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Question 1
Incorrect
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Which one of the following features is least consistent with Trichomonas vaginalis?
Your Answer: Strawberry cervix
Correct Answer:
Explanation:A pH level greater than 4.5 is linked to Trichomonas vaginalis and bacterial vaginosis.
Comparison of Bacterial Vaginosis and Trichomonas Vaginalis
Bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis are two common sexually transmitted infections that affect women. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while Trichomonas vaginalis is caused by a protozoan parasite. Both infections can cause vaginal discharge and vulvovaginitis, but Trichomonas vaginalis may also cause urethritis in men.
The vaginal discharge in bacterial vaginosis is typically thin and grayish-white, with a fishy odor. The pH of the vagina is usually higher than 4.5. In contrast, the discharge in Trichomonas vaginalis is offensive, yellow/green, and frothy. The cervix may also appear like a strawberry. The pH of the vagina is also higher than 4.5.
To diagnose bacterial vaginosis, a doctor may perform a pelvic exam and take a sample of the vaginal discharge for testing. The presence of clue cells, which are vaginal cells covered in bacteria, is a hallmark of bacterial vaginosis. On the other hand, Trichomonas vaginalis can be diagnosed by examining a wet mount under a microscope. The motile trophozoites of the parasite can be seen in the sample.
Both bacterial vaginosis and Trichomonas vaginalis can be treated with antibiotics. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for both infections. For bacterial vaginosis, a course of oral metronidazole for 5-7 days is recommended. For Trichomonas vaginalis, a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used. It is important to complete the full course of antibiotics to ensure that the infection is fully treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 65 year old man presents with a productive cough that has lasted for three days. He has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath over the past two days and reports feeling weak and lethargic. He also has a fever and rigors. His wife brought him to the community Emergency Medical Unit (EMU) as she was concerned about his rapid deterioration.
Upon examination, his heart rate is 125 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 32 breaths per minute, Sa02 is 90% on room air, temperature is 38.9º, and blood pressure is 130/84 mmHg. He appears distressed but is not confused.
Initial investigations reveal a hemoglobin level of 134 g/l, platelets of 550 * 109/l, and a white blood cell count of 18 * 109/l. His electrolyte levels are within normal range, with a sodium level of 141 mmol/l and a potassium level of 3.7 mmol/l. His urea level is 9.2 mmol/l and creatinine level is 130 µmol/l. A chest X-ray shows left lower zone consolidation.
What is his CURB-65 score based on the given information?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:The patient is currently in a room with normal air temperature, measuring 38.9º. Their blood pressure is 130/84 mmHg and they appear to be distressed, but not confused. Initial tests indicate that their hemoglobin level is 134 g/l and their platelet count is currently unknown.
Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. Antibiotic therapy should be considered based on the patient’s CRP level. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Management of low-severity pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate to high-severity pneumonia may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old male presents with frequent episodes of waking up in distress. He reports feeling breathless and his heart racing late at night. These episodes are causing him significant worry. His wife notes that he snores loudly and sometimes stops if he changes position. Additionally, he has been taking short naps during the day which is impacting his work as an IT technician. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes and obesity.
What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polysomnography (PSG)
Explanation:Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome
Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition that causes interrupted breathing during sleep due to a blockage in the airway. This can lead to a range of health problems, including daytime somnolence, respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. Partners of those with OSAHS often complain of excessive snoring and periods of apnoea.
To assess sleepiness, patients may complete the Epworth Sleepiness Scale questionnaire, and undergo the Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) to measure the time it takes to fall asleep in a dark room. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies (polysomnography), which measure a range of physiological factors such as EEG, respiratory airflow, thoraco-abdominal movement, snoring, and pulse oximetry.
Management of OSAHS includes weight loss and the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as a first-line treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices, such as mandibular advancement, may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS without daytime sleepiness. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, they may be considered in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the correct statement regarding migraine from the list provided?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Onset of migraine over the age of 50 years is unusual and should be investigated
Explanation:Understanding Migraine: Symptoms, Triggers, and Risks
Migraine is a neurological condition that is often characterized by a prodromal aura preceding a severe headache that can last for several hours or even days. While the first attack usually occurs in childhood, over 80% of individuals experience their first migraine by the age of 30. However, if the onset of migraine occurs after the age of 50, other underlying conditions should be investigated.
While certain foods and additives such as caffeine, chocolate, and aged cheese have been suggested as potential triggers for migraine, large epidemiological studies have failed to confirm these claims. As such, no specific diets have been shown to alleviate migraine symptoms.
It is important to note that both migraine and the use of combined oral contraceptives are independent risk factors for ischemic stroke. However, the risk is low in the absence of other risk factors, and migraine without aura is not a contraindication for the use of combined oral contraceptives. Women with other risk factors for arterial disease should use caution when taking the pill, and those with prothrombotic coagulation disorders should avoid it altogether.
Hemiplegic migraine is a rare form of migraine that is characterized by unilateral weakness that accompanies a migraine headache attack. This form of migraine with aura may occur either in families or only in one individual. It is important to distinguish between migraine aura and other conditions such as epileptic aura or transient ischemic attack, which have different characteristics.
In summary, understanding the symptoms, triggers, and risks associated with migraine is crucial for effective management and treatment of this debilitating condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are researching month-on-month changes in septoplasty rates nationally.
Select from the options the best source of information.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hospital Episode Statistics
Explanation:Limitations of Different Data Sources for Healthcare Research
When conducting healthcare research, it is important to consider the limitations of different data sources. National census data, while useful for understanding demographics, cannot provide information on specific healthcare issues. Quality Outcome Framework data is limited to the issues measured in GP practices, and local PAS data may not provide a comprehensive national picture. Additionally, a postal survey of ENT surgeons may result in a low response rate. Therefore, researchers must carefully consider the strengths and limitations of each data source before drawing conclusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man with Down syndrome undergoes his annual health check and a cardiac abnormality is discovered. Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most commonly found in adults with Down syndrome? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral valve prolapse
Explanation:Cardiac Abnormalities in Adults with Down Syndrome
Down syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 700 babies born in the United States. While congenital defects are common in children with Down syndrome, affecting 47%, most babies born with these defects will have surgery at an early age. However, around 40-50% of adults with Down syndrome will develop valvular disease, even if they did not have a defect at birth.
