indicate a higher risk of bleeding in patients with atrial fibrillation who are receiving anticoagulation treatment. This scoring tool is now recommended by NICE guidelines for assessing bleeding risk. The ORBIT score consists of five parameters, including age (75+ years), anaemia (haemoglobin <130 g/L in males, <120 g/L in females), bleeding history, and renal impairment (eGFR <60 mL/min/1.73 m²). In this patient's case, her anaemia and renal function would meet the criteria for scoring. Age is not a relevant factor as she is under 75 years old. Alcohol intake is not a criterion used in the ORBIT score, and hypertension is not included in this scoring tool but would be considered in the CHA2DS2-VASc scoring tool for assessing stroke risk. Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation. When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding. For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with chronic heart failure due to ischaemic heart disease complains of knee pain. An x-ray has revealed osteoarthritis. What medication should be avoided if feasible?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral ibuprofen
Explanation:Patients with heart failure should exercise caution when using NSAIDs as they may lead to fluid retention, making oral NSAIDs like ibuprofen unsuitable.
Medications to Avoid in Patients with Heart Failure
Patients with heart failure need to be cautious when taking certain medications as they may exacerbate their condition. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone, are contraindicated as they cause fluid retention. Verapamil should also be avoided due to its negative inotropic effect. NSAIDs and glucocorticoids should be used with caution as they can also cause fluid retention. However, low-dose aspirin is an exception as many patients with heart failure also have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin outweigh the risks. Class I antiarrhythmics, such as flecainide, should also be avoided as they have a negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these medications and their potential effects on patients with heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man suffers a myocardial infarction (MI) and is prescribed aspirin, atorvastatin, ramipril and bisoprolol upon discharge. After a month, he experiences some muscle aches and undergoes routine blood tests at the clinic. His serum creatine kinase (CK) activity is found to be 650 u/l (normal range 30–300 u/l). What is the probable reason for the elevated CK levels in this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Effect of statin therapy
Explanation:Interpreting Elevated CK Levels in a Post-MI Patient on Statin Therapy
When a patient complains of symptoms while on statin therapy, it is reasonable to check their CK levels. An elevated level suggests statin-induced myopathy, and the statin should be discontinued. However, if the patient doesn’t complain of further chest pain suggestive of another MI, CK is no longer routinely measured as a cardiac marker. Heavy exercise should also be avoided, and CK levels usually return to baseline within 72 hours post-MI. While undiagnosed hypothyroidism can cause a rise in CK, it is less likely than statin-induced myopathy, and other clinical features of hypothyroidism are not mentioned in the scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man presents at the clinic for follow-up of his heart failure. He was referred by his GP through the rapid assessment pathway and has received the results of his recent Echocardiogram. The patient has a history of hypertension and an inferior myocardial infarction and is currently taking amlodipine and ramipril 5 mg. On examination, his BP is 150/82, his pulse is regular at 84 beats per minute, and there are bibasal crackles on chest auscultation, but no significant pitting edema is observed. Laboratory investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 132 g/L (135-177), white cell count of 9.3 ×109/L (4-11), platelet count of 179 ×109/L (150-400), sodium level of 139 mmol/L (135-146), potassium level of 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-5), and creatinine level of 124 μmol/L (79-118). The Echocardiogram shows no significant valvular disease, with an ejection fraction of 31%. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for his heart failure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add bisoprolol 2.5 mg and titrate up the beta blocker and ramipril
Explanation:Treatment Guidelines for Chronic Heart Failure
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management. According to the NICE guidelines on Chronic heart failure (NG106), combination therapy with a beta blocker licensed for the treatment of heart failure and an ACE inhibitor is recommended. The philosophy of start low and titrate up both therapies slowly in patients with a proven reduced ejection fraction is also emphasized.
Carvedilol and bisoprolol are the two major beta blockers used for the treatment of cardiac failure, and both have well-characterized titration schedules. For second-line treatment, the addition of spironolactone at a low dose (25 mg) is recommended. In cases where patients are intolerant of both ACE inhibitors and ARBs, alternatives such as hydralazine combined with nitrate can be used.
