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  • Question 1 - A 4-year-old boy is brought in by his father. His father reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought in by his father. His father reports that he has been eating less and refusing food for the past few weeks. Despite this his father has noticed that his abdomen is distended and he has developed a 'beer belly'. For the past year he has opened his bowels around once every other day, passing a stool of 'normal' consistency. There are no urinary symptoms. On examination he is on the 50th centile for height and weight. His abdomen is soft but slightly distended and a non-tender ballotable mass can be felt on the left side. His father has tried lactulose but there has no significant improvement. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Switch to polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) and review in two weeks

      Correct Answer: Speak to a local paediatrician

      Explanation:

      The evidence for the history of constipation is not very compelling. It is considered normal for a child to have a bowel movement of normal consistency every other day. However, the crucial aspect of this situation is identifying the abnormal examination finding – a palpable mass accompanied by abdominal distension. While an adult with such a red flag symptom would be expedited, it is more appropriate to consult with a pediatrician to determine the most appropriate referral pathway, which would likely involve a clinic review within the same week.

      Wilms’ Tumour: A Common Childhood Malignancy

      Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is a prevalent type of cancer in children, with a median age of diagnosis at 3 years old. It is often associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, hemihypertrophy, and a loss-of-function mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11. The most common presenting feature is an abdominal mass, which is usually painless, but other symptoms such as haematuria, flank pain, anorexia, and fever may also occur. In 95% of cases, the tumour is unilateral, and metastases are found in 20% of patients, most commonly in the lungs.

      If a child presents with an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass, it is crucial to arrange a paediatric review within 48 hours to rule out Wilms’ tumour. The management of this cancer typically involves nephrectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy if the disease is advanced. Fortunately, the prognosis for Wilms’ tumour is good, with an 80% cure rate.

      Histologically, Wilms’ tumour is characterized by epithelial tubules, areas of necrosis, immature glomerular structures, stroma with spindle cells, and small cell blastomatous tissues resembling the metanephric blastema. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are essential for a successful outcome in children with Wilms’ tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      38.8
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  • Question 2 - A 4-month-old child is scheduled to receive the pertussis vaccine, but the mother...

    Correct

    • A 4-month-old child is scheduled to receive the pertussis vaccine, but the mother is concerned about potential health issues that may prevent the administration of the vaccine.

      What would be a contraindication for giving the vaccine in this case?

      Your Answer: Confirmed anaphylaxis to neomycin drops

      Explanation:

      Pertussis-Containing Vaccines: Who Should Not Receive Them?

      There are very few people who cannot receive pertussis-containing vaccines. However, if there is any doubt, it is important to seek advice from a consultant paediatrician, local Screening and Immunisation team, or consultant in Health Protection rather than withholding the vaccine.

      There are only two situations where the vaccine should not be given. Firstly, if an individual has had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to a previous dose of a pertussis-containing vaccine. Secondly, if an individual has had a confirmed anaphylactic reaction to neomycin, streptomycin, or polymyxin B, which may be present in trace amounts. In these cases, it is important to avoid the vaccine and seek alternative options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      32.3
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man with a BMI of 50 kg/m² comes to you seeking...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a BMI of 50 kg/m² comes to you seeking advice on how to lose weight. He has no significant medical history and is not on any regular medication.

      As per the latest NICE guidelines on weight loss, what would be your first-line recommendation to him?

      Your Answer: Prescribe orlistat

      Correct Answer: Refer for consideration of bariatric surgery

      Explanation:

      The latest guidance from NICE recommends bariatric surgery as the primary option for adults with a BMI exceeding 50 kg/m2, rather than lifestyle changes or medication. Therefore, patients falling under this category should be referred for bariatric surgery evaluation.

      In cases where the waiting time for surgery is prolonged, drug treatment with orlistat may be prescribed to maintain or reduce weight. Orlistat is approved for adults aged 18-75 years with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more, or a BMI of 28 kg/m2 or more with associated risk factors, when used in conjunction with a mildly hypocaloric diet.

      In addition to referral consideration, advising the patient to follow a low-calorie diet and increase physical activity would be beneficial. As this patient is at high risk of developing type 2 diabetes, testing for it may be necessary, but should not delay urgent intervention to reduce their BMI.

      Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management

      Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight with lifestyle and drug interventions, the risks and expenses of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The NICE guidelines recommend that very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2 or higher, particularly those with other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, should be referred early for bariatric surgery rather than it being a last resort.

      There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive operations, primarily malabsorptive operations, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than malabsorptive or mixed procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI of over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      140.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old man presents with an acutely painful left testicle. The overlying skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with an acutely painful left testicle. The overlying skin is red and he seems to be tender posteriorly. He has a temperature of 38.3°C and feels like he has the flu. The testicle and scrotum are of normal size. During the examination, he reports that the testicle feels better when lifted.
      Select the most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Testicular torsion

      Correct Answer: Acute epididymo-orchitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acute Epididymo-orchitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Acute epididymo-orchitis is a condition characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis, with or without inflammation of the testes. This condition is commonly caused by infections that spread from the urethra or bladder. While orchitis, which is an infection limited to the testis, is less common, epididymitis usually presents with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling of relatively acute onset.

      Aside from the symptoms of urethritis or a urinary infection, tenderness and swelling of the epididymis may start at the tail at the lower pole of the testis and spread towards the head at the upper pole of the testis, with or without involvement of the testis. There may also be a secondary hydrocele, erythema, and/or edema of the scrotum on the affected side, as well as pyrexia.

      To diagnose epididymo-orchitis, Prehn’s sign is often used, which is indicative of epididymitis. Scrotal elevation relieves pain in epididymitis but not torsion. However, if there is any doubt, urgent referral is indicated, as torsion is the most important differential diagnosis. Torsion is more likely if the onset of pain is more acute and the pain is severe.

      It is important to note that a painful swollen testicle in an adolescent boy or a young man should be regarded as torsion until proven otherwise. In this case, the testis is said to be normal in size. Testicular cancer, on the other hand, is usually painless, and there is usually swelling of the testis. Hydrocele causes scrotal swelling.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and differential diagnosis of acute epididymo-orchitis is crucial in providing appropriate and timely medical care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      24
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  • Question 5 - Which of the following conditions is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Friedreich's ataxia

      Explanation:

      Metabolic conditions are typically inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with the exception of inherited ataxias. On the other hand, structural conditions are often inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, although there are exceptions such as Gilbert’s syndrome and hyperlipidemia type II.

      Autosomal recessive conditions are often referred to as metabolic conditions, while autosomal dominant conditions are considered structural. However, there are notable exceptions to this rule. For example, some metabolic conditions like Hunter’s and G6PD are X-linked recessive, while some structural conditions like ataxia telangiectasia and Friedreich’s ataxia are autosomal recessive.

      Autosomal recessive conditions occur when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. Some examples of autosomal recessive conditions include albinism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, and Wilson’s disease. These conditions can affect various systems in the body, including metabolism, blood, and the nervous system. It is important to note that some conditions, such as Gilbert’s syndrome, are still a matter of debate and may be listed as autosomal dominant in some textbooks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old male comes to the clinic with a deep wound on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male comes to the clinic with a deep wound on his hand caused by a terrier bite. The wound is accompanied by swelling. After receiving tetanus immunisation and wound cleaning, what would be the most suitable antibiotic regimen for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim oral

      Explanation:

      Prophylactic Antibiotics in Dog Bites

      The use of prophylactic antibiotics in dog bites is a controversial topic. However, evidence supports their use in deep wounds, bites to the hands, and signs of infection. It is also important to consider immune compromise as an indication, along with involvement of deep structures such as joints or tendons, or in the presence of prosthetic joints.