Atrial fibrillation, a common heart condition characterized by an irregular heartbeat, doesn’t have a significant increase in risk among the Down syndrome population compared to the general population. However, the risk of infective endocarditis, a potentially life-threatening infection of the heart’s inner lining, is increased in individuals with Down syndrome who have a structural cardiac abnormality.
Interestingly, rates of ischaemic heart disease, a condition caused by reduced blood flow to the heart, are lower among people with Down syndrome when compared to the general population. Ventricular septal defect, a hole in the wall separating the heart’s lower chambers, occurs in 32% of babies born with Down syndrome, but it is relatively rare in adults due to early surgical correction.
In conclusion, while adults with Down syndrome may be at an increased risk for certain cardiac abnormalities, early surgical intervention and lower rates of ischaemic heart disease suggest that proper medical care can help manage these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old female presents with episodic wheezing and shortness of breath for the past 5 months. She has smoked for the past 7 years and has a history of eczema. Examination of her chest is unremarkable. Spirometry is arranged and is reported as normal.
What would be the most suitable course of action now?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fractional exhaled nitric oxide + spirometry/bronchodilator reversibility test
Explanation:It is recommended that individuals who are suspected to have asthma undergo both FeNO testing and spirometry with reversibility.
Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You are conducting an audit of anti-epileptic drug prescribing at the clinic, to evaluate the frequency of prescribing branded versus generic medications.
Which of the following drugs is crucial to prescribe by brand name?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Prescribing by brand is crucial when it comes to phenytoin and carbamazepine, which are the top anti-epileptic medications.
Antiepileptics: Prescribing by Brand
For several years, healthcare professionals have been advised to prescribe certain antiepileptic medications by brand rather than generically. In November 2013, the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued more specific guidance on how to treat individual antiepileptics. The guidance categorizes the more common antiepileptics into three categories: Category 1, Category 2, and Category 3.
Category 1 includes phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, and primodine. Patients taking these medications should be maintained on a specific manufacturer’s product.
Category 2 includes sodium valproate, lamotrigine, clonazepam, and topiramate. For these medications, healthcare professionals should use clinical judgement and consult with the patient, taking into account seizure frequency and treatment history, to determine whether to maintain the patient on a specific manufacturer’s product.
Category 3 includes levetiracetam, gabapentin, pregabalin, ethosuximide, and vigabatrin. For these medications, it is usually unnecessary to maintain the patient on a specific manufacturer’s product unless there are specific reasons such as patient anxiety or risk of confusion/dosing errors.
Overall, the guidance aims to ensure that patients with epilepsy receive consistent and effective treatment by reducing the risk of switching between different manufacturers’ products.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with coronary artery disease visits his General Practitioner after an abdominal ultrasound reveals an easily felt epigastric pulsation. The ultrasound shows a normal calibre abdominal aorta without aneurysm, but incidentally finds gallstones. The patient has never experienced biliary colic or jaundice and has a normal body mass index with no history of abdominal surgery.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No treatment
Explanation:Treatment Options for Asymptomatic Cholelithiasis
Asymptomatic cholelithiasis, or gallstones without any symptoms, doesn’t require therapeutic intervention. In fact, up to 70% of patients with gallstones are asymptomatic at the time of diagnosis. The risk of prophylactic cholecystectomy, or removal of the gallbladder, is greater than the benefit likely to be gained by removal. However, in a partially calcified ‘porcelain’ gallbladder, removal may be recommended to prevent pancreatitis or cholangitis.
Open cholecystectomy, a surgical procedure with a longer recovery time and higher risk of complications, is often reserved for patients where laparoscopy is a higher risk. Endoscopic removal of stones is not suitable for asymptomatic cholelithiasis as it doesn’t remove the gallbladder or stones within it.
If the patient becomes symptomatic, laparoscopic cholecystectomy would be the treatment of choice. However, for asymptomatic patients, the risks of a procedure outweigh the potential benefits of preventing future complications. Lithotripsy, a procedure that breaks up gallstones, is not routinely recommended for the treatment of any gallstones due to the risk of complications.
Treatment Options for Asymptomatic Cholelithiasis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is an accurate statement about Pertussis Infection in children?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is infectious for at least 2 months after the termination of the coughing
Explanation:Pertussis: Diagnosis and Symptoms
Pertussis, commonly known as whooping cough, is most contagious during the first 7-14 days of the illness, which is called the catarrhal phase. During this phase, there is an increase in lymphocytes in the blood. Diagnosis of pertussis can be made by taking blood for pertussis serology or by isolating the organism from nasal secretions. It is important to note that an inspiratory whoop may not always be present, but complete apnoeic episodes can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits a neurovascular clinic for a check-up. He had a stroke caused by a blood clot 3 weeks ago but has been recovering well. However, the patient had to discontinue taking clopidogrel 75 mg due to severe abdominal discomfort and diarrhea after switching from aspirin 300 mg daily. Since then, the symptoms have subsided.
What would be the best medication(s) to recommend for preventing another stroke in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin 75 mg plus modified release dipyridamole
Explanation:When clopidogrel cannot be used, the recommended treatment for secondary stroke prevention is a combination of aspirin 75 mg and modified-release dipyridamole. Studies have shown that this combination is more effective than taking aspirin or modified-release dipyridamole alone. Ticagrelor is not currently recommended by NICE for this purpose, and prasugrel is contraindicated due to the risk of bleeding. Oral anticoagulants like warfarin are generally not used for secondary stroke prevention, with antiplatelets being the preferred treatment.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.
Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.
Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman who is 3 weeks postpartum seeks your advice on contraception. She wants to know when she can have an intrauterine device (IUD) inserted. She had a caesarean section due to failure to progress during labor. What would be your recommended course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An IUD can be inserted 4 weeks postpartum
Explanation:The guidelines indicate that there is no requirement to delay further, even if a caesarean section was performed.
Contraindications for Insertion of Intrauterine Contraceptive Devices
When it comes to the insertion of intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUDs), there are very few contraindications. However, it is important to note that some conditions may increase the risks associated with the procedure. According to the Faculty of Family Planning and Reproductive Health Care, there are certain conditions that fall under UKMEC Category 3, where the risks outweigh the benefits. These include insertion between 48 hours and 4 weeks postpartum, as well as initiation of the method in women with ovarian cancer.
