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  • Question 1 - A father brings his 3-month-old daughter into the clinic for her first round...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 3-month-old daughter into the clinic for her first round of vaccinations. He expresses concerns about the safety of the rotavirus vaccine. Can you provide him with information about this vaccine?

      Your Answer: It is an oral, live attenuated vaccine

      Explanation:

      The vaccine for rotavirus is administered orally and is live attenuated. It is given to infants at two and three months of age, along with other oral vaccines like polio and typhoid. Two doses are necessary, and it is not typically given to children at three years of age. This vaccine is not injected and is not an inactivated toxin vaccine, which includes vaccines for tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis.

      The Rotavirus Vaccine: A Vital Tool in Preventing Childhood Mortality

      Rotavirus is a significant public health concern, causing high rates of morbidity and hospitalization in developed countries and childhood mortality in developing nations. To combat this, a vaccine was introduced into the NHS immunization program in 2013. The vaccine is an oral, live attenuated vaccine that requires two doses, the first at two months and the second at three months. It is important to note that the first dose should not be given after 14 weeks and six days, and the second dose cannot be given after 23 weeks and six days due to the theoretical risk of intussusception.

      The vaccine is highly effective, with an estimated efficacy rate of 85-90%, and is predicted to reduce hospitalization rates by 70%. Additionally, the vaccine provides long-term protection against rotavirus. The introduction of the rotavirus vaccine is a vital tool in preventing childhood mortality and reducing the burden of rotavirus-related illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      66.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What factor has been demonstrated to elevate the likelihood of developing prostate cancer?...

    Incorrect

    • What factor has been demonstrated to elevate the likelihood of developing prostate cancer?

      Your Answer: Family history of colon cancer

      Correct Answer: Low intake of animal fats

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Prostate Cancer

      Being overweight or obese are both risk factors for developing prostate cancer. Black ethnicity is associated with a higher risk of prostate cancer than Caucasian. A family history of breast cancer or prostate cancer also increases the risk. Additionally, an occupation in farming seems to increase the risk of prostate cancer.

      High intake of animal fats and low selenium intake, as well as exposure to radiation and cadmium, may also increase the risk of prostate cancer. However, there isn’t enough evidence to be absolutely sure in the case of cadmium. It’s important to be aware of these risk factors and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A new mother comes to see you with her baby for a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A new mother comes to see you with her baby for a routine eight week check. She is anxious about cot death and wants to discuss the subject further.

      Which of the following statements about cot death is correct?

      Your Answer: It has a peak incidence at 6 months of age

      Correct Answer: It is more common in the winter months

      Explanation:

      Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS), also known as cot death, is not fully understood and its exact cause is unknown. It is more common in infants under 5 months of age, especially premature babies who have had apnoeic episodes during resuscitation. However, the risk can be reduced by placing the baby on their back to sleep, using a firm mattress, avoiding loose covers, positioning the baby’s feet to the foot of the cot, maintaining a reasonable room temperature, not sharing a bed with the baby, using a dummy at bedtime, avoiding cigarette smoking, recognizing and treating illnesses, and breastfeeding. Media campaigns have helped reduce the number of cases over the years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      29.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man presents with unilateral nasal obstruction caused by soft tissue swelling...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents with unilateral nasal obstruction caused by soft tissue swelling and bleeding from the same side of the nose. What is the most suitable next step?

      Your Answer: Direct specialist visualisation of the nasal passages

      Explanation:

      Unilateral Nasal Obstruction: Possible Causes and Management

      Unilateral nasal obstruction can be caused by various factors, including nasal polyps, infection, and neoplastic processes. If the obstruction is accompanied by soft tissue blockage and unilateral epistaxis, the possibility of a neoplastic process should be considered, and direct visualisation of the area in an ear, nose, and throat clinic is necessary. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a rare but possible cause of unilateral nasal obstruction.

      Aside from neoplastic processes, other nasal tumors that may cause unilateral nasal obstruction include inverted papilloma, sarcoma, lymphoma, olfactory neuroblastoma, and juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma.

      Using nasal decongestants for prolonged periods is not recommended as it may cause rebound congestion of the nasal mucosa. Antibiotics are not normally indicated for nasal blockage caused by the common cold, influenza virus, or rhinosinusitis. Topical corticosteroids may be beneficial in allergic rhinitis and some cases of vasomotor rhinitis, while corticosteroid drops are used in the medical management of nasal polyps. Oral steroids are not typically used in the management of any form of nasal obstruction.

      In summary, the management of unilateral nasal obstruction depends on the underlying cause, and direct specialist visualisation of the nasal passages is necessary for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to clinic by his parents. He had a...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to clinic by his parents. He had a fever for three days, and as this disappeared he was noted to have a rash.

      On examination he is noted to be apyrexial, but has a macular rash on the trunk and lower limbs.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Roseola infantum

      Explanation:

      Common Rashes and Their Characteristics

      Roseola infantum is a viral infection caused by herpesvirus 6. It is known to cause a rash with lymphadenopathy. The rash is macular in nature and is usually seen in infants and young children.

      Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that causes target lesions with blistering. It is often caused by an allergic reaction to medication or an infection.

      Idiopathic thrombocytopenia is a condition that causes a petechial rash. This rash is caused by a low platelet count and can be seen in individuals of all ages.

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a condition that causes a purpuric rash on the buttocks and lower limbs. It is often seen in children and is caused by inflammation of the blood vessels.