      For complicated animal bites, including those from cats or humans, co-amoxiclav is recommended as the first-line treatment. It is important to note that the treatment of animal bites, especially those on the hand, may require more than just antibiotics. Seeking the advice of a plastic surgeon for debridement or tendon repair may also be necessary. Proper treatment and care can help prevent further complications and promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with an episode of memory...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with an episode of memory loss. He had become confused three days earlier while out shopping. His wife led him back to the house where he made himself a cup of tea and then wandered around the house. He appeared confused but remained conscious and able to have some conversation with his wife, though continued to ask similar questions repeatedly. After three hours, he abruptly returned to normal and had no recollection of the events.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transient global amnesia

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest transient global amnesia, which is most common in individuals over 65 years old. This condition causes temporary memory loss, but the patient retains their social skills and ability to perform learned tasks. Repetitive questioning is a common feature, and recovery typically occurs within 24 hours. However, patients are unable to recall the episode once they have recovered. Alcohol-related amnesia is another possibility, but the patient did not exhibit impaired cerebellar function. Chronic subdural haematoma can cause confusion and memory loss, but the patient lacked other symptoms. Complex partial status epilepticus and dissociative fugue state were also ruled out based on the patient’s presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 8 - A 7-year-old boy is seen complaining of verrucas.
    Which of the following statements about...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is seen complaining of verrucas.
      Which of the following statements about treatment of verrucas is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Untreated verrucas often resolve spontaneously

      Explanation:

      Effective Treatments for Plantar Warts: A Guide

      Plantar warts, also known as verrucas, are notoriously difficult to treat due to their thick cornified layer. This layer makes it harder for treatments to penetrate to the lower epidermis, resulting in lower cure rates compared to other skin warts. However, there are several effective treatments available.

      First-line treatment for plantar warts is over-the-counter salicylic acid. While this treatment can turn the affected area white and cause soreness, it is often effective. Paring the wart before treatment may also help. Glutaraldehyde is another effective option, but it may turn the skin brown and cause sensitization.

      Cryotherapy is a second-line treatment that involves freezing the wart with liquid nitrogen. However, multiple cycles may be needed for it to be effective. Reported cure rates vary widely.

      For more aggressive treatment, salicylic acid and/or cryotherapy can be used with more intensive regimens. However, caution is needed as these treatments can have worse side effects.

      Surgery and bleomycin are not typically used for plantar warts. Instead, the British Association of Dermatologists recommends several other treatments with some evidence base, including dithranol, 5-fluorouracil (5-FU), formaldehyde, laser, photodynamic therapy, topical immunotherapy, and podophyllotoxin.

      In conclusion, while plantar warts can be challenging to treat, there are several effective options available. Consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for your individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - Linda is a 38-year-old woman who presents with sudden onset left iliac fossa...

    Incorrect

    • Linda is a 38-year-old woman who presents with sudden onset left iliac fossa pain which woke her up from her sleep. She has taken some paracetamol, but the pain is still 10/10 in intensity. On further questioning, she tells you that she has recently undergone hormonal treatment for IVF and developed ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome as a result. For the last few days she has been feeling nauseous and bloated, however, her symptoms were starting to improve until she developed the pain overnight.

      On examination she is afebrile. Her abdomen is not distended, however, there is guarding on palpation of the left iliac fossa.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ovarian torsion

      Explanation:

      If you experience ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome, your chances of developing ovarian torsion are higher. This is because the ovary becomes enlarged, which increases the risk of torsion. If you experience sudden pelvic pain and vomiting on one side, it may be a sign of ovarian torsion.

      While an ovarian cyst can cause pelvic pain, the sudden onset of pain suggests a cyst accident, such as rupture, haemorrhage, or torsion.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease typically causes pelvic pain, fever, and abnormal vaginal bleeding.

      Appendicitis usually causes pain in the right iliac fossa.

      Understanding Ovarian Torsion

      Ovarian torsion is a condition where the ovary twists on its supporting ligaments, leading to a compromised blood supply. This can result in partial or complete torsion of the ovary. When the fallopian tube is also affected, it is referred to as adnexal torsion. The condition is commonly associated with ovarian masses, pregnancy, and ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome. Women of reproductive age are also at risk of developing ovarian torsion.

      The most common symptom of ovarian torsion is sudden, severe abdominal pain that is often colicky in nature. Other symptoms include vomiting, distress, and in some cases, fever. Adnexal tenderness may be detected during a vaginal examination. Ultrasound may reveal free fluid or a whirlpool sign. Laparoscopy is usually both diagnostic and therapeutic for ovarian torsion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 10 - An elderly woman aged 75 with a significant family history of fragility fractures...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly woman aged 75 with a significant family history of fragility fractures due to osteoporosis is worried about her own risk. What is the best method to evaluate her risk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Assess her using the FRAX tool

      Explanation:

      Although radiographs can reveal osteopenia, they are insufficient for accurately assessing the extent of osteopenia/osteoporosis. Normal calcium and phosphate levels are observed in osteoporosis.

      The tool for Birmingham Hip Score doesn’t exist.

      Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.

      NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.

      Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 11 - A 28-year-old transgender woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on contraception. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old transgender woman presents to your clinic seeking advice on contraception. He is in a committed relationship with a male partner and engages in vaginal intercourse. He is currently receiving testosterone therapy and has not undergone any surgical procedures. He has no history of cardiac issues, breast cancer, blood clots, or stroke, and doesn't suffer from migraines. There is no significant family medical history. His BMI is 22 kg/m2, and his blood pressure is 134/75 mmHg.

      What is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient regarding contraception?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should not be offered contraception containing oestrogen

      Explanation:

      Patients who were assigned female at birth and are undergoing testosterone therapy should avoid using contraceptives that contain oestrogen as it can counteract the effects of the therapy. For transgender males, oestrogen-based contraception is also not recommended as it can interfere with testosterone. Instead, progesterone-only methods are a suitable alternative that do not affect testosterone therapy. While barrier methods are an option, it is important to consider other contraceptive options such as the copper coil or progesterone-only methods to ensure adequate protection against pregnancy, as testosterone therapy can be harmful to a developing fetus. Non-hormonal intrauterine devices like the copper coil do not interact with hormonal regimens, but they may increase menstrual bleeding, which may not be desirable for some patients. It is important to note that testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and appropriate contraception is necessary to prevent unwanted pregnancy.

      Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals

      The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.

      For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.

      In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 12 - A 49-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of a painful,...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of a painful, red eye with watering and blurred vision for the past few days. She has a family history of glaucoma and is myopic. Upon examination, you diagnose her with scleritis. What potential complication should you be concerned about?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perforation of the globe

      Explanation:

      Scleritis is a serious condition that requires urgent ophthalmology attention within 24 hours to prevent complications such as perforation of the globe, glaucoma, cataracts, raised intraocular pressure, retinal detachment, and uveitis. It is important to note that scleritis can lead to raised intraocular pressure, not decreased, and entropion is not a complication of scleritis. Episcleritis, a less severe inflammatory condition of the episclera, can be managed within primary care and doesn’t affect vision.

      Understanding Scleritis: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scleritis is a condition that involves inflammation of the sclera, which is the white outer layer of the eye. This condition is typically non-infectious and can cause a red, painful eye. The most common risk factor associated with scleritis is rheumatoid arthritis, but it can also be linked to other conditions such as systemic lupus erythematosus, sarcoidosis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.

      Symptoms of scleritis include a red eye, which is often accompanied by pain and discomfort. Other common symptoms include watering and photophobia, which is sensitivity to light. In some cases, scleritis can also lead to a gradual decrease in vision.

      Treatment for scleritis typically involves the use of oral NSAIDs as a first-line treatment. In more severe cases, oral glucocorticoids may be used. For resistant cases, immunosuppressive drugs may be necessary, especially if there is an underlying associated disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 13 - A 70-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with sudden-onset, sharp, shooting pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with sudden-onset, sharp, shooting pain in her right cheek that causes her to wince. The pain lasts for about 20 seconds and then gradually subsides over a few minutes. It is often triggered by hot food or drinks. She has experienced several episodes recently, but is otherwise healthy. She recalls having similar episodes two years ago that resolved after a few weeks.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia

      Explanation:

      Facial Pain Syndromes: Types and Characteristics

      Facial pain syndromes are a group of conditions that cause pain in the face and head. Here are some of the most common types and their characteristics:

      Trigeminal Neuralgia: This syndrome causes recurrent and chronic pain that is usually unilateral and follows the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often accompanied by a brief facial spasm or tic and is triggered by activities such as eating, brushing teeth, or exposure to cold air. Carbamazepine is the drug of choice for treatment.

      Atypical Facial Pain: This syndrome is more common than trigeminal neuralgia and is characterized by mild-to-moderate throbbing dull pain that can last for hours or days. It is precipitated by stress or cold and tends to occur along the territory of the trigeminal nerve. Patients are often misdiagnosed or attribute the pain to a prior event such as a dental procedure. Depression and anxiety are common.