On the other hand, UKMEC Category 4 lists conditions that pose an unacceptable risk for IUD insertion. These include pregnancy, current pelvic infection, puerperal sepsis, immediate post-septic abortion, unexplained vaginal bleeding, and uterine fibroids or anatomical abnormalities that distort the uterine cavity.
In addition, NICE guidelines from 2005 recommend screening for sexually transmitted infections (STIs) before IUD insertion. Women at risk of STIs should be tested for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae, especially in areas where the latter is prevalent. Women who request it should also be tested for any STIs. For those at increased risk of STIs, prophylactic antibiotics should be given before IUD insertion if testing has not yet been completed.
It is important to consider these contraindications and guidelines before undergoing IUD insertion to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old female with a history of Crohn's disease comes in with right flank pain that extends to her groin. Upon urinalysis, there is evidence of non-visible blood in the urine. What is the probable underlying biochemical anomaly?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperoxaluria
Explanation:Enteric Hyperoxaluria and Renal Stones
Patients who suffer from chronic diarrhoeal illnesses like ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease are at risk of developing enteric hyperoxaluria. This condition leads to an increased risk of developing renal stones. The high levels of oxalate in the body are due to increased absorption of oxalate. This can be a serious complication for patients with chronic diarrhoeal illnesses and requires careful management to prevent the development of renal stones. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients with these conditions closely and provide appropriate treatment to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 30-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of fatigue, night sweats, and muscle pains that have been bothering her for a few months. She believes that these symptoms began after she developed a rash on her leg four months ago. She has not traveled anywhere. Samantha is upset and emotional about her symptoms.
As part of Samantha's evaluation, which tests should be considered?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi antibody test
Explanation:Consider Lyme disease as a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with vague and unexplained symptoms such as fever, night sweats, headache, or paraesthesia. These symptoms may also include inflamed lymph nodes, neck pain, and joint/muscle aches. The causative agent of Lyme disease is Borrelia burgdorferi. Malaria is unlikely in patients with no travel history and symptoms lasting for 4 months. Scabies typically presents with an itchy rash, which is not evident in the scenario. Glandular fever may cause fatigue and muscle aches, but the absence of a sore throat and the need for a blood test for diagnosis make it less likely. Toxoplasma gondii is usually asymptomatic but may cause flu-like symptoms and muscle aches, and it is not associated with a rash.
Lyme Disease: Symptoms and Progression
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection that is transmitted through the bite of an infected tick. The disease progresses in two stages, with early and later features. The early features of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, which is a small papule that often appears at the site of the tick bite. This papule develops into a larger annular lesion with central clearing, resembling a bulls-eye. This occurs in 70% of patients and is accompanied by systemic symptoms such as malaise, fever, and arthralgia.
As the disease progresses, it can lead to more severe symptoms. The later features of Lyme disease include cardiovascular symptoms such as heart block and myocarditis, as well as neurological symptoms such as cranial nerve palsies and meningitis. Patients may also experience polyarthritis, which is inflammation in multiple joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner complaining of severe pain in the left flank and left lower abdomen with radiation to the left testicle. He reports that he woke up with the pain, but was “fine last night”. The clinician suspects uncomplicated renal colic.
What feature would best support this diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haematuria
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Renal Colic
Renal colic is a condition characterized by sudden and severe pain caused by stones in the urinary tract. The pain typically starts in the loin and moves to the groin, with tenderness in the renal angle. Patients with renal colic may experience periods of relief or dull aches before the pain returns. Other symptoms include microscopic haematuria, nausea, and vomiting. Unlike patients with peritoneal irritation, those with renal colic may writhe around in agony and have increased bowel sounds. Apyrexia is common in uncomplicated cases, while pyrexia suggests infection. It’s important to note that although there may be severe pain in the testis, the testis itself should not be tender. Understanding these symptoms can help with the diagnosis and management of renal colic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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When applied thinly, how much skin does one 'fingertip unit' of corticosteroid cream cover?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Four adult hand prints
Explanation:Proper Application of Topical Corticosteroids
Topical corticosteroids are effective in treating skin conditions, but it is important to apply them correctly. To ensure proper coverage of affected areas, the cream or ointment should be spread thinly but in sufficient quantity. A useful measurement for this is the fingertip unit, which is the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube from the tip of an adult index finger to the first crease.
To apply the correct amount, one fingertip unit (approximately 500 mg) should be used to cover an area twice the size of the flat adult hand (palm and fingers together). This ensures that the medication is evenly distributed and absorbed by the skin. By following these guidelines, patients can maximize the effectiveness of their topical corticosteroid treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A small-randomised control trial is conducted to examine the impact of a new medication on the frequency of headaches in individuals aged 50 and above. Participants are randomly assigned to receive either the new medication or a placebo. The frequency of their headaches is evaluated after a two-week period using the following scale: “Never”, “Rarely”, “Sometimes”, “Often”, “Always”.
Which statistical test is most appropriate for analyzing the findings of this study?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mann-Whitney U-test
Explanation:The appropriate statistical test for comparing the ordinal data from this small-randomised control trial is the Mann-Whitney U-test. This test is used for non-parametric data from two independent groups. McNemar’s test is not appropriate as it is used for paired nominal data, while the Student’s t-tests require parametric data.
Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with her husband. They are concerned because she has become increasingly fixated on cleaning, which is interfering with her other responsibilities and straining their relationship.
She has installed a nail brush in the downstairs bathroom to scrub her skin after using the toilet and has prohibited guests from using any of the upstairs bathrooms. She also requires visitors to remove their shoes outside and has banned eating from any area outside the kitchen. Most recently, she has begun waking up at 5:30 am every day to clean.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment for her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Counselling
Explanation:Treating OCD with CBT and SSRIs
CBT and SSRIs are the main treatments for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). CBT involves challenging the ritualistic behavior of OCD through exposure and response prevention, which exposes the patient to stimuli that usually provoke their behavior and challenges their irrational thinking. On the other hand, SSRIs are the main pharmacological therapy for OCD. Counseling alone is not usually focused enough to provide significant impact on symptoms. A comprehensive treatment plan that includes CBT and SSRIs can help individuals with OCD manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired teacher comes to the clinic with her daughter because she has been exhibiting unusual behavior for the past few months. She has been found wandering around the neighborhood at night and has started hoarding items from the grocery store. Her daughter also reports that she has become more aggressive and has made inappropriate comments to strangers. On physical examination, there are no significant findings and she has no known medical history.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fronto-temporal dementia
Explanation:Dementia Diagnosis: Fronto-Temporal Dementia
A former professional footballer is exhibiting behavioural changes such as disinhibition, repetitive checking, and binge eating. These symptoms, along with his previous occupation, suggest a diagnosis of fronto-temporal dementia. The repetitive heading of heavy leather footballs is now recognized as a risk factor for this type of dementia. Lewy body dementia, Alzheimer’s dementia, multi-infarct dementia, and obsessive-compulsive disorder are all ruled out as potential diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents to the clinic for follow-up. He has been experiencing increasing difficulty with swallowing and feels like food is getting stuck shortly after he swallows. He has resorted to blending most of his meals and has lost 4 kg in weight over the past two months. He has also developed a hoarse voice recently.