      Meningococcal septicaemia is a serious bacterial infection that can cause a non-blanching purpuric rash. This rash is a medical emergency and requires immediate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old backpacker returns from a year of travelling in a remote part...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old backpacker returns from a year of travelling in a remote part of South America. She has had diarrhoea for three weeks and the lab confirms that she has giardiasis.

      What is the incubation period of giardiasis?

      Your Answer: One to two weeks

      Correct Answer: Four to six weeks

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis: A Chronic Diarrhoeal Disease

      Giardiasis is a chronic diarrhoeal disease caused by the flagellate protozoan parasite, Giardia lamblia. This parasite attaches to the small bowel but doesn’t invade it. The disease is prevalent in tropical regions and is contracted by ingesting cysts present in contaminated water or food.

      To diagnose giardiasis, stool microscopy is used to detect the cysts. Treatment for giardiasis involves the use of oral metronidazole or tinidazole. These medications are effective in eliminating the parasite and relieving symptoms.

      In conclusion, giardiasis is a chronic diarrhoeal disease that can be contracted by ingesting contaminated water or food. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and reduce the spread of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      18.9
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  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old man comes to the General Practice Surgery with a six-month history...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man comes to the General Practice Surgery with a six-month history of persistent fatigue. He has no medical problems and takes no regular medication. He briefly injected heroin when he was younger but has not done so for the last ten years.
      What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Hepatitis C

      Explanation:

      Blood-Borne Infections Commonly Associated with Intravenous Drug Use

      Intravenous (IV) drug use is a major risk factor for acquiring blood-borne infections. The most common infections associated with IV drug use are hepatitis C, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), and hepatitis B. Syphilis and tetanus are also possible, but less common, infections.

      Hepatitis C is the most prevalent blood-borne virus among IV drug users, affecting up to 50% of users in the UK and 67% worldwide. Acute infection is usually asymptomatic or presents with vague symptoms, but can progress to chronic hepatitis C in the majority of cases. Cirrhosis and liver failure are potential long-term complications.

      HIV is present in up to 15% of IV drug users and is transmitted through shared needles. Acute infection presents with flu-like symptoms, followed by an asymptomatic period until the CD4 count drops enough to allow for opportunistic infections.

      Hepatitis B is less common than hepatitis C among IV drug users, but still poses a risk. Acute infection presents with flu-like symptoms and can progress to chronic infection, which increases the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection that can also be transmitted through direct contact with skin lesions or mucous membranes. Primary infection presents with a painless ulcer, followed by a generalised rash and lymphadenopathy. Latent syphilis can be asymptomatic, but is not associated with IV drug use.

      Tetanus is rare in the UK due to immunisation programs, but can occur if spores enter an open wound. It presents with muscle stiffness and spasms, but is not associated with a prolonged asymptomatic period or IV drug use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a 3-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a 3-week history of mild depression. He has recently been through a breakup and says he feels “lost and unmotivated”, although his friends have been supportive. He denies any thoughts of self-harm and reports that he is able to function throughout the day, but feels sad and that it “takes me longer to get things done than usual”.
      What is the most suitable initial management for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Psychodynamic psychotherapy

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Mild Depression

      When it comes to treating mild depression, antidepressants are not typically the first choice. Instead, cognitive behavioural therapy has the strongest evidence for effectiveness, although it may not be readily available in all areas. In some cases, psychodynamic therapy may be helpful, particularly if the root cause of distress is related to difficulties in interpersonal relationships. While selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have been shown to be effective for severe depression, their efficacy for mild-to-moderate depression is less clear. St John’s wort is not recommended due to uncertainty around appropriate dosing, variations in preparation, and potential interactions with other medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      28.3
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  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old woman presents with a six week history of progressive dyspnea. She...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with a six week history of progressive dyspnea. She has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease which has been relatively stable for the past two years since she quit smoking. Prior to quitting, she smoked 20 cigarettes per day for 40 years. She denies any recent increase in cough or sputum production.
      Upon examination, coarse wheezes are heard throughout both lung fields, consistent with previous findings. Additionally, finger clubbing is noted, which has not been documented in her medical records before.
      What is the most appropriate course of management?

      Your Answer: Refer for an urgent chest x ray (report within five days)

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Chest X-Ray in Patients with Chronic Respiratory Problems

      Unexplained changes in existing symptoms in patients with underlying chronic respiratory problems should prompt an urgent referral for chest x-ray. According to NICE guidelines on the recognition and referral of suspected cancer, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered to assess for lung cancer in people aged 40 and over with specific unexplained symptoms or risk factors.

      In patients with known COPD, the recent onset of finger clubbing should not be automatically assumed to be due to the pre-existing lung disease. Finger clubbing can occur in various types of lung cancer and mesothelioma, and it is less common in COPD alone. Therefore, an urgent referral for chest x-ray is necessary to assess for possible underlying malignancy. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve the prognosis and quality of life for patients with lung cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      54.3
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of diarrhoea, bloating and flatulence...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of diarrhoea, bloating and flatulence that have been ongoing for 3 years. She has also noticed a significant weight loss, dropping from 65 kg to 57kg in the past few months. She reports that her symptoms worsen after consuming gluten-containing foods. Upon examination, her BMI is 18.5 kg/m2. An oesopho-gastro-duodenoscopy is performed, and she is diagnosed with coeliac disease through jejunal biopsy. What is the most appropriate procedure to perform at the time of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Flexible colonoscopy

      Correct Answer: Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Coeliac Disease Patients: Which Ones are Indicated?