      Cluster Headaches: These headaches are usually unilateral and last longer than other facial pain syndromes. They are accompanied by conjunctival injection and a watering eye.

      Migraine: Migraines are also usually unilateral and last longer than other facial pain syndromes. They are accompanied by photophobia and gastrointestinal symptoms.

      Temporomandibular Joint Dysfunction: This syndrome is relatively common and is characterized by facial pain, restricted jaw function, and joint noise. Pain located in front of the tragus, projecting to the ear, temple, cheek, and along the mandible is highly diagnostic for TMJ dysfunction. Pain is chronic rather than spasmodic.

      In conclusion, facial pain syndromes can be difficult to diagnose and treat. It is important to seek medical attention if you are experiencing any type of facial pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - A 39-year-old plumber visits his GP complaining of increased clumsiness at work that...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old plumber visits his GP complaining of increased clumsiness at work that has been getting worse over the past 6 months. He reports difficulty finding tools and has fallen multiple times due to tripping over his own feet. The patient has well-controlled type 1 diabetes and is in good health otherwise. He is not taking any medication other than insulin and has no family history of illness. During the examination, the GP notes absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars, but sensation is normal. What could be a potential cause for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Motor neuron disease

      Explanation:

      Conditions that can present with extensor plantars and absent ankle jerk, along with mixed upper and lower motor neuron signs, include motor neuron disease, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, and syringomyelia. Other possible conditions to consider are diabetic neuropathy and myasthenia gravis.

      Absent Ankle Jerks and Extensor Plantars: Causes and Implications

      When a patient presents with absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars, it is typically indicative of a lesion that affects both the upper and lower motor neurons. This combination of signs can be caused by a variety of conditions, including subacute combined degeneration of the cord, motor neuron disease, Friedreich’s ataxia, syringomyelia, taboparesis (syphilis), and conus medullaris lesion.

      The absence of ankle jerks suggests a lower motor neuron lesion, while the presence of extensor plantars indicates an upper motor neuron lesion. This combination of signs can help clinicians narrow down the potential causes of the patient’s symptoms and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

      It is important to note that absent ankle jerks and extensor plantars are not always present in the same patient, and their presence or absence can vary depending on the underlying condition. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and diagnostic workup are necessary to accurately diagnose and treat the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - Which of the following indicates psychiatric illness instead of an organic brain disorder?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following indicates psychiatric illness instead of an organic brain disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A family history of major psychiatric illness

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Psychiatric Disease from Organic Brain Disease

      Psychiatric diseases such as depression and schizophrenia have distinct features that differentiate them from organic brain diseases like dementia. While loss of short term memory and advanced age are more typical of organic brain disease, a family history is particularly associated with depressive illness and schizophrenia. To determine whether a psychiatric emergency is due to disease or psychological illness, it is important to consider the differential diagnosis of psychotic symptoms and medical mimics. Additionally, mental health in older people should be approached with a practice primer that takes into account the unique challenges and considerations of this population. By understanding the typical features and diagnostic approaches for psychiatric diseases, healthcare professionals can provide more effective and targeted care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 16 - A 4-month-old boy presents with an eight-hour history of vomiting and inconsolable crying....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-month-old boy presents with an eight-hour history of vomiting and inconsolable crying. He has a tender, irreducible lump in the right groin that extends into the scrotum.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incarcerated hernia

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between Inguinal Hernia and Other Groin Conditions in Children

      Inguinal hernias are a common condition affecting 1-3% of young children, with incarcerated or strangulated hernias accounting for 10-20% of cases. These hernias present as a swelling in the external or internal inguinal ring or scrotum, which may or may not be painful. In contrast, testicular torsion typically affects teenage boys and presents with testicular pain, tenderness, and swelling. Orchitis, caused by mumps, also presents with testicular pain and swelling but doesn’t involve swelling in the groin. Hydroceles, which contain fluid and transilluminate, are not typically tender and do not involve bowel in the scrotum. Undescended or retractile testicles may cause apparent groin swelling but do not involve tenderness. When evaluating a child with apparent groin swelling, it is important to palpate both testicles and consider the presence of tenderness, transillumination, and upper border of the swelling to distinguish between these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 17 - When investigating the impact of patients' attitudes, beliefs, and knowledge of health literature...

    Incorrect

    • When investigating the impact of patients' attitudes, beliefs, and knowledge of health literature on the management of chronic mechanical low back pain, researchers typically establish inclusion and exclusion criteria for their patient sample. Which of the following options is most likely to be an exclusion criterion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leg pain and back pain

      Explanation:

      Criteria for Selecting Participants in a Study on Mechanical Low Back Pain

      The study aims to investigate attitudes and beliefs related to mechanical low back pain. To ensure the validity of the results, the researchers have established specific criteria for selecting participants. These criteria include a diagnosis of mechanical low back pain, the ability to communicate in English, age between 20 and 50 years, and being off work for three months or more due to low back pain.

      Mechanical low back pain is defined as pain that cannot be attributed to any particular pathology. However, patients with significant leg pain are more likely to have nerve root compression, which is commonly caused by intervertebral disc protrusion. Therefore, patients with leg pain are excluded from the study.

      The ability to communicate in English is important as the study involves interviewing participants. Excluding participants based on their language proficiency would be illogical.

      Restricting the age range to between 20 and 50 years avoids ages where other pathologies are more likely to occur. Patients who are younger than 20 or older than 50 are more likely to have alternative causes of back pain.

      Finally, the researchers require participants to have been off work for three months or more due to low back pain. This ensures that the participants are disabled by their back pain and satisfies the definition of chronic back pain.

      Overall, these criteria aim to select participants who are most likely to provide valuable insights into attitudes and beliefs related to mechanical low back pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 18 - A 16-year-old girl with a learning disability has been exhibiting aggressive behavior without...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl with a learning disability has been exhibiting aggressive behavior without any identifiable physical, psychological, or environmental triggers. Despite attempts at behavioral interventions, there has been no improvement. Recently, she attacked one of her caregivers, causing concern for their safety. The caregivers are considering medication as a possible solution. Which medication would be the most suitable option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotic and Melatonin Medications for People with Learning Disabilities and Autism

      Concerns about the overuse of antipsychotic and antidepressant medications in people with learning disabilities and/or autism have been raised. Instead, a full assessment of physical, psychological, and environmental factors should be conducted when a person presents with challenging behavior. Psychological and behavioral interventions should be considered first.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends that antipsychotic medication should only be used if other interventions do not produce change within an agreed time, treatment for coexisting mental or physical health problems has not led to a reduction in behavior, or the risk to the person or others is severe. Olanzapine is the only antipsychotic medication offered in the option list, but other antipsychotic drugs may also be appropriate. Antipsychotic medication should only be offered in combination with psychological or other interventions and initiated by a specialist.

      Melatonin, a pineal hormone that affects sleep patterns, may be of value for treating sleep-onset insomnia and delayed sleep phase syndrome in children with conditions such as visual impairment, cerebral palsy, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, autism, and learning difficulties if behavioral measures fail. Clinical experience supports this use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 19 - A 4-year-old boy’s mother is worried about his foreskin not retracting. Ballooning of...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy’s mother is worried about his foreskin not retracting. Ballooning of the foreskin occurs during urination, but the penis appears normal. What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Physiological phimosis

      Explanation:

      Common Male Genital Conditions

      Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans penis. Physiological phimosis is normal in newborns and usually resolves by 10 years of age. Treatment for pathological phimosis may include topical medication or circumcision if recurrent infections occur. Balanoposthitis is inflammation of the glans and foreskin, often caused by infection or inflammation. Hypospadias is a congenital condition where the urethral opening is on the underside of the penis, and the foreskin may be underdeveloped. Posterior urethral valves are membranes in the posterior urethra that can cause obstruction and frequent infections in boys.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old woman presents with a tremor. This mainly affects her hands but...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with a tremor. This mainly affects her hands but she has also noticed that her head has a tendency to nod, especially when she is under stress or embarrassed. The hand tremor is worse when she is carrying things such as a cup and saucer. She has noticed that the symptoms are improved when she drinks alcohol. Her mother had a similar tremor. Examination reveals a 4-6-Hz tremor, most marked when her arms are outstretched, and nodding movements of the head. She has difficulty in neatly copying a spiral diagram. Other neurological examination is normal. Thyroid function is normal.
      Select the single most appropriate first-line therapy.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Essential Tremor: A Comprehensive Guide

      Essential tremor is a common neurological disorder that causes involuntary shaking of the hands, head, and voice. While there is no cure for essential tremor, there are several treatment options available to manage the symptoms.

