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Question 1
Correct
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A mother is worried about her child's motor skills and wonders when most children develop a strong pincer grip. At what age do children typically acquire this skill?
Your Answer: 12 months
Explanation:Developmental Milestones for Fine Motor and Vision Skills
Fine motor and vision skills are important developmental milestones for infants and young children. These skills are crucial for their physical and cognitive development. The following tables provide a summary of the major milestones for fine motor and vision skills.
At three months, infants can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow objects up to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They are visually insatiable, looking around in every direction.
At nine months, infants can point with their finger and demonstrate an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have developed a good pincer grip and can bang toys together and stack bricks.
As children grow older, their fine motor skills continue to develop. By 15 months, they can build a tower of two blocks, and by 18 months, they can build a tower of three blocks. By two years old, they can build a tower of six blocks, and by three years old, they can build a tower of nine blocks. They also begin to draw, starting with circular scribbles at 18 months and progressing to copying vertical lines at two years old, circles at three years old, crosses at four years old, and squares and triangles at five years old.
In addition to fine motor skills, children’s vision skills also develop over time. At 15 months, they can look at a book and pat the pages. By 18 months, they can turn several pages at a time, and by two years old, they can turn one page at a time.
It is important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. Overall, these developmental milestones for fine motor and vision skills are important indicators of a child’s growth and development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old foster parent brings in her 7-year-old foster child to the GP. He has been complaining of pain when going to the toilet. The foster mother explains that he often has pain when urinating and as a younger child often cried when passing urine. He has only recently developed pain while defecating, however, the foster mother is clearly concerned and consents to the GP examining the child.
What clinical findings are most likely to indicate child sexual abuse in a 7-year-old child who complains of pain when going to the toilet and has a history of crying while passing urine?Your Answer: Haemorrhoids and recurrent urinary tract infections
Correct Answer: Anal fissures and recurrent urinary tract infections
Explanation:Childhood sexual abuse may be indicated by the presence of anal fissures and recurrent UTIs in children.
Signs of childhood sexual abuse can include various symptoms such as pregnancy, sexually transmitted infections, sexually precocious behavior, anal fissure, bruising, reflex anal dilation, enuresis and encopresis, behavioral problems, self-harm, and recurrent symptoms such as headaches and abdominal pain. However, haemorrhoids and Candida infections are not specific clinical features that suggest a child may be at risk of sexual abuse.
Understanding Sexual Abuse in Children
Sexual abuse is a serious issue that affects many children, but unfortunately, adults often do not believe their allegations. Children with special educational needs are at a higher risk of being sexually abused. The abusers can be anyone, but statistics show that 30% of abusers are fathers, 15% are unrelated men, and 10% are older brothers.
There are several features that may be present in a sexually abused child, including pregnancy, sexually transmitted infections, recurrent UTIs, sexually precocious behavior, anal fissure, bruising, reflex anal dilation, enuresis and encopresis, behavioral problems, self-harm, and recurrent symptoms such as headaches and abdominal pain.
It is important to recognize these signs and take action to protect children from sexual abuse. By understanding the signs and symptoms, we can work towards preventing and addressing this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A diabetic mother gives birth at term to a healthy infant, without complications during pregnancy, nor the birth. A blood test at approximately 3 hours after birth yields the following result:
Blood glucose 2.2 mmol/L
On examination, the infant appears well, with expected behaviour and no abnormal findings. The mother reported no problems with the first breastfeed.
What would be the most appropriate management plan based on these findings?Your Answer: Continue monitoring glucose and encourage normal feeding
Explanation:If the neonate is not showing any symptoms and the blood glucose levels are not significantly low, the recommended approach for neonatal hypoglycaemia is to monitor glucose levels and encourage normal feeding. As the mother is diabetic, the neonate is at a higher risk of developing hypoglycaemia. However, administering oral glucose is not necessary at this stage. Admission to the neonatal unit and dextrose infusion would be necessary if the blood glucose levels drop significantly or if the neonate shows symptoms of hypoglycaemia. Intramuscular glucagon would only be considered if the neonate is symptomatic and unable to receive dextrose through IV access. The guidelines do not recommend exclusively bottle-feeding for the next 24 hours.
Neonatal Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common condition in newborn babies, especially in the first 24 hours of life. While there is no agreed definition, a blood glucose level of less than 2.6 mmol/L is often used as a guideline. Transient hypoglycaemia is normal and usually resolves on its own, but persistent or severe hypoglycaemia may be caused by various factors such as preterm birth, maternal diabetes mellitus, IUGR, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, nesidioblastosis, or Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.
Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia can be autonomic, such as jitteriness, irritability, tachypnoea, and pallor, or neuroglycopenic, such as poor feeding/sucking, weak cry, drowsiness, hypotonia, and seizures. Other features may include apnoea and hypothermia. Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the condition and whether the newborn is symptomatic or not. Asymptomatic babies can be encouraged to feed normally and have their blood glucose monitored, while symptomatic or severely hypoglycaemic babies may need to be admitted to the neonatal unit and receive intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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The ward doctor is requested to assess a 24-hour-old neonate, born at 35 weeks gestation to a healthy mother via an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. Upon examination, the neonate appears comfortable. Auscultation of the heart reveals a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur and a left-sided thrill. The apex beat is palpable and appears to be heaving. A widened pulse pressure is observed, but there is no visible cyanosis. An echocardiogram is performed and confirms the diagnosis while ruling out other cardiac issues.
What is the most appropriate course of action for management at this stage, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Prostaglandin E1 given to the neonate
Correct Answer: Indomethacin given to the neonate
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis based on the findings is patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). To prompt duct closure in the majority of cases, the appropriate action is to administer indomethacin to the neonate in the postnatal period, not to the mother during the antenatal period. If another defect was present, prostaglandin E1 may be preferred to keep the duct open until after surgical repair. Referral for surgery is not necessary at this time. While percutaneous closure may be an option for older children, it is not suitable for neonates.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A toddler girl is brought to the emergency room with her abdominal contents protruding from the abdominal cavity. The contents are lined by the peritoneum. Her parents did not seek any prenatal scans during pregnancy.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Myelomeningocele
Correct Answer: Omphalocele
Explanation:Common Congenital Abnormalities: An Overview
Congenital abnormalities are defects present at birth, which can affect various parts of the body. Here are some common congenital abnormalities and their characteristics:
Omphalocele: This condition occurs when a baby’s abdominal contents protrude outside the abdominal cavity, covered by the sac (amnion). It is associated with other anomalies and requires surgical closure.
Gastroschisis: In this condition, organs herniate in the abdominal wall, but they are not covered by the peritoneum. It is not associated with other anomalies and has a good prognosis.
Tracheoesophageal fistula (TOF): TOF refers to a communication between the trachea and oesophagus, usually associated with oesophageal atresia. It can cause choking, coughing, and cyanosis during feeding, and is often accompanied by other congenital anomalies.
Myelomeningocele: This is a type of spina bifida where the spinal cord and meninges herniate through a hole in the spinal vertebra. It can cause paralysis, incontinence, and other complications, and requires surgical closure and hydrocephalus drainage.
Meningocele: This is another type of spina bifida where the meninges and fluid herniate through an opening in the vertebral bodies with skin covering. It has a good prognosis and requires surgical closure.
Understanding these congenital abnormalities can help parents and healthcare providers identify and manage them early on, improving outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy comes to see his GP complaining of hip and knee pain on one side. He reports that the pain started 2 weeks ago after he was tackled while playing football. His limp has become more pronounced recently. During the examination, the doctor notes a reduced ability to internally rotate the leg when flexed. The boy has no fever and his vital signs are stable. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
Explanation:Slipped capital femoral epiphysis is often associated with a loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. Acute transient synovitis is an incorrect answer as it typically resolves within 1-2 weeks and is often preceded by an upper respiratory infection. Developmental dysplasia of the hip is typically diagnosed in younger children and can be detected using the Barlow and Ortolani tests. While Perthes’ disease is a possibility, the loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion makes slipped capital femoral epiphysis a more likely diagnosis. Septic arthritis would present with a fever and may result in difficulty bearing weight.
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children between the ages of 10 and 15. It is more commonly seen in obese boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms.
The most common symptoms of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In some cases, a bilateral slip may occur. Diagnostic imaging, such as AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views, can confirm the diagnosis.
The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically involves internal fixation, which involves placing a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.
In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children, especially obese boys. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and can present with various symptoms. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A toddler appears normal during mealtime and is given her food to eat. While eating, she develops respiratory distress with choking and spits out much of the food through her nose and mouth. The caregiver stops the meal and seeks medical evaluation.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Infantile pyloric stenosis
Correct Answer: Oesophageal atresia
Explanation:There are several congenital conditions that can affect the digestive system in newborns. Oesophageal atresia is a rare condition where the oesophageal tube is interrupted, leading to a blind-ended pouch. This can cause aspiration of milk in the lungs and respiratory distress. Duodenal atresia is another congenital condition that can cause obstruction in the duodenum. It is usually detected before birth and is associated with polyhydramnios. Annular pancreas is a rare disorder where a ring of pancreas surrounds the second part of the duodenum, leading to duodenal obstruction. Infantile pyloric stenosis is a result of a hypertrophied and hyperplastic pyloric muscle, causing gastric outlet obstruction. Midgut malrotation is a disrupted development of the bowel during embryonic development, which can present with an acute volvulus in the first year of life. These conditions require prompt medical attention and may require surgical intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes Factitious disorder imposed on another (FDIA)?
Your Answer: The carer genuinely believes the child to be ill
Correct Answer: It is a cause of sudden infant death
Explanation:Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another: A Dangerous Parenting Disorder
Factitious disorder imposed on another (FDIA) is a serious parenting disorder that involves a parent, usually the mother, fabricating symptoms in their child. This leads to unnecessary medical tests and surgical procedures that can harm the child. In some extreme cases, the parent may even inflict injury or cause the death of their child.
