00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the clinic. Her mother reports that she...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the clinic. Her mother reports that she has been complaining of a painful right ear for the past 2-3 days. This morning she noticed some 'yellow pus' coming out of her ear. On examination her temperature is 38.2ºC. Otoscopy of the left ear is normal. On the right side, the tympanic membrane cannot be visualised as the ear canal is filled with a yellow discharge. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin + review in 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Perforated Tympanic Membrane: Causes and Management

      A perforated tympanic membrane, also known as a ruptured eardrum, is a condition where there is a tear or hole in the thin tissue that separates the ear canal from the middle ear. The most common cause of this condition is an infection, but it can also be caused by barotrauma or direct trauma. When left untreated, a perforated tympanic membrane can lead to hearing loss and increase the risk of otitis media.

      In most cases, no treatment is needed as the tympanic membrane will usually heal on its own within 6-8 weeks. During this time, it is important to avoid getting water in the ear. However, if the perforation occurs following an episode of acute otitis media, antibiotics may be prescribed. This approach is supported by the 2008 Respiratory tract infection guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      If the tympanic membrane does not heal by itself, myringoplasty may be performed. This is a surgical procedure where a graft is used to repair the hole in the eardrum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the single beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)? ...

    Correct

    • What is the single beneficial effect of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)?

      Your Answer: Dilatation of systemic veins

      Explanation:

      The Mechanism of Action of GTN in Angina Treatment

      GTN is a prodrug that is denitrated to produce the active metabolite nitric oxide (NO). NO stimulates guanylate cyclase, which produces cGMP, leading to the relaxation of smooth muscle cells in blood vessels and dilatation of systemic veins. This reduces myocardial wall tension, increases oxygen transport to the subendocardium, and decreases the pressure of blood returning to the heart (preload). Additionally, NO activates calcium-regulated Na+/K+ ATPase pumps, reducing intracellular calcium levels and further relaxing muscle cells in the myocardium. Finally, widening of the large arteries reduces the pressure against which the heart has to pump (afterload), resulting in the heart needing less energy and oxygen. Overall, GTN’s mechanism of action in angina treatment involves reducing myocardial oxygen demand and increasing oxygen supply.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old law student visits his primary care physician complaining of ear pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old law student visits his primary care physician complaining of ear pain. He suspects that this is related to the same issue causing dryness in his scalp and beard, as well as eczema-like patches in his nasolabial folds. He has been using non-prescription topical treatments to manage these symptoms but seeks guidance for his earache. What is the probable diagnosis that connects all of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Eczema herpeticum

      Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis can lead to common complications such as otitis externa and blepharitis. The patient is experiencing eczema-like plaques and dry skin in areas rich in sebum, which he has been treating with over-the-counter antifungal shampoos. However, his complaint of earache may be due to otitis externa, which is associated with seborrhoeic dermatitis. A full ear examination should be performed to rule out other diagnoses. Contact dermatitis is unlikely to present in this distribution and would not cause otalgia. Eczema herpeticum is a severe primary infection by herpes-simplex-virus 1 or 2, commonly seen in children with atopic eczema. Guttate psoriasis commonly affects children after Streptococcal upper respiratory tract infection and will clear over the course of ,3 months without treatment. Irritant dermatitis is unlikely to cause such focal areas of irritation.

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.

      For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they noticed her eating habits had become irregular. The parents report that the patient eats large volumes of foods and is sometimes found vomiting shortly after eating dinner. This behaviour has been occurring for the past six months.
      On examination, the patient’s vital signs are normal and she has a body mass index body mass index (BMI) of 23 kg/m2. She has excoriations on the knuckles of her right hand. She also has erosions on her teeth and swelling bilaterally on the lateral aspects of the face along the mandibular rami.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Common Mental Health Disorders: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Bulimia Nervosa
      Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging, usually in the form of vomiting. Patients with bulimia nervosa tend to have normal BMI despite purging behavior. Symptoms include teeth erosion, swelling along the mandibular rami (parotitis), and excoriations of the knuckles (Russell’s sign).

      Gender Dysphoria
      Gender dysphoria is a condition where an individual experiences a strong identification with a gender other than that assigned at birth. This can be managed through social or medical transition, such as hormone or surgical treatments that are gender-affirming.

      Anorexia Nervosa
      Anorexia nervosa is characterized by decreased dietary intake with or without purging behavior. Patients with anorexia nervosa tend to have extremely low BMI due to low calorie intake. Symptoms include early osteoporosis and electrolyte abnormalities due to malnutrition.

      Avoidant Personality Disorder
      Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a person who wishes to have friends and social outlets but is so shy that they are unable to form relationships out of fear of rejection. This is different from the schizoid personality, which prefers to be alone.

      Binge Eating Disorder
      Binge eating disorder is characterized by purely binge eating without purging behavior. Symptoms include distress and weight gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old female is referred for management of a chronic ulcer above the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female is referred for management of a chronic ulcer above the left medial malleolus. The ankle-brachial pressure index readings are as follows:
      Right 0.95
      Left 0.95
      The ulcer has been treated with standard dressings by the District Nurse. What is the best course of action to increase the chances of healing the ulcer?

      Your Answer: Hydrocolloid dressings

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Compression bandaging is recommended for the management of venous ulceration, as the ankle-brachial pressure index readings suggest that the ulcers are caused by venous insufficiency rather than arterial issues.

      Venous Ulceration and its Management

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.

      The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old man with difficult to control epilepsy is being evaluated by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with difficult to control epilepsy is being evaluated by a surgeon, four months after switching his antiepileptic medication. Despite being seizure-free, he has gained 5 kg in weight since his last check-up. Which antiepileptic drug is commonly linked to weight gain?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Weight gain can be a side effect of taking sodium valproate.

      Sodium Valproate: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Sodium valproate is a medication commonly used to manage epilepsy, particularly for generalised seizures. Its mechanism of action involves increasing the activity of GABA in the brain. However, the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy is strongly discouraged due to its teratogenic effects, which can lead to neural tube defects and neurodevelopmental delays in children. Women of childbearing age should only use this medication if it is absolutely necessary and under the guidance of a specialist neurological or psychiatric advisor.

      Aside from its teratogenic effects, sodium valproate can also inhibit P450 enzymes, leading to gastrointestinal issues such as nausea, increased appetite, and weight gain. Other adverse effects include alopecia, ataxia, tremors, hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, hyponatremia, and hyperammonemic encephalopathy. In cases where hyperammonemic encephalopathy develops, L-carnitine may be used as a treatment option.

      Overall, while sodium valproate can be an effective medication for managing epilepsy, its use should be carefully considered and monitored due to its potential adverse effects, particularly during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the most accurate statement regarding the use of radioactive iodine (131I)...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most accurate statement regarding the use of radioactive iodine (131I) for treating thyrotoxicosis?

      Your Answer: There is hypoparathyroidism secondary to beta-emissions and ablation of the parathyroid gland occurs in 30% of cases.

      Correct Answer: It is not associated with an increased incidence of late leukaemia.

      Explanation:

      Radioactive Iodine (131I) Treatment for Hyperthyroidism: Uses and Potential Complications

      Radioactive iodine (131I) is a commonly used treatment for hyperthyroidism, particularly in cases of toxic nodular hyperthyroidism and Graves’ disease. It works by inducing DNA damage in the thyroid gland, leading to the death of thyroid cells. This treatment is typically administered orally as a capsule or solution, and a standard dosage of 10 mCi is often used. However, the dosage may be increased if necessary, especially in cases of multinodular goitre.

      While 131I treatment is generally safe and effective, there are potential complications to be aware of. For example, it should not be administered to pregnant women, as it can cross the placenta and affect the thyroid gland of the fetus. Women should avoid becoming pregnant for at least six months after treatment, and men should not father children for at least four months after treatment. Additionally, there is a risk of hypoparathyroidism, which occurs in about 30% of cases and typically has a latency period of more than a decade.

      It is important to note that 131I treatment is not recommended for patients with active Graves’ ophthalmopathy, as it may cause progression of the condition. However, early treatment with levothyroxine may help reduce this risk. On the other hand, rapid regression of exophthalmos is expected in almost all cases within the first three months of treatment.

      Overall, 131I treatment is a safe and effective option for many patients with hyperthyroidism. However, it is important to discuss potential risks and benefits with a healthcare provider before undergoing this treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      54.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his mother with...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his mother with complaints of right iliac fossa pain for the past two days. He has no previous medical history except for a cough and sore throat in the last week. He has had a high fever for the past two days and has lost his appetite but denies any other symptoms.
      On examination, his temperature is 38.9 °C, and his pulse is 130 beats per minute. Bilateral enlarged submandibular and cervical lymph nodes are palpable and slightly tender. Chest examination is clear, with transmitted sounds from the upper airways. Abdominal examination reveals marked tenderness in the right iliac fossa with no guarding.
      Urine dipstick reveals 2+ of ketones and 1+ of protein.
      Blood test results for his full blood count (FBC) are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 145 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 14.3 × 109/ 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 425 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      What is the most likely clinical diagnosis for this 6-year-old boy?

      Your Answer: Appendicitis

      Correct Answer: Mesenteric adenitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Child with Right Iliac Fossa Pain and High Temperature

      When a child presents with right iliac fossa pain and high temperature, several possible diagnoses should be considered. One of them is mesenteric adenitis, which is characterized by abdominal pain resulting from mesenteric lymphadenopathy and often accompanied by enlarged neck nodes and a recent history of viral upper respiratory tract infection. Appendicitis is another possibility, but it tends to present with a low-grade fever and peritoneal irritation that causes involuntary muscle spasm in the abdominal wall. Meckel’s diverticulitis, which is clinically indistinguishable from appendicitis, is an intra-operative or radiological diagnosis and can cause gastrointestinal bleeding, obstruction, inflammation, or umbilical discharge. Retroperitoneal appendix abscess is an uncommon type of infection that presents with fever, back pain, and abdominal pain, but it can also cause other symptoms such as gastrointestinal bleeding, poor wound healing, chest pain, general discomfort, urinary frequency, and haematuria. Finally, urinary tract infection (UTI) is unlikely if there are no nitrites or leukocytes on urine dipstick, but it can cause non-specific symptoms such as vomiting/diarrhoea, mild abdominal pain, dysuria, frequency, and enuresis, especially in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      93.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You assess a 27-year-old woman who presents with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal...

    Correct

    • You assess a 27-year-old woman who presents with vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain. She had an IUD inserted as emergency contraception two weeks ago after having unprotected intercourse 6 days prior. The pain is described as severe dysmenorrhoea and is more pronounced in the right iliac fossa. She has been experiencing continuous bleeding for the past 6 days, whereas her normal menstrual cycle lasts 28 days with 4 days of bleeding. She has no issues with eating or drinking. On examination, her temperature is 36.5ºC, and her blood pressure is 104/68 mmHg. There is mild tenderness in the right iliac fossa with no guarding. Urine dip shows no abnormalities, and urine hCG is negative. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Side-effects of IUD

      Explanation:

      The woman’s symptoms are most likely caused by the intrauterine device (IUD), which is known to increase the intensity and discomfort of periods. Ectopic pregnancy and miscarriage are unlikely as the pregnancy test was negative. A urinary tract infection is also unlikely as the urine dip was normal. Although appendicitis should be considered, it does not explain the vaginal bleeding, and the woman’s normal appetite, lack of fever, and mild examination results do not support this diagnosis.

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      25.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman presents with bloody diarrhoea that has been ongoing for six...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with bloody diarrhoea that has been ongoing for six weeks. She reports passing 3-4 loose stools per day with small amounts of blood. She feels lethargic but has no fever or significant abdominal pain. A colonoscopy reveals inflammatory changes in the ascending, transverse, and descending colon consistent with ulcerative colitis. Her blood work shows Hb of 142 g/L, platelets of 323 * 109/L, WBC of 8.1 * 109/L, and CRP of 22 mg/L. What is the most appropriate first-line medication for inducing remission?

      Your Answer: Oral aminosalicylate + rectal aminosalicylate

      Explanation:

      For a patient experiencing a mild to moderate flare-up of ulcerative colitis that extends beyond the left-sided colon, it is recommended to supplement rectal aminosalicylates with oral aminosalicylates. This is because enemas have limited reach and may not effectively treat the disease outside of their range.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Which of the following tests would be most beneficial in diagnosing heart failure?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following tests would be most beneficial in diagnosing heart failure?

      Your Answer: B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cardiac Biomarkers: Importance of BNP in Heart Failure Diagnosis

      When it comes to diagnosing heart failure, healthcare professionals rely on various cardiac biomarkers to aid in their assessment. Among these biomarkers, B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is considered the primary investigation according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.

      Unlike other biomarkers such as C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), BNP is specific to heart failure and is not affected by inflammation. On the other hand, troponin T is useful in diagnosing acute coronary syndromes, while creatine phosphokinase is primarily used to detect muscle breakdown and rhabdomyolysis.

      It is important to note that certain factors such as obesity and medications like angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) can falsely lower BNP levels. Therefore, if BNP levels are elevated, patients should be referred for an echocardiogram to confirm the diagnosis of heart failure.

      In summary, understanding the role of cardiac biomarkers such as BNP in heart failure diagnosis is crucial in providing accurate and timely treatment for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old man experiences watery diarrhea during his trip to Egypt. What is...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man experiences watery diarrhea during his trip to Egypt. What is the most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Travellers’ diarrhoea is most commonly caused by E. coli.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.

      There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 58-year-old man undergoes routine screening tests as part of his NHS health...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man undergoes routine screening tests as part of his NHS health check. His results show an HbA1C level of 52 mmol/mol (<42), eGFR of >90 ml/min (>90), blood pressure of 130/84 mmHg, and a QRISK-3 score of 24.3%. After a repeat measurement, he is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) and decides to make lifestyle changes and take medication. However, he experiences significant gastrointestinal side effects with metformin, even after switching to a modified-release preparation.

      What would be the most appropriate class of drug to switch to?

      Your Answer: SGLT-2 inhibitor

      Explanation:

      A suitable medication would have been a DDP-4 inhibitor, glitazone, or sulfonylurea. The use of GLP-1 receptor agonists is not appropriate, as it is only recommended when triple therapy with metformin and two other oral drugs has failed.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old woman is discovered in cardiac arrest and her blood test shows:
    Sodium...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is discovered in cardiac arrest and her blood test shows:
      Sodium 130 mmol/l (135-145)
      Potassium 7.3mmol/l (3.5-5.0)
      Urea 9.1mmol/l (2.5-7.0)
      Creatinine 167 mmol/l (60-110)
      To begin with, she is administered IV calcium gluconate.
      What effect does this medication have on the electrolyte levels?

      Your Answer: Lowers potassium and raises sodium

      Correct Answer: No change

      Explanation:

      To stabilize the cardiac membrane in cases of hyperkalemia with ECG changes, IV calcium gluconate is administered. This is done to prevent further increase in potassium levels. The removal of potassium from the extracellular space to the intracellular space is achieved through a combination of insulin and dextrose or nebulized salbutamol. Calcium resonium is then used to excrete potassium from the body.

      Managing Hyperkalaemia

      Hyperkalaemia, if left untreated, can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. It is important to address any precipitating factors, such as acute kidney injury, and stop any aggravating drugs, such as ACE inhibitors. The management of hyperkalaemia can be categorised by the aims of treatment, which include stabilising the cardiac membrane, shifting potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments, and removing potassium from the body.

      The severity of hyperkalaemia can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, with the latter being defined as a serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L or higher. It is important to note that the presence of ECG changes is crucial in determining the appropriate management. ECG changes associated with hyperkalaemia include peaked or ‘tall-tented’ T waves, loss of P waves, broad QRS complexes, and a sinusoidal wave pattern.