      Before starting any treatment, it is important to rule out any underlying peripheral or central nervous system disease and exclude possible causes of physiological tremor such as hyperthyroidism, drug-related tremor, or alcohol withdrawal.

      The most appropriate first-line therapy for essential tremor is β blockade. If this is not tolerated, primidone is an alternative. Other medications that have shown effectiveness include alprazolam, atenolol, topiramate, and clonazepam. However, gabapentin has only been found to be effective when used as monotherapy and not as adjunct therapy.

      For head tremors, botulinum toxin A can be used. In rare cases, surgery may be considered, such as deep brain stimulation or thalamotomy.

      It is important to note that mild tremors may not require any treatment or only intermittent treatment for difficult social situations.

      In conclusion, essential tremor can be managed with various treatment options. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action for each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol visits his GP complaining of chest pains that occur during physical activity or climbing stairs to his office. The pain is crushing in nature and subsides with rest. The patient is currently taking atorvastatin 20 mg and aspirin 75 mg daily. He has no chest pains at the time of the visit and is otherwise feeling well. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. The GP prescribes a GTN spray for the chest pains and refers the patient to the rapid access chest pain clinic.

      What other medication should be considered in addition to the GTN?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      For the patient with stable angina, it is recommended to use a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as the first-line treatment to prevent angina attacks. In this case, a cardioselective beta-blocker like bisoprolol or atenolol, or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker such as verapamil or diltiazem should be considered while waiting for chest clinic assessment.

      As the patient is already taking aspirin 75 mg daily, there is no need to prescribe dual antiplatelet therapy. Aspirin is the preferred antiplatelet for stable angina.

      Since the patient is already taking atorvastatin, a fibrate like ezetimibe may not be necessary for lipid modification. However, if cholesterol levels or cardiovascular risk remain high, increasing the atorvastatin dose or encouraging positive lifestyle interventions like weight loss and smoking cessation can be helpful.

      It is important to note that nifedipine, a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is not recommended as the first-line treatment for angina management as it has limited negative inotropic effects. It can be used in combination with a beta-blocker if monotherapy is insufficient for symptom control.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - You assess a 65-year-old heavy smoker who has just been diagnosed with cancer...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 65-year-old heavy smoker who has just been diagnosed with cancer and is hesitant to undergo surgery. He is interested in exploring the option of radiotherapy. Which tumour from the following list is most suitable for potentially curative treatment with RADIOTHERAPY ALONE? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laryngeal carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Curative Treatment Options for Various Types of Cancer

      Laryngeal Carcinoma:
      The management of laryngeal cancer involves preserving the larynx whenever possible. For early-stage disease, transoral laser microsurgery or radiotherapy is used. For more advanced disease, radiotherapy with concomitant chemotherapy is the treatment of choice. Total laryngectomy may still be required for some cases.

      Breast Cancer:
      Radiotherapy is used as an adjuvant to primary surgery in breast cancer. It significantly reduces breast-cancer-related deaths and local recurrence rates.

      Colonic Carcinoma:
      Surgical resection of the tumor is the main curative treatment for colonic carcinoma in patients with localized disease. Radiotherapy is limited by the risk of damage to surrounding structures.

      Gastric Carcinoma:
      Partial or total gastrectomy is the only curative treatment for gastric carcinoma. Radiotherapy is ineffective.

      Lung Cancer:
      Surgical excision is the curative treatment for localised non-small cell carcinoma. Radiotherapy with curative intent may be offered to patients unsuitable for surgery with stage I, II or III non-small cell carcinoma and good performance status if there is no undue risk of normal tissue damage.

      Curative Treatment Options for Different Types of Cancer

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old business traveller noticed some moderate diarrhoea 3 days after he arrived...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old business traveller noticed some moderate diarrhoea 3 days after he arrived in Korea. The diarrhoea lasted for 4 days.
      What is the most probable reason for his diarrhoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enterotoxin-producing Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Traveller’s Diarrhoea: Causes and Prevention

      Traveller’s diarrhoea is a common problem that can disrupt holiday and business plans. The most common cause of this type of presentation is enterotoxin-producing Escherichia coli. Bacterial infections are responsible for 60-85% of cases, with E. coli being the most important bacterial pathogen. Symptoms are usually mild and last for about 3-5 days.

      To reduce the risk of gastroenteritis, it is important to practice strict food and water hygiene. Water should be heated to 100°C to kill most pathogens, and chemical treatment with chlorine or iodine can also be effective (although iodine is not recommended for pregnant women or some patients with thyroid disease). Water filters can also be useful additions to prevent infection. By taking these precautions, travellers can reduce their risk of developing diarrhoea and enjoy their trips without interruption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 24 - A 24-year-old construction worker presents to your clinic as a temporary patient. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old construction worker presents to your clinic as a temporary patient. He reports experiencing fever, malaise, and a dry cough that has gradually worsened over the past two weeks. Several other workers who are residing in the same dormitory as him have also fallen ill. On examination, he appears relatively healthy, but you note mild pharyngitis and scattered wheezing and crackles upon chest auscultation. Additionally, he has a rash that you suspect is erythema multiforme. What would be the most appropriate antibiotic for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cefalexin

      Explanation:

      Mycoplasma Infection and Treatment

      The history of epidemic pneumonia, slow onset of symptoms, and erythema multiforme suggest the possibility of mycoplasma infection. In mycoplasma, the appearance on CXR is often worse than clinical examination, and the presence of cold agglutins or rising mycoplasma serology can confirm the diagnosis. Treatment with clarithromycin or erythromycin for 7-14 days is recommended, with doxycycline as an alternative and quinolones as an option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 25 - You are prescribing oral terbinafine to an elderly patient with a fungal nail...

    Incorrect

    • You are prescribing oral terbinafine to an elderly patient with a fungal nail infection.

      What are the monitoring requirements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal function pre-treatment and then every 3-4 weeks during treatment

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Requirements for Oral Terbinafine Use

      Oral terbinafine can lead to liver toxicity, which is why it is important to monitor hepatic function before and during treatment. If symptoms of liver toxicity, such as jaundice, develop, terbinafine should be discontinued immediately. The British National Formulary (BNF) specifies that hepatic function should be monitored before treatment and periodically after 4-6 weeks of treatment. If liver function abnormalities are detected, terbinafine should be discontinued.

      There is no need for additional monitoring, but if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 50 mL/minute/1.73 m2, half the normal dose should be used if there is no suitable alternative. It is important to follow these monitoring requirements to ensure the safe and effective use of oral terbinafine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is concerned he may have developed bipolar disorder over the last few months.

      The man experiences periods of 'highs', where he engages in impulsive behavior and sleeps very little. He denies ever having delusions of grandeur. These episodes usually last for a few days, and he has never put himself or others in danger.

      The man also has 'lows' where he experiences severe depression; he feels hopeless, loses interest in his usual activities and sleeps excessively. He is referred to a psychiatrist for further evaluation.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 2 bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      The woman’s symptoms of hypomania alternating with severe depression are indicative of type 2 bipolar disorder. There is no indication of an anxiety disorder in the question. While cyclothymia is characterized by mild symptoms of hypomania and depression lasting at least two years, the severity of the woman’s symptoms suggests type 2 bipolar disorder, even though the symptoms have only been present for one year. Major depressive disorder is not the correct diagnosis as there are also symptoms of hypomania present. Type 1 bipolar disorder is also not the correct answer as the symptoms of the ‘high’ periods are more consistent with hypomania rather than full-blown mania.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability. Mania is more severe and involves functional impairment or psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more, while hypomania involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions of grandeur or auditory hallucinations, suggest mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder involves psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, with valproate as an alternative. Antipsychotic therapy may be used for mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. Co-morbidities, such as diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD, should also be addressed.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. If there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 27 - A 43-year-old woman comes to the clinic. She has been feeling down for...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman comes to the clinic. She has been feeling down for the past 10 weeks, experiencing a loss of appetite, weight loss, and waking up at 4 am every morning. She often struggles to focus.

      She was laid off from her job four months ago, and her elderly father recently suffered a stroke. Her partner is supportive but works odd hours, so he cannot accompany her today. Her daughter is away at college, and she has not talked to anyone about her current issues.