To follow the guidelines, it is recommended to add bisoprolol 2.5 mg and titrate up the beta blocker and ramipril. By following these guidelines, patients with chronic heart failure can receive the best possible care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits a neurovascular clinic for a check-up. He had a stroke caused by a blood clot 3 weeks ago but has been recovering well. However, the patient had to discontinue taking clopidogrel 75 mg due to severe abdominal discomfort and diarrhea after switching from aspirin 300 mg daily. Since then, the symptoms have subsided.
What would be the best medication(s) to recommend for preventing another stroke in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin 75 mg plus modified release dipyridamole
Explanation:When clopidogrel cannot be used, the recommended treatment for secondary stroke prevention is a combination of aspirin 75 mg and modified-release dipyridamole. Studies have shown that this combination is more effective than taking aspirin or modified-release dipyridamole alone. Ticagrelor is not currently recommended by NICE for this purpose, and prasugrel is contraindicated due to the risk of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants like warfarin are generally not used for secondary stroke prevention, with antiplatelets being the preferred treatment.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.
Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.
Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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How long should a patient refrain from driving after undergoing an elective cardiac angioplasty?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 week
Explanation:DVLA guidance after angioplasty – refrain from driving for a period of 7 days.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old-man visits his General Practitioner complaining of syncope without any prodromal features. He has noticed increased dyspnea on exertion in the past few weeks. He denies any chest pain and has no known history of cardiac issues. Upon examination, an electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed which reveals complete heart block.
Which of the following physical findings is most indicative of the diagnosis?
Select ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irregular cannon ‘A’ waves on jugular venous pressure
Explanation:Understanding the Clinical Signs of Complete Heart Block
Complete heart block is a condition where there is a complete failure of conduction through the atrioventricular node, resulting in bradycardia and potential symptoms such as dizziness, fatigue, dyspnea, and chest pain. Here are some clinical signs to look out for when assessing a patient with complete heart block:
Irregular Cannon ‘A’ Waves on Jugular Venous Pressure: Cannon waves are large A waves that occur irregularly when the right atrium contracts against a closed tricuspid valve. In complete heart block, these waves occur randomly due to atrioventricular dissociation.
Low-Volume Pulse: Complete heart block doesn’t necessarily create a low-volume pulse. This is typically found in other conditions such as shock, left ventricular dysfunction, or mitral stenosis.
Irregularly Irregular Pulse: The ‘escape rhythms’ in third-degree heart block usually produce a slow, regular pulse that doesn’t vary with exercise. Unless found in combination with another condition such as atrial fibrillation, the pulse should be regular.
Collapsing Pulse: A collapsing pulse is typically associated with aortic regurgitation and would not be expected with complete heart block alone.
Loud Second Heart Sound: In complete heart block, the intensity of the first and second heart sound varies due to the loss of atrioventricular synchrony. A consistently loud second heart sound may be found in conditions such as pulmonary hypertension.
By understanding these clinical signs, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and manage patients with complete heart block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the metabolic syndrome is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decisions on cardiovascular risk factor modification should be made regardless of whether patients meet the criteria for metabolic syndrome
Explanation:The determination of primary prevention measures for cardiovascular disease should rely on established methods and should not be influenced by the diagnosis of metabolic syndrome.
Understanding Metabolic Syndrome
Metabolic syndrome is a condition that has various definitions, but it is generally believed to be caused by insulin resistance. The American Heart Association and the International Diabetes Federation have similar criteria for diagnosing metabolic syndrome. According to these criteria, a person must have at least three of the following: elevated waist circumference, elevated triglycerides, reduced HDL, raised blood pressure, and raised fasting plasma glucose. The International Diabetes Federation also requires the presence of central obesity and any two of the other four factors. In 1999, the World Health Organization produced diagnostic criteria that required the presence of diabetes mellitus, impaired glucose tolerance, impaired fasting glucose or insulin resistance, and two of the following: high blood pressure, dyslipidemia, central obesity, and microalbuminuria. Other associated features of metabolic syndrome include raised uric acid levels, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, and polycystic ovarian syndrome.