      The principles of treatment modalities for hyperkalaemia involve stabilising the cardiac membrane with IV calcium gluconate, shifting potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments with a combined insulin/dextrose infusion or nebulised salbutamol, and removing potassium from the body with calcium resonium, loop diuretics, or dialysis. In practical treatment, all patients with severe hyperkalaemia or ECG changes should receive emergency treatment with IV calcium gluconate, insulin/dextrose infusion, and other temporary measures to lower serum potassium levels. Further management involves stopping exacerbating drugs, treating any underlying cause, and lowering total body potassium with calcium resonium, loop diuretics, or dialysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - As a foundation doctor in the emergency decisions unit, you assess a 28-year-old...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor in the emergency decisions unit, you assess a 28-year-old intravenous drug user who complains of pyrexia and malaise. Upon examination, the patient appears cachectic, pale, and is coughing. A soft murmur is detected, and mild erythematous macular lesions are observed on both palms. Although the patient is experiencing general aches, there is no specific tenderness reported. Can you identify the probable diagnosis and explain the significance of the lesions?

      Your Answer: Janeway lesions

      Explanation:

      Janeway lesions are painless, red, and bloody lesions that appear on the palms and soles. They are typically associated with infective endocarditis.

      Based on the patient’s history of intravenous drug use, fever, and heart murmur, it is likely that he has infective endocarditis. Both janeway lesions (caused by septic emboli) and osler nodes (caused by immune complex deposition) can be present in endocarditis. However, in this case, the lesions are more likely to be janeway lesions as they are not painful.

      Roth spots are retinal hemorrhages that can also be seen in endocarditis, but they would be detected during a fundoscopy exam.

      If the patient had meningitis, the rash would not be limited to the palms and would not disappear when pressed.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Streptococcus mitis and Streptococcus sanguinis are the two most notable viridans streptococci, commonly found in the mouth and dental plaque. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery.

      Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition. Non-infective causes of endocarditis include systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy. Culture negative causes may be due to prior antibiotic therapy or infections caused by Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, or HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      53.4
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which one of the following statements regarding endometrial cancer is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding endometrial cancer is false?

      Your Answer: Treatment of early disease is with total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

      Correct Answer: Has a poor prognosis

      Explanation:

      The prognosis for endometrial cancer is generally favorable.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old man attends for a truck driver medical assessment. His blood pressure...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man attends for a truck driver medical assessment. His blood pressure (BP) is noted to be 190/100 mmHg. He is a heavy drinker. He is feeling generally well in himself. You request blood tests:
      Result Normal
      Sodium (mmol/l) 138 135-145
      Potassium (mmol/l) 4.0 3.5-5.0
      Urea (mmol/l) 4.8 1.7-8.3
      Creatinine (µmol/l) 152 59-104
      You decide to perform a work-up to exclude a secondary cause for his hypertension. An ultrasound scan of the renal tract reveals a small atrophic left kidney.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Hypertension: Differential Diagnosis

      Hypertension in a young patient may indicate a secondary cause, such as renovascular disease. In this case, a small kidney on ultrasound and elevated creatinine levels suggest renal artery stenosis as a possible cause. Other potential diagnoses, such as Cushing’s syndrome, acromegaly, and phaeochromocytoma, are less likely based on the absence of corresponding symptoms and signs. Polycystic kidney disease, which can also cause hypertension, would typically present with bilateral renal enlargement rather than atrophy. A thorough differential diagnosis is important to identify the underlying cause of hypertension and guide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - An 80-year-old man visits a memory clinic accompanied by his daughter. He has...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man visits a memory clinic accompanied by his daughter. He has a medical history of hypertension and is a former smoker. The daughter reports that he had been stable for several months before experiencing sudden declines on multiple occasions. The physical examination is normal, and his MoCA score is 18 out of 30. He denies experiencing any visual or auditory hallucinations. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vascular dementia

      Explanation:

      The gradual decline in cognitive function, along with hypertension and smoking as risk factors for cerebrovascular disease, suggest a diagnosis of vascular dementia. This type of dementia is caused by damage to the brain from reduced blood flow or bleeding due to cerebrovascular disease. In contrast, Alzheimer’s dementia progresses slowly over time, while frontotemporal dementia affects personality, behavior, language, and attention. Lewy body dementia is characterized by hallucinations and Parkinsonian symptoms, while Parkinson’s dementia occurs in patients with Parkinson’s disease and affects their mental function and memory, along with physical signs of PD.

      Understanding Vascular Dementia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Vascular dementia is a type of cognitive impairment that is caused by different mechanisms resulting from cerebrovascular disease. It is the second most common form of dementia after Alzheimer’s disease. Vascular dementia is often recognized as the most severe form of the spectrum of deficits encompassed by the term vascular cognitive impairment. Early detection and an accurate diagnosis are crucial in preventing vascular dementia.

      The prevalence of vascular dementia is estimated to be around 17% of dementia cases in the UK. The incidence of vascular dementia increases with age and is often associated with a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack, atrial fibrillation, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, smoking, obesity, coronary heart disease, and a family history of stroke or cardiovascular disease. Rarely, vascular dementia can be inherited as in the case of cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leukoencephalopathy.

      Patients with vascular dementia typically present with a sudden or stepwise deterioration of cognitive function, focal neurological abnormalities, difficulty with attention and concentration, seizures, memory disturbance, gait disturbance, speech disturbance, and emotional disturbance. Diagnosis is made based on a comprehensive history and physical examination, formal screening for cognitive impairment, medical review to exclude medication cause of cognitive decline, and MRI scan.

      Treatment for vascular dementia is mainly symptomatic with the aim to address individual problems and provide support to the patient and carers. It is important to detect and address cardiovascular risk factors to slow down the progression of the disease. Non-pharmacological management is tailored to the individual and may include cognitive stimulation programs, multisensory stimulation, music and art therapy, and animal-assisted therapy. Pharmacological management is limited, and there is no specific pharmacological treatment approved for cognitive symptoms. Only consider AChE inhibitors or memantine for people with vascular dementia if they have suspected comorbid Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease dementia, or dementia with Lewy bodies. There is no evidence that aspirin is effective in treating patients with a diagnosis of vascular dementia, and no randomized trials have evaluated statins for vascular dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which skin condition is commonly linked to antiphospholipid syndrome in individuals? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which skin condition is commonly linked to antiphospholipid syndrome in individuals?

      Your Answer: Lupus vulgaris

      Correct Answer: Livedo reticularis

      Explanation:

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by arterial and venous thrombosis, miscarriage, and the presence of livedo reticularis skin rash. Meanwhile, tuberculosis is commonly associated with the skin condition lupus vulgaris.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of general malaise, lethargy...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of general malaise, lethargy and ankle swelling. She was commenced on omeprazole eight weeks ago to treat indigestion. Urea, electrolytes and eGFR demonstrate that her renal function has declined significantly. She is referred to the renal team and a diagnosis of acute interstitial nephritis (AIN) is suspected.
      What would be the next most useful investigation in order to confirm the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Full blood count

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Acute Interstitial Nephritis

      Acute interstitial nephritis (AIN) can present with non-specific symptoms of acute kidney dysfunction, such as nausea, vomiting, and malaise. A decline in kidney function is typical, and a raised creatinine on U+ESs may already be present. A drug history, along with a raised eosinophilia on full blood count (FBC), can aid in the diagnosis of AIN. Common causes of AIN include drugs like proton-pump inhibitors, non-steroidal anti-inflammatories, and antibiotics, as well as autoimmune disorders or other systemic diseases.

      Antinuclear antibody (ANA) testing should be performed to rule out systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which can coexist with AIN. However, a positive ANA test alone would not confirm a diagnosis of AIN.

      Urinary dipstick testing for protein is not useful in diagnosing AIN, as patients with AIN typically do not have protein in their urine. Nephrotic syndrome can occur as a rare complication of AIN.

      Renal biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis of AIN, as it is characterized by an inflammatory infiltrate in the kidney interstitium. However, if the patient’s condition is drug-induced, a renal biopsy may not be required if a raised creatinine and eosinophil count, along with the drug history, are sufficient for diagnosis.

      Chest X-ray (CXR) may be necessary to investigate other potential causes of AIN, such as sarcoidosis. If sarcoidosis is suspected and the CXR is inconclusive, a computed tomography chest may be performed. However, if the patient has been exposed to a drug that predisposes them to AIN, a diagnosis of drug-induced interstitial nephritis is more likely than an underlying systemic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which one of the following statements regarding the typical menstrual cycle is inaccurate?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the typical menstrual cycle is inaccurate?

      Your Answer: A surge of FSH causes ovulation

      Explanation:

      Ovulation is caused by the LH surge.

      Phases of the Menstrual Cycle

      The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium begins to proliferate. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol.

      During ovulation, the mature egg is released from the dominant follicle and triggers the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH). This phase occurs on day 14 of the menstrual cycle. Following ovulation, the luteal phase begins, during which the corpus luteum secretes progesterone. This hormone causes the endometrium to change into a secretory lining. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall.

      The cervical mucus also changes throughout the menstrual cycle. Following menstruation, the mucus is thick and forms a plug across the external os. Just prior to ovulation, the mucus becomes clear, acellular, and low viscosity. It also becomes ‘stretchy’ – a quality termed spinnbarkeit. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky.

      Basal body temperature is another indicator of the menstrual cycle. It falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the different phases of the menstrual cycle can help individuals track their fertility and plan for pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      42.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 48-year-old man is attending the hypertension clinic. He was diagnosed approximately three...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is attending the hypertension clinic. He was diagnosed approximately three months ago and commenced on ramipril. Despite titrating up to 10mg od, his blood pressure remains at 156/92 mmHg. What is the next best course of action in managing his hypertension?

      Your Answer: Add amlodipine OR bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Add amlodipine OR indapamide

      Explanation:

      To improve control of hypertension in patients who are already taking an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker, the 2019 NICE guidelines recommend adding either a calcium channel blocker (such as amlodipine) or a thiazide-like diuretic (such as indapamide). This is a change from previous guidelines, which only recommended adding a calcium channel blocker in this situation.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 23-year-old woman comes to her doctor after finishing her hepatitis B vaccination...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman comes to her doctor after finishing her hepatitis B vaccination series and wants to verify her immunity status. What is the best test to confirm her status?

      Your Answer: Antibody to hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg; anti-HBs)

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B Markers: Understanding Their Significance

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. There are several markers used to diagnose and monitor the disease, including antibody to hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs), hepatitis B envelope antigen (HBeAg), anti-hepatitis B envelope antibody (anti-HBe), hepatitis B virus (HBV) DNA, and immunoglobulin M (IgM) anti-hepatitis B core antigen (anti-HBc).

      Anti-HBs is produced after a resolved infection or effective vaccination and is the only HBV antibody marker present after vaccination. High-risk individuals should have their anti-HBs level checked after completing their primary course of vaccination.

      HBeAg is a marker of infectivity and can serve as a marker of active replication in chronic hepatitis. It is not present following vaccination. Anti-HBe is a predictor of long-term clearance of HBV in patients undergoing antiviral therapy and indicates lower levels of HBV and, therefore, lower infectivity. Both HBeAg and anti-HBe remain negative following vaccination.

      HBV DNA is used to quantify viral load in a patient with proven acute or chronic hepatitis B infection. A positive result suggests not only the likelihood of active hepatitis but also that the disease is much more infectious as the virus is actively replicating. HBV DNA remains negative following vaccination.

      The presence of IgM anti-HBc is diagnostic of an acute or recently acquired infection. It remains negative following vaccination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP for a routine check-up. He has a history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril 5mg, amlodipine 10mg, and indapamide 2.5mg. Despite good adherence to his medications, his blood pressure has been consistently elevated during his previous appointments. Upon conducting ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, his average blood pressure is found to be 152/78 mmHg. His recent blood test results are as follows:
      - Na+ 134 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 125 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What would be the most suitable course of action to manage his hypertension?

      Your Answer: Add fludrocortisone

      Correct Answer: Add doxazosin

      Explanation:

      If a patient has poorly controlled hypertension despite being on an ACE inhibitor, CCB, and thiazide diuretic, adding an alpha- or beta-blocker is recommended by NICE if their potassium levels are above 4.5mmol/l. It is important to assess the patient for postural hypotension and discuss adherence with them. Seeking specialist advice is also advised. Fludrocortisone is not appropriate for treating hypertension and may increase blood pressure. Spironolactone would be the next step if potassium levels were below 4.5mmol/l. Indapamide cannot be increased any further if the patient is already on the maximum dose. It is important to treat hypertension promptly, especially if it has been confirmed through ABPM on multiple occasions.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 43-year-old Nigerian woman comes to the clinic with complaints of heavy menstrual...

    Correct

    • A 43-year-old Nigerian woman comes to the clinic with complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding and pelvic discomfort for the past 3 months. During the physical examination, a solid, non-painful abdominal mass is detected, which originates from the pelvis. The pelvic ultrasound confirms the presence of a sizable uterine fibroid. The medical team decides to perform a hysterectomy. What medication should be administered to prepare her for the surgery?

      Your Answer: GnRH agonist e.g. Leuprolide

      Explanation:

      GnRH agonists can be effective in reducing the size of uterine fibroids, but their use is typically limited to short-term treatment. It is important to note that these agonists are primarily used to decrease the size of the uterus prior to surgery, as the risk of post-operative blood loss is directly related to the size of the uterus. Progesterone receptor inhibitors, on the other hand, do not have an impact on overall uterine size and are therefore not useful in preparing for surgery. However, they can be helpful in reducing the severity of fibroid-related bleeding. It is also important to avoid taking COCP 4-6 weeks prior to major surgery due to an increased risk of venous thromboembolism, and to avoid antiplatelet drugs such as Ibuprofen before surgery. While antifibrinolytics like tranexamic acid can be useful in reducing the severity of uterine bleeding, they are not helpful in preparing for surgery.

      Understanding Uterine Fibroids

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.

      Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.

      Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.

      Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old man presents to his GP for a hypertension review. His home...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to his GP for a hypertension review. His home readings indicate an average blood pressure of 162/96 mmHg. He reports feeling generally well, and physical examination is unremarkable. Previous investigations have not revealed an underlying cause for his hypertension. Recent blood tests show normal electrolyte levels and kidney function. He is currently on ramipril, amlodipine, and bendroflumethiazide. What would be the most appropriate medication to add for the management of this patient's hypertension?

      Your Answer: Indapamide

      Correct Answer: Alpha-blocker or beta-blocker

      Explanation:

      If a patient has poorly controlled hypertension and is already taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic, and their potassium level is above 4.5mmol/l, the best option is to add an alpha- or beta-blocker. According to NICE guidelines, this patient has resistant hypertension, which is stage 4 of the NICE flowchart for hypertension management. Spironolactone can also be introduced at this stage, but only if the patient’s serum potassium is less than 4.5mmol/l, as spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Indapamide is not suitable for someone who is already taking a thiazide diuretic like bendroflumethiazide. Furosemide is typically used for hypertension management in patients with heart failure or kidney disease, which is not present in this case. Hydralazine is primarily used for emergency hypertension management or hypertension during pregnancy, not for long-term management.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of central chest pain that...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of central chest pain that started 8 hours ago. The pain is spreading to his left jaw. He has a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia.

      Upon conducting an ECG, it shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Troponin levels are significantly elevated. The patient is given 300mg of aspirin and sublingual glyceryl trinitrate.