      Coeliac disease is a condition that can increase the risk of osteoporosis due to the malabsorption of calcium. In patients who are at a higher risk of osteoporosis, a Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan should be conducted. This includes patients who have persistent symptoms on a gluten-free diet lasting for at least one year, poor adherence to a gluten-free diet, weight loss of more than 10%, BMI less than 20 kg/m2, or age over 70 years.

      In addition to DEXA scans, other diagnostic tests may be considered based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors. Flexible colonoscopy is not routinely indicated for coeliac disease patients unless specific bowel symptoms or pathology are suspected. Abdominal ultrasound (US) is not indicated for coeliac disease patients unless there is suspected pathology in solid organs such as the liver, gallbladder, pancreas, or kidney. Barium enema is not frequently used and is not specifically indicated for coeliac disease patients. Chest X-ray (CXR) is not routinely indicated for coeliac disease patients, but may be considered in patients with unexplained weight loss, chronic cough, haemoptysis, or shortness of breath.

      In summary, DEXA scans are indicated for coeliac disease patients at a higher risk of osteoporosis, while other diagnostic tests should be considered based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      49.3
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  • Question 11 - A 68-year-old man is diagnosed with actinic keratoses on his left cheek and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is diagnosed with actinic keratoses on his left cheek and prescribed fluorouracil cream. Two weeks later he presents as the skin where he is applying treatment has become red and sore. On examination there is no sign of weeping or blistering. What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer: Stop fluorouracil cream

      Correct Answer: Continue fluorouracil cream + review in 1 week

      Explanation:

      Actinic keratoses, also known as solar keratoses, are skin lesions that develop due to prolonged exposure to the sun. These lesions are typically small, crusty, and scaly, and can appear in various colors such as pink, red, brown, or the same color as the skin. They are commonly found on sun-exposed areas like the temples of the head, and multiple lesions may be present.

      To manage actinic keratoses, prevention of further risk is crucial, such as avoiding sun exposure and using sun cream. Treatment options include a 2 to 3 week course of fluorouracil cream, which may cause redness and inflammation. Topical hydrocortisone may be given to help settle the inflammation. Topical diclofenac is another option for mild AKs, with moderate efficacy and fewer side-effects. Topical imiquimod has shown good efficacy in trials. Cryotherapy and curettage and cautery are also available as treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What condition(s) increase the likelihood of developing a neoplasm? ...

    Incorrect

    • What condition(s) increase the likelihood of developing a neoplasm?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gilbert's disease

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions and Their Associated Risks

      Polycystic kidney disease is a condition that can lead to renal failure and is strongly linked to berry aneurysm. However, Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD) doesn’t increase the risk of renal carcinoma, nor does the rarer recessive type. On the other hand, patients on dialysis who develop cystic kidneys have a higher incidence of RCC, and Von-Hippel-Lindau disease also carries an increased risk.

      Neurofibromatosis may be associated with phaeochromocytoma, while polycystic ovary disease carries a higher risk of endometrial cancer. However, psoriasis doesn’t predispose to skin cancer, and De Quervain’s thyroiditis doesn’t lead to malignancy. Finally, Gilbert’s disease is a benign familial abnormality of bilirubin metabolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 39-year-old teacher is being evaluated after starting an antidepressant. She initially presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old teacher is being evaluated after starting an antidepressant. She initially presented with various symptoms of depression and a PHQ-9 score of 18. She has experienced several significant life events leading up to her diagnosis.

      She is married with a daughter in college, but has a strong support system from her family. You decided to initiate treatment with sertraline 50 mg, but she reports no improvement in her depression and your assessment agrees.

      Despite the lack of effectiveness in her treatment thus far, she appears to be tolerating the medication without any adverse effects.

      Based on NICE guidelines for depression treatment, at what point in her treatment would you consider increasing the dosage if she has not responded?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Six to eight weeks

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Depression: Considerations for Medication Adjustment

      When treating depression, it is important to monitor the patient’s response to medication. If there is no improvement within three to four weeks, it may be necessary to increase the dose or switch to a different antidepressant. However, if there is some improvement at four weeks, it is recommended to continue treatment for an additional two to four weeks before making any further changes.

      In this particular case, the patient is tolerating the medication well and has support from her husband. Therefore, the focus should be on adjusting the medication. This recommendation is based on NICE guidance on Depression in adults (CG90) and is supported by other publications. By closely monitoring the patient’s response and making appropriate adjustments, healthcare providers can help improve outcomes for those struggling with depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 14 - An 80-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful erythematous rash on...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a painful erythematous rash on the right side of her chest. She reports experiencing a sharp burning pain on her chest wall 48 hours ago. Upon examination, vesicles are present and the rash doesn't extend beyond the midline. The patient is given antiviral medication and follow-up is scheduled.

      What is the primary benefit of administering antiviral therapy to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It reduces the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia

      Explanation:

      Antivirals can reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia in older people with shingles, but do not prevent the spread or recurrence of the condition. Analgesia should also be prescribed and bacterial superinfection is still possible.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for a routine review. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for a routine review. He denies alcohol excess and has a body mass index of 36 kg/m2. He is also noted to be a diet-controlled type II diabetic and smokes 10 cigarettes per day.
      Investigations Results Normal value
      Cholesterol 7.7 mmol/l <5 mmol/l
      Fasting triglyceride 2.5 mmol/l <1.7 mmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 150 IU/l <40 IU/l
      Which of the following is the single most likely explanation regarding the significance of his raised liver enzyme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Probably has non alcoholic steatohepatitis, which can include fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Liver Function Test Results in a Patient with Metabolic Risk Factors