      She had a bout of moderate depression five years ago and was successfully treated with Fluoxetine for two years. She currently has no suicidal thoughts and is eager to seek help early this time. You discuss CBT with her, and she agrees to it.

      What other intervention is likely to be the most helpful for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange to see her again in one week

      Explanation:

      Treatment Plan for a Patient with Depression and a Recent Life Event

      This patient has a history of moderate depression that responded well to SSRI treatment. She is currently experiencing cognitive and biological symptoms of depression, likely exacerbated by a recent life event – redundancy. Additionally, her mother’s illness is a concern and her potential role as a caregiver will need to be explored. While her partner is supportive, their shift work may make providing day-to-day support difficult.

      To address her symptoms, the patient will require frequent support and advice on sleep hygiene, as well as medication. Given her previous successful treatment with fluoxetine, this will be the first medication to try. A tricyclic antidepressant is less likely to be well-tolerated and carries a higher risk of overdose.

      If the patient is at significant risk of self-harm, has psychotic symptoms, or has complex disease, referral to specialist mental health services is recommended for expert opinion on treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 28 - Samantha is 29 weeks pregnant and travels to Brazil to attend her sister's...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is 29 weeks pregnant and travels to Brazil to attend her sister's wedding. She is aware of the risk of Zika virus and uses an insect repellent containing DEET on all exposed areas. What additional precautions should she take upon returning to the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound of foetus

      Explanation:

      There is compelling evidence that Zika virus can cause congenital microcephaly and other neurological developmental disorders in fetuses. The National Travel Health Network and Centre (NaTHNaC) has issued guidelines for pregnant women traveling to areas affected by Zika virus, advising them to postpone non-essential travel until after pregnancy and to avoid becoming pregnant while in these areas and for eight weeks after returning home, regardless of whether they experienced symptoms of Zika infection or not. Pregnant women who have traveled to a Zika virus area should seek immediate medical attention, and regular ultrasound scans throughout pregnancy are recommended to detect microcephaly. Asymptomatic women do not need routine testing for Zika virus PCR via blood, urine, or amniotic fluid. However, women who develop Zika virus symptoms during or within two weeks of traveling to a Zika virus area should be tested for Zika virus PCR, and their fetuses should be monitored through serial ultrasounds. If microcephaly is detected on ultrasound, amniocentesis may be considered to check for Zika PCR, but only after weighing the risks and benefits. Chorionic villous sampling, fundal height measurements, and cardiac monitoring are not useful for testing for Zika virus.

      Understanding Zika Virus

      Zika virus is a type of infection that is transmitted through mosquito bites. It belongs to the flavivirus genus and Flaviviridae family, and was first discovered in 1947 in Uganda. While most people who contract the virus do not experience any symptoms, those who do may experience a mild fever, rash, joint pain, red eyes, muscle pain, headache, and itching. In rare cases, Zika virus has been linked to Guillain-Barre syndrome in adults. However, the most concerning aspect of Zika virus is its potential to cause birth defects in babies born to infected mothers. The virus can be transmitted from mother to fetus through the placenta, and has been linked to microcephaly and other congenital abnormalities. Due to this risk, the World Health Organization has declared a Public Health Emergency of International Concern. It is important to take precautions to avoid mosquito bites in areas where Zika virus is present, and for pregnant women to take extra care to protect themselves from infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 29 - You encounter a 24-year-old nulliparous woman who wishes to discuss contraception. She has...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 24-year-old nulliparous woman who wishes to discuss contraception. She has tried various pills over the past few years but has not found one that suits her.

      During your discussion of the available options, she expresses a preference for an intrauterine system (IUS) over a copper intrauterine device (IUD) due to concerns about heavier or more painful periods. You provide information on the Mirena®, Jaydess®, and newer Kyleena® IUS options, but she is uncertain which one to choose.

      What advice should you offer her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The Kyleena® IUS contains more LNG than the Jaydess IUS

      Explanation:

      The Kyleena intrauterine system (IUS) has a higher amount of levonorgestrel (LNG) compared to the Jaydess IUS. The Mirena IUS has the highest amount of LNG (52mg) and is approved for use for up to 5 years in this age group. On the other hand, the Jaydess IUS has the lowest amount of LNG (13.5mg) and is approved for use for up to 3 years. The Kyleena IUS contains 19.5mg of LNG and is approved for use for up to 5 years, making it a better option than the Jaydess IUS in terms of LNG content. While the Mirena IUS has the highest amount of circulating LNG, it may have a better bleeding profile than the other options. Additionally, the Jaydess and Kyleena IUS are smaller in size and have smaller insertion tubes, which may make them easier to fit.

      New intrauterine contraceptive devices include the Jaydess® IUS and Kyleena® IUS. The Jaydess® IUS is licensed for 3 years and has a smaller frame, narrower inserter tube, and less levonorgestrel than the Mirena® coil. The Kyleena® IUS has 19.5mg LNG, is smaller than the Mirena®, and is licensed for 5 years. Both result in lower serum levels of LNG, but the rate of amenorrhoea is less with Kyleena® compared to Mirena®.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 30 - A 24-year-old kayaker complains of discomfort in the right distal dorsoradial forearm, approximately...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old kayaker complains of discomfort in the right distal dorsoradial forearm, approximately 5-10 cm away from the wrist joint. Upon examination, there is slight redness and swelling in the area. The patient experiences crepitus when moving their right hand. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intersection syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Intersection Syndrome

      Intersection syndrome is a condition that occurs when the tendons of the extensor carpi radialis longus and the extensor carpi radialis brevis intersect with the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis muscles. This results in inflammation and tenosynovitis, which can cause pain in the distal dorsoradial forearm, around 5-10 cm proximal of the wrist joint. Swelling and erythema may also be present.

      It is important to note that intersection syndrome is often misdiagnosed as de Quervain’s tenosynovitis. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who engage in activities such as skiing, tennis, weightlifting, and canoeing.

      Fortunately, intersection syndrome can be managed with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), steroid injections, and physiotherapy. Surgical treatment is rarely required. By understanding the symptoms and causes of intersection syndrome, individuals can seek appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 31 - A 55-year-old man has well demarcated itchy erythematous round scaly patches between 1...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has well demarcated itchy erythematous round scaly patches between 1 cm and 3 cm in diameter on his both shins. The scaling is not accentuated by scratching the patches. He has no nail changes.
      Select from the list the single most suitable management option.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Betamethasone valerate 0.1% cream

      Explanation:

      Understanding Discoid Eczema: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Discoid eczema, also known as nummular eczema, is a skin condition characterized by coin-shaped patches of itchy, red, and scaly skin. Unlike psoriasis, these patches are flat and not raised. The condition can occur anywhere on the body, but it tends to affect the extensor aspects of the limbs.

      In some cases, the lesions may be vesicular and weep. Skin scrapings may be sent for mycology to exclude dermatophyte fungus infection, especially if the condition is more prominent on one side of the body. However, the absence of nail changes makes psoriasis and fungal infection less likely.

      To treat discoid eczema, a potent topical corticosteroid is usually needed and should be used until the inflammation is suppressed, which typically takes 2-4 weeks. Emollients, such as emulsifying ointment, can also be beneficial if the skin is dry and can be applied indefinitely as a soap substitute.

      It’s important to note that 1% hydrocortisone cream is much less effective in treating discoid eczema. Instead, calcipotriol ointment is used for psoriasis, and terbinafine cream is used for dermatophyte fungal infections. If you suspect you have discoid eczema, it’s best to consult with a dermatologist for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 32 - A 29-year-old woman who is known to be HIV positive presents following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman who is known to be HIV positive presents following a positive pregnancy test. Her last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. The last CD4 count was 420 * 106/l and she doesn't take any antiretroviral therapy. What is the most appropriate management with regards to antiretroviral therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start antiretroviral therapy immediately

      Explanation:

      The 2015 BHIVA guidelines suggest that patients should commence HAART immediately upon HIV diagnosis, irrespective of pregnancy status, rather than delaying until a specific CD4 count, as was previously advised.

      HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission

      With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In London, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.

      To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Guidelines on this subject are regularly updated, and the most recent guidelines can be found using the links provided. Factors that can reduce vertical transmission from 25-30% to 2% include maternal antiretroviral therapy, mode of delivery (caesarean section), neonatal antiretroviral therapy, and infant feeding (bottle feeding).