      Unfortunately, the nearest hospital that can provide primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is 4 hours away. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Administer fibrinolysis

      Explanation:

      For the management of STEMI, guidelines recommend primary PCI within 120 minutes of presentation or within 12 hours of symptom onset. As this patient presented with 10 hours of pain and transfer to the nearest hospital for PCI would take 3 hours, fibrinolysis should be offered instead. Giving unfractionated heparin and a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor is inappropriate in this case. The patient should not be immediately transferred for PCI, but if the ST elevation is not resolved on a repeat ECG taken 90 minutes after fibrinolysis, then transfer for PCI should be considered. Rechecking troponin in 120 minutes is not necessary, and repeating an ECG in 120 minutes is not the next most important step. Administering fibrinolysis and taking a repeat ECG at the 90-minute mark are the appropriate next steps.

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 16-year-old boy with Marfan syndrome is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old boy with Marfan syndrome is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He has been researching possible complications of his condition online and is worried about potential cardiac issues.
      Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most probable in this patient?

      Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities Associated with Marfan Syndrome

      Marfan syndrome is commonly associated with cardiac abnormalities, with aortic root dilatation being the most prevalent, found in approximately 80% of cases. This can lead to aortic regurgitation and even dissection. While there is some evidence of a slight increase in atrial septal defects in Marfan syndrome patients, it is not as common as aortic regurgitation or mitral valve prolapse. Dilated cardiomyopathy can also present in Marfan syndrome patients, although it is not as prevalent as aortic root dilatation or regurgitation. Pulmonary regurgitation is also increased in incidence in Marfan syndrome, but it is still less common than aortic regurgitation. Finally, while persistent ductus arteriosus is more commonly found in Marfan syndrome patients than in the general population, the association is relatively weak. Overall, Marfan syndrome patients should be monitored closely for these cardiac abnormalities to ensure proper management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which one of the following statements regarding migraines is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding migraines is accurate?

      Your Answer: Prokinetic agents should be used in children with migraine due to the high incidence of gastrointestinal symptoms

      Correct Answer: Typical aura include a spreading scintillating scotoma ('jagged crescent')

      Explanation:

      Caution should be exercised when administering prokinetic agents like metoclopramide to children.

      Diagnostic Criteria for Migraine

      Migraine is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours and having at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness may prompt further investigation or referral.

      In summary, the diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura include specific characteristics of the headache and associated symptoms, while migraine with aura is characterized by typical aura symptoms that may occur prior to the headache. It is important to accurately diagnose migraine to provide appropriate treatment and management for those who suffer from this debilitating condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      51
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 48-year-old male presents to the hospital with a productive cough and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male presents to the hospital with a productive cough and a temperature of 38.2 C. He has been feeling ill for the past 10 days with flu-like symptoms. Upon examination, his blood pressure is 96/60 mmHg and his heart rate is 102/min. A chest x-ray reveals bilateral lower zone consolidation. What is the probable pathogen responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Prior infection with influenza increases the likelihood of developing pneumonia caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

      Causes of Pneumonia

      Pneumonia is a respiratory infection that can be caused by various infectious agents. Community acquired pneumonia (CAP) is the most common type of pneumonia and is caused by different microorganisms. The most common cause of CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which accounts for around 80% of cases. Other infectious agents that can cause CAP include Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, atypical pneumonias caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, and viruses.

      Klebsiella pneumoniae is another microorganism that can cause pneumonia, but it is typically found in alcoholics. Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as pneumococcus, is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is characterized by a rapid onset, high fever, pleuritic chest pain, and herpes labialis (cold sores).

      In summary, pneumonia can be caused by various infectious agents, with Streptococcus pneumoniae being the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia. It is important to identify the causative agent to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - What is the pathophysiological mechanism of hyperacute allograft rejection, which is one of...

    Correct

    • What is the pathophysiological mechanism of hyperacute allograft rejection, which is one of the significant risks associated with transplantation and can potentially endanger the patient's life?

      Your Answer: Class I HLA antibody activation, granulocyte adhesion and thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions about the Pathophysiology of Allograft Rejection

      There are several misconceptions about the pathophysiology of allograft rejection. One of them is that hyper-acute allograft rejection is solely caused by class I HLA antibody activation, granulocyte adhesion, and thrombosis. While these factors do play a role, the ultimate result of hyper-acute rejection is thrombosis of the vessels and graft ischaemia, which presents itself as graft swelling once perfusion is reinstated.

      Another misconception is that donor MHC I antigens react with host CD8 resulting in direct cytotoxic damage, which is a sequence in the pathophysiology of acute rejection response, not hyper-acute rejection.

      Class II HLA antibodies are often thought to be the primary source of activation of the coagulation cascade, but this is not the case. Monocytes are also not activated in this process.

      Interstitial fibrosis is often thought to be a mechanism of acute rejection, but it is actually the end-stage mechanism of chronic graft rejection.

      Lastly, lymphocyte, killer T-cell, and cytokine activation are often thought to be part of the mechanism of hyper-acute allograft rejection, but they are actually part of the mechanism of action in acute allograft rejection.

      It is important to have a clear understanding of the pathophysiology of allograft rejection to properly diagnose and treat patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 92-year-old man is brought to the hospital from a nursing home with...

    Incorrect

    • A 92-year-old man is brought to the hospital from a nursing home with advanced pneumonia. Despite medical intervention, his condition worsens and he passes away within 48 hours of admission. His past medical history includes a hip replacement surgery 4 years ago and advanced dementia for which he is currently under guardianship.

      What are the appropriate steps to take following his death?

      Your Answer: Refer the death to the coroner as she had a recent surgery prior to her death

      Correct Answer: Refer the death to the coroner as she was detained under the mental health act at time of death

      Explanation:

      If a person dies while under the mental health act, regardless of the cause of death, it is mandatory to report their death to the coroner. In this case, as the individual was detained under the mental health act at the time of their death, it is the responsibility of the doctors in the hospital where they passed away to issue the MCCD after discussing with the coroner. It would be inappropriate to ask the GP who performed their surgery over a year ago to issue the MCCD as they may not have seen the individual within 14 days prior to their death. Additionally, the doctors at the psychiatric hospital may have seen the individual within the 14 days prior, but it is still the responsibility of the hospital doctors who were caring for them at the time of their death to issue the MCCD.

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 14-year-old girl is referred to haematology due to heavy and prolonged periods...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl is referred to haematology due to heavy and prolonged periods that have not responded well to tranexamic acid and the combined oral contraceptive pill. Her blood tests reveal Hb of 10.3 g/dl, Plt of 239 * 109/l, WBC of 6.5 * 109/l, PT of 12.9 secs, and APTT of 37 secs. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Von Willebrand's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease

      Von Willebrand’s disease is a common inherited bleeding disorder that is usually passed down in an autosomal dominant manner. It behaves like a platelet disorder, with symptoms such as nosebleeds and heavy menstrual bleeding being common, while joint and muscle bleeding are rare. The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and acts as a carrier molecule for factor VIII.

      There are three types of Von Willebrand’s disease. Type 1 is the most common and is characterized by a partial reduction in von Willebrand factor. Type 2 is further divided into four subtypes, each with a different abnormality in the von Willebrand factor. Type 3 is the most severe form and is caused by a total lack of von Willebrand factor, inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.

      Diagnosis of Von Willebrand’s disease involves tests such as a prolonged bleeding time, APTT, factor VIII levels, and platelet aggregation with ristocetin. Management options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of von Willebrand factor, and factor VIII concentrate. While there is no clear correlation between symptomatic presentation and type of Von Willebrand’s disease, common themes among patients include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising in the absence of trauma, and menorrhagia in females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with worsening epigastric pain and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with worsening epigastric pain and water brash for the past few weeks. He has been taking ibandronic acid tablets for osteoporosis. There is no history of food sticking or significant weight loss.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophagitis

      Explanation:

      Common Gastrointestinal Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Gastrointestinal conditions can present with a variety of symptoms, making diagnosis challenging. Here are some common conditions and their associated symptoms:

      Oesophagitis: Inflammation of the oesophagus can cause asymptomatic, epigastric or substernal burning pain, dysphagia, and increased discomfort when lying down or straining. It is often caused by gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, alcohol, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, bisphosphonates, smoking, or Candida albicans infection. Treatment involves eliminating precipitating causes and using proton-pump inhibitors.

      Oesophageal carcinoma: This type of cancer typically presents with worsening dysphagia, weight loss, heartburn, and changes in voice due to compression of the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

      Gastric carcinoma: Symptoms of gastric cancer are often non-specific and include weight loss, anorexia, and fatigue. Heartburn and indigestion are rare.

      Duodenal ulcer: Pain associated with duodenal ulcers is typically improved with eating and severe enough to impact nutritional intake, leading to weight loss. Patients at high risk of gastric ulceration due to medication use may be prescribed a proton-pump inhibitor.

      Pancreatic carcinoma: This type of cancer often presents very late with painless jaundice and weight loss, which are not seen in the presented case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - Membranous nephropathy is associated with which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Membranous nephropathy is associated with which of the following?

      Your Answer: A frequent occurence of idiopathic nephrotic syndrome in children

      Correct Answer: Adenocarcinoma of the stomach

      Explanation:

      Understanding Membranous Nephropathy: Causes, Symptoms, and Prognosis

      Membranous nephropathy is a kidney disease that affects the glomeruli, the tiny blood vessels in the kidneys that filter waste from the blood. The disease is characterized by the thickening of the glomerular basement membrane, which can lead to proteinuria, or the presence of excess protein in the urine. Here are some key points to understand about membranous nephropathy:

      Causes: The majority of cases of membranous nephropathy are idiopathic, meaning that the cause is unknown. However, secondary forms of the disease can be caused by underlying conditions such as solid organ malignancy, autoimmune diseases, infectious diseases, and certain medications.

      Symptoms: Membranous nephropathy can present with symptoms such as edema (swelling), hypertension (high blood pressure), and proteinuria. Elevated levels of anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) may also be present.

      Proteinuria: Glomerular proteinuria can be classified as selective or non-selective. Selective proteinuria is characteristic of childhood minimal change disease, while membranous nephropathy typically presents with non-selective proteinuria.

      Prognosis: The course of membranous nephropathy can vary, with some patients experiencing spontaneous remission and others progressing to end-stage renal disease (ESRD). Successful treatment of the underlying cause may be curative in secondary forms of the disease, while immunosuppressive therapy may be appropriate for selected patients with idiopathic membranous nephropathy.

      In conclusion, membranous nephropathy is a complex kidney disease that requires careful diagnosis and management. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and prognosis of the disease, patients and healthcare providers can work together to develop an effective treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 32-year-old male patient visits the sexual health clinic complaining of a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male patient visits the sexual health clinic complaining of a recent genital lesion. The patient reports experiencing severe pain and first noticed the lesion one week ago. He admits to engaging in unprotected sexual activity with multiple partners within the past three months. Upon examination, a deep ulcer with a ragged border is observed on the penis shaft, accompanied by tenderness and inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lymphogranuloma venereum

      Correct Answer: Chancroid

      Explanation:

      The man’s ulcer appears to be caused by chancroid, which is known for causing deep and painful genital ulcers accompanied by inguinal lymphadenopathy. Gonorrhoea is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents with penile discharge and no ulceration. Herpes simplex can also cause painful genital ulcers, but they are usually multiple and superficial, and inguinal lymphadenopathy is not as common as with chancroid. Lymphogranuloma venereum causes painless ulceration that heals quickly, while primary syphilis causes a painless ulcer called a chancre.

      Understanding Chancroid: A Painful Tropical Disease

      Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful genital ulcers that are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area. The ulcers themselves are typically easy to identify, as they have a distinct border that is ragged and undermined.

      Chancroid is a disease that can be quite painful and uncomfortable for those who are affected by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department after slipping on ice and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department after slipping on ice and falling backwards, hitting his head on the kerb and landing on his right arm. He did not lose consciousness and is currently feeling fine. The patient has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and is taking bisoprolol and warfarin. His INR was 2.2 four days ago. There are no visible injuries to his arm or scalp. What is the best course of action for his head injury?

      Your Answer: Admit for 8 hours of observation

      Correct Answer: Arrange a CT head scan to be performed within 8 hours

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults

      Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.

      For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 68-year-old woman is brought to her General Practitioner by her daughter who...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman is brought to her General Practitioner by her daughter who is concerned that she has been experiencing a few falls recently. She reveals that she has been getting confused and forgetful for the past two weeks. She has been complaining of dizziness and has vomited on a couple of occasions in the same time period. Her past medical history includes type 2 diabetes, hypertension and osteoporosis.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chronic subdural haematoma (SDH)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between types of intracranial hemorrhage

      Intracranial hemorrhage can have various causes and presentations. Here are some key points to differentiate between different types of intracranial hemorrhage:

      Chronic subdural hematoma (SDH): This type of hemorrhage can be spontaneous or caused by head trauma. Symptoms tend to develop gradually and may fluctuate. They include headache, vomiting, personality changes, memory disturbances, and loss of consciousness. Patients with a history of AF and recurrent falls are at high risk of developing a chronic SDH.

      Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH): This type of hemorrhage occurs when blood accumulates in the space between the arachnoid and pia mater. The most common cause is rupture of a Berry aneurysm in the Circle of Willis. The classical presentation of SAH is a sudden-onset, severe ‘thunderclap’ headache often accompanied by vomiting and meningism. The presentation is usually acute.

      Acute subdural hematoma (SDH): This type of hemorrhage occurs due to tearing of cortical bridging veins leading to bleeding into the subdural space. An acute SDH usually follows a significant head injury. Loss of consciousness may occur immediately or a few hours after the injury.

      Extradural hemorrhage: This type of hemorrhage is caused by the rupture of one of the meningeal arteries that run between the dura and the skull. It usually occurs following a significant head injury often in younger patients. There is classically a lucid interval following the injury, followed several hours later by rapid deterioration resulting in loss of consciousness.

      Ischemic cerebrovascular accident (CVA): This type of event occurs due to a lack of blood flow to the brain. Patients with risk factors such as AF and hypertension are at higher risk. Classical CVA symptoms include sudden-onset unilateral weakness, speech difficulties, or visual loss which do not resolve within 24 hours. However, the patient’s symptoms in this case are not typical for a CVA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      59.9
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 20-year-old woman is enjoying a shrimp stir-fry at a restaurant when she...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman is enjoying a shrimp stir-fry at a restaurant when she suddenly experiences tongue swelling and tightness in her chest. Her partner notices her wheezing and calls for an ambulance. The woman is admitted to the hospital and undergoes necessary tests. She receives treatment for anaphylaxis, and her symptoms improve. After being monitored overnight on the ward, what crucial factor must be taken into account when determining if it is safe to discharge her the following morning?

      Your Answer: The patient's remaining symptoms and his response to adrenaline

      Explanation:

      When discharging patients who have experienced anaphylaxis, a risk-stratified approach should be taken. The patient’s response to adrenaline and their symptoms are important factors to consider. The UK Resuscitation Council guidelines suggest that patients may be considered for fast-track discharge if they have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline within 30 minutes of the reaction, their symptoms have completely resolved, they have been trained on how to use adrenaline auto-injectors, and there is adequate supervision following discharge. While the patient’s peak expiratory flow rate and serum tryptase levels should be measured, they are not specifically advised for risk-stratifying patients for discharge post-anaphylaxis according to the UKRC guidelines. Spirometry is also not specifically recommended for this purpose. However, patients with severe asthma or those who experienced severe respiratory compromise during the anaphylactic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours after symptom resolution.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.

      The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.

      Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      53.2
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - An 18-year-old woman who is sexually active presents to her General Practitioner (GP)...