Overall, metabolic syndrome is a complex condition that involves multiple factors and can have serious health consequences. It is important to understand the diagnostic criteria and associated features in order to identify and manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man has persistent atrial fibrillation.
Which of the following is the single risk factor that places him most at risk of stroke?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Previous transient ischaemic attack
Explanation:Understanding CHA2DS2-VASc Scoring for Stroke Risk in Atrial Fibrillation Patients
The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is a useful tool for predicting the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation. A score of 0 indicates a low risk, while a score of 1 suggests a moderate risk, and a score of 2 or higher indicates a high risk. One of the risk factors that carries a score of 2 is a previous transient ischaemic attack, while age 75 years or older is another. Other risk factors, such as age 65-74 and female sex at any age, carry a score of 1 each. If a patient has no risk factors, their score would be zero, and not anticoagulating them would be an option. However, it is important to consider bleeding risk, calculated using the ORBIT criteria, before starting anticoagulation in all cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman has been diagnosed with familial hypercholesterolaemia due to being heterozygous for the condition. During the consultation, you suggest screening her family members. She mentions that her father has normal cholesterol levels. What is the likelihood that her brother will also be impacted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.
To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.
The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.
Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is found to have a systolic murmur.
Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of this being an innocent murmur.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heard during a febrile illness
Explanation:Understanding Innocent Heart Murmurs in Children
Innocent heart murmurs are common in children between the ages of 3 and 8 years. They occur when blood flows noisily through a normal heart, usually due to increased blood flow or faster blood movement. Innocent murmurs are typically systolic and vibratory in quality, with an intensity of 2/6 or 1/6. They can change with posture and vary from examination to examination. Harsh murmurs, pansystolic murmurs, late systolic murmurs, and continuous murmurs are usually indicative of pathology. Heart sounds in innocent murmurs are normal, with a split second heart sound in inspiration and a single second heart sound in expiration. It’s important to note that the absence of symptoms doesn’t exclude important pathology, and some murmurs due to congenital heart disease may not be easily audible at birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old Caucasian man has consistently high blood pressure readings above 155/95 mmHg. Despite being asymptomatic, he doesn't regularly monitor his blood pressure at home. His cardiovascular exam and fundoscopy are unremarkable, and his 12-lead ECG doesn't indicate left ventricular hypertrophy. He is currently taking a combination of amlodipine, ramipril, indapamide, and spironolactone. What is the most appropriate next step in his treatment plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add hydralazine
Explanation:Seeking Expert Advice for Resistant Blood Pressure
As per NICE guidelines, if a patient is already taking four antihypertensive medications and their blood pressure remains resistant, it is recommended to seek expert advice. This is because if the blood pressure remains uncontrolled even after taking the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, it may indicate a need for further evaluation and management. Seeking expert advice can help in identifying any underlying causes of resistant hypertension and developing an effective treatment plan. Therefore, it is important to consult with a specialist if the blood pressure remains uncontrolled despite taking four antihypertensive medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.
Currently, he is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. However, his blood pressure remains consistently around 160/92 mmHg.
What antihypertensive medication would you recommend adding to improve this patient's hypertension?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Hypertension Management in Type 2 Diabetes
This patient with type 2 diabetes has poorly controlled hypertension, but is currently tolerating his medication well. The recommended antihypertensive for diabetes is an ACE inhibitor, which can be combined with a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine. Beta-blockers should be avoided for routine hypertension treatment in diabetic patients. Methyldopa is used for hypertension during pregnancy, while moxonidine is used when other medications have failed. If blood pressure control is still inadequate, a thiazide diuretic can be added to the current regimen of ramipril and amlodipine. Proper management of hypertension is crucial in diabetic patients to prevent complications and improve overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of dyspnea.