      Liver function tests are an important tool for assessing liver health. In a patient with metabolic risk factors such as obesity, dyslipidaemia, and abnormal glucose tolerance, elevated liver transaminases may indicate non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), a condition that can lead to fibrosis and eventually cirrhosis if left untreated. Weight loss and control of comorbidities are the mainstay of management for NASH. While autoimmune hepatitis is a rarer possibility, it may be considered if the patient has a history of other autoimmune disorders and a normal body mass index and lipid profile. Regardless of the specific diagnosis, abnormal liver function test results in a patient with metabolic risk factors require further investigation and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A 38-year-old male is found to have a Hb of 17.8 g/dL. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male is found to have a Hb of 17.8 g/dL. What is the least probable reason for this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is a condition that can be classified as relative, primary (polycythaemia rubra vera), or secondary. Relative polycythaemia can be caused by dehydration or stress, such as in Gaisbock syndrome. Primary polycythaemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the bone marrow to produce too many red blood cells. Secondary polycythaemia can be caused by conditions such as COPD, altitude, obstructive sleep apnoea, or excessive erythropoietin production due to certain tumors or growths. To distinguish between true polycythaemia and relative polycythaemia, red cell mass studies may be used. In true polycythaemia, the total red cell mass in males is greater than 35 ml/kg and in women is greater than 32 ml/kg. Uterine fibroids may also cause polycythaemia indirectly by causing menorrhagia, but this is rarely a clinical problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 17 - What is the most useful investigation to differentiate between the types of cardiomyopathy...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most useful investigation to differentiate between the types of cardiomyopathy from the given list?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Four Types of Cardiomyopathy

      Cardiomyopathy is a group of heart muscle disorders that affect the structure and function of the heart. There are four major types of cardiomyopathy: dilated, hypertrophic, restrictive, and arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy. Each type is characterized by specific features such as ventricular dilation, hypertrophy, restrictive filling, and fibro-fatty changes in the right ventricular myocardium.

      While dilated and hypertrophic cardiomyopathies are the most common types, a familial cause has been identified in a significant percentage of patients with these conditions. On the other hand, restrictive cardiomyopathy is usually not familial.

      To diagnose cardiomyopathy, a full cardiological assessment is necessary. Transthoracic Doppler echocardiography can confirm the diagnosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, distinguish between restrictive cardiomyopathy and constrictive pericarditis, and assess the severity of ventricular dysfunction in dilated cardiomyopathies. Coronary angiography can help exclude coronary artery disease as the cause of dilated cardiomyopathy.

      A normal ECG is uncommon in any form of cardiomyopathy, and cardiomegaly on a chest X-ray may be present in all types. Brain natriuretic peptide is a marker of ventricular dysfunction but cannot differentiate between cardiomyopathies.

      In summary, understanding the different types of cardiomyopathy and their diagnostic tools is crucial in managing and treating this group of heart muscle disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - A 42-year-old man presents with a 'neck lump' that he has noticed over...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with a 'neck lump' that he has noticed over the past two months. On examination, you palpate a diffuse midline swelling which moves with swallowing but not with tongue protrusion. There are no other neck lumps or focal nodules, and the patient's voice is normal with no hoarseness. There is no cervical lymphadenopathy or stridor. The patient has no significant past medical history or family history.
      He reports feeling slightly more fatigued and has gained some weight over the past few months but otherwise feels well. He notes that the swelling in his neck has not changed in size since he first noticed it.
      Thyroid function tests reveal hypothyroidism. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat the thyroid function test in four to six weeks

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Swelling: Recognizing and Referring Suspected Cancer

      Note that it is important to clarify descriptions and findings during a patient’s history and examination. For instance, a patient may describe a lump when it is actually a diffuse swelling. According to NICE guidelines, an unexplained thyroid lump warrants a suspected cancer pathway referral within two weeks. However, other factors to consider during the assessment include a solitary nodule increasing in size, a history of neck irradiation, family history of an endocrine tumor, unexplained hoarseness or voice changes, cervical lymphadenopathy, very young or elderly patients. Patients with symptoms of tracheal compression should be admitted immediately to the hospital.

      In cases where a thyroid swelling doesn’t meet any of the urgent or immediate referral criteria, a thyroid function blood test should be conducted. If the test reveals hypothyroidism, it may explain the patient’s weight gain and tiredness. Patients with abnormal thyroid function and a goitre are unlikely to have thyroid cancer and can be managed in primary care. Those with a goitre and normal thyroid function tests can be referred non-urgently to a thyroid surgeon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
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  • Question 19 - A patient in their early twenties reports experiencing auditory hallucinations of a simple...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their early twenties reports experiencing auditory hallucinations of a simple and unstructured whistling tune, occurring when they are alone. How would you best describe this hallucination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elementary hallucinations

      Explanation:

      There are various types of hallucinations, including elementary, reflex, autoscopic, first person auditory, and haptic. Elementary hallucinations are basic sounds like buzzing or whistling. Reflex hallucinations occur when a sensory stimulus in one modality triggers a hallucination in another. Autoscopic hallucinations involve seeing oneself in external space. First person auditory hallucinations involve hearing one’s own thoughts aloud. Haptic or tactile hallucinations involve feeling sensations like being touched, pricked, or pinched, and may include formication, which is the sensation of insects crawling on the skin and can be associated with long-term cocaine use or alcohol withdrawal.

      Schizophrenia: Symptoms and Features

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by a range of symptoms. One of the most prominent classifications of these symptoms is Schneider’s first rank symptoms. These symptoms can be divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can include thought insertion, thought withdrawal, and thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or experiences that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions can involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.

      Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that not all individuals with schizophrenia will experience all of these symptoms, and the severity of symptoms can vary from person to person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 20 - A 78-year-old man comes to you to discuss blood pressure management.

    He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man comes to you to discuss blood pressure management.

      He has been seen by the nurse three times in the past six months, and each time his BP has been above 160/95 mmHg. He has no significant medical history except for a hernia repair eight years ago. He complains of mild dyspnea on exertion and mild ankle swelling at the end of the day.

      During today's examination, his BP is 155/92 mmHg, his pulse is 70 and regular, and his BMI is 27 kg/m2.

      Investigations reveal:
      - Hb 123 g/L (135 - 180)
      - WCC 5.1 ×109/L (4 - 10)
      - PLT 190 ×109/L (150 - 400)
      - Na 141 mmol/L (134 - 143)
      - K 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Cr 145 µmol/L (60 - 120)

      What is the best course of action for managing this man's blood pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If BP target is not reached on two or more agents than addition of more drugs is of no value

      Explanation:

      Treating Hypertension in Elderly Patients

      Patients of all ages should be treated to target when it comes to hypertension. The NICE guidelines on Hypertension (NG136) recommend a clinic blood pressure (BP) of less than 150/90 mmHg for patients over the age of 80. For patients over 55, calcium channel antagonists are the most appropriate first-line therapies, unless there is evidence of oedema, heart failure, or the patient is at risk of heart failure. In such cases, a thiazide-like diuretic such as chlorthalidone or indapamide should be used instead of conventional thiazides like bendroflumethiazide and hydrochlorothiazide. If a CCB is not tolerated, a thiazide-like diuretic should be offered to treat hypertension. Indapamide is a thiazide-like diuretic that is associated with less hyponatraemia compared to bendroflumethiazide, making it an appropriate choice for first-line therapy in elderly patients. Even if the target BP is not reached on two or more agents, it is important to continue therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 21 - What is the accurate statement about pharmacology in elderly individuals? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about pharmacology in elderly individuals?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal function tends to remain stable despite advancing age

      Explanation:

      Care of Older Adults in General Practice

      The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) has emphasized that the care of older adults will be a significant part of a General Practitioner’s workload. It is crucial to consider issues such as comorbidity, communication difficulties, polypharmacy, and the need for support for increasingly dependent patients.

      One important factor to keep in mind is that there is a reduced plasma protein binding of drugs with age. This can result in more drug availability, leading to side effects. Additionally, declining renal and hepatic function in the elderly can make them more susceptible to drug toxicity. Therefore, it may be necessary to prescribe lower doses than those given to a healthy adult.

      As people age, their renal function tends to decline, and the rate of gastric emptying slows down. Hepatic mass and blood flow also decrease, and intestinal motility tends to decrease with age. These factors must be considered when prescribing medication to older adults.

      The British National Formulary provides guidelines for prescribing medication to the elderly, and it is essential to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety and well-being of older patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 22 - Which one of the following medications should be prescribed using the brand name...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following medications should be prescribed using the brand name instead of the generic name?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mesalazine

      Explanation:

      Prescribing Guidance for Healthcare Professionals

      Prescribing medication is a crucial aspect of healthcare practice, and it is essential to follow good practice guidelines to ensure patient safety and effective treatment. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides guidance on prescribing medication, including the recommendation to prescribe drugs by their generic name, except for specific preparations where the clinical effect may differ. It is also important to avoid unnecessary decimal points when writing numbers, such as prescribing 250 ml instead of 0.25 l. Additionally, it is a legal requirement to specify the age of children under 12 on their prescription.

      However, there are certain drugs that should be prescribed by their brand name, including modified release calcium channel blockers, antiepileptics, ciclosporin and tacrolimus, mesalazine, lithium, aminophylline and theophylline, methylphenidate, CFC-free formulations of beclomethasone, and dry powder inhaler devices. By following these prescribing guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective medication management for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 23 - You have arranged a semen analysis for a 37-year-old man who has been...

    Incorrect

    • You have arranged a semen analysis for a 37-year-old man who has been trying to conceive with his wife for the last 12 months without success.

      The results are as follows:

      Semen volume 1.8 ml (1.5ml or more)
      pH 7.4 (7.2 or more)
      Sperm concentration 12 million per ml (15 million per ml or more)
      Total sperm number 21 million (39 million or more)
      Total motility 40% progressively motile (32% or more)
      Vitality 68% live spermatozoa (58% or more)
      Normal forms 5% (4% or more)

      His partner is also currently undergoing investigations. You plan on referring him to fertility services.

      What is the appropriate course of action based on these semen analysis results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat test in 3 months

      Explanation:

      If a semen sample shows abnormalities, it is recommended to schedule a repeat test after 3 months to allow for the completion of the spermatozoa formation cycle. In cases where there is a severe deficiency in spermatozoa (azoospermia or a sperm concentration of less than 5 million per ml), an immediate recheck may be necessary. Based on World Health Organisation criteria, this man has mild oligozoospermia/oligospermia with a sperm concentration of 10 to 15 million per ml, thus requiring a confirmatory test after 3 months.

      Semen analysis is a test that requires a man to abstain from sexual activity for at least 3 days but no more than 5 days before providing a sample to the lab. It is important that the sample is delivered to the lab within 1 hour of collection. The results of the test are compared to normal values, which include a semen volume of more than 1.5 ml, a pH level of greater than 7.2, a sperm concentration of over 15 million per ml, a morphology of more than 4% normal forms, a motility of over 32% progressive motility, and a vitality of over 58% live spermatozoa. It is important to note that different reference ranges may exist, but these values are based on the NICE 2013 guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 24 - The following blood result is reported for an 85-year-old woman with a medical...