The patient has a history of knee osteoarthritis and regularly takes ibuprofen. He has a BMI of 21 kg/m2 and no cervical lymphadenopathy is noted.
Laboratory results show:
- Hb 98 g/L (135-180)
- WCC 7.4 ×109/L (4.5-10)
- PLT 182 ×109/L (150-450)
- Na 137 mmol/L (135-145)
- K 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
- Cr 115 µmol/L (70-110)
Based on these findings, you suspect an upper esophageal cancer.
What is the most important next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trial of omeprazole
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Upper GI Endoscopy in Suspected Oesophageal Carcinoma
This patient’s medical history is indicative of an oesophageal carcinoma in the upper third, which is commonly associated with smoking and exposure to human papillomavirus. Although there are no signs of cervical lymphadenopathy, urgent referral to a gastroenterologist for upper GI endoscopy is necessary to rule out any underlying cancer.
Barium swallow is not recommended as upper GI endoscopy is a more effective option that allows for early tissue diagnosis. Helicobacter pylori testing is only useful in cases of potential duodenal ulcer disease, which is not the case here.
Stopping ibuprofen and trying omeprazole are not appropriate options as they may delay the diagnosis of any underlying oesophageal lesion. Therefore, urgent referral for upper GI endoscopy is the best course of action in suspected cases of oesophageal carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath. She has been prone to periodic chest infections but over the last 6 months has noticed slowly progressively worsening shortness of breath. She feels fatigued and reports generalised arthralgia.
She has a history of dry eyes and dry mouth for which she is prescribed lubricant medication. She is also treated for Raynaud's phenomenon.
On examination of the chest fine end inspiratory crepitations are heard at both lung bases.
Which of the following blood tests is most likely to yield useful diagnostic information?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies
Explanation:Sjogren’s Syndrome: A Multi-System Diagnosis
This patient’s chest symptoms, along with systemic symptoms and dry eyes and mouth, suggest a possible multi-system diagnosis. Sjogren’s syndrome is a condition that should be considered, especially if the patient is a woman in her 5th or 6th decade. Men and younger people can also be affected.
Sjogren’s syndrome is characterized by various symptoms, including pulmonary fibrosis, sicca symptoms (dry eyes and mouth), Raynaud’s phenomenon, and arthralgia. Anti-Ro and anti-La antibodies are useful diagnostic tools in identifying this condition.
It is important to recognize the potential for a multi-system diagnosis in patients presenting with a combination of symptoms. In this case, Sjogren’s syndrome should be considered and appropriate testing should be performed to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue after experiencing a bout of gastroenteritis last week. She reports no other symptoms and no longer has diarrhea or vomiting. Upon examination, her blood pressure is normal at 128/72 mmHg and her pulse is 92 beats per minute. The following investigations are conducted:
Haemoglobin (Hb) - 129 g/l (normal range: 115-155 g/l)
Sodium (Na+) - 143 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
Potassium (K+) - 5.6 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
Creatinine (Cr) - 80 µmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
Urea - 9.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-6.5 mmol/l)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mild dehydration
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Mild Dehydration
A patient presents with a slightly raised urea level and normal creatinine (Cr) level, along with mild fatigue. The most likely diagnosis is mild dehydration, which could be caused by gastroenteritis. No further treatment may be necessary, but the patient should ensure adequate nutrition and hydration in the next few days/weeks.
Other possible diagnoses include acute gastrointestinal bleeding, acute kidney injury, chronic kidney disease, and malnutrition due to gastroenteritis. However, the patient’s normal hemoglobin level makes acute GI bleeding unlikely, while the absence of an elevated Cr level rules out acute kidney injury and CKD. Malnutrition is also unlikely given the short duration of gastroenteritis symptoms and lack of other indications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents with worsening pain in his right hip, without any apparent cause or injury. The pain has not responded to regular pain medication and is particularly severe at night. Upon clinical examination, no clear cause is found. An urgent plain x-ray is ordered, which reveals a probable metastatic bony lesion in the right pelvis. Which group of solid tumor cancers is most likely to spread to the bone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast, thyroid, kidney, prostate and lung
Explanation:Identifying the Primary Tumor in Patients with Bony Metastasis
Patients who present with bony metastasis require careful examination and history taking to identify the site of the primary tumor. The most likely culprits should be considered, as haematological cancers such as myeloma and lymphoma can also cause bony metastases. It is important to note that identifying the primary tumor is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in their assessment and consider all possible causes of bony metastasis. Proper identification of the primary tumor can lead to better outcomes for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman has a diagnosis of subclinical hypothyroidism, but over the past six months has been increasingly fatigued, constipated and always feels cold. She has gained 3 lb in the same timeframe despite no change to her diet or lifestyle. Her General Practitioner suspects the development of primary hypothyroidism and arranges a thyroid function blood test to confirm.
Which of the following biochemical changes is most likely to appear first?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase in serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Explanation:Hypothyroidism develops gradually over a long period of time. In the early stages, the body compensates for the low levels of free thyroxine by increasing the production of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). This can result in subclinical hypothyroidism, where TSH levels are slightly elevated and thyroxine levels are low-normal. Subclinical hypothyroidism affects 3-8% of the population and carries a risk of progressing to overt hypothyroidism. Treatment should be considered if TSH levels are 10 U/ml or higher, or if there are other factors such as a goitre, positive anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies, or subfertility. As hypothyroidism progresses, there is a decrease in free triiodothyronine (T3) and free thyroxine (T4) levels, followed by a decrease in thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG) levels. Total triiodothyronine (T3) levels tend to decrease later in the course of hypothyroidism, after a rise in TSH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man presents with painless blood staining of the semen upon ejaculation. He reports no recent unprotected sexual intercourse and is in good health otherwise.