    Correct

    • An 18-year-old woman who is sexually active presents to her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of dysuria and abdominal pain. A urine dipstick test is positive for leukocytes and a pregnancy test is negative. The GP prescribes a course of trimethoprim, but the patient returns one week later with persistent symptoms. Despite negative results from a high vaginal swab and urine culture taken during the first visit, what is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of a Female Patient with Dysuria and Abdominal Pain

      A female patient presents with dysuria and abdominal pain, but a negative urine culture and lack of response to trimethoprim suggest an alternative diagnosis to urinary tract infection. Here are some possible differential diagnoses:

      Chlamydia trachomatis: This sexually transmitted micro-organism can cause cervicitis, salpingitis, endometritis, and urethritis. Many carriers are asymptomatic, but nucleic acid amplification can diagnose the infection from a urine sample, endocervical or vulvovaginal swab.

      Trichomonas vaginalis: This protozoan causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection that commonly presents with abnormal vaginal discharge, odour, itching, burning, soreness, and dyspareunia. Abdominal pain and dysuria are not typical symptoms.

      Escherichia coli: This bacterium is the most common cause of uncomplicated UTIs, but negative urine cultures and trimethoprim resistance suggest an alternative diagnosis.

      Candida albicans: This fungus can cause vulvovaginal thrush, which may present with dysuria and vulval pruritus, but not abdominal pain. A high vaginal swab can diagnose the infection.

      Bacterial vaginosis: This overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina affects vaginal pH and causes a fishy smelling discharge, but not abdominal pain or dysuria. A high vaginal swab can diagnose the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 54-year-old man is seen in the Cardiology clinic after experiencing a heart...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man is seen in the Cardiology clinic after experiencing a heart attack a year ago. He was diagnosed with hypertension and diabetes during his hospitalization. The patient reports gaining 5kg in the last 6 months and wonders if any of his medications could be causing this weight gain. Which of his prescribed drugs may be contributing to his recent weight gain?

      Your Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Weight gain is a common side effect of sulfonylureas.

      Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but they are only effective if the pancreas is functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, which helps to increase insulin secretion. However, there are some potential side effects associated with these drugs.

      One of the most common side effects of sulfonylureas is hypoglycaemia, which can be more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Weight gain is another possible side effect. In rare cases, sulfonylureas can cause hyponatraemia, which is a condition where the body retains too much water and sodium levels become too low. Other rare side effects include bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy. It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - What is the most commonly associated condition with primary sclerosing cholangitis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most commonly associated condition with primary sclerosing cholangitis?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a condition that affects the bile ducts, causing inflammation and fibrosis. The cause of this disease is unknown, but it is often associated with ulcerative colitis, with 4% of UC patients having PSC and 80% of PSC patients having UC. Crohn’s disease and HIV are also less common associations. Symptoms of PSC include cholestasis, jaundice, pruritus, right upper quadrant pain, and fatigue. Diagnosis is typically made through endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) or magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP), which show multiple biliary strictures giving a ‘beaded’ appearance. A liver biopsy may also be performed, but it has a limited role in diagnosis. Complications of PSC include cholangiocarcinoma in 10% of cases and an increased risk of colorectal cancer.

      Overall, understanding primary sclerosing cholangitis is important for early diagnosis and management of the disease. With proper treatment and monitoring, patients can manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 62-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with a worsening headache for...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with a worsening headache for one day. She noticed that the pain significantly worsened when she was brushing her hair. She also complains of pain in her jaw while talking.
      Which of the following investigations is the gold standard test to confirm the suspected diagnosis of giant-cell arteritis (GCA) in this patient?

      Your Answer: Temporal artery biopsy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Giant-Cell Arteritis

      Giant-cell arteritis (GCA) is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible vision loss. The gold-standard test for GCA is temporal artery biopsy, which should be performed as soon as the disease is suspected. However, treatment with corticosteroids should not be delayed until the biopsy results are available. Investigating antinuclear antibodies (ANA) is not useful, as they are usually negative in GCA. A CT scan of the brain is not typically performed for suspected GCA, but a CT angiography may be used to evaluate other large arteries. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) are commonly elevated in GCA and are part of the initial evaluation. A full blood count with peripheral smear may show normocytic normochromic anemia with or without thrombocytosis. Early recognition and appropriate management of GCA are crucial to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 65-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of breathlessness and a...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of breathlessness and a dry cough that has persisted for three weeks. She is a non-smoker and consumes 10 units of alcohol per week. The patient has a target rash on both of her lower limbs, and her chest x-ray reveals reticulonodular shadowing on the left lung. The medical team diagnoses her with bacterial pneumonia. What is the probable causative agent responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Based on the dry cough, symmetrical target-shaped rash with a central blister (erythema multiforme), and radiological findings, it is likely that the woman has Mycoplasma. While pneumococcal pneumonia is the most common type of pneumonia in the community, it would typically present with lobar consolidation on an x-ray and a productive cough, rather than a dry one. Klebsiella pneumonia is more common in alcoholics, but the woman’s drinking habits, while exceeding the recommended limit for women (14 units per week), are not severe enough to increase her risk of Klebsiella. Additionally, Klebsiella pneumonia typically causes a cavitating pneumonia in the upper lobes.

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae: A Cause of Atypical Pneumonia

      Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that causes atypical pneumonia, which is more common in younger patients. This disease is associated with various complications such as erythema multiforme and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Epidemics of Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically occur every four years. It is important to recognize atypical pneumonia because it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to the bacteria lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.

      The disease usually has a gradual onset and is preceded by flu-like symptoms, followed by a dry cough. X-rays may show bilateral consolidation. Complications may include cold agglutinins, erythema multiforme, erythema nodosum, meningoencephalitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, bullous myringitis, pericarditis/myocarditis, and gastrointestinal and renal problems.

      Diagnosis is generally made through Mycoplasma serology and a positive cold agglutination test. Management involves the use of doxycycline or a macrolide such as erythromycin or clarithromycin.

      In comparison to Legionella pneumonia, which is caused by a different type of bacteria, Mycoplasma pneumoniae has a more gradual onset and is associated with different complications. It is important to differentiate between the two types of pneumonia to ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 25-year-old woman presents with complaints of intermittent diarrhoea and constipation. She experiences...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with complaints of intermittent diarrhoea and constipation. She experiences bloating that is relieved by defecation and finds relief with hyoscine butylbromide (Buscopan). She denies any weight loss and has no relevant family history. Coeliac disease screening was negative and both full blood count and CRP were normal. Despite being diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome and given dietary advice and antispasmodics, she disagrees with the diagnosis and requests further investigations. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Reassure that further tests are not required at this stage

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to use faecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening in symptomatic patients who are under the age of 60. This woman is displaying symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome and has normal blood results, without any red flag symptoms. Repeating the full blood count is unlikely to provide any additional information. The use of steroids and azathioprine is not appropriate for treating irritable bowel syndrome, as they are typically used for ulcerative colitis, which is not likely in this case.

      Colorectal Cancer Screening: Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)

      Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this type of cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS offers a home-based screening programme called Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) to older adults. A one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England for people aged 55 years, but it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. The trial, partly funded by Cancer Research UK, showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used as part of a future bowel screening programme.

      Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
      The NHS now has a national screening programme that offers screening every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests because it only detects human haemoglobin, as opposed to animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. While a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy. At colonoscopy, approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 32-year-old woman has come in for her 6-week baby check with no...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has come in for her 6-week baby check with no postnatal issues. She is currently breastfeeding and has a history of frequent migraines. She is seeking treatment for a migraine today. Which of the following medications should be avoided?

      Your Answer: Sumatriptan

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding mothers should avoid taking aspirin as it may increase the risk of Reye’s syndrome. High doses of aspirin can also affect platelet function and cause hypoprothrombinaemia in infants with low vitamin K stores. However, paracetamol is safe to use for pain relief during breastfeeding. Anti-emetics such as cyclizine and prochlorperazine are also safe to use while breastfeeding and are unlikely to cause any harm.

      Breastfeeding has some contraindications that are important to know, especially when it comes to drugs. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, and trimethoprim are safe for breastfeeding mothers, as are endocrine drugs like glucocorticoids (in low doses) and levothyroxine. Epilepsy drugs like sodium valproate and carbamazepine, asthma drugs like salbutamol and theophyllines, and hypertension drugs like beta-blockers and hydralazine are also safe. Anticoagulants like warfarin and heparin, as well as digoxin, are also safe. However, some drugs should be avoided, such as antibiotics like ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, and sulphonamides, psychiatric drugs like lithium and benzodiazepines, aspirin, carbimazole, methotrexate, sulfonylureas, cytotoxic drugs, and amiodarone. Other contraindications include galactosaemia and viral infections, although the latter is controversial in the developing world due to the increased risk of infant mortality and morbidity associated with bottle feeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - An 80-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a routine check-up. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a routine check-up. Upon examination, an irregularly irregular heart rate is detected and confirmed to be atrial fibrillation on an ECG. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. The physician is worried about preventing stroke. What medication would be the most appropriate for this concern?

      Your Answer: Enoxaparin

      Correct Answer: Rivaroxaban

      Explanation:

      For reducing the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation (AF), the first-line anticoagulation should be a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as rivaroxaban. This recommendation is based on a scenario where a patient is found to have AF during a wellbeing check and requires anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Aspirin is not the correct choice as it is an antiplatelet and not an anticoagulant. While dalteparin and enoxaparin are low molecular weight heparins that are often used for VTE prophylaxis, DOACs are preferred first-line for stroke risk reduction in AF. Patients often prefer DOACs as they are available in tablet form.

      NICE recommends using the CHA2DS2-VASc score to determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with any history of AF. The ORBIT scoring system should be used to assess bleeding risk, but anticoagulation should not be withheld solely on the grounds of age or risk of falls. DOACs are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF, with warfarin used second-line if a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A mother visits the GP clinic seeking information on the hearing tests conducted...

    Correct

    • A mother visits the GP clinic seeking information on the hearing tests conducted during school entry. She is anxious about the hearing screening tests as her sister had a language delay caused by hearing impairment that went unnoticed. Her daughter is 4 years old and is about to start preschool. What kind of hearing screening test will be provided to her?

      Your Answer: Pure tone audiometry

      Explanation:

      In the majority of regions in the UK, pure tone audiometry is conducted when children start school. Newborns and infants undergo an Auditory Brainstem Response test if the otoacoustic emission test yields abnormal results. The newborn hearing screening programme includes an otoacoustic emission test. Health visitors perform a distraction test on infants between 6-9 months old. A speech discrimination test is administered after children reach 2.5 years of age.

      Hearing Tests for Children

      Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.

      For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.

      In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 56-year-old woman with COPD has been recommended an inhaled corticosteroid. What is...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman with COPD has been recommended an inhaled corticosteroid. What is the primary advantage of using inhaled corticosteroids for treating COPD patients?

      Your Answer: Reduced frequency of exacerbations

      Explanation:

      Inhaled corticosteroids are used to decrease the frequency of exacerbations in patients with COPD.

      NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 25-year-old man is brought into the emergency department resus, after being involved...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man is brought into the emergency department resus, after being involved in a road traffic collision, where he, a motorbike rider, collided with a car. As one of the doctors receiving the patient into resus, you are tasked with calculating the current Glasgow coma score (GCS) of the patient. The patient's eyes are open, but he seems disoriented and asks you if he's on a spaceship.

      Your Answer: 13

      Explanation:

      The patient’s GCS score is 13, with a breakdown of 4 out of 4 for eye opening, 4 out of 5 for verbal response (due to confusion), and 5 out of 6 for motor response (exhibiting localisation to pain). A helpful mnemonic to remember this breakdown is 654…MoVE.

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.

      The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.

      The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.

      The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.

      The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.

      Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      119.7
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - You are urgently called to the ward where you encounter a 54-year-old woman...

    Correct

    • You are urgently called to the ward where you encounter a 54-year-old woman in ventricular tachycardia. The patient had a syncopal episode while walking to the restroom with nursing staff and currently has a blood pressure (BP) of 85/56 mmHg. Although she is oriented to time, place, and person, she is experiencing dizziness. What is the most suitable approach to managing this patient's ventricular tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ventricular Tachycardia

      Ventricular tachycardia is a serious cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt treatment. The Resuscitation Council tachycardia guideline recommends immediate synchronised electrical cardioversion for unstable patients with ventricular tachycardia who exhibit adverse features such as shock, myocardial ischaemia, syncope, or heart failure. Synchronised cardioversion is preferred over unsynchronised cardioversion as it reduces the risk of causing ventricular fibrillation or cardiac arrest.

      In the event that synchronised cardioversion fails to restore sinus rhythm after three attempts, a loading dose of amiodarone 300 mg IV should be given over 10-20 minutes, followed by another attempt of cardioversion. However, in an uncompromised patient with tachycardia and no adverse features, the first-line treatment involves amiodarone 300 mg as a loading dose IV, followed by an infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours.

      It is important to note that digoxin and metoprolol are not appropriate treatments for ventricular tachycardia. Digoxin is used in the treatment of atrial fibrillation, while metoprolol is a β blocker that should be avoided in patients with significant hypotension, as it can further compromise the patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 35-year-old woman comes back from a trip. During her final day overseas,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes back from a trip. During her final day overseas, she had lunch from an unlicensed street food vendor. After eight days of returning home, she encounters bloating, abdominal discomfort, and non-bloody diarrhea, and she observes that her stools are floating in the toilet bowl. The patient's symptoms persist for nine weeks. What is the probable pathogen responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Giardia

      Explanation:

      Chronic Giardia infection can lead to malabsorption.

      Giardia is a type of protozoan that can be transmitted through the ingestion of contaminated fecal matter. While giardiasis typically resolves within a few weeks, if the infection persists for more than six weeks, it is considered chronic. Chronic Giardia infection can cause malabsorption of various nutrients, including vitamin A, B12, iron, zinc, and lipids. This malabsorption can result in steatorrhea, which is characterized by greasy, foul-smelling stools that float in the toilet bowl.

      It is important to note that other pathogens, such as Entamoeba histolytica, Escherichia coli, and Salmonella, do not commonly cause malabsorption. While they may cause diarrhea and other gastrointestinal symptoms, they do not typically result in the malabsorption of nutrients.

      Understanding Giardiasis

      Giardiasis is a condition caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some individuals may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In severe cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may occur. Diagnosis can be made through stool microscopy, stool antigen detection assay, or PCR assays. Treatment typically involves the use of metronidazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a diagnosis of primary...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis (PBC). She initially complained of abdominal pain and itching, but is now asymptomatic except for significant fatigue. What medication should be prescribed for this patient? Choose the most likely option.

      Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Primary Biliary Cholangitis

      Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is a liver disease that can lead to cirrhosis if left untreated. Ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA) is the main treatment for PBC, as it can prevent or delay the development of cirrhosis. UDCA increases bile flow, inhibits toxic bile acid production, prevents hepatocyte apoptosis, and reduces the liver’s immune response. However, UDCA may cause side effects such as diarrhea, nausea, and thinning hair.

      Spironolactone is a diuretic that can be useful for end-stage liver disease with ascites, but it is not indicated for treating fatigue in PBC patients. Aspirin and ibuprofen should be avoided by PBC patients, as they can worsen liver disease. Cholestyramine is used for cholestatic itching, but it should not be taken with UDCA as it can prevent UDCA absorption.

      In summary, UDCA is the primary treatment for PBC, and other medications should be used with caution and only for specific symptoms or complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - An 85-year-old woman and her daughter visit your clinic to inquire about the...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old woman and her daughter visit your clinic to inquire about the need for bone protection medication. The patient has a medical history of a fractured neck of femur 12 months ago, chronic kidney disease stage IV, hypertension, and ischaemic heart disease. She was prescribed alendronic acid after her fracture, but it was discontinued six months ago due to reflux issues. Risedronate was also not tolerated due to the same reason. Her DEXA scan after the fracture revealed a T score of -4.2. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for consideration of denosumab

      Explanation:

      The situation is complex as the patient requires bone protection due to her low T score and previous hip fracture. However, bisphosphonates are not suitable for her as they are contraindicated in patients with an eGFR below 35 mL/minute/1.73m(2), which she has due to her stage IV chronic kidney disease. Therefore, reintroducing alendronate or using IV zoledronate infusion is not an option. Repeating her DEXA scan at this point would not provide any additional information. While calcium and vitamin D supplementation should continue, they are not sufficient for her bone protection needs. The best option is denosumab, which would require administration in a secondary care setting and close monitoring of her calcium levels due to her renal disease.