FDIA is a form of child abuse that can have devastating consequences for the child and their family. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the signs and symptoms of FDIA and to report any suspicions to the appropriate authorities. Early intervention and treatment can help protect the child and prevent further harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with a rash. Her parents deny any trauma and have no history with social services. She recently had a cold which resolved on its own.
The child has no medical history and was born at term through vaginal delivery. She has met all developmental milestones and is up-to-date with her vaccinations.
During examination, a petechial rash is observed on the child's legs. She appears healthy without other signs of bleeding.
Her blood tests show:
Hb 140 g/L Female: (120-160)
Platelets 25 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 8.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
What is the recommended course of action?Your Answer: Platelet transfusion
Correct Answer: None
Explanation:It is important to advise patients to avoid any trauma as it can impact the resolution of ITP, whether or not treatment is administered. Administering oral corticosteroids is not recommended as it is not necessary for a child who is not actively bleeding and the platelet count will typically recover on its own. Similarly, IV corticosteroids should not be used as they pose unnecessary risks for a child who will likely recover without the need for non-specific immunosuppressants. IV immunoglobulin is also not a suitable option as the child is not exhibiting any signs of active or previous bleeding and their platelet count is sufficient.
Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.
The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.
In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A mother brings her four-month-old baby to the GP, concerned about episodes of vomiting and crying which she believes may be due to a tummy ache. The mother reports that her baby vomits after most feeds and cries constantly, even when laid down. The vomiting is non-projectile and non-bilious. The baby was born at 39 weeks via vaginal delivery, and the pregnancy was uncomplicated. The baby lives with both parents. On examination, the baby's weight is appropriate for their growth chart. Their heart rate is 140 bpm, O2 saturation is 97%, respiratory rate is 42/min, and temperature is 37.6ºC. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for an infant under 8 weeks old who is experiencing milky vomits after feeds, especially when laid flat, and excessive crying is gastro-oesophageal reflux (GORD). This is because the symptoms are typical of GORD, with non-projectile and non-bilious vomits and normal observations. Cow’s milk protein intolerance is a possible differential, but there is no history of stool changes or rashes, and it usually presents earlier in life. Duodenal atresia is unlikely as it typically presents with projectile and bilious vomiting and earlier in life. Gastroenteritis is also less likely as it is commonly caused by a viral infection with associated fever and tachycardia, and there is no mention of stool changes in the history.
Understanding Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux in Children
Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.
Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not being overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. Proton pump inhibitors are not recommended unless the child is experiencing unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Ranitidine, previously used as an alternative to PPIs, has been withdrawn from the market due to the discovery of carcinogens in some products. Prokinetic agents should only be used with specialist advice.
Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. In severe cases where medical treatment is ineffective, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for parents and caregivers to understand the symptoms and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in children to ensure the best possible outcomes for their little ones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 2-day-old baby girl is presented to the emergency department by her parents with complaints of decreased oral intake and fussiness. The parents also report that the baby has been vomiting green liquid and has not had a bowel movement since passing meconium, although she has had wet diapers. The baby was born vaginally at 39 weeks without any complications during pregnancy or delivery. An upper gastrointestinal contrast study revealed intestinal malrotation. What is the most appropriate definitive treatment option?
Your Answer: Ladd’s procedure
Explanation:A newborn with symptoms of bowel obstruction and bilious vomiting is suspected to have paediatric intestinal malrotation with volvulus. An upper gastrointestinal contrast study confirms the diagnosis. The most appropriate management option is a Ladd’s procedure, which involves division of Ladd bands and widening of the base of the mesentery. If vascular compromise is present, an urgent laparotomy is required. IV antibiotics are not indicated as there are no signs of infection. NEC may require antibiotics, but it presents differently with feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools, and is more common in premature infants.
Paediatric Gastrointestinal Disorders
Pyloric stenosis is more common in males and has a 5-10% chance of being inherited from parents. Symptoms include projectile vomiting at 4-6 weeks of life, and diagnosis is made through a test feed or ultrasound. Treatment involves a Ramstedt pyloromyotomy, either open or laparoscopic.
Acute appendicitis is uncommon in children under 3 years old, but when it does occur, it may present atypically. Mesenteric adenitis causes central abdominal pain and URTI, and is treated conservatively.
Intussusception occurs in infants aged 6-9 months and causes colicky pain, diarrhea, vomiting, a sausage-shaped mass, and red jelly stool. Treatment involves reduction with air insufflation.
Intestinal malrotation is characterized by a high caecum at the midline and may be complicated by the development of volvulus. Diagnosis is made through an upper GI contrast study and ultrasound, and treatment involves laparotomy or a Ladd’s procedure.
Hirschsprung’s disease occurs in 1/5000 births and is characterized by delayed passage of meconium and abdominal distension. Treatment involves rectal washouts and an anorectal pull through procedure.