What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic and self-limiting
Explanation:Understanding Haematospermia: Causes and Symptoms
Haematospermia, the presence of blood in the ejaculate, is a common and usually benign symptom that can affect men of any age. In about 50% of cases, the cause is unknown and the symptom is self-limiting. However, further investigation may be necessary for men over 40 or those with accompanying symptoms such as perineal pain or abnormal examination findings.
Other conditions, such as urinary tract infections, epididymitis, hypertension, and prostate cancer, can also cause haematospermia. However, these conditions are usually accompanied by other symptoms such as dysuria, testicular pain, urinary symptoms, penile discharge, headaches, visual disturbance, or are unlikely in a 35-year-old man without any other symptoms.
It is important to seek medical attention if haematospermia persists or is accompanied by other symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man who is a smoker presents with hoarseness of his voice, firm cervical nodes and difficulty in swallowing.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx
Explanation:Types of Head and Neck Cancer: Symptoms and Characteristics
Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of cancer in the upper airway, with the larynx being the most likely location. Symptoms may include pain radiating to the ear, weight loss, and stridor in advanced cases. Small cell carcinoma of the larynx is rare. Adenocarcinoma of the hypopharynx is relatively rare and usually squamous cell carcinoma. Adenocarcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma are common varieties of oesophageal cancer, with dysphagia, anorexia, weight loss, vomiting, and gastrointestinal bleeding being red flag features. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of tonsillar cancer, with symptoms including a sore throat, ear pain, a foreign body sensation, bleeding, and a neck mass. Tonsillar enlargement may be the only sign if the tumour growth is below the surface, or there may be a fungating mass.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman has been receiving treatment for the past three weeks for otitis externa with flumetasone/clioquinol 0.02%/1%, followed by gentamicin 0.3% w/v and hydrocortisone acetate 1% ear drops. She acquired the condition while on vacation in Spain. She is now experiencing increasing itchiness in her ears. During examination, her ears have abundant discharge with black spots on a white background. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clotrimazole solution
Explanation:Treatment Options for Fungal Otitis Externa
Fungal otitis externa is a common ear infection that can be difficult to diagnose and treat. Patients who have had prolonged courses of steroid and antibiotic drops are particularly susceptible to this type of infection. Symptoms include pruritus and discharge, which may not respond to antibiotics. The most common fungal agents are Aspergillus and Candida, which can be treated with topical clotrimazole. Topical ciprofloxacin is not effective against fungal infections, and co-amoxiclav tablets should not be used. Sofradex® ear drops, which contain steroids, may exacerbate symptoms. If initial treatment with antifungal medication is unsuccessful, referral to an Ear, Nose and Throat specialist may be necessary for further evaluation and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are working in a Saturday morning clinic and a mother brings in her 10-year-old daughter who has developed new pustular, honey-coloured crusted lesions over her chin. She is otherwise healthy with normal vital signs and no evidence of lymphadenopathy on examination. She has no known allergies to any medications and is usually in good health.
You diagnose localised non-bullous impetigo.
The daughter is scheduled to go on a field trip to the zoo the next day and is very excited about it. The mother asks if it is safe for her daughter to go on the field trip.
What is your plan for managing this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe topical hydrogen peroxide 1% cream and advise them that the child should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed
Explanation:Referral or admission is not necessary for this straightforward primary care case, even if there is suspicion or confirmation of fusidic acid resistance. However, prescribing topical antibiotics is an option. It is important to advise the patient that he cannot attend school or go on his school trip until 48 hours after starting antibiotic treatment or until the lesions have crusted and healed.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.
Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You record the age of all of your students in your class. You discover that your data set is skewed. Which of the following would you use to describe the average age of your students?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Median
Explanation:If the data set is quantitative and on a ratio scale, the mean is typically the best measure of central tendency. However, if the data is skewed, the median may be a better choice as it is less affected by the skewness of the data.
Understanding Measures of Central Tendency
Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to simplify data and provide a typical or middle value of a data set. There are three measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode. The median is the middle item in a data set arranged in numerical order and is not affected by outliers. The mode is the most frequent item in a data set, and there may be two or more modes in some data sets. The mean is calculated by adding all the items of a data set together and dividing by the number of items. However, unlike the median or mode, the mean is sensitive to outliers and skewed data.
The appropriate method of summarizing the middle or typical value of a data set depends on the measurement scale. For categorical and nominal data, the mode is the appropriate measure of central tendency. For ordinal data, the median or mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median or mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed data, the median is the appropriate measure of central tendency. For ratio data, the mean is preferable for normal distribution, but the median or mode can also be used. For skewed ratio data, the median is the appropriate measure of central tendency. Understanding measures of central tendency is essential in analyzing and interpreting data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of constipation that has persisted since her last pregnancy two years ago. She has been using laxatives for the past few months. She reports no abdominal pain or diarrhoea and has not noticed any triggers or alleviating factors. Her weight is stable and she has not observed any blood in her stools. She is in good health otherwise.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic constipation
Explanation:Possible Causes of Chronic Constipation: A Differential Diagnosis
Chronic constipation is a common condition affecting approximately 14% of the global population. While most cases do not require investigation, it is important to consider potential underlying causes in certain patients. Here are some possible diagnoses to consider:
1. Idiopathic constipation: This is the most common cause of chronic constipation, especially in young patients. A high-fiber diet and physical activity can help alleviate symptoms.
2. Diverticular disease: This condition is characterized by abdominal pain and diarrhea, but it usually presents later in life and chronic constipation is a risk factor.
3. Colon cancer: While chronic constipation can be a symptom of colon cancer, other factors such as weight loss and rectal bleeding are usually present. This diagnosis is unlikely in younger patients.
4. Hypothyroidism: Constipation can be a symptom of an underactive thyroid, but other symptoms such as weight gain and fatigue are usually present.
5. Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS): IBS can cause constipation and/or diarrhea, but it is usually associated with abdominal pain and bloating.
In summary, chronic constipation can have various underlying causes, and a careful history and physical examination can help determine the appropriate diagnostic approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old gentleman presents with a small non-tender lump in the natal cleft. He reports no discharge from the lump. You suspect this to be a pilonidal sinus.