    Incorrect

    • The following blood result is reported for an 85-year-old woman with a medical history of hypertension, diverticulitis, and hypothyroidism. She is currently taking amlodipine, ramipril, and levothyroxine. The result shows a TSH level of 0.01 mU/L (0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 22 pmol/L (9.0 - 18). What potential complication could she face if this condition remains untreated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      The risk of osteoporosis increases with over-replacement of thyroxine. Elevated T4 and suppressed TSH levels in blood tests indicate over-replacement with levothyroxine, which can cause confusion in biochemistry abnormalities, although this is more commonly observed in hypothyroidism. Constipation is a symptom of hypothyroidism, not over-replacement with levothyroxine. Muscle weakness and reduced reflexes are also associated with hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Over-replacement with thyroxine would result in weight loss rather than weight gain.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.

      Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.

      *source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 25 - At what stage should thiazide diuretics be avoided in patients with chronic kidney...

    Incorrect

    • At what stage should thiazide diuretics be avoided in patients with chronic kidney disease, according to BNF guidance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.

      Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.

      It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 26 - An 18-year-old girl comes in with facial psoriasis, which is only affecting her...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old girl comes in with facial psoriasis, which is only affecting her hairline and nasolabial folds. She hasn't attempted any treatments yet, aside from using emollients. What is the best choice for topical management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clobetasone butyrate (Eumovate ®)

      Explanation:

      Topical Treatments for Facial Psoriasis

      When it comes to treating facial psoriasis, it’s important to use the right topical treatments to avoid skin irritation and adverse effects. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using a mild or moderately potent steroid for two weeks, along with emollients. Calcipotriol can be used intermittently if topical corticosteroids aren’t effective enough. However, betamethasone, a potent steroid, should not be used on the face. Coal-tar solution is also not recommended for facial psoriasis. Tacrolimus ointment can be used intermittently if other treatments aren’t working. By using the appropriate topical treatments, patients can manage their facial psoriasis effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 27 - A 40-year-old male smoker with a family history of hypertension has persistently high...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male smoker with a family history of hypertension has persistently high resting blood pressure.

      Ambulatory testing revealed a level of 146/84 mmHg. He has no signs of end organ damage on standard testing.

      According to the latest NICE guidance (NG136), what would be your most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start treatment with a calcium antagonist

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Importance of NICE Guidance on Hypertension

      This passage discusses the latest NICE guidance on hypertension and its importance in evaluating the long-term balance of treatment benefit and risks for adults under 40 with hypertension. However, it also highlights the criticism that the guidance has received from some clinicians, particularly regarding the use of ambulatory and home blood pressure monitoring. It is important to have a balanced view and be aware of other guidelines and consensus opinions in medicine. While AKT questions may not contradict NICE guidance, it is essential to consider the bigger picture and not solely rely on the latest guidance. Remember that the questions test your knowledge of national guidance and consensus opinion. Proper understanding of NICE guidance on hypertension is crucial, but it is equally important to have a broader perspective on the matter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - A researcher wants to investigate dietary variations between patients aged 50-60 years with...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher wants to investigate dietary variations between patients aged 50-60 years with impaired glucose tolerance (HbA1c 42-47 mmol/mol) and those without impaired glucose tolerance (HbA1c <42 mmol/mol). The participants who agree to take part are requested to maintain a food journal for two weeks. The researcher is worried that the participants' eating habits during this observed period may deviate from their regular routine, impacting the accuracy of the study.

      What is the term used to describe this phenomenon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hawthorne effect

      Explanation:

      The Hawthorne effect refers to a situation where a group alters its behavior because it is aware of being observed. This could manifest in participants in a study eating more healthily during the observation period. A ceiling effect occurs when an independent variable no longer has an impact on a dependent variable because the maximum effect has been reached. Observer bias occurs when a researcher records information that differs from reality due to their expectations or desires. The Gibbons-Hawking effect is a theory of general relativity that may be better suited for discussion in a different forum.

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 29 - A 29-year-old man presents with decreased hearing in his left ear. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents with decreased hearing in his left ear. Upon examination, there are no signs of acute infection, but both eardrums appear dull. Tuning-fork tests are performed, revealing that bone conduction is heard better than air conduction on the left side (the affected ear) during Rinne's test, while Weber's test localizes to the left ear. Rinne's test on the right side shows air conduction better than bone conduction. What type of hearing loss is present in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right-sided conductive hearing loss

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Hearing Loss: A Case Study

      In this case study, the patient presents with hearing loss in their right ear. To determine the type of hearing loss, various tests were conducted.

      Right-sided conductive hearing loss was ruled out as bone conduction was better than air conduction in the affected ear. Left-sided conductive hearing loss was also ruled out as Rinne’s test was normal on the left side.

      Non-organic hearing loss was considered but ultimately ruled out as the patient’s history was convincing and their tympanic membrane appeared normal.

      Left-sided sensorineural hearing loss and right-sided sensorineural hearing loss were both ruled out as they would have caused a reduction in both air and bone conduction.

      The final diagnosis was right-sided conductive hearing loss. It is important to differentiate between the types of hearing loss as treatment options vary depending on the cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old gentleman presents with a small non-tender lump in the natal cleft....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old gentleman presents with a small non-tender lump in the natal cleft. He reports no discharge from the lump. You suspect this to be a pilonidal sinus.