Oesophageal atresia is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula and polyhydramnios, and may present with choking and cyanotic spells following aspiration. Meconium ileus is usually associated with cystic fibrosis and requires surgery to remove plugs. Biliary atresia causes jaundice and increased conjugated bilirubin, and requires an urgent Kasai procedure. Necrotising enterocolitis is more common in premature infants and is treated with total gut rest and TPN, with laparotomy required for perforations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 4-week-old baby boy is brought in by his concerned parents. Since two weeks of age, he has had a slowly expanding lump to the left side of his head. He is otherwise healthy, gaining weight, and breastfeeding well. He wakes to demand food and is starting to show signs of social smiling. He was delivered by unassisted normal vaginal delivery at 38 weeks’ gestation after an uncomplicated pregnancy. Birthweight was 3.2 kg. Other than a slightly prolonged second stage of labor, there is no significant perinatal history. He has no siblings and there is no family history of note.
During the examination, an alert and active baby is observed. Vital signs are normal. There is a smooth lump measuring 2 × 3 cm arising in the left parieto-occipital region. The lump is compressible and non-pulsatile and does not cross the suture lines. A head to toe examination of the baby reveals no other lumps, skin lesions, rashes, or marks. The anterior fontanelle is normal. The baby has good tone and a normal Moro reflex. There is no jaundice or pallor.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cephalohaematoma
Explanation:Common Neonatal Head Injuries: Causes, Symptoms, and Differences
Cephalohaematoma, Caput succedaneum, Cephalocele, and Subgaleal haemorrhage are common neonatal head injuries that can occur during birth. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and differences between these injuries is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
Cephalohaematoma is a subperiosteal haemorrhage that occurs in 1-2% of live births, usually associated with a prolonged second stage of labour. It presents as a well-circumscribed, fluctuant mass over the parietal bone, and does not cross suture lines. Complications such as anaemia and jaundice can result from a cephalohaematoma, depending on its size.
Caput succedaneum is a form of birth trauma caused by pressure exerted on the presenting part by the cervix during the first stage of labour. It presents as diffuse swelling of the scalp and is associated with moulding. It can cross the midline and extends over suture lines. It resolves over the course of the first few days of life.
Cephalocele is a rare congenital condition where brain herniation occurs through a defect in the cranium. It is usually detected antenatally and most commonly presents in the midline.
Subgaleal haemorrhage is most commonly associated with instrumental delivery, caused by rupture of the emissary veins connecting the dural sinuses with the scalp veins. It presents as a fluctuant mass over the occiput, with superficial skin bruising 12-72 hours post-delivery. It may cross suture lines and pass over fontanelles, distinguishing it from a cephalohaematoma.
It is important to note that non-accidental injury should always be considered in cases of unexplained head injuries. However, in the absence of any concerning features, a cephalohaematoma or other neonatal head injury is likely due to birth trauma and can be managed accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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At what developmental stage would a child have the ability to briefly sit while leaning forward on their hands, grasp a cube and transfer it from hand to hand, babble, but not yet wave goodbye or use their finger and thumb to grasp objects?
Your Answer: 3 months
Correct Answer: 7 months
Explanation:Developmental Milestones at 7 Months
At 7 months, babies reach several developmental milestones. They are able to sit without support, which means they can sit up straight and maintain their balance without falling over. They also start to reach for objects with a sweeping motion, using their arms to grab things that catch their attention. Additionally, they begin to imitate speech sounds, such as babbling and making noises with their mouths.
Half of babies at this age can combine syllables into wordlike sounds, which is an important step towards language development. They may start to say simple words like mama or dada and understand the meaning behind them. Finally, many babies begin to crawl or lunge forward, which is a major milestone in their physical development. Overall, 7 months is an exciting time for babies as they continue to grow and develop new skills.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl presents to your clinic with her parents for a follow-up appointment. She has been experiencing nocturnal enuresis for the past eight months. During her last visit four months ago, she was wetting the bed six to seven nights a week. You advised her parents to limit her fluid intake before bedtime, establish a toileting routine before bed, and implement a reward system for positive behavior. Despite following these recommendations, she continues to wet the bed six to seven nights a week. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her nocturnal enuresis?
Your Answer: Enuresis alarm
Explanation:When general advice has not been effective, an enuresis alarm is typically the initial treatment option for nocturnal enuresis. However, there are exceptions to this, such as when the child and family find the alarm unacceptable or if the child is over 8 years old and needs rapid short-term reduction in enuresis. Additionally, it is important to note that enuresis alarms have a lower relapse rate compared to other treatments.
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Correct
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You are evaluating the growth of a 6-week-old infant. Her length is at the 35th percentile, weight at the 42nd percentile, and head circumference at the 4th percentile. What is the probable reason for her microcephaly?