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to general surgeons
Explanation:Management of Asymptomatic Pilonidal Sinus Disease
A watch and wait approach is recommended for individuals with asymptomatic pilonidal sinus disease. It is important for patients to maintain good perianal hygiene through regular bathing or showering. However, there is no evidence to support the removal of buttock hair in these patients. If cellulitis is suspected, antibiotic treatment should be considered. Referral to a surgical team may be necessary if the pilonidal sinus is discharging or if an acute pilonidal abscess requires incision and drainage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with fragile X syndrome and asthma attends his annual health check.
Which of the following characteristics is most commonly seen in an adult male with fragile X syndrome? Choose ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral valve prolapse
Explanation:Common Health Issues in Adults with Fragile X Syndrome
Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder that can cause various health issues in affected individuals. Here are some common health issues that may be found in adult males with fragile X syndrome:
Mitral Valve Prolapse: This condition occurs in about 80% of adult males with fragile X syndrome and can also be associated with aortic-root dilatation. It is caused by connective-tissue disorders.
Gastro-oesophageal Reflux: While this is common among children with fragile X syndrome, it is less common in adults.
Infertility: Women with fragile X syndrome are more likely to have premature ovarian failure, but males with the condition are likely to have normal fertility.
Recurrent Otitis Media: This is a common issue that can cause hearing loss and worsen learning difficulties, but it is not the most likely feature to be found in adult males with fragile X syndrome.
Seizures: Seizures occur in 20-30% of males with fragile X syndrome, but they are less common in adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 33
Incorrect
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Which statistical test is appropriate for analyzing normally distributed data that is measured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Student's t-test
Explanation:Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 5-year old healthy girl is brought to the General Practice Surgery by her parents who are concerned about some darker skin patches they have noticed on her legs, arms and back. They think they have been present since she was a small baby but seem to be more noticeable over the last few months. They have counted six in total.
On examination, you observe several hyperpigmented macules with a sharp border and variable diameter on the limbs, abdomen and lower back. You believe these to be café au lait spots. She also has some freckly pigmentation under both arms.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)
Explanation:Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) is a genetic disorder that causes lesions in the skin, nervous system, and skeleton. It is usually diagnosed in children under the age of eight, with 80% of cases being identified by age six. The condition is characterized by the presence of café au lait spots, which are hyperpigmented macules with a sharp border and a diameter of over 0.5 cm in children or 1.5 cm in adults. To be diagnosed with NF1, a patient must have at least two of the following seven presentations: six or more café au lait macules, two or more cutaneous/subcutaneous neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma, axillary or groin freckling, optic pathway glioma, two or more Lisch nodules, bony dysplasia, or a first-degree relative with NF1. Other skin conditions, such as acanthosis nigricans, childhood lentigines, Sturge-Weber syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis, have different symptoms and are not associated with café au lait spots.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 35
Incorrect
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Whilst doing morning housecalls, you are phoned to visit the home of a 47-year-old man who is known to suffer from benign paroxysmal vertigo. The visit was requested by a relative on the basis of his ongoing dizziness but upon arrival, it becomes clear that he has sustained a head injury.
Whilst fixing a shelf in his garage, he became dizzy and fell to the ground.
Which of the following symptoms require immediate referral to the emergency ambulance services (i.e. 999) for emergency transportation to the emergency department?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bleeding from the nose
Explanation:NICE’s Guidance on Head Injury Management
A base of open or depressed skull fracture or penetrating head injury requires immediate referral to the emergency ambulance (999) service. Signs of a skull fracture that warrant referral to the emergency ambulance service include clear fluid running from the ears or nose, black eye with no associated damage around the eyes, bleeding from one or both ears, and bruising behind one or both ears.
On the other hand, a positive Dix-Hallpike maneuver is simply consistent with benign positional paroxysmal vertigo. It is important to follow NICE’s guidance on head injury management to ensure prompt and appropriate care for patients with head injuries. Proper identification and referral of patients with skull fractures can prevent further complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 36
Incorrect
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What is the highest ranked source of evidence in the hierarchy of evidence based medicine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meta-analysis
Explanation:Hierarchy of Evidence Grades
The strength of evidence provided by different study types is ranked in a hierarchy. This hierarchy is important to understand when making clinical decisions based on research. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) documents these evidence grades in Chapter 6 of their Guidelines manual (PMG6).
The strongest level of evidence is provided by meta-analyses, followed by randomized controlled trials (RCTs), controlled studies without randomization, quasi-experimental studies, non-experimental descriptive studies, and finally expert committee reports, opinions, and clinical experience.
It is crucial to consider the strength of evidence when interpreting research findings and applying them to clinical practice. By understanding the hierarchy of evidence grades, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions that are based on the most reliable and robust evidence available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 37
Incorrect
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During a routine postnatal check, a 29 year old woman presents with no underlying medical comorbidities and is currently breastfeeding her baby. She maintains a normal, varied diet. What daily supplements, if any, would you recommend for her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin D
Explanation:To promote the bone health of both the mother and child, the NHS recommends that pregnant and breastfeeding women take a daily vitamin D supplement of 10mcg. Women who are eligible for Healthy Start vouchers may be able to receive free supplements, which can be discussed with their Health Visitor.
For women who are trying to conceive up until 12 weeks of gestation, it is recommended to take a daily supplement of folic acid 400mcg. Breastfeeding women who follow a vegan diet may need to take a B12 supplement. It is important for pregnant women to check that any multivitamin tablets they take do not contain high doses of vitamin A, as this can be harmful to the developing fetus.
Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society’s 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.
Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman undergoes fasting blood tests for hypertension evaluation. The results show a fasting glucose level of 6.5 mmol/l. The test is repeated, and the result is 6.7 mmol/l. She reports feeling constantly fatigued but denies experiencing polyuria or polydipsia. What is the interpretation of these findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impaired fasting glycaemia
Explanation:The diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus can be made through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. Diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is symptomatic or not. WHO released guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosis, with a value of 48 mmol/mol or higher being diagnostic of diabetes. Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance are also defined. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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What is the accurate statement about meningitis in newborn infants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It always presents as a febrile illness
Explanation:Sepsis in Newborns: Apnoeic Episodes and Potential Consequences
Sepsis is a common issue in newborns, often presenting as apnoeic episodes. In the initial stages, the fontanelle may appear normal. The most frequent cause of sepsis in newborns is group B Streptococcus, which can be acquired during or after delivery. Unfortunately, the mortality rate for infants with sepsis is between 5-15%. Even those who survive may experience long-term consequences such as learning difficulties, speech problems, visual impairment, or neural deafness. Additionally, meningomyelocele is a risk factor for the introduction of meningeal infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient complains of tremors and excessive sweating. Upon conducting thyroid function tests, the results are as follows:
TSH <0.05 mU/l
Free T4 25 pmol/l
What is the leading cause of this clinical presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Thyrotoxicosis is primarily caused by Graves’ disease in the UK, while the other conditions that can lead to thyrotoxicosis are relatively rare.