      What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to general surgeons

      Explanation:

      Management of Asymptomatic Pilonidal Sinus Disease

      A watch and wait approach is recommended for individuals with asymptomatic pilonidal sinus disease. It is important for patients to maintain good perianal hygiene through regular bathing or showering. However, there is no evidence to support the removal of buttock hair in these patients. If cellulitis is suspected, antibiotic treatment should be considered. Referral to a surgical team may be necessary if the pilonidal sinus is discharging or if an acute pilonidal abscess requires incision and drainage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 31 - A 9-year-old girl presents with mild pyrexia, headache, sore throat, anorexia and abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl presents with mild pyrexia, headache, sore throat, anorexia and abdominal pain. She has tiny grey-white papulovesicles and shallow ulcers with surrounding erythema, approximately 1-2 mm in diameter on her uvula, soft palate and tonsils. What is the most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coxsackievirus

      Explanation:

      Viral Causes of Sore Throat: Herpangina and Adenovirus

      Herpangina is a viral infection caused by the Coxsackie A virus, which is most prevalent during the summer and autumn months. Although it primarily affects individuals under the age of 16, adults can also be affected. The virus is named after the town of Coxsackie in New York State. Fortunately, the infection is typically self-limiting.

      Adenovirus is the most common viral cause of sore throat. Unlike herpangina, the degree of neck lymph node enlargement is usually minimal, and the throat may not appear red. However, the pain can be severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 32 - A 14-year-old girl has measles.
    Select from the list the single most likely complication....

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl has measles.
      Select from the list the single most likely complication.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchopneumonia

      Explanation:

      Complications and Risks Associated with Measles Infection

      Measles infection can lead to various complications and risks, including bronchopneumonia, lobar pneumonia, encephalitis, and hepatitis. Bronchopneumonia is the most common cause of death, usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus or secondary viral infections. Lobar pneumonia, on the other hand, is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae. Other bacterial infections such as cervical adenitis and otitis media can also occur. Close follow-up is necessary for patients with measles.

      Borderline vitamin A deficiency increases the risk of death and blindness from measles. The World Health Organization recommends high-dose vitamin A for all children with measles in countries where the case fatality rate is greater than 1%. Encephalitis and hepatitis are rare complications.

      Lymphopenia, a condition characterized by low levels of lymphocytes, is a common effect of measles infection. Infants and adults may experience delayed recovery from this condition, and immunodeficiency can persist for several weeks even after lymphocyte counts have returned to normal. This is believed to be a significant contributor to the high all-cause mortality rate following acute measles worldwide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 33 - Sophie is a 84-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis and arthritis who...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 84-year-old woman with a history of osteoporosis and arthritis who was discharged from hospital 4 weeks ago following a hip replacement surgery. Her GP last saw her during a home visit 3 days after discharge. She had been regularly seen by the district nurse since then. Unfortunately, she had declined significantly since her hospital admission and was found dead by her daughter this morning.

      What is the appropriate course of action for the GP regarding Sophie's death certificate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer the death to the coroner

      Explanation:

      If a doctor has not examined the deceased within 28 days prior to their death, the case must be referred to the coroner. This time frame was extended from 14 days due to the COVID pandemic.

      While it may be appropriate to list myocardial infarction as the cause of death in section 1a, the GP is not authorized to issue the death certificate in such cases. It is generally not recommended to cite old age as the cause of death.

      Only a medical practitioner who is registered can complete a death certificate.

      Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner

      When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.

      It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 34 - A study was conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new autoantibody test...

    Incorrect

    • A study was conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new autoantibody test for detecting suspected Hashimoto's disease in individuals over the age of 50. The test was administered to 1000 participants who reported fatigue, and all test results were compared to FNA biopsy results, which served as the gold standard for diagnosing Hashimoto's disease. The table below shows the results:

      Antibody +ve Antibody -ve Total
      Hashimoto's disease confirmed at FNA 35 15 50
      No evidence of disease at FNA 30 920 950

      What is the approximate sensitivity of the autoantibody test for detecting Hashimoto's disease in individuals over the age of 50?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensitivity in Medical Testing

      Sensitivity is a crucial measure of a medical test’s ability to identify individuals with a particular condition. It is calculated as the proportion of true positives correctly identified by the test. For instance, if 50 individuals have Hashimoto’s disease according to the gold standard test of biopsy, and 35 of these are identified by the antibody test, the sensitivity of the test is 70%. This means that the test correctly identified 35 out of 50 true positives, while 15 were falsely identified as negative. In other words, sensitivity is the ability of a test to detect the presence of a condition in those who have it. Understanding sensitivity is essential in evaluating the accuracy and reliability of medical tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 35 - A 40-year-old accountant has come to seek your advice regarding driving restrictions. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old accountant has come to seek your advice regarding driving restrictions. He recently experienced a seizure and was referred to a neurologist for further investigation. Despite showing symptoms of a seizure, all tests, including EEG and imaging, came back normal. The neurologist concluded that it was a solitary fit and advised against medication. The patient has been discharged from further follow-up but was instructed to inform the DVLA. He has come to you for guidance on how long he should refrain from driving his car after the initial seizure.

      Can you provide information on the potential causes of seizures in adults?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 month

      Explanation:

      Understanding DVLA Driving Restrictions for Patients with Neurological Conditions

      There are important pieces of information to consider when it comes to driving restrictions for patients with neurological conditions. In the case of a banking assistant who experienced a solitary seizure, the latest DVLA guidance suggests refraining from driving for six months after the seizure. This applies to Group 1 entitlement drivers, which includes cars and motorcycles. If the patient was an HGV driver, the restriction would be five years.