Your Answer: Foetal alcohol syndrome
Explanation:Microcephaly is often linked to foetal alcohol syndrome, which also presents with other physical characteristics such as a smooth philtrum, hypoplastic upper lip, and epicanthic folds. Conditions like Thalassaemia, Turner’s syndrome, and cerebral palsy do not typically impact head size, while Achondroplasia is associated with macrocephaly and frontal bossing, not microcephaly. Recognizing the distinct physical features of congenital conditions is crucial for both exams and accurate diagnosis.
Understanding Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a pregnant woman consumes alcohol, which can lead to various physical and mental abnormalities in the developing fetus. At birth, the baby may exhibit symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, such as irritability, hypotonia, and tremors.
The features of fetal alcohol syndrome include a short palpebral fissure, a thin vermillion border or hypoplastic upper lip, a smooth or absent philtrum, learning difficulties, microcephaly, growth retardation, epicanthic folds, and cardiac malformations. These physical characteristics can vary in severity and may affect the child’s overall health and development.
It is important for pregnant women to avoid alcohol consumption to prevent fetal alcohol syndrome and other potential complications. Early diagnosis and intervention can also help improve outcomes for children with fetal alcohol syndrome. By understanding the risks and consequences of alcohol use during pregnancy, we can work towards promoting healthier pregnancies and better outcomes for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Correct
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The parents of a 7-year-old boy seek your consultation regarding their son's lifelong bed wetting problem. They are worried that the issue is not improving despite his age. The boy has never had any daytime accidents and has regular bowel movements. He was potty-trained at the age of 3 and has no relevant family history except for hay fever. Physical examination shows no abnormalities, and urinalysis is normal. The parents are particularly concerned as their son is going on a camping trip with his friend's parents in 2 weeks, and they do not want him to wet the bed. What is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer: Give general advice on enuresis, reassure the parents that he is almost certain to grow out of the problem and prescribe desmopressin to be taken during the camping trip to prevent bedwetting
Explanation:Managing Primary Enuresis in Children: Advice and Treatment Options
Primary enuresis, or bedwetting, is a common condition affecting 15-20% of children. It is characterized by nocturnal enuresis without daytime symptoms and is thought to be caused by bladder dysfunction. However, parents can be reassured that most children will grow out of the problem by the age of 15, with only 1% continuing to have symptoms into adulthood.
The first-line treatment for primary enuresis without daytime symptoms is an enuresis alarm combined with a reward system. Fluid should not be restricted, and the child should be involved in the management plan. However, if short-term control is required, a prescription of desmopressin can be given to children over 5 years of age.
It is important to refer children to a pediatric urologist if they have primary enuresis with daytime symptoms or if two complete courses of either an enuresis alarm or desmopressin have failed to resolve the child’s symptoms.
Overall, while there may be little that can be done to cure the problem prior to a camping trip, there are still treatment options available to manage primary enuresis in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You are asked to review an infant with a postnatal diagnosis of congenital diaphragmatic hernia. They are currently stable after receiving initial medical management. The parents have conducted some research on the condition and have some inquiries for you. What is a true statement about congenital diaphragmatic hernia?
Your Answer: A significant consequence of congenital diaphragmatic hernia is systemic hypertension.
Correct Answer: The presence of the liver in the thoracic cavity is a poor prognostic factor for CDH
Explanation:CDH poses a greater risk of pulmonary hypertension as opposed to systemic hypertension. The risk is further heightened in cases where a sibling has a history of the condition.
Understanding Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia
Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) is a rare condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,000 newborns. It occurs when the diaphragm, a muscle that separates the chest and abdominal cavities, fails to form completely during fetal development. As a result, abdominal organs can move into the chest cavity, which can lead to underdeveloped lungs and high blood pressure in the lungs. This can cause respiratory distress shortly after birth.
The most common type of CDH is a left-sided posterolateral Bochdalek hernia, which accounts for about 85% of cases. This type of hernia occurs when the pleuroperitoneal canal, a structure that connects the chest and abdominal cavities during fetal development, fails to close properly.
Despite advances in medical treatment, only about 50% of newborns with CDH survive. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes. Treatment may involve surgery to repair the diaphragm and move the abdominal organs back into their proper position. In some cases, a ventilator or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) may be necessary to support breathing until the lungs can function properly. Ongoing care and monitoring are also important to manage any long-term complications that may arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 24-hour old baby is evaluated in the neonatal intensive care unit due to tremors in his limbs, as observed by his nurse. He is also experiencing poor feeding, increased irritability, and excessive drowsiness. The baby was delivered via emergency caesarean section at 34 weeks due to reduced foetal movements and foetal bradycardia. The mother had an otherwise healthy pregnancy, but was taking lamotrigine for epilepsy. During the examination, the baby appeared larger than expected for his prematurity and exhibited visible arm tremors. Based on these symptoms, which aspect of the baby's medical history is most likely responsible for his condition?