      The NICE guidelines for managing osteoporosis in postmenopausal women include offering vitamin D and calcium supplementation, with alendronate being the first-line treatment. If a patient cannot tolerate alendronate, risedronate or etidronate may be given as second-line drugs, with strontium ranelate or raloxifene as options if those cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, with alendronate and risedronate being superior to etidronate in preventing hip fractures. Other treatments include selective estrogen receptor modulators, strontium ranelate, denosumab, teriparatide, and hormone replacement therapy. Hip protectors and falls risk assessment may also be considered in management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A newborn who was born prematurely at 34 weeks gestation is now under...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn who was born prematurely at 34 weeks gestation is now under the care of the Practice. The baby did not experience any significant complications, such as respiratory issues, after birth. How should routine childhood vaccinations be administered?

      Your Answer: Start immunisations at 3 months old

      Correct Answer: Give according to chronological age

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that premature babies receive their routine vaccinations based on their chronological age, without any adjustment for their gestational age. However, if a baby was born before 28 weeks of gestation, it is advisable to administer their initial immunizations while they are still in the hospital to minimize the risk of apnea.

      Immunisation is the process of administering vaccines to protect individuals from infectious diseases. The Department of Health has provided guidance on the safe administration of vaccines in its publication ‘Immunisation against infectious disease’ in 2006. The guidance outlines general contraindications to immunisation, such as confirmed anaphylactic reactions to previous doses of a vaccine containing the same antigens or another component contained in the relevant vaccine. Vaccines should also be delayed in cases of febrile illness or intercurrent infection. Live vaccines should not be administered to pregnant women or individuals with immunosuppression.

      Specific vaccines may have their own contraindications, such as deferring DTP vaccination in children with an evolving or unstable neurological condition. However, there are no contraindications to immunisation for individuals with asthma or eczema, a history of seizures (unless associated with fever), or a family history of autism. Additionally, previous natural infections with pertussis, measles, mumps, or rubella do not preclude immunisation. Other factors such as neurological conditions like Down’s or cerebral palsy, low birth weight or prematurity, and patients on replacement steroids (e.g. CAH) also do not contraindicate immunisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 35-year-old man tells his family doctor (FD) that he discovered six months...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man tells his family doctor (FD) that he discovered six months ago that his wife is having an affair. He seems upset and reports feeling fatigued and experiencing difficulty sleeping for the past six months.
      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of a Patient with Depressive Symptoms

      Depression is a common mental health condition that can present with a variety of symptoms. In this vignette, the patient shows signs of anhedonia, change in appetite, early morning awakening, psychomotor retardation, decreased sexual drive, poor concentration, ideas of worthlessness or guilt, and thoughts of death and suicide. To diagnose and classify depression, various assessment tools are available, such as the PHQ-9, Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) Scale, and Beck Depression Inventory.

      Other possible diagnoses that need to be ruled out include acute alcohol withdrawal, acute psychosis, hypomania, and schizophrenia. Acute alcohol withdrawal typically manifests with psychomotor agitation, anxiety, tremor, insomnia, nausea, vomiting, hallucinations, seizures, and autonomic instability. Delirium tremens is a severe complication of alcohol withdrawal that can be life-threatening. Acute psychosis is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, or thought disorder. Hypomania is a milder form of mania that features elated mood, pressure of speech, increased energy, activity, appetite, sexual desire, and pain threshold, but does not cause significant impairment. Schizophrenia is a chronic and severe mental disorder that involves a range of cognitive, emotional, and behavioral symptoms, including hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and social withdrawal.

      Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s history, physical examination, and mental status is necessary to arrive at an accurate diagnosis and develop an appropriate treatment plan. Collaborating with a mental health specialist may also be beneficial in managing complex cases of depression or other mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 32-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a sore throat, runny nose,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a sore throat, runny nose, cough, feeling feverish and generally unwell for the past week. He reports no difficulty eating or drinking.
      Upon examination, his temperature is 37.2°C, and his chest is clear, but he has a dry cough. His tonsils are inflamed, but there is no exudate. He has no significant medical history.
      Based on his Fever PAIN score, what would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Advise her that antibiotics are not indicated at this point and to return in one week if there is no improvement

      Explanation:

      Using the FeverPAIN Score to Determine Antibiotic Use for Pharyngitis

      When a patient presents with symptoms of pharyngitis, it can be difficult to determine whether antibiotics are necessary. The FeverPAIN Score for Streptococcus pharyngitis was developed to help assess which patients have streptococcal pharyngitis and therefore require antibiotics.

      The score assigns points based on the presence of fever, pus, quick attenuation of symptoms, inflamed tonsils, and cough.
      Fever PAIN score
      Fever – 1
      Pus – 1
      Attenuates quickly – 1
      Inflamed tonsils – 1
      No cough – 1
      A score of 0-1 is associated with a low likelihood of streptococcal infection and does not require antibiotics. A score of 2-3 may warrant a delayed antibiotic prescription, while a score of 4 or more may require immediate antibiotics.

      In the case of a patient with a low FeverPAIN score, it is important to advise against antibiotics and instead recommend a follow-up visit in one week if there is no improvement. Safety netting should also be provided to ensure the patient is aware of potential warning signs of deterioration. By using the FeverPAIN score, healthcare providers can reduce inappropriate antibiotic use in pharyngitis and promote more effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - During a routine opticians appointment, corneal opacities are observed in a 65-year-old woman....

    Correct

    • During a routine opticians appointment, corneal opacities are observed in a 65-year-old woman. Her vision is not affected. Which medication is the most probable culprit for this condition?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Both corneal opacities and optic neuritis can be caused by amiodarone therapy.

      There are certain drugs that can cause problems with the eyes. For example, steroids can lead to the development of cataracts, while amiodarone and indomethacin can cause corneal opacities. Ethambutol, amiodarone, and metronidazole are known to cause optic neuritis. Additionally, chloroquine and quinine can result in retinopathy. It’s important to note that sildenafil, a medication used to treat erectile dysfunction, can cause both blue discoloration and non-arteritic anterior ischemic neuropathy. It’s crucial to be aware of these potential side effects and to speak with a healthcare provider if any ocular problems arise while taking these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes of 8 years’ duration presents with...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes of 8 years’ duration presents with poorly controlled blood glucose levels. He was initially started on metformin therapy and his diabetes was well controlled until the last 6 months. Despite strict adherence to diet, exercise and maximum daily doses of metformin and pioglitazone, satisfactory blood glucose control has proved difficult to achieve and the last HbA1c was at 85 mmol/mol. You consider adding the agent empagliflozin.
      Managed either by lifestyle + diet
      HbA1c target levels in adults with type 2 diabetes
      Or
      Lifestyle + diet + single drug not associated with hypoglycaemia
      Managed with a drug associated with hypoglycaemia
      48 mmol/mol
      53 mmol/mol
      Which of the following class of drugs does sitagliptin belong to?

      Your Answer: A dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Common Diabetes Medications and How They Work

      Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as sitagliptin, work by inhibiting the enzyme DPP-4, which breaks down hormones that stimulate insulin secretion and suppress glucagon secretion. This leads to increased insulin secretion and decreased glucagon release, helping to regulate blood glucose levels.

      α-Glucosidase inhibitors, like acarbose, inhibit enzymes needed to digest carbohydrates, leading to decreased glucose absorption.

      Sulfonylureas, such as tolbutamide and gliclazide, stimulate insulin release by inhibiting potassium channels in pancreatic cells.

      Non-sulfonylurea insulin secretagogues, like repaglinide and nateglinide, also stimulate insulin release but act on a different binding site of the potassium channels.

      Insulin sensitizers, including biguanides like metformin and thiazolidinediones (glitazones), increase glucose uptake by the cells and enhance insulin-dependent enzyme production, respectively.

      Understanding the Mechanisms of Common Diabetes Medications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      50.4
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 61-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 2-hour history of dizziness and palpitations. He denies any chest pain or shortness of breath. His medical history includes hypertension and stable angina.

      Vital signs:
      - Temperature: 36.7ºC
      - Heart rate: 44 bpm
      - Blood pressure: 90/51 mmHg
      - Respiratory rate: 18 breaths/min
      - Oxygen saturations: 94% on air

      On examination, his pulse is regular bilaterally, and his calves are soft and nontender. Auscultation reveals vesicular breath sounds and normal heart sounds. An ECG shows sinus rhythm with a PR interval of 210ms (120-200ms).

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Transcutaneous pacing

      Correct Answer: Intravenous atropine

      Explanation:

      In cases where patients exhibit bradycardia and signs of shock, the recommended initial treatment is administering 500 micrograms of atropine, which can be repeated up to a maximum dose of 3mg. This patient’s ECG findings indicate first-degree heart block, which is consistent with their bradycardia and hypotension. If atropine fails to control the patient’s bradyarrhythmia, other options such as isoprenaline infusions or transcutaneous pacing may be considered. However, intravenous adenosine is not appropriate for this patient as it is used to treat supraventricular tachycardias, which is not the diagnosis in this case. While isoprenaline infusion and transcutaneous pacing are alternative treatments for bradyarrhythmias, they are not the first-line option and should only be considered if atropine is ineffective. Therefore, atropine is the correct answer for this patient’s management.

      Management of Bradycardia in Peri-Arrest Rhythms

      The 2015 Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines highlight the importance of identifying adverse signs and potential risk of asystole in the management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms. Adverse signs indicating haemodynamic compromise include shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, and heart failure. Atropine (500 mcg IV) is the first line treatment in this situation. If there is an unsatisfactory response, interventions such as atropine (up to a maximum of 3mg), transcutaneous pacing, and isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion titrated to response may be used. Specialist help should be sought for consideration of transvenous pacing if there is no response to the above measures.

      Furthermore, the presence of risk factors for asystole such as complete heart block with broad complex QRS, recent asystole, Mobitz type II AV block, and ventricular pause > 3 seconds should be considered. Even if there is a satisfactory response to atropine, specialist help is indicated to consider the need for transvenous pacing. Effective management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms is crucial in preventing further deterioration and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      58.2
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 14-year-old girl presents to her General Practitioner complaining of pain to the...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl presents to her General Practitioner complaining of pain to the left knee which is worse after running. The knee is stiff in the morning and sometimes locks. There is a knee effusion present on examination and an X-ray shows a loose body in the knee joint.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Knee Pain in Adolescents and Young Adults

      Knee pain is a common complaint among adolescents and young adults. There are several possible causes of knee pain, including osteochondritis dissecans, chondromalacia patellae, Osgood-Schlatter disease, osteoarthritis, and patellar dislocation.

      Osteochondritis dissecans occurs when the articular cartilage separates from the joint surface, typically in the knee joint. This condition is common in teenagers and young adults and can cause vague, achy joint pain that worsens with activity. Other symptoms may include swelling, locking, catching, and giving way. Diagnosis is confirmed with an X-ray and magnetic resonance imaging can help with management and prognosis.

      Chondromalacia patellae is characterized by abnormal softening of the cartilage on the underside of the patella. This condition is a common cause of chronic knee pain in teenagers and young adults. Symptoms include anterior knee pain that worsens after sitting for a prolonged period or walking down stairs. Diagnosis is made through examination and a positive shrug test.

      Osgood-Schlatter disease is a cause of knee pain in young adolescents, particularly sporty boys. It is caused by overuse of the quadriceps, which strains the patellar ligament attachment to the tibia. Symptoms include pain inferior to the patella that worsens with activity and improves with rest. Diagnosis is usually clinical and treatment involves simple analgesics and ice packs.

      Osteoarthritis is a disease of older age caused by degeneration of the articular cartilage. It is often seen in weight-bearing areas such as the knee and hip, but is unlikely in young adults.

      Patellar dislocation is most common in teenage girls and often occurs during sports. Symptoms include sudden pain and an inability to weight bear on the affected side. Examination reveals a dislocated patella, often laterally, and an associated osteochondral fracture may be seen on an X-ray.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - Which of the following is a common feature of ulcerative colitis? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is a common feature of ulcerative colitis?

      Your Answer: Pseudopolyps

      Explanation:

      Pseudopolyps observed during endoscopy are indicative of ulcerative colitis.

      Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are the two main types of inflammatory bowel disease with many similarities in symptoms and management options. However, there are key differences such as non-bloody diarrhea and upper gastrointestinal symptoms being more common in Crohn’s disease, while bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant are more common in ulcerative colitis. Complications and pathology also differ between the two diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 75-year-old man has been hospitalized with abdominal discomfort. The surgical team intends...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man has been hospitalized with abdominal discomfort. The surgical team intends to conduct a contrast-enhanced CT scan, but they are apprehensive due to his stage 3 chronic kidney disease. Below is his most recent renal function:
      Na+ 142 mmol/l
      K+ 4.6 mmol/l
      Urea 8.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 µmol/l
      What is the most crucial measure in decreasing the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy?

      Your Answer: Intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride pre- and post-procedure

      Explanation:

      Contrast Media Nephrotoxicity and Prevention

      Contrast media nephrotoxicity is a condition where there is a 25% increase in creatinine within three days of intravascular administration of contrast media. This condition usually occurs 2-5 days after administration and is caused by various risk factors such as known renal impairment, dehydration, cardiac failure, and the use of nephrotoxic drugs. Procedures such as CT with contrast and coronary angiography/percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) are examples that may cause contrast-induced nephropathy.

      To prevent contrast-induced nephropathy, intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride at a rate of 1 mL/kg/hour for 12 hours pre- and post-procedure is recommended. Isotonic sodium bicarbonate is also supported by evidence. However, N-acetylcysteine, which was previously given, is now considered ineffective. Patients who are high-risk for contrast-induced nephropathy should have metformin withheld for at least 48 hours and until their renal function has been shown to be normal to avoid the risk of lactic acidosis.

      In summary, contrast media nephrotoxicity is a condition that can occur after the administration of contrast media. It is caused by various risk factors and can be prevented by using intravenous sodium chloride or isotonic sodium bicarbonate. N-acetylcysteine is no longer recommended, and patients at high risk should have metformin withheld until their renal function is normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      22.7
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - An 85-year-old man complains of increasing back pain and overall weakness. An X-ray...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old man complains of increasing back pain and overall weakness. An X-ray of his back reveals multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multiple myeloma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Multiple Myeloma: A Malignant Disease of Plasma Cells

      Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that commonly affects adults aged over 60 years. It is characterized by the production of paraproteinaemia in the blood, which can affect multiple organs including the blood, bone, kidneys, and immune system. The most common symptoms of multiple myeloma include unexplained bone pain, hypercalcaemia, weight loss, hyperviscosity symptoms, spinal cord compression, and fever.

      On the other hand, osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone mass and deterioration of the structure of the bone tissue, resulting in bone fragility and susceptibility to fracture. Multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions are more sinister in nature and are commonly associated with multiple myeloma.