      To ensure that HIV-positive women receive appropriate care during pregnancy, NICE guidelines recommend offering HIV screening to all pregnant women. Additionally, all pregnant women should be offered antiretroviral therapy, regardless of whether they were taking it previously.

      The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. Otherwise, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before beginning the procedure.

      Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also crucial in minimizing vertical transmission. Zidovudine is usually administered orally to the neonate if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. Otherwise, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.

      Finally, infant feeding is another important factor to consider. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed to minimize the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure that HIV-positive women receive appropriate care during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 33 - A 39-year-old woman presents with jaundice. Her liver screen reveals the following results:

    Negative...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman presents with jaundice. Her liver screen reveals the following results:

      Negative for Anti-HBs
      Positive for Anti-HBc
      Positive for HBs antigen
      Negative for IgM anti-HBc

      What is the hepatitis B status of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      If a person has a positive result for anti-HBc IgG, negative result for anti-HBc IgM, and negative result for anti-HBc while HBsAg is present, it indicates that the person has a chronic HBV infection. The absence of IgM anti-HBc suggests that the infection is not acute but rather long-term.

      Understanding Hepatitis B Serology

      Interpreting hepatitis B serology can be a challenging task, but it is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its absence suggests acute disease.

      Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either from exposure or vaccination. It is negative in chronic disease.

      Anti-HBc suggests previous or current infection. IgM anti-HBc appears during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and lasts for about six months, while IgG anti-HBc persists.

      HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication. It results from the breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells.

      For example, if someone has previously been immunized against hepatitis B, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B in the past but are not carriers, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now carriers, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive.

      In summary, understanding hepatitis B serology requires careful interpretation of various markers and their combinations. By doing so, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and manage this potentially serious condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 34 - A 60-year-old man has recently been discharged from hospital with a new diagnosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has recently been discharged from hospital with a new diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. His symptoms of breathlessness and ankle swelling have now resolved and he has been commenced on ramipril, bisoprolol and furosemide. He also has type 2 diabetes, for which he is already taking metformin and gliclazide. His renal function is normal and his serum potassium is 4.9 mmol/L.

      What ongoing care interventions should be included for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Annual influenza vaccination

      Explanation:

      An annual influenza vaccine should be offered as part of the comprehensive lifestyle approach to managing heart failure.

      Individuals diagnosed with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction should receive an annual influenza vaccine and a one-time pneumococcal vaccination.

      Typically, only those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease require pneumococcal revaccination every five years.

      Following a myocardial infarction, patients are typically advised to abstain from sexual activity for four weeks, rather than heart failure.

      While patients should limit their salt intake to no more than 6 g per day, they should not replace it with potassium-containing salt substitutes due to the risk of hyperkalemia when used concurrently with ACE inhibitors.

      For group 1 entitlement (cars, motorcycles), driving may continue as long as there are no symptoms that could distract the driver’s attention, and there is no need to notify the DVLA.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 35 - A 62-year-old man presents with sudden vision loss in his right eye and...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with sudden vision loss in his right eye and a right-sided headache for the past 4 months. He also experiences jaw pain while eating. Upon fundoscopy, a swollen optic disc with flame-shaped haemorrhages is observed. Eye movements are painless. His ESR is found to be 100. What is the most probable cause of his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giant-cell arteritis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Ocular Vasculitis: A Brief Overview

      Ocular vasculitis is a group of disorders that affect the blood vessels in the eye. Here are some common causes of ocular vasculitis and their clinical features:

      Giant-cell arteritis: This large-vessel vasculitis mainly affects the temporal and ophthalmic arteries. It typically presents with headache, scalp tenderness, jaw pain, and visual disturbance. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is usually elevated, and skip lesions are common.

      Central retinal vein occlusion: This condition may occur in chronic simple glaucoma, arteriosclerosis, hypertension, and polycythaemia. The fundus appears like a ‘stormy sunset’ with red haemorrhagic areas and engorged veins.

      Diabetic retinopathy: This is the most common cause of blindness in adults between 30 and 65 years of age in developed countries. It is characterised by microaneurysms, retinal haemorrhages, exudates, cotton-wool spots, neovascularisation, and venous changes.

      Polyarteritis nodosa: This necrotising vasculitis affects multiple systems and has variable manifestations, although it most commonly affects the skin, joints, peripheral nerves, the gut, and the kidney. Ocular involvement is rare.

      Sjögren syndrome: This autoimmune disorder is characterised by dry mouth and dry eyes with variable lacrimal or salivary gland enlargement due to lymphocytic infiltration.

      Understanding the clinical features of these common causes of ocular vasculitis can aid in early diagnosis and prompt treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 36 - A 68-year-old man attends for his annual COPD review.

    As part of his assessment...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man attends for his annual COPD review.

      As part of his assessment you discuss his symptoms. He tells you that he can walk around without any problems on level ground but if he has to hurry or walk up an incline then he becomes breathless and has to stop to catch his breath.

      How would you grade his degree of breathlessness according to the Medical Research Council (MRC) dyspnoea scale?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grade 1

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Grading Patients’ Symptoms

      Grading patients’ symptoms is a crucial aspect of assessing disease severity, tailoring treatment, and monitoring treatment effect. One useful tool for this purpose is the Medical Research Council (MRC) dyspnoea scale, which has been introduced as part of the quality and outcomes framework in General practice. As part of the COPD assessment, it is essential to record the MRC grading in the patient notes.

      The MRC dyspnoea scale grades the degree of breathlessness related to activities. The scale ranges from grade 0, where the patient is not troubled by breathlessness except on strenuous exercise, to grade 4, where the patient is too breathless to leave the house or breathless when dressing or undressing. By using this scale, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of a patient’s symptoms and tailor treatment accordingly. It is essential to record the MRC grading in the patient notes to monitor treatment effect and adjust treatment plans as necessary. Overall, grading patients’ symptoms is a crucial aspect of providing effective healthcare and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 37 - A 25-year-old man is brought into the General Practice Surgery by a concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is brought into the General Practice Surgery by a concerned friend. He is drowsy, confused and sweating profusely. The accompanying friend reports drug use earlier that evening. A toxicology screen for opiates, cocaine, cannabis and alcohol is negative.
      What is the most likely causative drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spice

      Explanation:

      Spice, a synthetic cannabinoid, is a type of new psychoactive substance (NPS) that is often referred to as a legal high despite being prohibited by the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016 and the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971. NPS use has become increasingly common in the UK, particularly among young men who mistakenly believe that they are safer than traditional illicit drugs. Spice is typically consumed as a herbal smoking mixture and is responsible for over half of all NPS use. While it produces similar effects to cannabis, it is more potent and can cause negative side effects such as dizziness, agitation, paranoia, and seizures. Based on the symptoms described in this scenario and the negative toxicology screen for other illicit drugs, Spice is the most likely cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 38 - A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is discovered collapsed in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is discovered collapsed in the hallway. A nurse is present and has conducted a finger-prick glucose test, which shows a reading of 1.8 mmol/l. Upon examination, you observe that she is unresponsive to verbal cues, with a pulse rate of 84/min. The nurse has already positioned the patient in the recovery position. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give intramuscular glucagon

      Explanation:

      Placing any object in the mouth of an unconscious patient can be risky as they may not be adequately safeguarding their airway.

      In cases of heparin overdose, protamine sulfate is administered.

      Insulin therapy can have side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is hypoglycaemia, which can cause sweating, anxiety, blurred vision, confusion, and aggression. Patients should be taught to recognize these symptoms and take 10-20g of a short-acting carbohydrate, such as a glass of Lucozade or non-diet drink, three or more glucose tablets, or glucose gel. It is also important for every person treated with insulin to have a glucagon kit for emergencies where the patient is not able to orally ingest a short-acting carbohydrate. Patients who have frequent hypoglycaemic episodes may develop reduced awareness, and beta-blockers can further reduce hypoglycaemic awareness.

      Another potential side-effect of insulin therapy is lipodystrophy, which typically presents as atrophy or lumps of subcutaneous fat. This can be prevented by rotating the injection site, as using the same site repeatedly can cause erratic insulin absorption. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. By monitoring their blood sugar levels and following their treatment plan, patients can manage the risks associated with insulin therapy and maintain good health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 39 - A 45 year-old man complains of constant fatigue. Despite his tanned appearance, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year-old man complains of constant fatigue. Despite his tanned appearance, he denies having been on vacation. During examination, pigmentation is noted on the palmar creases and buccal mucosa.