Your Answer: Maternal lamotrigine use
Correct Answer: Prematurity
Explanation:Prematurity is a significant risk factor for neonatal hypoglycaemia, which is characterized by autonomic symptoms such as irritability and jitteriness, as well as neuroglycopenic symptoms like drowsiness and poor feeding. This is because preterm infants have not yet developed the same glycogen reserve as term infants. Admission to the neonatal intensive care unit, delivery via emergency caesarean section, formula feeding, and maternal lamotrigine use are not independent risk factors for neonatal hypoglycaemia. While caesarean section may result in transient hypoglycaemia, it is not typically symptomatic due to the lack of catecholamine release present during vaginal delivery. Terbutaline use, on the other hand, may increase the risk of hypoglycaemia.
Neonatal Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common condition in newborn babies, especially in the first 24 hours of life. While there is no agreed definition, a blood glucose level of less than 2.6 mmol/L is often used as a guideline. Transient hypoglycaemia is normal and usually resolves on its own, but persistent or severe hypoglycaemia may be caused by various factors such as preterm birth, maternal diabetes mellitus, IUGR, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, nesidioblastosis, or Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.
Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia can be autonomic, such as jitteriness, irritability, tachypnoea, and pallor, or neuroglycopenic, such as poor feeding/sucking, weak cry, drowsiness, hypotonia, and seizures. Other features may include apnoea and hypothermia. Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the condition and whether the newborn is symptomatic or not. Asymptomatic babies can be encouraged to feed normally and have their blood glucose monitored, while symptomatic or severely hypoglycaemic babies may need to be admitted to the neonatal unit and receive intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy comes to the GP with his father, complaining of right-sided hip pain that has been present for the past 3 weeks. The pain has gradually worsened over time. When asked to point to the location of the pain, he indicates his right hip and groin area. Upon examination, his heart rate is 71 bpm and temperature is 37.3ºC. He is able to walk, but with moderate discomfort and an antalgic gait that causes him to out-toe. Passive movement of the hip reveals a loss of internal rotation of the right leg in flexion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
Explanation:Slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a possible diagnosis for a boy aged 10-15 years old presenting with hip pain and a key examination finding of limited internal rotation of the leg in flexion. Other diagnoses such as septic arthritis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, and Perthe’s disease are less likely based on the absence of certain symptoms and age range. Further investigation and imaging should be done to confirm the diagnosis.
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children between the ages of 10 and 15. It is more commonly seen in obese boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms.
The most common symptoms of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In some cases, a bilateral slip may occur. Diagnostic imaging, such as AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views, can confirm the diagnosis.
The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically involves internal fixation, which involves placing a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.
In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children, especially obese boys. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and can present with various symptoms. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Correct
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An infant born with trisomy 21 begins to vomit shortly after his first feed. The emesis is green and occurs after each subsequent feeding. His abdomen is also distended, most noticeably in the epigastrum. A baby-gram demonstrates a ‘double bubble’ in the abdomen.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Duodenal atresia
Explanation:Neonatal Bilious Vomiting: Differential Diagnosis
Neonates with bilious vomiting present a diagnostic challenge, as there are several potential causes. In the case of a neonate with trisomy 21, the following conditions should be considered:
1. Duodenal atresia: This condition is characterized by narrowing of the duodenum, leading to bilious vomiting after feeding. Abdominal X-rays show a double bubble sign, indicating normal gastric bubble and duodenal dilation proximal to the obstruction.
2. Biliary atresia: This condition involves a blind-ended biliary tree and can cause indigestion, impaired fat absorption, and jaundice due to bile retention.
3. Pyloric stenosis: This condition is characterized by thickening of the gastric smooth muscle at the pylorus, leading to forceful, non-bilious vomiting within the first month of life. An olive-shaped mass may be felt on abdominal examination.
4. Tracheoesophageal fistula: This condition involves a communication between the trachea and esophagus, leading to pulmonary infection due to aspiration and abdominal distension due to air entering the stomach.
5. Imperforate anus: This condition is suggested when the neonate does not pass meconium within the first few days of life.
A thorough evaluation, including imaging studies and surgical consultation, is necessary to determine the underlying cause of neonatal bilious vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy visits his pediatrician complaining of a dry cough that has been bothering him for the past three days. The child has been experiencing intense coughing spells that make him turn blue and vomit. He had previously suffered from a cold with fever, sore throat, and a runny nose. The doctor diagnoses him with pertussis and prescribes a course of clarithromycin.