      Osteosarcoma, bone metastases, and chronic myeloblastic leukaemia (CML) are not related to multiple myeloma. Osteosarcoma is characterized by cortical destruction and the presence of a soft-tissue mass, while bone metastases usually lead to destruction of the cortex on plain radiographs. Symptoms of CML include fatigue, night sweats, weight loss, abdominal fullness, and left upper quadrant pain.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms and characteristics of multiple myeloma is crucial in diagnosing and treating this malignant disease of plasma cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 75-year-old man presented to the eye clinic with double vision. He has...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man presented to the eye clinic with double vision. He has been experiencing this for the past few weeks. During examination, it was observed that he had horizontal diplopia and slight limitation of one of the extraocular muscles in his left eye. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and prostate cancer. Brain imaging revealed a metastatic lesion in the clivus that surrounds the cavernous sinus and carotid artery. Which cranial nerve palsy is responsible for the diplopia in this patient?

      Your Answer: Left sixth cranial nerve (CN6) palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the 12 Cranial Nerves and their Functions

      The human body has 12 pairs of cranial nerves that originate from the brainstem and control various functions such as movement, sensation, and reflexes. Each nerve has a specific function and pathway, and damage to any of these nerves can result in various clinical symptoms.

      Some of the important functions of these nerves include smell (olfactory nerve), sight (optic nerve), eye movement (oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves), facial sensation and mastication (trigeminal nerve), facial movement and taste (facial nerve), hearing and balance (vestibulocochlear nerve), taste and swallowing (glossopharyngeal nerve), phonation and innervation of viscera (vagus nerve), head and shoulder movement (accessory nerve), and tongue movement (hypoglossal nerve).

      In addition to their primary functions, some of these nerves also play a role in various reflexes such as the corneal reflex, jaw jerk reflex, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and pathways of these cranial nerves is essential for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 78-year-old female comes to the cardiology clinic complaining of persistent shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old female comes to the cardiology clinic complaining of persistent shortness of breath that is hindering her daily activities. She has a medical history of dilated cardiomyopathy and is currently taking candesartan, bisoprolol, and furosemide. An echocardiogram reveals a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%. What would be the most suitable long-term treatment to enhance this patient's prognosis?

      Your Answer: Diltiazem

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The initial management for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction involves prescribing an ACE inhibitor (or ARB, as in this patient’s case) and a beta-blocker. However, since the patient’s symptoms are not under control despite taking these medications, it is recommended to add spironolactone (a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist) to their treatment plan.

      Bendroflumethiazide is not a suitable long-term management option for heart failure, as thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics are not recommended.
      Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, is contraindicated for chronic heart failure.
      Dobutamine, an inotrope, may be used in acute decompensated heart failure but is not appropriate for stable management of chronic heart failure.
      Ramipril is not a suitable option for this patient as they are already taking candesartan, another angiotensin II receptor blocker.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 55-year-old man presents to the diabetes clinic for a follow-up appointment. He...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the diabetes clinic for a follow-up appointment. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) approximately 8 years ago and is currently taking gliclazide and atorvastatin. He has a history of bladder cancer, which was successfully treated 2 years ago. The patient recently tried metformin, but discontinued it due to gastrointestinal side-effects. He works as an accountant, does not smoke, and has a BMI of 31 kg/m². His annual blood work reveals the following results:
      - Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 4.1 mmol/l
      - Urea: 4.3 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 104 µmol/l
      - HbA1c: 62 mmol/mol (7.8%)

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's diabetes?

      Your Answer: Add sitagliptin

      Explanation:

      Due to his history of bladder cancer and obesity, pioglitazone is not recommended and contraindicated. Instead, sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, is the most suitable option. Exenatide, which typically leads to weight loss, is beneficial for obese individuals with diabetes, but it does not meet the NICE criteria for body mass index of 35 kg/m².

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      36.1
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 13-year-old girl comes to her doctor with a 5-month history of aching...

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old girl comes to her doctor with a 5-month history of aching pain and swelling in the distal part of her left thigh. She has a family history of retinoblastoma and is in good health otherwise. A radiograph of her knee reveals a sunburst pattern and a triangular area of new subperiosteal bone in the metaphyseal region of the femur. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Bone Tumours

      Bone tumours can be classified into two categories: benign and malignant. Benign tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a common benign tumour that occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, on the other hand, is the most common benign bone tumour and is usually diagnosed in patients aged less than 20 years. It is characterized by a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma and is most commonly seen in the epiphyses of long bones.

      Malignant tumours, on the other hand, are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour and is mainly seen in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that is also seen mainly in children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and tends to cause severe pain. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age. It is important to diagnose and treat bone tumours early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - Which of the following may be linked to a higher risk of venous...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following may be linked to a higher risk of venous thromboembolism?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Behcet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Venous Thromboembolism: Common Risk Factors

      Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While there are many factors that can increase the risk of VTE, some are more common than others. These include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation. Other general risk factors include advancing age, obesity, family history of VTE, immobility, hospitalization, anaesthesia, and the use of central venous catheters. Underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and antiphospholipid syndrome can also increase the risk of VTE. Additionally, certain medications like the combined oral contraceptive pill, hormone replacement therapy, raloxifene, tamoxifen, and antipsychotics have been shown to be risk factors.

      It is important to note that while these factors can increase the risk of VTE, around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 45-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of pleuritic chest pain. She states that this started in the evening and has gotten worse since then. The pain is central and seems to improve when she leans forward. She has a past medical history of hypertension.
      An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed which shows widespread concave ST-segment elevation and PR interval depression. Extensive investigations reveal no underlying cause.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the best treatment option?
      Select the SINGLE best treatment option from the list below.

      Your Answer: NSAIDs until symptomatic resolution along with colchicine for three months

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Pericarditis

      Acute pericarditis requires prompt treatment to prevent complications such as recurrent pericarditis, pericardial effusions, cardiac tamponade, and chronic constrictive pericarditis. The initial treatment for idiopathic or viral pericarditis involves high-dose non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) or aspirin in combination with colchicine. The duration of NSAID or aspirin treatment depends on symptom resolution and normalization of C-reactive protein (CRP), while colchicine treatment is continued for three months using a low, weight-adjusted dose. Strenuous physical activity should be restricted until symptom resolution and normalization of inflammatory markers, and gastroprotection with a proton-pump inhibitor is recommended.

      If NSAIDs and colchicine are contraindicated, low-dose corticosteroids are the next step in the treatment algorithm, after exclusion of infectious causes. However, when the cause of the pericarditis is known, it must be treated first before starting anti-inflammatory treatment.

      Managing Acute Pericarditis: Treatment Options and Considerations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      44.5
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 56-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and ischaemic heart disease presents...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and ischaemic heart disease presents to the clinic with a complaint of feeling lethargic for the past 3 months. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained: Hb 9.6 g/dl, MCV 123 fl, Plt 164 * 109/l, WCC 4.6 *109/l. Which medication is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin: Mechanism of Action and Adverse Effects

      Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects, which can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic. Acute effects include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic effects include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia. Idiosyncratic effects include fever, rashes, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Teratogenic effects are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease. Although routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked before dosing in cases of dose adjustment, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Endocrinology Clinic with bruising, striae, acne and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Endocrinology Clinic with bruising, striae, acne and hirsutism.
      On examination, the patient appears lethargic and depressed, with centripetal obesity and demonstrable proximal myopathy. Her blood pressure is 165/106 mmHg
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 2.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Random glucose 8.2 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
      A low-dose dexamethasone test and a 24-hour urinary cortisol test are ordered.
      Which of the following is the most common cause of Cushing syndrome?

      Your Answer: Primary adrenal disorder

      Correct Answer: Iatrogenic

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Different Causes of Cushing Syndrome

      Cushing syndrome is a condition that occurs when the body is exposed to high levels of cortisol for an extended period. There are several different causes of Cushing syndrome, including iatrogenic, pituitary-dependent, ectopic ACTH secretion, primary adrenal disorder, and pseudo-Cushing’s syndrome.

      The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is iatrogenic, which is related to the use of corticosteroid medication. This risk is higher in people who take oral corticosteroids, but it can also affect those who misuse inhaled or topical corticosteroids.

      Pituitary-dependent Cushing’s disease is a much rarer cause of Cushing syndrome that arises from a pituitary tumour. Ectopic ACTH secretion is a very rare cause of Cushing syndrome that arises due to ACTH secretion from a carcinoid tumour.

      Primary adrenal disorder is an unusual cause of Cushing syndrome that arises from primary hypercortisolism. Finally, pseudo-Cushing’s syndrome describes hypercortisolism arising as a result of a separate condition, such as malnutrition or chronic alcoholism, resulting in the same phenotype and biochemical abnormalities of Cushing syndrome.

      Understanding the different causes of Cushing syndrome is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - A 28-year-old man presents to the colorectal surgeons with recurrent episodes of bright...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the colorectal surgeons with recurrent episodes of bright red rectal bleeding over the past 5 months. During examination, a muco-epithelial defect is observed in the posterior midline of the anus. However, a complete digital rectal exam (DRE) could not be performed due to severe pain. Despite trying bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN), the patient has experienced little relief. What is the recommended next step in managing this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Seton insertion

      Correct Answer: Sphincterotomy

      Explanation:

      For cases of anal fissures that do not respond to conservative management, sphincterotomy may be considered as the next step. This is likely the case for the patient in question, who has not seen improvement with laxatives, lubricants, and topical GTN. While a high-fibre diet is important in managing anal fissures, it should be initiated alongside other conservative measures. If the patient had a perianal abscess, incision and drainage would be the appropriate treatment. For haemorrhoids, rubber band ligation would be the management, while anal fistulae would require seton insertion.

      Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.

      Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.

      Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.

      In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 6-month-old infant presents to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. The child...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant presents to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. The child has epicanthic folds and a single palmar crease. Genetic testing confirms an autosomal trisomy. What is the most frequent cardiac anomaly observed in infants with this disorder?

      Your Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities in Down Syndrome Patients

      Down syndrome is a genetic disorder that often presents with physical characteristics such as epicanthic folds, single creases, and an autosomal trisomy. It is common for children with Down syndrome to have congenital heart disease, with 42% of the population affected. Of those, 23% have multiple cardiac abnormalities. The most prevalent cardiac abnormality, found in 37% of cases, is a complete atrioventricular septal defect. Ventricular septal defects are the second most common, affecting 30% of patients. Mitral valve disorders occur in up to 40% of Down syndrome patients, but mitral stenosis is less common. Atrial septal defects affect 15% of patients, while patent ductus arteriosus affects only 2%. Understanding the prevalence of these cardiac abnormalities in Down syndrome patients is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - The mother of a 8-year-old boy contacts the out-of-hours General Practitioner due to...

    Correct

    • The mother of a 8-year-old boy contacts the out-of-hours General Practitioner due to her concern about an itchy rash that has appeared on her child's body within the last hour. The boy had been diagnosed with bacterial tonsilitis earlier in the day. During examination, the doctor observes multiple raised red lesions on the boy's face and trunk with a central pallor. The boy does not have any breathing difficulties, lip or tongue swelling. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute urticaria

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Reactions: Causes and Characteristics

      Acute urticaria: This is a superficial swelling of the skin that results in a raised, red, itchy rash. Wheals are also often observed. It can appear anywhere on the body and develop quickly, usually following exposure to an allergen. Common triggers include viral infections, insect bites and stings, certain foods, and medications.

      Erythema multiforme (EM): This is a hypersensitivity reaction that is usually triggered by a viral infection, with herpes simplex being the most common agent. The skin eruption associated with EM is typical of multiple ‘target lesions’ that comprise three concentric color zones and a dark/dusky center.

      Acute angioedema: This is a skin reaction similar to urticaria, but it affects the deeper layers of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. The mucous membranes are often affected, with the eyes or lips being the most common sites of swelling. Allergy is the most common cause of angioedema.

      Erythema migrans: This is the most common skin manifestation of Lyme disease, which is a borrelia infection caused by infected ticks. Typically, the rash appears 7–14 days after the tick bite as a red papule or macule at the bite site. This then increases in size and is often described as a ‘bullseye’ lesion.

      Stevens–Johnson syndrome: This is a rare, acute, severe, and potentially fatal skin reaction. It is the result of an unpredictable reaction to various medications, with antibiotics being the most common trigger. A flu-like prodromal illness is typically followed by the abrupt onset of a red rash. This rash spreads quickly all over the body and affects the mucous membranes before sheet-like skin and mucosal loss develops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 32-week pregnant woman presents to the early pregnancy unit with a concern...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-week pregnant woman presents to the early pregnancy unit with a concern that her uterus is small for this stage of pregnancy. Upon ultrasound, she is diagnosed with oligohydramnios. What could be a potential cause of oligohydramnios?

      Your Answer: Bartter's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Renal agenesis

      Explanation:

      Oligohydramnios is a condition that occurs during pregnancy when there is a shortage of amniotic fluid. This can result in a smaller symphysiofundal height.

      Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.

      There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - You assess a 50-year-old woman who has developed a dependence on temazepam, which...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 50-year-old woman who has developed a dependence on temazepam, which was initially prescribed as a sleep aid. She expresses a desire to overcome her addiction to temazepam and seeks assistance. Her current dosage is 20 mg per day. What would be the most suitable approach?

      Your Answer: Switch to the equivalent zopiclone dose then slowly withdraw over the next 2 months

      Correct Answer: Switch to the equivalent diazepam dose then slowly withdraw over the next 2 months

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines are drugs that enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which inhibits brain activity. They are used for various purposes, including sedation, anxiety relief, muscle relaxation, and seizure prevention. However, patients can develop a tolerance and dependence on these drugs, so they should only be prescribed for a short period of time. When withdrawing from benzodiazepines, it is important to do so gradually to avoid withdrawal symptoms, which can include insomnia, anxiety, and seizures. Barbiturates are another type of drug that affect GABA, but they work differently than benzodiazepines by increasing the duration of chloride channel opening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - A 4-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with haemarthrosis in the knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with haemarthrosis in the knee and elbow after a trivial injury. She is otherwise fit and well. The patient’s mother suffers from Christmas disease.
      What investigation should be organised to confirm this diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

      Correct Answer: Factor IX activity level

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Haemophilia and Related Conditions

      Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood’s ability to clot properly, leading to spontaneous or excessive bleeding. To diagnose haemophilia and related conditions, several diagnostic tests are available.

      Factor IX Activity Level: Lack of factor IX leads to Christmas disease, the second most common type of haemophilia. To diagnose haemophilia, the levels of clotting factor present in the blood must be measured.

      Platelet Count: The platelet count is usually normal in patients with haemophilia. Reduced platelets would suggest an alternative diagnosis. However, it is still important to check the platelet count to exclude thrombocytopenia as a cause of unexplained bleeding.

      Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT): Blood tests in haemophilia usually demonstrate a prolonged aPTT. However, patients with moderate disease can still have a normal aPTT if their factor activity level is > 15%.

      Urinalysis: Urinalysis in patients with haemophilia may demonstrate the presence of haematuria, but by itself is not diagnostic of the condition.

      von Willebrand Factor Antigen: The plasma von Willebrand factor antigen is normal in individuals with haemophilia. Reduced von Willebrand factor suggests the possibility of von Willebrand disease (VWD).

      In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic tests is necessary to diagnose haemophilia and related conditions accurately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A 32-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the emergency department with fever, bilateral...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the emergency department with fever, bilateral leg weakness, and back pain. The medical team suspects a spinal epidural abscess. What imaging test is necessary to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CT whole spine

      Correct Answer: MRI whole spine

      Explanation:

      When there is suspicion of a spinal epidural abscess, a complete MRI of the spine is necessary to detect any skip lesions.

      To accurately diagnose a spinal epidural abscess, a full spine MRI is essential. Neither plain x-rays nor CT scans can effectively identify the abscess. It is necessary to scan the entire spine, not just the suspected area, as there may be multiple separate abscesses that are not connected. The MRI should be requested and performed as soon as possible.