Understanding Thyrotoxicosis: Causes and Investigations
Thyrotoxicosis is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, resulting in an excess of thyroid hormones in the body. Graves’ disease is the most common cause, accounting for 50-60% of cases. Other causes include toxic nodular goitre, subacute thyroiditis, postpartum thyroiditis, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, amiodarone therapy, and contrast administration. Elderly patients with pre-existing thyroid disease are also at risk.
To diagnose thyrotoxicosis, doctors typically look for a decrease in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels and an increase in T4 and T3 levels. Thyroid autoantibodies may also be present. Isotope scanning may be used to investigate further. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, highlighting the complexity of thyroid dysfunction. Patients with existing thyrotoxicosis should avoid iodinated contrast medium, as it can result in hyperthyroidism developing over several weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant presents with dysuria. She is in good health with no fever or back pain. She reports no vaginal bleeding and is not experiencing contractions. Her antenatal course has been uncomplicated and she is receiving midwife-led care. She has no known allergies to medications. Urinalysis shows positive nitrites and 2+ leukocytes, indicating a possible urinary tract infection.
What is the most suitable course of action for primary care management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange for a urine culture, and immediately treat with a short course of oral antibiotics as per local prescribing guidelines. Repeat the urine culture seven days after antibiotics have completed as a test of cure
Explanation:For women with suspected urinary tract infections accompanied by visible or non-visible haematuria, it is recommended to send a midstream urine sample. According to current NICE CKS guidelines, this should be done before starting antibiotics and again seven days after completing treatment to confirm cure. Treatment should be initiated promptly if a UTI is suspected, without waiting for culture results. Referral to the maternity assessment unit is not necessary if there are no indications of early labour. However, if group B streptococcus is identified in the culture, it is important to inform the antenatal care service so that prophylactic antibiotics can be administered during labour and delivery.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A three-year-old is brought to see you by his father. The father describes how this morning his son 'blacked out'.
On further questioning, the child was having a tantrum and started crying, he then seemed to turn blue and collapsed. Dad reports that after the collapse the child seemed to stiffen briefly but then recovered quickly. The child was well before the incident and has been well since.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breath holding attack
Explanation:Breath Holding Attacks and Reflex Anoxic Seizures in Toddlers
Breath holding attacks and reflex anoxic seizures are two types of episodes that can occur in toddlers. Breath holding attacks are triggered by upset and can start as early as six months of age, with a peak incidence at two years and typically stopping by five years of age. During a breath holding attack, the child cries, holds their breath, and becomes cyanosed, which can sometimes lead to loss of consciousness and stiffening. However, rapid recovery is common, and no treatment is required.
On the other hand, reflex anoxic seizures are triggered by pain or discomfort, such as minor head trauma, cold food, or fright. After the trigger, the child becomes pale and falls to the floor, which can induce a seizure due to hypoxia resulting from cardiac asystole from vagal inhibition. These episodes are characterized by the pallor typically seen in reflex anoxic seizures.
It is important to note that breath holding attacks can be confused with other options, especially when the child stiffens or progresses to a seizure. However, understanding the differences between these two types of episodes can help parents and caregivers provide appropriate care and reassurance to the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 43
Incorrect
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Olivia is a 42-year-old woman who came to see you 6 weeks ago with vertigo following a viral infection. You diagnosed vestibular neuronitis and prescribed a course of prochlorperazine for symptom control.
Olivia comes to see you today with ongoing vertigo. This improved with prochlorperazine but she still experiences attacks of vertigo which usually last hours. There are no new symptoms and neurological examination is normal.
What is the most important aspect of ongoing management for Olivia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for vestibular rehabilitation exercises
Explanation:Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are the recommended treatment for chronic symptoms in vestibular neuronitis, as they are both safe and effective in improving functioning in the medium term. It is important to avoid prolonged use of medication, as it may interfere with the body’s compensatory mechanisms and delay recovery. While a short course of promethazine may help with symptom control, it is unlikely to provide long-term relief for vertigo. Betahistine is only indicated for vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss associated with Ménière’s disease, and is therefore not appropriate for Marcus’s case. Hospital admission is not necessary, as Marcus is not acutely unwell and his symptoms are likely to resolve within a few weeks. However, it is important to refer chronic or recurrent cases for further evaluation to rule out any underlying serious conditions.
Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis
Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.
It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.
Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.
Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy is approaching his GCSE exams and is struggling with his hay fever. He has tried oral antihistamines, nasal steroids and homeopathic treatments. These help his nasal symptoms but do nothing for his itchy eyes.
What is the most suitable treatment for his symptoms at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Azelastine eye drops
Explanation:Treatment Options for Allergic Conjunctivitis
Allergic conjunctivitis can be treated with depot intramuscular steroids and oral steroids, but these options come with potential side effects. Steroid eye drops should be avoided due to the risk of infection, cataract, and glaucoma. Instead, a topical antihistamine is the preferred treatment option. Additionally, Grazax® is a form of immunotherapy that can stimulate blocking antibodies against grass pollen, but it must be started in the autumn before hay fever season begins. It’s important to discuss all treatment options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension only complains of worsening breathlessness and swollen ankles for the past 3 months. You plan to conduct a BNP test. What could cause a falsely low BNP result in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Being on ramipril for his blood pressure
Explanation:Serum levels of B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) and N-terminal pro-BNP (NT-proBNP) can be measured to assess the likelihood of heart failure in patients. NT-proBNP is the inactive prohormone of BNP and is released from the left ventricle in response to ventricular strain. It acts to increase renal excretion of water and sodium, and relax vascular smooth muscle causing vasodilation.
BNP measurements are recommended for patients with suspected heart failure who have not had a previous myocardial infarction. Elevated BNP levels (>400) indicate a poor prognosis and require an urgent referral for echocardiography and specialist assessment. However, normal BNP levels do not confirm the absence of heart failure, as levels may be elevated due to other conditions such as left ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary hypertension, or renal impairment.