On auscultation, you detect a systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur that is most audible at the right upper sternal border. The murmur is loudest during expiration and decreases in intensity when the patient stands. The second heart sound is faint. The apex beat is forceful but not displaced.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic sclerosis
Explanation:Aortic Stenosis: Symptoms and Signs
Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to reduced blood flow from the heart to the rest of the body. One of the typical features of aortic stenosis is a systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur that is loudest at the right upper sternal border. This murmur is usually heard during expiration and becomes softer when the patient stands. Additionally, the second heart sound is typically soft, and the apex beat is thrusting but not displaced.
To summarize, aortic stenosis can be identified by a combination of symptoms and signs, including a specific type of murmur, a soft second heart sound, and a thrusting apex beat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You are contemplating prescribing sildenafil to a patient who is experiencing erectile dysfunction. He suffered a heart attack earlier this year but is not presently taking nitrates or nicorandil. What is the duration of time that NICE suggests we wait after a heart attack before prescribing a phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the secondary prevention of MI. Patients who have had an MI should be offered dual antiplatelet therapy, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins. Lifestyle changes such as following a Mediterranean-style diet and engaging in regular exercise are also recommended. Sexual activity may resume after four weeks, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used after six months, but caution should be exercised in patients taking nitrates or nicorandil.
Dual antiplatelet therapy is now the standard treatment for most patients who have had an acute coronary syndrome. Ticagrelor and prasugrel are now more commonly used as ADP-receptor inhibitors. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend adding ticagrelor to aspirin for medically managed patients and prasugrel or ticagrelor for those who have undergone percutaneous coronary intervention. The second antiplatelet should be stopped after 12 months, but this may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events.
For patients who have had an acute MI and have symptoms and/or signs of heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction, treatment with an aldosterone antagonist such as eplerenone should be initiated within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy. Proper management and adherence to these guidelines can significantly reduce the risk of further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man presents to the hypertension clinic with a recent diagnosis of high blood pressure. He has been on ramipril for three months, but despite titration up to 10 mg od, his blood pressure remains elevated at 156/92 mmHg.
What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add amlodipine OR indapamide
Explanation:To improve control of hypertension in patients who are already taking an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker, the 2019 NICE guidelines recommend adding either a calcium channel blocker (such as amlodipine) or a thiazide-like diuretic (such as indapamide). This is a change from previous guidelines, which only recommended adding a calcium channel blocker in this situation.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is visiting the clinic several months after experiencing a heart attack. She has been prescribed medications to lower her risk of cardiovascular disease and has made dietary changes to promote healthy living. However, she has recently reported experiencing muscle aches and pains and her CK levels are elevated. Which of the following foods or substances may have contributed to the increased risk of statin-related myotoxicity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cranberry juice
Explanation:Drug Interactions with Fruit Juices and Supplements
Grapefruit juice can significantly increase the serum concentrations of certain statins by reducing their first-pass metabolism in the small intestine through the inhibition of CYP3A4. Therefore, it is recommended to avoid consuming large amounts of grapefruit juice while taking atorvastatin or to adjust the dosage accordingly. CYP3A4 is a member of the cytochrome P450 system.
On the other hand, while an interaction between cranberry juice and warfarin has been recognized, there have been no reported interactions with other drugs metabolized via the P450 system. Additionally, there have been no known interactions between statins, carrot juice, garlic, or omega-3 fish oils. However, it is important to note that according to NICE CG172, patients should no longer be advised to take omega-3 supplements to prevent another MI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 64-year-old woman who presents to you with a new-onset headache that started 3 weeks ago. Samantha's medical history includes type 2 diabetes and hypercholesterolaemia, and she has a body mass index of 29 kg/m².
During your examination, you measure Samantha's blood pressure which is 190/118 mmHg. A repeat reading shows 186/116 mmHg. Upon conducting fundoscopy, you observe evidence of retinal haemorrhage.
What would be the most appropriate initial management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for same-day specialist assessment
Explanation:NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.
To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.
If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.
ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.
Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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