      Understanding Spinal Epidural Abscess

      A spinal epidural abscess (SEA) is a serious condition that occurs when pus collects in the spinal epidural space, which is the area surrounding the spinal cord. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent further damage to the spinal cord. SEA can be caused by bacteria that enters the spinal epidural space through contiguous spread from adjacent structures, haematogenous spread from concomitant infection, or direct infection. Patients with immunosuppression are at a higher risk of developing SEA. The most common causative micro-organism is Staphylococcus aureus. Symptoms of SEA include fever, back pain, and focal neurological deficits according to the segment of the cord affected.

      To diagnose SEA, doctors may perform blood tests, blood cultures, and an infection screen. An MRI of the whole spine is necessary to identify the extent of the abscess. If the primary source of infection is not clear, further investigations may be required, such as echocardiography and dental x-rays. Treatment for SEA involves a long-term course of antibiotics, which may be refined based on culture results. Patients with large or compressive abscesses, significant or progressive neurological deficits, or those who are not responding to antibiotics alone may require surgical evacuation of the abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 38-year-old female patient comes to the clinic and inquires about breast cancer...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old female patient comes to the clinic and inquires about breast cancer screening. She mentions that her mother was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. Upon further inquiry, she reveals that her aunt (on her mother's side) had ovarian cancer and her uncle (on her father's side) had colorectal cancer. What is the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer to the breast clinic

      Explanation:

      If an individual has a family history of breast cancer and ovarian cancer, they should be referred to a breast clinic at a younger age. This is especially important if they have a first-degree or second-degree relative who was diagnosed with breast cancer at any age, as well as a first-degree or second-degree relative who was diagnosed with ovarian cancer at any age (with one of these relatives being a first-degree relative). It is not safe to wait for routine screening, as there may be a risk of familial breast cancer. It is also important to note that breast cancer can still be present even if there is no lump detected during examination. A colonoscopy is not necessary in this case, as the individual is at an increased risk of breast cancer.

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme. Mammograms are provided every three years, and women over 70 years are encouraged to make their own appointments. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually.

      For those with familial breast cancer, NICE guidelines recommend referral if there is a family history of breast cancer with any of the following: diagnosis before age 40, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, sarcoma in a relative under 45 years, glioma or childhood adrenal cortical carcinomas, complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age, or paternal history of breast cancer with two or more relatives on the father’s side. Women at increased risk due to family history may be offered screening at a younger age. Referral to a breast clinic is recommended for those with a first-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer before age 40, a first-degree male relative with breast cancer, a first-degree relative with bilateral breast cancer before age 50, two first-degree relatives or one first-degree and one second-degree relative with breast cancer, or a first- or second-degree relative with breast and ovarian cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 45-year-old woman, with a history of gallstones, arrives at the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman, with a history of gallstones, arrives at the emergency department complaining of central abdominal pain that radiates to her back. Upon conducting blood tests, you observe the following result:
      Amylase 480 U/L (30 - 110). The patient is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis and inquires about the severity of her condition. What is the primary factor in determining the clinical severity of acute pancreatitis?

      Your Answer: Presence of any systemic or local complications

      Explanation:

      When determining the severity of pancreatitis, the presence of systemic or local complications is the most important factor to consider. Mild acute pancreatitis is characterized by the absence of both organ failure and local complications. Local complications in severe cases may include peripancreatic fluid collections, pancreatic or peripancreatic necrosis, pseudocysts, and walled-off areas of necrosis. The Atlanta classification system categorizes acute pancreatitis as mild, moderate, or severe. Mild cases have no organ failure, local or systemic complications, and typically resolve within a week. Pain level and initial CRP levels are not used to classify severity, but a high white blood cell count may indicate an increased risk of severe pancreatitis. Serum amylase levels and pancreatic calcification on CT scans are also not reliable indicators of severity.

      Managing Acute Pancreatitis in a Hospital Setting

      Acute pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires management in a hospital setting. The severity of the condition can be stratified based on the presence of organ failure and local complications. Key aspects of care include fluid resuscitation, aggressive early hydration with crystalloids, and adequate pain management with intravenous opioids. Patients should not be made ‘nil-by-mouth’ unless there is a clear reason, and enteral nutrition should be offered within 72 hours of presentation. Antibiotics should not be used prophylactically, but may be indicated in cases of infected pancreatic necrosis. Surgery may be necessary for patients with acute pancreatitis due to gallstones or obstructed biliary systems, and those with infected necrosis may require radiological drainage or surgical necrosectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A 65-year-old woman comes in with a tremor. What distinguishing characteristic would indicate...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman comes in with a tremor. What distinguishing characteristic would indicate a diagnosis of essential tremor instead of Parkinson's disease?

      Your Answer: Tremor is worse when the arms are outstretched

      Explanation:

      Typical symptoms of Parkinson’s include bradykinesia, postural instability, and initially unilateral symptoms. On the other hand, alcohol can alleviate essential tremor symptoms.

      Understanding Essential Tremor

      Essential tremor, also known as benign essential tremor, is a genetic condition that typically affects both upper limbs. The most common symptom is a postural tremor, which worsens when the arms are outstretched. However, the tremor can be improved by rest and alcohol consumption. Essential tremor is also the leading cause of head tremors, known as titubation.

      When it comes to managing essential tremor, the first-line treatment is propranolol. This medication can help reduce the severity of the tremors. In some cases, primidone may also be used to manage the condition. It’s important to note that essential tremor is a lifelong condition, but with proper management, individuals can lead a normal life. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options, those with essential tremor can take control of their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 67-year-old woman presents to the Memory Clinic with a 9-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to the Memory Clinic with a 9-month history of cognitive decline. Her daughter mentions that she has difficulty remembering basic tasks and is becoming more confused and forgetful than usual. Her daughter noticed a change in her personality and has caught her leaving the stove on and wandering outside alone on multiple occasions.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in this patient’s management?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.

      Your Answer: Start treatment with an acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitor agent

      Correct Answer: Stop drugs that may be exacerbating memory problems or confusion (anticholinergics, central nervous system drugs)

      Explanation:

      Managing Frontotemporal Dementia: Treatment Options and Referrals

      Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects behavior, language, and executive function. While there is no cure for FTD, management strategies can help alleviate symptoms and provide support for patients and their families.

      One important step in managing FTD is to stop any drugs that may be exacerbating memory problems or confusion, such as anticholinergics or central nervous system drugs. Multidisciplinary health and social care is also crucial, involving referrals to geriatric medicine, psychiatry, psychology, social work, occupational therapy, speech and language therapy, physiotherapy, and community nursing.

      However, certain treatment options should be avoided or used with caution in FTD patients. Benzodiazepines, for example, are associated with cognitive worsening and fall-related injuries. Anticholinesterase inhibitors, typically used in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease, have shown disappointing results in FTD patients who do not have cholinergic loss. Memantine, used in moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease, has not been shown to be effective in FTD and may even have a detrimental effect on cognition in some individuals.

      Antipsychotics should only be used cautiously and when other options have failed, as FTD patients are at higher risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Overall, a personalized and coordinated approach to FTD management is essential for optimizing patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 60-year-old man presents with blisters on his skin. He reports that some...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with blisters on his skin. He reports that some of the blisters have healed and left scars, but others are still growing, and new ones are appearing. Despite taking antibiotics prescribed by his doctor, the blisters have not improved. Upon examination, he has multiple superficial skin lesions and oral ulcers that easily slough off. A skin punch biopsy shows circular intra-epidermal deposits. What other condition is likely to be present in this patient?

      Your Answer: Antibodies against hemidesmosomes

      Correct Answer: Antibodies against desmosomes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autoimmune Blistering Conditions: Pemphigus Vulgaris and Bullous Pemphigoid

      Pemphigus Vulgaris: Autoimmune Blistering Condition

      Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune blistering condition that primarily affects middle-aged patients. The condition is caused by Immunoglobulin G (IgG) autoantibodies against desmosomal components (desmogleins 1 and 3) of the superficial layers of the skin. This results in flaccid blisters that rupture easily, leading to erosions and scarring. The oral mucosa is often affected early, and Nikolsky’s sign is positive. Immunofluorescence reveals intra-epidermal circular deposits, and antibodies against desmosomes are usually positive. The condition requires aggressive treatment, with high-dose steroids initially used, and life-long maintenance doses often needed. Immunologicals are being trialled.

      Bullous Pemphigoid: Another Autoimmune Blistering Condition

      Bullous pemphigoid is another autoimmune blistering condition that typically affects older patients. The condition is caused by antibodies directed to the deeper basement membrane of the skin. This results in tense, firm, often haemorrhagic blisters that do not rupture easily. Oral lesions are rare, and Nikolsky’s sign is negative. Immunofluorescence reveals linear IgG and C3 deposits along the basement membrane of the skin, and antibodies against hemidesmosomes may be positive. The condition carries significantly less morbidity than pemphigus vulgaris, and topical steroid cream (ex: clobetasol propionate usually suffices).

      No Link to Other Conditions

      There is no link between pemphigus vulgaris or bullous pemphigoid and other conditions such as alopecia, positive HIV serology, or psoriasis. It is important to understand the differences between these autoimmune blistering conditions to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      47.8
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - A young man with a 5-year history of alcoholism successfully completes an inpatient...

    Correct

    • A young man with a 5-year history of alcoholism successfully completes an inpatient drug rehabilitation programme. What advice will you give him to maintain sobriety?

      Your Answer: Join a local Alcoholics Anonymous group

      Explanation:

      Strategies for Preventing Alcohol Relapse

      For individuals with alcohol-use disorders, preventing relapse is crucial for maintaining sobriety. Here are some strategies that can help:

      1. Join a local Alcoholics Anonymous group or other self-help groups that require total abstinence. Active participation in these groups can offer the best chance of preventing relapses.

      2. Limit consumption to socially appropriate amounts. Even small amounts of alcohol can trigger a relapse, so individuals who have completed a detoxification program are encouraged not to drink at all.

      3. Take disulfiram as prescribed. This medication can cause unpleasant symptoms when alcohol is consumed, making it a deterrent for those who struggle with alcohol use. However, it should only be taken in the context of an appropriate alcohol detoxification program.

      4. Take naltrexone as prescribed. This medication can help reduce cravings for alcohol, but it should not be taken as a deterrent before attending a party.

      5. Plan a definite number of drinks before attending a party. However, individuals who have completed a detoxification program are still encouraged not to drink at all to prevent relapse.

      By implementing these strategies, individuals with alcohol-use disorders can increase their chances of maintaining sobriety and preventing relapse.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of headaches. During the examination, it is observed that when a light is shone in her right eye, both pupils constrict, but when the light is immediately moved to the left eye, both pupils appear to dilate. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Left optic neuritis

      Explanation:

      The ‘swinging light test’ can detect a relative afferent pupillary defect, which is indicated by less constriction of the pupils on one side. In this case, the left side is affected, suggesting an underlying condition such as multiple sclerosis causing optic neuritis. Symptoms of optic neuritis may include a dull ache around the eye that worsens with movement, which is common in patients of this age group.

      Understanding Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect

      A relative afferent pupillary defect, also known as the Marcus-Gunn pupil, is a condition that can be identified through the swinging light test. This condition is caused by a lesion that is located anterior to the optic chiasm, which can be found in the optic nerve or retina.

      When conducting the swinging light test, the affected eye will appear to dilate when light is shone on it, while the normal eye will not. This is due to the fact that the afferent pathway of the pupillary light reflex is disrupted. The pathway starts from the retina, then goes through the optic nerve, lateral geniculate body, and midbrain. The efferent pathway, on the other hand, starts from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus in the midbrain and goes through the oculomotor nerve.

      There are various causes of relative afferent pupillary defect, such as retina detachment and optic neuritis, which is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis. Understanding this condition is important in diagnosing and treating patients who may be experiencing vision problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She had her last period 6 weeks ago and is sexually active without using any hormonal contraception. She has no significant medical history. Upon examination, she has a heart rate of 84 bpm and a blood pressure of 128/78 mmHg. There is tenderness in the left iliac fossa. A pregnancy test confirms that she is pregnant, and further investigations reveal a 40 mm left adnexal mass with no heartbeat. The serum b-hCG level is 6200 IU/L. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopic salpingotomy and monitoring

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopic salpingectomy and monitoring

      Explanation:

      For women with no other risk factors for infertility, salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for ectopic pregnancy requiring surgical management, rather than salpingotomy. In the case of a patient with acute-onset abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding after 6-8 weeks following her last period, a positive pregnancy test, and ultrasound findings confirming an ectopic pregnancy, laparoscopic salpingectomy and monitoring is the correct course of action. This is especially true if the size of the ectopic pregnancy is greater than 35 mm and the beta-hCG levels are higher than 5000 IU/L. Salpingotomy may require further treatment with methotrexate and may not remove the ectopic pregnancy entirely, making salpingectomy the preferred method. Expectant management and monitoring, laparoscopic salpingotomy and monitoring, and methotrexate and monitoring are all inappropriate for this patient’s case.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women with no other risk factors for infertility, while salpingotomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 45-year-old non-smoker with hypertension and diabetes has been diagnosed with bilateral renal...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old non-smoker with hypertension and diabetes has been diagnosed with bilateral renal artery stenosis. Blood tests reveal that he has normal renal function. He has undergone percutaneous angioplasty to both renal arteries, which was unsuccessful.
      Which medication should this patient be started on?

      Your Answer: Start clopidogrel

      Correct Answer: Start angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Medical Management of Renal Artery Stenosis

      Renal artery stenosis is a condition that requires medical management to control hypertension. Even if the arteries are treated successfully with angioplasty, antihypertensive therapy should be initiated. The ideal agent for this purpose is one that blocks the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, such as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs). Warfarin is not indicated in patients with renal artery stenosis, but may be used for prophylaxis of embolisation in other conditions. Clopidogrel is not indicated for hypertension management in renal artery stenosis. Statins may be used for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease if cholesterol levels are raised, but controlling blood pressure is the primary consideration in renal artery stenosis. Spironolactone should not be used in patients with renal compromise. Control of blood pressure should ideally be achieved using ACE inhibitors or ARBs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 32-year-old man is diagnosed with a phaeochromocytoma.
    The urine levels of which of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man is diagnosed with a phaeochromocytoma.
      The urine levels of which of the following is most likely to be elevated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Metanephrines

      Explanation:

      Urinary Metabolites as Diagnostic Markers for Adrenal Tumors and Disorders

      The urinary excretion of certain metabolites can serve as diagnostic markers for various adrenal tumors and disorders. For instance, metanephrines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and homovanillic acid (HVA) are the principal metabolic products of adrenaline and noradrenaline. Normal individuals excrete only minimal amounts of these substances in the urine. However, in phaeochromocytoma and neuroblastoma, urinary excretion of adrenaline and noradrenaline, and their metabolic products, increases intermittently.

      Similarly, increased urinary excretion of the serotonin metabolite 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid is seen in functioning carcinoids. Free urinary cortisol levels are elevated in Cushing syndrome, which is characterized by weight gain, fatty tissue deposits, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, thin skin, and acne. Urinary dehydroepiandrosterone excretion is often increased in congenital adrenal hyperplasia, while urinary pregnanetriol excretion is often increased in congenital adrenal hyperplasia caused by 21-hydroxylase deficiency.

      It is important to note that elevated excretion of these compounds may also occur in other conditions such as coma, dehydration, extreme stress states, medication use, and ingestion of certain foods. Therefore, careful interpretation of urinary metabolite levels is necessary for accurate diagnosis of adrenal tumors and disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - A 49-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of severe hot...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of severe hot flashes and vaginal dryness that have been ongoing for 6 weeks. She suspects that she may be experiencing menopause. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and psoriasis and is currently taking levothyroxine and has a Mirena intrauterine system in place.