NICE guidelines suggest that BNP measurements are not necessary for patients with suspected heart failure who have had a previous myocardial infarction, as urgent referral and assessment are required regardless of BNP levels. BNP levels may also be affected by medications such as ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers, as well as obesity.
Overall, BNP measurements can be a useful tool in assessing the likelihood of heart failure, but should be interpreted in conjunction with other clinical findings and patient history.
B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.
BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis after an acute admission to the hospital with bleeding per rectum, fever and abdominal pain. At the time of diagnosis, she was initiated on mesalazine. Her bowel symptoms are now much improved and she is awaiting routine follow-up in the clinic.
Which of the following side effects should patients be specifically informed of and cautioned about when commencing mesalazine?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancytopenia
Explanation:Adverse Effects of Aminosalicylates: What to Watch Out For
Aminosalicylates, such as mesalazine and sulfasalazine, are drugs used to treat bowel inflammation. While they are generally safe, there are some potential adverse effects to be aware of. Common side effects include headache, nausea, rash, and abdominal pain. Patients may also become more sensitive to sunlight.
However, aminosalicylates can also rarely cause more serious issues such as blood disorders like agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia. Patients should be advised to report any unexplained bleeding, bruising, sore throat, fever, or malaise, and a full blood count should be performed if these symptoms occur. Nephrotoxicity is another potential adverse effect of mesalazine.
It’s important to note that mesalazine is not associated with skin pigmentation, corneal deposits, gum hypertrophy, or Parkinsonian features, which are side effects of other drugs. If patients experience any concerning symptoms while taking aminosalicylates, they should speak with their healthcare provider immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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You see a 35-year-old lady who reports cyclical pelvic discomfort and mild-to-moderate deep pain during intercourse. Examination of the abdomen and pelvis was unremarkable. A recent GUM check-up and transvaginal pelvic ultrasound scan were normal. She is not keen to have any invasive tests at present.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: NSAIDs
Explanation:Management of Endometriosis-Related Pain and Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
When it comes to managing endometriosis-related pain, a trial of paracetamol or an NSAID (alone or in combination) is recommended as first-line treatment. If this proves ineffective, other forms of pain management, including neuropathic pain treatment, should be considered. Hormonal treatment, such as COCP and POP, is also a sensible first-line option for women with suspected or confirmed endometriosis.
For pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), metronidazole + ofloxacin is often used as first-line treatment. However, there is no indication of this from the patient’s history. Referral to gynaecology would not add much at this stage, as they would likely offer the same options. Additionally, the patient is not keen on any surgical intervention at this point, which would include laparoscopy.
It’s important to note that GnRH agonists are not routinely started in primary care. They are sometimes started by gynaecology as an adjunct to surgery for deep endometriosis. Overall, a tailored approach to management is necessary for both endometriosis-related pain and PID, taking into account the individual patient’s needs and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 48
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old man has come in after doing some research on the internet. He was seen by an ophthalmologist 2 weeks ago and has been diagnosed with dry age-related macular degeneration. The ophthalmologist has suggested that there are no active treatments for this condition and has referred him for visual rehabilitation. He has read about the use of beta-carotene to slow progression of his condition.
Which of the following options would make it inadvisable for him to take beta-carotene supplements?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Past history of smoking
Explanation:Supplements and Their Risks and Benefits
Previously recommended supplements contained beta-carotene, but it is no longer recommended for smokers and ex-smokers due to the possible increase in lung cancer risk. However, high-dose vitamin and mineral supplements may slow the progression of age-related macular degeneration. This includes vitamin C, vitamin E, beta-carotene (vitamin A), zinc oxide, and cupric oxide. Those who may benefit are those with advanced age-related macular degeneration or visual loss in one year and people with intermediate age-related macular degeneration who have extensive drusen.
It is important to note that high doses of beta-carotene can cause harmless yellowing of the skin, but it also increases the risk of urinary tract infections and stones and urinary retention. Beta-carotene has been associated with an increased risk of lung cancer in people who smoke or who have been exposed to asbestos. One study of 29,000 male smokers found an 18% increase in lung cancer in the group receiving 20 mg of beta-carotene a day for 5 to 8 years. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the risks and benefits of supplements before taking them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man is found to have a fasting cholesterol concentration of 8.7 mmol/l on testing by the GP. His father died of a myocardial infarction when he was 60-years old. He has no other risk factors and is well. However, he himself has three daughters.
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to a lipid specialist
Explanation:Management of Familial Hypercholesterolaemia
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic disorder that causes high levels of cholesterol in the blood, leading to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. Here are some management options for a patient suspected of having FH:
Refer to a lipid specialist: If there is strong evidence of FH, NICE recommends referral to a specialist for confirmation of the diagnosis and cascade testing. This is important to identify affected relatives and provide appropriate management.
Prescribe atorvastatin: Atorvastatin 20 mg daily is the drug of choice for a patient with confirmed heterozygous FH. It is a high-intensity statin that effectively lowers cholesterol levels.
Provide dietary advice: Patients with FH should be offered individualised advice from a dietician to help manage their cholesterol levels. This may include reducing saturated fat intake and increasing consumption of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.
Avoid simvastatin: Simvastatin is only a moderate-intensity statin and is not recommended as the first-line treatment for FH. High-intensity statins such as atorvastatin and rosuvastatin are preferred.
Avoid combination therapy with a fibrate: While fibrates can lower cholesterol levels, they are not recommended for use in FH management. Statins and/or ezetimibe are the drugs of choice, and treatment should be initiated by a lipid specialist if needed.
In summary, FH requires careful management to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease. Referral to a lipid specialist, prescribing atorvastatin, providing dietary advice, and avoiding certain medications can all help to effectively manage FH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a pustular/vesicular rash on her left cheek in the maxillary area that has been present for two days. What would be the most appropriate next step in treating her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start the patient on oral aciclovir
Explanation:Left Trigeminal Shingles in the Maxillary Region
The scenario above depicts a case of left trigeminal shingles in the V2 dermatome region, which is the maxillary region. It is important to note that V1 is the ophthalmic region that supplies the cornea, but it is not affected in this case. Therefore, the recommended treatment for this condition is a course of oral aciclovir, which is a systemic medication. Additionally, adequate analgesia may be necessary to manage any associated pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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