      What underlying condition could be responsible for these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addison's disease

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease is a condition where the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones. The symptoms may start slowly and include fatigue. One common sign is hyperpigmentation, which affects areas such as skin creases, the inside of the cheeks, and scars. This happens because the hormone ACTH, which is made by the pituitary gland to stimulate the adrenals, has a similar precursor molecule to MSH, a hormone that affects skin color. As a result, increased ACTH levels can cause higher MSH levels and skin darkening. In cases of kidney failure, the skin may appear yellowish or pale due to anemia.

      Addison’s disease is the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, with autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands being the main culprit, accounting for 80% of cases. This results in reduced production of cortisol and aldosterone. Symptoms of Addison’s disease include lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, and salt-craving. Hyperpigmentation, especially in palmar creases, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycemia, and hyponatremia and hyperkalemia may also be observed. In severe cases, a crisis may occur, leading to collapse, shock, and pyrexia.

      Other primary causes of hypoadrenalism include tuberculosis, metastases (such as bronchial carcinoma), meningococcal septicaemia (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome), HIV, and antiphospholipid syndrome. Secondary causes include pituitary disorders, such as tumours, irradiation, and infiltration. Exogenous glucocorticoid therapy can also lead to hypoadrenalism.

      It is important to note that primary Addison’s disease is associated with hyperpigmentation, while secondary adrenal insufficiency is not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 40 - A 36-year-old woman comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had previously visited...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had previously visited with complaints of worsening headaches and insomnia, which you diagnosed as tension-type headaches after ruling out any red flags. Her sleep pattern has continued to deteriorate over the past few months, with early morning waking being a prominent issue. She denies any substance misuse or excessive alcohol consumption.

      During today's visit, she reports experiencing a few episodes of palpitations and occasional dizziness. These symptoms do not occur during exercise, and there are no red flags present. Her cardiovascular and neurological exams are unremarkable, and her blood pressure is normal.

      All of her blood tests, including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, and thyroid function tests, come back normal.

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Consider generalised anxiety disorder as a potential underlying diagnosis and explore if psychological distress present

      Explanation:

      Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) can manifest in various ways, including presenting solely with physical symptoms. Patients with GAD may experience headaches, muscle tension, gastrointestinal symptoms, back pain, and insomnia, without reporting any psychological distress or worry. Therefore, it is important to explore the presence of psychological distress during consultations.

      Based on the history and examination provided, there is no indication for urgent cardiology referral, and it would not be an appropriate use of resources.

      While beta-blockers may be a suitable treatment option for GAD, further discussion with the patient is necessary before reaching a diagnosis, especially in the presence of somatic symptoms.

      Similarly, SSRI may be an appropriate treatment option, but it is important to have a thorough discussion with the patient before prescribing.

      In this case, prescribing a sleeping tablet is not the most appropriate option. Secondary insomnia resulting from GAD should be treated, and a sleeping tablet should only be prescribed at the lowest possible dose for the shortest period of time, with regular review. Treatment should not exceed 2-4 weeks due to the risk of tolerance and addiction. Depending on the circumstances, other treatment options such as individual guided self-help, psychological interventions, or cognitive behavioural therapy may be considered.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 41 - Antihistamine drugs are commonly prescribed for skin disorders. Which of the following conditions...

    Incorrect

    • Antihistamine drugs are commonly prescribed for skin disorders. Which of the following conditions are they most likely to be effective in treating?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute urticaria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Skin Conditions: Causes and Mechanisms

      Skin conditions can have various causes and mechanisms. Urticaria, for instance, is triggered by the release of histamine and other mediators from mast cells in the skin. While IgE-mediated type I hypersensitivity reactions are a common cause of urticaria, other immunological and non-immunological factors can also play a role.

      In atopic eczema, antihistamines are not recommended as a routine treatment. However, a non-sedating antihistamine may be prescribed for a month to children with severe atopic eczema or those with mild or moderate eczema who experience severe itching or urticaria. It’s worth noting that allergies to food or environmental allergens may not be responsible for the symptoms of atopic eczema.

      Contact allergic dermatitis and erythema multiforme are examples of cell-mediated immunity, and their symptoms are not caused by histamine release. On the other hand, bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disorder that occurs when the immune system attacks a protein that forms the junction between the epidermis and the basement membrane of the dermis.

      Understanding the causes and mechanisms of different skin conditions can help in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 42 - A 68-year-old man is undergoing treatment for prostate cancer with goserelin. What medication...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is undergoing treatment for prostate cancer with goserelin. What medication can be prescribed alongside goserelin to prevent a tumour flare during the initial period of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tamoxifen

      Explanation:

      Management of Prostate Cancer with Goserelin

      Goserelin is a medication used in the management of prostate cancer. As a luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone (LHRH) agonist, it works by lowering testosterone levels. However, in some men, it can cause a temporary worsening of symptoms known as a ‘tumour flare’ during the initial stages of treatment. To prevent this, bicalutamide, an anti-androgen, can be used concurrently with the LHRH agonist for 4-6 weeks.

      In addition to managing tumour flare, medroxyprogesterone acetate and cyproterone acetate can be used to treat hot flashes associated with LHRH agonist use. Tamoxifen is another treatment option for gynaecomastia, a side effect of long-term bicalutamide treatment for prostate cancer. Finally, tamsulosin is a medication used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia. By understanding the various treatment options available, healthcare providers can better manage prostate cancer and its associated symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 43 - A 78-year-old man presents to the Elderly Medicine clinic with concerns about his...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents to the Elderly Medicine clinic with concerns about his recent memory loss and overall decline in cognitive function. His daughter reports that he has been noticeably slower and has difficulty keeping up with conversations. Additionally, he has experienced frequent urinary incontinence over the past month and one episode of fecal incontinence in the past week. Upon examination, he exhibits brisk reflexes and a shuffling gait, but no cerebellar signs are present. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus may be the cause of urinary incontinence and gait abnormality in the presence of dementia, while the absence of cerebellar signs suggests that multiple system atrophy is unlikely.

      Understanding Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a type of dementia that is reversible and commonly seen in elderly patients. It is believed to be caused by a reduction in the absorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) at the arachnoid villi, which may be due to head injury, subarachnoid hemorrhage, or meningitis. The condition is characterized by a classical triad of symptoms, including urinary incontinence, dementia and bradyphrenia, and gait abnormality that may resemble Parkinson’s disease. These symptoms usually develop over a few months, and around 60% of patients will have all three features at the time of diagnosis.

      Imaging studies typically show hydrocephalus with ventriculomegaly, which is an enlargement of the ventricles in the brain, in the absence of or out of proportion to sulcal enlargement. The management of normal pressure hydrocephalus involves ventriculoperitoneal shunting, which can help alleviate symptoms. However, around 10% of patients who undergo shunting may experience significant complications such as seizures, infection, and intracerebral hemorrhages. Therefore, careful consideration and monitoring are necessary when deciding on treatment options for patients with normal pressure hydrocephalus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 44 - A 23-year-old man with a history of bipolar disorder is scheduled for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man with a history of bipolar disorder is scheduled for a medication review. When inquiring about his current state, he starts discussing the vast array of emotions that exist and wonders if everyone has experienced all of them. Eventually, he spontaneously mentions that he is feeling quite good.

      What is the patient exhibiting in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      The patient’s lengthy response to the question suggests circumstantiality, which can be a symptom of anxiety disorders or hypomania.

      It is important to note that the patient has not derailed from the topic at hand, indicating that this is not an example of derailment. Incoherence would involve the patient providing nonsensical responses, which is not the case here.

      While it is difficult to determine from a text-based question, pressured speech would involve the patient speaking rapidly and producing an excessive amount of spontaneous speech. Therefore, it may not be the most appropriate answer in this scenario.

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a stepwise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 45 - A 62-year-old woman undergoes a routine health assessment. She feels well, has never...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman undergoes a routine health assessment. She feels well, has never smoked, and has no complaints. The examination is unremarkable. Investigations reveal microscopic haematuria in the urine and the following results. She has no pain, dysuria and was not exercising prior to collection.