      What would be the most suitable course of action to address the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Combined hormone replacement therapy

      Correct Answer: Estradiol

      Explanation:

      The Mirena intrauterine system is approved for use as the progesterone component of hormone replacement therapy for a duration of 4 years. In a woman with a uterus, hormone replacement therapy aims to replace oestrogen to alleviate menopausal symptoms, but an additional source of progesterone is required to counteract the effects of unopposed oestrogen on the uterus, which increases the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and malignancy. As this patient already has the Mirena coil in place, which releases progesterone locally to act on the uterus, the only necessary treatment is oestrogen. Estradiol is the only option that provides only oestrogen therapy and can be administered topically or transdermally. Combined HRT, which includes both oestrogen and progesterone, would be inappropriate as the patient is already receiving progesterone from the Mirena coil. Levonorgestrel and medroxyprogesterone are both progesterones and would not provide oestrogen supplementation to the patient, which is necessary to alleviate her menopausal symptoms.

      Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, Hormone Replacement Therapy, and Non-Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 consecutive months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for up to 7 years, with varying degrees of severity and duration. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.

      Lifestyle modifications can help manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended. For women who cannot or do not want to take HRT, non-hormonal treatments such as fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturizers for vaginal dryness, and cognitive behavior therapy or antidepressants for psychological symptoms can be prescribed.

      HRT is a treatment option for women with moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. However, it is contraindicated in women with current or past breast cancer, any estrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia. HRT brings certain risks, including venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. Women should be advised of these risks and the fact that symptoms typically last for 2-5 years.

      When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence of symptoms in the short term. However, in the long term, there is no difference in symptom control. Women who experience ineffective treatment, ongoing side effects, or unexplained bleeding should be referred to secondary care. Overall, managing menopause requires a personalized approach that takes into account a woman’s medical history, preferences, and individual symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      34.4
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 25-year-old man comes to you with concerns about feeling unwell along with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to you with concerns about feeling unwell along with his roommate for the past few weeks. What is the most prevalent symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning?

      Your Answer: Cherry red skin

      Correct Answer: Headache

      Explanation:

      The most common symptom of carbon monoxide poisoning is a headache. Severe toxicity can be identified by cherry red skin, which is typically observed after death.

      Understanding Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

      Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide, a toxic gas, is inhaled and binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin in the body, resulting in tissue hypoxia. This leads to a left-shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, causing a decrease in oxygen saturation of haemoglobin. In the UK, there are approximately 50 deaths per year from accidental carbon monoxide poisoning.

      Symptoms of carbon monoxide toxicity include headache, nausea and vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and subjective weakness. Severe toxicity can result in pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and even death.

      To diagnose carbon monoxide poisoning, pulse oximetry may not be reliable due to similarities between oxyhaemoglobin and carboxyhaemoglobin. Therefore, a venous or arterial blood gas should be taken to measure carboxyhaemoglobin levels. Non-smokers typically have levels below 3%, while smokers have levels below 10%. Symptomatic patients have levels between 10-30%, and severe toxicity is indicated by levels above 30%. An ECG may also be useful to check for cardiac ischaemia.

      In the emergency department, patients with suspected carbon monoxide poisoning should receive 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. This decreases the half-life of carboxyhemoglobin and should be administered as soon as possible, with treatment continuing for a minimum of six hours. Target oxygen saturations are 100%, and treatment is generally continued until all symptoms have resolved. For more severe cases, hyperbaric oxygen therapy may be considered, as it has been shown to have better long-term outcomes than standard oxygen therapy. Indications for hyperbaric oxygen therapy include loss of consciousness, neurological signs other than headache, myocardial ischaemia or arrhythmia, and pregnancy.

      Overall, understanding the pathophysiology, symptoms, and management of carbon monoxide poisoning is crucial in preventing and treating this potentially deadly condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 56-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a high stoma output...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a high stoma output from his ileostomy. He had a colectomy 8 years ago due to severe ulcerative colitis. He complains of leg cramps and occasional palpitations, and feels weak. Upon examination, his abdomen is soft with slight tenderness throughout. His blood work reveals a sodium level of 138 mmol/l, potassium level of 2.2 mmol/l, urea level of 13.3 mmol/l, and creatinine level of 150 µmol/l. An ECG shows flattened T waves and U waves. He is admitted to the medical admission unit. How should his electrolyte imbalance be managed?

      Your Answer: Transfer to high care area with cardiac monitoring, 3 x 1litre bags of 0.9% saline with 40mmol KCL per bag over 24 hours.

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypokalaemia and its Features

      Hypokalaemia is a medical condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. It can lead to various symptoms, including muscle weakness and hypotonia. Patients with hypokalaemia who are also taking diuretics should be monitored closely for digoxin toxicity.

      One of the most significant concerns with hypokalaemia is its impact on the heart. ECG features associated with hypokalaemia include U waves, small or absent T waves, prolonged PR interval, and ST depression. These changes can increase the risk of arrhythmias and other cardiac complications.

      It is essential to recognize the signs and symptoms of hypokalaemia promptly. Treatment may involve potassium supplements or addressing the underlying cause of the condition. With proper management, patients with hypokalaemia can avoid complications and improve their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      59.1
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A middle-aged patient presents with lethargy, weight loss and fainting episodes. In the...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged patient presents with lethargy, weight loss and fainting episodes. In the Emergency Department, a postural drop in blood pressure is noted of > 20 mmHg systolic from the supine to the standing position. Blood glucose is 2.9 mmol/l, and Na+ is 122 mmol/l.
      What is the cause of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Decreased cortisol; decreased aldosterone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Addison’s Disease: Hormonal Imbalances and Clinical Presentation

      Addison’s disease, or primary adrenal failure, is a condition characterized by autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex, resulting in reduced levels of cortisol and aldosterone. This hormonal imbalance leads to a range of clinical symptoms, including hypotension, hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, acidosis, and skin and mucosal hyperpigmentation.

      While other hormonal imbalances may occur in the adrenal glands, such as increased cortisol or aldosterone, they are less likely to result in the clinical presentation of Addison’s disease. For example, increased cortisol is unlikely due to autoimmune destruction of the zona fasciculata, while increased aldosterone is rare and typically caused by an adrenal adenoma. Similarly, decreased cortisol with normal aldosterone is more commonly associated with secondary adrenal failure caused by pituitary disease, but does not fit with the hyponatraemia seen in Addison’s disease.

      Overall, understanding the hormonal imbalances and clinical presentation of Addison’s disease is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A teenager returns from a backpacking holiday in South America, having developed abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager returns from a backpacking holiday in South America, having developed abdominal pain, diarrhoea and fevers one week before his return. On examination, he has a fever of 38.5 °C and diffuse abdominal pain. Stool microscopy shows pus and red blood cells; culture is awaited.
      Which of the following is the most likely organism?

      Your Answer: Vibrio cholerae

      Correct Answer: Salmonella species

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Gastroenteritis in Travellers

      Travellers are at risk of contracting various infections that can cause gastroenteritis. Salmonella species, transmitted through contaminated food or beverages, can cause non-typhoidal enterocolitis, non-typhoidal focal disease, or typhoid fever. Rotavirus, which causes self-limited gastroenteritis, typically presents with anorexia, low-grade fever, and watery, bloodless diarrhea. Plasmodium falciparum, a parasite that causes malaria, can be detected through blood films. Norovirus, the most common cause of epidemic non-bacterial gastroenteritis, presents with nausea, vomiting, watery non-bloody/non-purulent diarrhea, and low-grade fever. Vibrio cholerae, which causes cholera, is transmitted through contaminated water or food and can cause severe watery diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration. It is important to consider these potential causes when diagnosing gastroenteritis in returning travellers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 4-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department due to severe breathing...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child is rushed to the emergency department due to severe breathing difficulties caused by croup. The child was given oral dexamethasone by the GP earlier in the day. Upon examination, the child's oxygen saturation is at 89% on room air and there is noticeable intercostal recession. What emergency treatment should be administered to the child?

      Your Answer: Oxygen + nebulised salbutamol

      Correct Answer: Oxygen + nebulised adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 56-year-old woman visits the emergency GP service with a red and painful...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman visits the emergency GP service with a red and painful eye that has been bothering her for a few hours. Upon examination, the doctor notices a dilated pupil and a significant decrease in vision.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Acute angle-closure glaucoma, Conjunctivitis, Foreign body, Optic neuritis, and Uveitis are some of the most common eye conditions that individuals may experience. Each condition has its own set of symptoms and characteristics that can help in identifying the underlying cause.

      Acute angle-closure glaucoma is characterized by sudden onset symptoms such as blurred vision, seeing haloes around lights, red eye, pain, headache, and nausea and vomiting. It is an ophthalmic emergency that requires urgent specialist assessment to prevent blindness.

      Conjunctivitis is one of the most common non-traumatic eye complaints resulting in presentation to A&E. It is characterized by redness, profuse discharge, irritation, and rarely photophobia. Most causes are benign, with a self-limited process.

      Foreign body in the cornea is characterized by pain, foreign body sensation, photophobia, tearing, and red eye. A visible foreign body may be present on physical examination.

      Optic neuritis is characterized by rapidly developing impairment of vision in one eye, dyschromatopsia, retro-orbital or ocular pain, Uhthoff’s phenomenon, and Pulfrich’s phenomenon. It often occurs in association with multiple sclerosis (MS) and neuromyelitis optica (NMO).

      Uveitis is characterized by inflammation of the uveal tract or adjacent ocular structures. It is often autoimmune in nature, and the aetiology remains elusive in most cases. Symptoms vary depending on the location of the inflammation, with acute anterior uveitis being the most common form of intraocular inflammation, causing a painful red eye.

      Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of these common eye conditions can help in identifying the underlying cause and seeking appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner reporting a feeling of weakness...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner reporting a feeling of weakness in his right arm that occurred about 10 hours ago. He states that the weakness lasted for around one hour and has since disappeared. He has a history of hypertension and takes amlodipine, but is typically healthy.
      What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Give aspirin 300 mg and refer immediately to be seen in the Stroke Clinic within 24 hours

      Explanation:

      Management of Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA)

      Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a medical emergency that requires prompt management to prevent a subsequent stroke. Here are some management strategies for TIA:

      Immediate administration of aspirin 300 mg and referral to the Stroke Clinic within 24 hours is recommended, unless contraindicated. Clopidogrel 75 mg once daily is the preferred secondary prevention following a stroke or TIA.

      An outpatient magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) head scan may be considered to determine the territory of ischaemia, but only after assessment by a specialist at a TIA clinic.

      Patients who have had a suspected TIA within the last week should be offered aspirin 300 mg at once and be seen by a stroke specialist within 24 hours. If the suspected TIA was more than one week ago, patients should be seen by a specialist within the next seven days.

      Dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel may be considered for the first three months following a TIA or ischaemic stroke if the patient has severe symptomatic intracranial stenosis or for another condition such as acute coronary syndrome.

      Management Strategies for Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 24-year-old male is undergoing a medical review at a professional football club...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male is undergoing a medical review at a professional football club when an ejection systolic murmur is found. He is sent for echocardiogram and subsequently diagnosed with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM).

      Despite a normal electrocardiogram (ECG) and regular pulse, which complication of this condition is most likely to result in sudden death for this athlete?

      Your Answer: Myocardial infarction

      Correct Answer: Ventricular arrhythmia

      Explanation:

      Young athletes with hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy are at risk of sudden death due to ventricular arrhythmia. This is believed to be caused by ventricular tachycardia resulting from ischaemia, which typically occurs during extreme exertion. Unlike myocardial infarction, which is commonly associated with atherosclerosis in the coronary arteries, it is unlikely for a young person to develop this condition. However, cocaine use may increase the risk of MI in young people. Although HOCM may cause a regurgitant mitral valve, valve rupture is not a known complication. While heart block may occur in some cases of HOCM, it is rare and is unlikely to cause sudden death.

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is caused by mutations in genes encoding contractile proteins. It is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, diastolic dysfunction, and myofibrillar hypertrophy with disarray and fibrosis on biopsy. HOCM can be asymptomatic or present with exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, sudden death, arrhythmias, heart failure, jerky pulse, and systolic murmurs. It is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A 28-year-old female presents to the GP office with a complaint of unusual...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the GP office with a complaint of unusual vaginal discharge. The discharge is described as frothy and green-yellow in color. She is sexually active and does not use any form of birth control. Her most recent sexual encounter was with a new partner two weeks ago. During speculum examination, a strawberry cervix is observed. She is in good health and not taking any medications. A pregnancy test came back negative. What is the recommended course of action for the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral metronidazole

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for the patient’s likely diagnosis of trichomoniasis is oral metronidazole, either as a 7-day course of 200mg or a one-time dose of 2g. Intramuscular ceftriaxone, benzathine benzylpenicillin, and oral doxycycline are not indicated for the treatment of trichomoniasis. Oral azithromycin is also not effective for this condition.

      Understanding Trichomonas vaginalis and its Comparison to Bacterial Vaginosis

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a type of protozoan parasite that is highly motile and flagellated. It is known to cause trichomoniasis, which is a sexually transmitted infection. The infection is characterized by symptoms such as offensive, yellow/green, frothy vaginal discharge, vulvovaginitis, and strawberry cervix. The pH level is usually above 4.5, and in men, it may cause urethritis.

      To diagnose trichomoniasis, a wet mount microscopy is conducted to observe the motile trophozoites. The treatment for trichomoniasis involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, although a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used.

      When compared to bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis has distinct differences. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan parasite. The symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor, and a pH level above 4.5. Unlike trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection.

      In conclusion, understanding the differences between trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions effectively. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      13.5
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 48-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean origin presents to her General Practitioner for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean origin presents to her General Practitioner for a hypertension review. She has been taking 8 mg of perindopril per day for the last three years. Her average home blood pressure (BP) readings are 150/92 mmHg.
      On examination, she is obese, with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2. On investigation, her renal function is normal, as is urine dipstick testing. There is no evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy on the electrocardiogram. She is not diabetic.
      What is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Add atenolol

      Correct Answer: Switch to amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Uncontrolled Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health complications if left untreated. When first-line treatment with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor is not effective, there are several options for adjusting medication to better control blood pressure.

      Switching to a calcium-channel blocker like amlodipine is recommended as a second-line treatment. Thiazide-like diuretics may also be considered. For patients over 55 years old without diabetes, or those of black African or Afro-Caribbean family origin without diabetes, calcium-channel blockers should be started as first-line treatment.

      Increasing the dose of perindopril erbumine beyond the maximum of 8 mg is not safe and may cause renal impairment. Adding atenolol is reserved for patients with known coronary artery disease or inadequately controlled hypertension on maximal doses of other medications.

      Thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide are no longer recommended by NICE guidance. Instead, thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide are recommended as a second-line alternative to calcium-channel blockers if hypertension is not adequately controlled on maximal doses of first-line treatment.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled despite medication adjustments, referral for ambulatory blood pressure monitoring may be necessary to determine the best course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      71.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

ENT (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (3/5) 60%
Dermatology (0/3) 0%
Psychiatry (3/5) 60%
Neurology (6/11) 55%
Paediatrics (1/4) 25%
Reproductive Medicine (4/8) 50%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (9/10) 90%
Cardiovascular (6/13) 46%
Infectious Diseases (4/6) 67%
Renal Medicine/Urology (3/7) 43%
Musculoskeletal (4/6) 67%
Immunology/Allergy (4/4) 100%
Respiratory Medicine (1/2) 50%
Haematology/Oncology (3/5) 60%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (4/5) 80%
Genetics (1/2) 50%
Ophthalmology (2/2) 100%
Passmed