What guidance should be provided regarding the child's return to school?Your Answer: Exclusion from school for 48 hours
Explanation:If a child has whooping cough, they must stay away from school for 48 hours after starting antibiotics. This is because whooping cough is contagious, and it is important to prevent the spread of the disease. Additionally, during this time, the child should avoid contact with infants who have not been vaccinated.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenzae requires exclusion until the child has recovered. The official advice regarding school exclusion for chickenpox has varied, but the most recent guidance suggests that all lesions should be crusted over before children return to school.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Correct
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A 4-month-old infant presents with jaundice and difficulty feeding. The baby was born via caesarean section at 38 weeks with an APGAR score of 8 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. There are no dysmorphic features or rashes on examination, and vital signs are within normal limits. The family history is significant for the father and older sibling having a condition that causes transient, asymptomatic episodes of jaundice. Laboratory results show a conjugated bilirubin level of 72 µmol/L (normal range: 3-17), unconjugated bilirubin level of 10 µmol/L (normal range: 3-17), ALP level of 134 u/L (normal range: 30-100), ALT level of 58 u/L (normal range: 3-40), and γGT level of 197 u/L (normal range: 8-60). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Biliary atresia
Explanation:The onset of biliary atresia is usually observed within the first few weeks of a newborn’s life, characterized by symptoms such as jaundice, poor appetite, and growth issues. This condition occurs when fibrous blockages obstruct the biliary ducts outside the liver, which can eventually lead to liver failure. Patients typically exhibit high levels of conjugated bilirubin, hepatomegaly, and elevated liver transaminases (with GGT being the most elevated). Alagille syndrome is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the liver and heart, and is characterized by distinct facial features such as a broad forehead and pointed chin. Diagnosis is confirmed through genetic testing for mutations in the JAG1 gene. Dubin-Johnson syndrome and… (sentence incomplete)
Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children
Biliary atresia is a condition that affects the extrahepatic biliary system in neonatal children, resulting in an obstruction in the flow of bile. This condition is more common in females than males and occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births. There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common. Patients typically present with jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and abnormal growth.
To diagnose biliary atresia, doctors may perform various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin, sweat chloride test, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver. Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, and medical intervention includes antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery.
Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. However, the prognosis is good if surgery is successful. In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life. Overall, understanding biliary atresia is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management in neonatal children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father who is concerned about her recent limp. She had a cold recently, but is otherwise healthy and has not experienced any injuries. The child has met all developmental milestones and there were no complications during pregnancy or birth. What is the probable reason for her current condition?
Your Answer: Transient synovitis
Explanation:Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is a common cause of hip pain in children aged 3-8 years. It typically occurs following a recent viral infection and presents with symptoms such as groin or hip pain, limping or refusal to weight bear, and occasionally a low-grade fever. However, a high fever may indicate other serious conditions such as septic arthritis, which requires urgent specialist assessment. To exclude such diagnoses, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend monitoring children in primary care with a presumptive diagnosis of transient synovitis, provided they are aged 3-9 years, well, afebrile, mobile but limping, and have had symptoms for less than 72 hours. Treatment for transient synovitis involves rest and analgesia, as the condition is self-limiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Correct
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A 4-year-old child presents with a 4-month history of recurrent episodes of cough and wheeze. The cough is worse at night. Chest examination is normal between episodes of wheeze, but there is prolonged expiratory wheeze during an episode.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Trial of bronchodilators
Explanation:Diagnosis and Treatment of Childhood Asthma: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals
Asthma is a condition characterized by reversible airways obstruction, and its diagnosis is primarily based on the patient’s history and response to bronchodilators. Objective measurements such as spirometry and peak flow measurements may not be reliable in children under five years old due to poor technique. Therefore, a trial of bronchodilators and a thorough history are sufficient to make a diagnosis in this age group.
A full blood count is unlikely to be useful in diagnosing asthma, as it is usually normal. Similarly, a chest X-ray is not necessary for routine diagnosis, although it may be helpful in identifying other pathologies. Antibiotics should only be prescribed if there is evidence of a bacterial infection, as the vast majority of asthma exacerbations are non-infective.
While some cases of asthma may be allergic in nature, antihistamines are not routinely used in the management of childhood asthma. Skin-prick testing and specific immunoglobulin E (IgE) to aeroallergens are not part of routine care.
The starting step for asthma treatment is based on the patient’s symptoms around the time of presentation. As required bronchodilators may be effective in mild cases, but a stepwise approach should be followed for more severe cases. Regular follow-up and monitoring of symptoms are essential for effective management of childhood asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl is brought into paediatric casualty with decreased level of consciousness. She has no past medical history. Her 7-year-old sister was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Family history is also otherwise unremarkable. Urgent arterial blood gas analysis reveals a surprising finding of blood glucose level of 2.1 mmol/l. This is confirmed on urgent formal blood glucose testing. She is transferred to the hospital’s high dependency unit (HDU) for monitoring and treatment. Blood tests taken shortly after admission reveal elevated insulin and low C-peptide levels.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Insulinoma
Correct Answer: Factitious hypoglycaemia
Explanation:Understanding Factitious Hypoglycaemia and Differential Diagnosis
Factitious hypoglycaemia is a condition where an individual deliberately induces hypoglycaemia by using insulin or oral hypoglycaemic agents. In contrast to endogenous insulin, synthetic insulin does not contain C-peptide as part of its formulation. Therefore, elevated insulin with an inappropriately low C-peptide level indicates exogenous insulin administration. This condition is often associated with psychological factors, and the individual may be seeking attention or sympathy.