      Hb 140 g/L
      Platelets 280 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 12 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      What is the most appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent (2-week) referral to a urologist

      Explanation:

      If a patient aged 60 or over presents with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test, it is important to exclude bladder cancer. Referral using the suspected cancer pathway should be made within 2 weeks. The urologist may request investigations such as a urine red cell morphology, CT intravenous pyelogram, and urine cytology. However, CT kidneys, ureter and bladder is not appropriate at this stage as it assesses radio-opaque stones in the renal tract. Routine referral to a urologist is also not ideal if bladder cancer is suspected. In resource-poor settings, the GP should commence relevant investigations for bladder cancer while waiting for the urology appointment. Reassuring and re-checking in two weeks or six weeks may be appropriate for lower risk cases.

      Bladder cancer is a common urological cancer that primarily affects males aged 50-80 years old. Smoking and exposure to hydrocarbons increase the risk of developing the disease. Chronic bladder inflammation from Schistosomiasis infection is also a common cause of squamous cell carcinomas in countries where the disease is endemic. Benign tumors of the bladder, such as inverted urothelial papilloma and nephrogenic adenoma, are rare. The most common bladder malignancies are urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and adenocarcinoma. Urothelial carcinomas may be solitary or multifocal, with papillary growth patterns having a better prognosis. The remaining tumors may be of higher grade and prone to local invasion, resulting in a worse prognosis.

      The TNM staging system is used to describe the extent of bladder cancer. Most patients present with painless, macroscopic hematuria, and a cystoscopy and biopsies or TURBT are used to provide a histological diagnosis and information on depth of invasion. Pelvic MRI and CT scanning are used to determine locoregional spread, and PET CT may be used to investigate nodes of uncertain significance. Treatment options include TURBT, intravesical chemotherapy, surgery (radical cystectomy and ileal conduit), and radical radiotherapy. The prognosis varies depending on the stage of the cancer, with T1 having a 90% survival rate and any T, N1-N2 having a 30% survival rate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 46 - A 27-year-old woman has come to the sexual health clinic complaining of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman has come to the sexual health clinic complaining of a thick, foul-smelling vaginal discharge that has been present for a week. She has no medical history and is not taking any medications. During the examination, vulvitis is observed, but her cervix appears normal. A sample taken from a vaginal swab and examined under light-field microscopy reveals motile trophozoites, and NAAT results are pending. What is the most suitable treatment based on these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by a protozoan parasite called Trichomonas vaginalis. It is more common in women than men, and many women with the infection do not experience any symptoms. In order to diagnose trichomoniasis, a sample of vaginal discharge is collected and examined under a microscope for the presence of motile trophozoites. Confirmation of the diagnosis can be done through molecular testing. Treatment typically involves taking oral metronidazole for a specified period of time. Other sexually transmitted infections, such as Chlamydia, gonorrhea, and candidiasis, require different treatments.

      Comparison of Bacterial Vaginosis and Trichomonas Vaginalis

      Bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis are two common sexually transmitted infections that affect women. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while Trichomonas vaginalis is caused by a protozoan parasite. Both infections can cause vaginal discharge and vulvovaginitis, but Trichomonas vaginalis may also cause urethritis in men.

      The vaginal discharge in bacterial vaginosis is typically thin and grayish-white, with a fishy odor. The pH of the vagina is usually higher than 4.5. In contrast, the discharge in Trichomonas vaginalis is offensive, yellow/green, and frothy. The cervix may also appear like a strawberry. The pH of the vagina is also higher than 4.5.

      To diagnose bacterial vaginosis, a doctor may perform a pelvic exam and take a sample of the vaginal discharge for testing. The presence of clue cells, which are vaginal cells covered in bacteria, is a hallmark of bacterial vaginosis. On the other hand, Trichomonas vaginalis can be diagnosed by examining a wet mount under a microscope. The motile trophozoites of the parasite can be seen in the sample.

      Both bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis can be treated with antibiotics. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for both infections. For bacterial vaginosis, a course of oral metronidazole for 5-7 days is recommended. For Trichomonas vaginalis, a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used. It is important to complete the full course of antibiotics to ensure that the infection is fully treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 47 - A 68-year-old man has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus. He has a body mass index of 28 kg/m2, an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 30 ml/min/1.73 m2 and he has 1+ protein on urinalysis. He has a past history of heart failure.
      What is the most appropriate initial medication to be prescribed for this patient? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Common Medications for Type 2 Diabetes: Mechanisms and Considerations

      Gliclazide is a sulfonylurea medication commonly used for type 2 diabetes mellitus. It works by increasing insulin release from the pancreas and can be used in mild to moderate renal failure. Acarbose, on the other hand, is an intestinal alpha-glucosidase inhibitor that delays the digestion and absorption of starch and sucrose, resulting in lower blood glucose levels. Glibenclamide, a long-acting sulfonylurea, is associated with a higher risk of hypoglycemia and should be avoided in the elderly. Metformin, a biguanide, reduces insulin resistance and hepatic glucose production but can cause lactic acidosis in certain circumstances and is contraindicated in patients with renal or hepatic impairment. Pioglitazone, a thiazolidinedione, promotes insulin sensitivity but is contraindicated in heart failure due to its association with fluid retention. When prescribing these medications, it is important to consider their mechanisms of action and potential risks in patients with comorbidities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 48 - A 30-year-old builder presents with a two week history of deteriorating pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old builder presents with a two week history of deteriorating pain in both feet that feels as though he is walking on gravel, and a sore lower back.

      He returned from a holiday in Spain two months ago and had been aware of a transient urethral discharge for which he has received no treatment.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis

      Reactive arthritis, previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, is a condition characterized by a triad of symptoms. These include sero-negative arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. The painful feet reflect a plantar fasciitis, while sacroiliitis is often present.

      Reactive arthritis is known to occur after gastrointestinal infections with Shigella or Salmonella. It can also occur following a nonspecific urethritis. On the other hand, gonococcal arthritis tends to occur in patients who are systemically unwell and have features of septic arthritis.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms and causes of reactive arthritis is crucial in its diagnosis and management. Proper identification and treatment of the underlying infection can help alleviate the symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 49 - A cardiologist has written to you about the result of an echocardiogram of...

    Incorrect

    • A cardiologist has written to you about the result of an echocardiogram of an 85-year-old patient, whom she has recently seen in clinic. Your patient has been diagnosed with severe heart failure and the cardiologist has written to you to ask that you initiate treatment with spironolactone.

      The most recent renal function tests taken four months earlier do not preclude treatment with spironolactone.

      With regard to monitoring electrolytes (including potassium and creatinine) after initiation, and assuming there is no further dose increase, what would you advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 week after initiation, then monthly for the first year

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Electrolytes in Spironolactone Treatment

      The British National Formulary recommends monitoring electrolytes when administering spironolactone to patients. If hyperkalaemia occurs, the medication should be discontinued. In cases of severe heart failure, it is crucial to monitor potassium and creatinine levels. This monitoring should occur one week after initiation and after any dose increase. For the first three months, monthly monitoring is necessary, followed by every three months for one year, and then every six months. By closely monitoring electrolytes, healthcare professionals can ensure the safe and effective use of spironolactone in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 50 - A 42-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis has been switched from methotrexate to leflunomide. Her full blood count and liver function tests are being monitored. What other aspects of her treatment should be monitored?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Hypertension can be a possible side effect of taking leflunomide.

      Leflunomide: A DMARD for Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Leflunomide is a type of disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug (DMARD) that is commonly used to manage rheumatoid arthritis. It is important to note that this medication has a very long half-life, which means that its teratogenic potential should be taken into consideration. As such, it is contraindicated in pregnant women, and effective contraception is essential during treatment and for at least two years after treatment in women, and at least three months after treatment in men. Caution should also be exercised in patients with pre-existing lung and liver disease.

      Like any medication, leflunomide can cause adverse effects. Some of the most common side effects include gastrointestinal issues such as diarrhea, hypertension, weight loss or anorexia, peripheral neuropathy, myelosuppression, and pneumonitis. To monitor for any potential complications, patients taking leflunomide should have their full blood count (FBC), liver function tests (LFT), and blood pressure checked regularly.

      If a patient needs to stop taking leflunomide, it is important to note that the medication has a very long wash-out period of up to a year. To help speed up the process, co-administration of cholestyramine may be necessary. Overall, leflunomide can be an effective treatment option for rheumatoid arthritis, but it is important to carefully consider its potential risks and benefits before starting treatment.

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      • Musculoskeletal Health
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