Differential diagnosis includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, which presents with hyperglycaemia rather than hypoglycaemia. Familial insulinoma syndrome is a rare condition that leads to elevated C-peptide levels. Maturity onset diabetes of the young is another subset of diabetes that presents with hyperglycaemia. Insulinoma, on the other hand, presents with hypoglycaemia, elevated insulin, and elevated C-peptide levels.
It is crucial to differentiate factitious hypoglycaemia from other conditions to provide appropriate treatment and support for the individual. A thorough medical evaluation and psychological assessment may be necessary to determine the underlying cause of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A paediatrician is conducting a ward round and comes across a 20-hour-old neonate without apparent issues. During the round, the mother expresses concern about her child's hearing, citing her own deafness as a potential risk factor. Which screening tool would be most suitable for this patient?
Your Answer: 6 month speech and language assessment
Correct Answer: Otoacoustic emission test
Explanation:The otoacoustic emission test is commonly used for screening hearing problems in newborns. In the UK, it is a routine test and if a newborn fails, they are referred for impedance audiometry testing. However, there is no 6-month speech and language assessment as babies are not yet talking at this stage. Impedance audiometry testing is not routine and is only done if a newborn fails the otoacoustic emission test. It would not be appropriate to ask if the patient failed this test before determining if they had it or not. Pure tone audiometry is an adult hearing test and is only done when necessary. Weber’s and Rinne’s tests are screening tools used by clinicians to assess hearing loss in adults, but they may not be suitable for children who may not comply with the test.
Hearing Tests for Children
Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.
For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.
In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 32-week neonate is brought to the neonatal intensive care unit. The baby was delivered via emergency Caesarean section to a 17-year-old mother who had not received adequate antenatal care. The mother had a history of significant tobacco and alcohol use. During examination, it was observed that the baby had intestinal loops protruding through a hole on the left side of the umbilicus. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Omphalocele
Correct Answer: Gastroschisis
Explanation:Socioeconomic deprivation, maternal alcohol/tobacco use, and maternal age under 20 are all associated with gastroschisis.
While gastroschisis and omphalocele have similar presentations, gastroschisis refers to a defect located to the side of the umbilicus, while omphalocele refers to a defect in the umbilicus itself.
Foetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by a small head, flattened philtrum, and thin upper lip.
Anencephaly is a neural tube defect that results in the absence of the brain, skull, and scalp.
Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.
Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Correct
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What is the causative agent of roseola in toddlers?
Your Answer: Human herpes virus 6
Explanation:Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.
In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.
It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his father. His father reports that over the past 4 hours, his son has had episodes of shaking and is less responsive than usual.
On examination, the boy is drowsy and does not respond to voice. You note he has some bruising around his torso. You suspect that the baby may have been shaken.
Which triad of symptoms is consistent with this diagnosis?Your Answer: Retinal haemorrhages + extradural haematoma + rib fractures
Correct Answer: Retinal haemorrhages + subdural haematoma + encephalopathy
Explanation:Understanding Shaken Baby Syndrome
Shaken baby syndrome is a condition that involves a combination of retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma, and encephalopathy. It occurs when a child between the ages of 0-5 years old is intentionally shaken. However, there is controversy among physicians regarding the mechanism of injury, making it difficult for courts to convict suspects of causing shaken baby syndrome to a child. This condition has made headlines due to the ongoing debate among medical professionals.
Shaken baby syndrome is a serious condition that can cause long-term damage to a child’s health. It is important to understand the signs and symptoms of this condition to ensure that children are protected from harm. While the controversy surrounding the diagnosis of shaken baby syndrome continues, it is crucial to prioritize the safety and well-being of children. By raising awareness and educating the public about this condition, we can work towards preventing it from occurring in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are scheduled to see a 12-year-old girl in your clinic. The booking notes indicate that her mother is worried about her daughter's growth compared to her peers. Before the appointment, you quickly review the patient's medical records. The patient's past medical history includes asthma, attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, and being born prematurely at 35 weeks. The patient is taking methylphenidate, a beclomethasone inhaler during the winter months, and a salbutamol inhaler. The patient's family history shows that both parents are of average height, and a blood test conducted a year ago revealed borderline low ferritin levels. What is the most relevant information for this presentation?
Your Answer: Prematurity
Correct Answer: Methylphenidate
Explanation:The most important information in the patient’s records is that he is taking methylphenidate for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, which can lead to stunted growth. Therefore, his height and weight should be monitored every six months. Although corticosteroid inhalers like beclomethasone can also cause growth reduction in children who use them regularly, this is less likely to be relevant in this case since the patient only uses it intermittently. The patient’s blood test results indicating borderline low ferritin levels may suggest a poor diet, which could potentially affect growth, but this was a while ago and limits any conclusions that can be drawn. While familial height can be helpful, it is not as significant as the patient’s medication history, especially since both parents have average heights.
In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.
NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.
Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.
As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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