      It’s important to note that this was an isolated seizure with normal test results and no medication. If the patient had epilepsy, the driving restriction would be one year following the attack. It’s crucial to be familiar with the latest guidance and any new changes, as questions about driving restrictions often come up in the MRCGP exam.

      Understanding the impact of these restrictions on patients’ working and personal lives is also important. As part of the curriculum map for neurological problems, candidates should have an understanding of the current DVLA restrictions on driving, particularly with regard to epilepsy. It’s essential to be aware of any new restrictions or amendments and to pass on this information to patients. By staying informed, doctors can help patients navigate the potential consequences of driving restrictions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 36 - You are asked to see a 64-year-old woman known to have breast cancer.
    Her...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 64-year-old woman known to have breast cancer.
      Her family has become worried as yesterday she seemed to be behaving 'oddly'. They tell you that her behaviour has become inappropriate and that she has been walking around the house naked and been swearing a lot in conversation. Prior to yesterday she was her 'usual self'.
      The family also report that she seems to be passing urine and opening her bowels as per usual and that she has been eating and drinking fine.
      Examination reveals that the patient is alert and uncomplaining. Temperature is 37.1°C, blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg and pulse rate is 86 regular. Systems examination doesn't reveal anything acute aside from the patient swearing frequently and talking about inappropriate topics of conversation. Urine dipstick testing reveals 'trace' of blood and protein.
      Which if the following investigations will confirm the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine microscopy, culture and sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Considerations for a Patient with Metastatic Cancer and Acute Change in Mental Status

      A variety of factors need to be considered when a patient with metastatic cancer presents with an acute change in mental status. In this scenario, potential causes such as infection, hypercalcaemia, and brain metastases should be ruled out. It is also important to review the patient’s drug history to rule out any iatrogenic causes.

      In this case, the patient’s observations, including temperature, pulse rate, and blood pressure, are normal, and there are no signs of infection. The urine dipstick test doesn’t reveal any significant abnormalities. The symptoms are also not consistent with hypercalcaemia.

      However, the patient’s acute change in mental status with disinhibition requires urgent referral to the hospital and a CT head scan to look for frontal lobe metastases. A full ‘confusion’ screen would also be carried out to further investigate the underlying cause.

      In summary, when a patient with metastatic cancer presents with an acute change in mental status, a thorough evaluation of potential causes is necessary to ensure appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 37 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking advice on quitting smoking as...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking advice on quitting smoking as she is planning to start a family. Despite several attempts to quit on her own, she has been unsuccessful. She is hesitant to attend a smoking cessation program and asks about medical options to aid in quitting. What would be the most suitable management to suggest, considering she has not tried any medications before?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) alone

      Explanation:

      Smoking Cessation Options for a Woman Trying to Conceive

      Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) is the recommended option for a woman trying to conceive who is struggling to quit smoking. While it is ideal for her to delay conception until she has successfully quit smoking and ceased NRT, the benefits of NRT outweigh the risks of smoking and NRT. It is important for her to also receive behavioral support through a Stop Smoking Service. E-cigarettes are not currently recommended due to lack of evidence on their safety and effectiveness. Bupropion and varenicline are contraindicated in pregnancy and should not be prescribed. While attending a Stop Smoking Service is preferred, medical treatments such as NRT can be prescribed in primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 38 - You see a 35-year-old patient in your morning emergency clinic who takes Beclomethasone...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 35-year-old patient in your morning emergency clinic who takes Beclomethasone 400 micrograms daily for her asthma. She is currently using her salbutamol more often than normal. Over the past two weeks she has been suffering with a 'cold' and feels her breathing has worsened. She is bringing up a small amount of white phlegm but doesn't complain of fevers. She tends to become wheezy (particularly at night). There are no associated chest pains but she does feel her chest is tight.

      On examination, she is afebrile and her oxygen saturations of 95% in air. Her peak flow is 340 L/min (usually 475 L/min). She is able to speak in full sentences. Her respiratory rate is 20 respirations per minute and pulse is 88 bpm.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe 40 mg prednisolone daily for five days

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Asthma Symptoms

      Several important points should be considered when managing a patient with acute asthma symptoms. Firstly, it is important to note if the patient is already taking preventative treatment for asthma. If they are, an increase in the use of their salbutamol inhaler may indicate that their symptoms are worse than usual. Secondly, recent viral infections can trigger asthma symptoms. Additionally, the absence of discoloured thick phlegm and fever makes it less likely that the patient has a bacterial infection and therefore doesn’t require antibiotic therapy.

      When managing acute asthma symptoms, it is important to note that changing inhalers may not be appropriate at this stage. Oxygen therapy is not necessary if the patient’s oxygen saturations are above 94% in air. A nebuliser may not be indicated if the patient’s breathing rate is not compromised and they are clinically stable. It may be beneficial to initially try a salbutamol inhaler before ipratropium bromide. These considerations can help guide the management of acute asthma symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 39 - An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease comes...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease comes for a check-up. He had a heart attack two decades ago but has been stable since then. His current medications include bisoprolol, ramipril, atorvastatin, and clopidogrel. He has been experiencing dizziness lately, and an ECG reveals that he has atrial fibrillation. What is the appropriate antithrombotic medication for him now?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Switch to an oral anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      Patients who have AF and stable CVD are typically prescribed anticoagulants while antiplatelets are discontinued. This is because such patients are at risk of stroke, as indicated by their CHADS-VASC score, which takes into account factors such as age, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease. Therefore, the patient in question needs to be treated accordingly. In this case, the patient should discontinue their antiplatelet medication and switch to oral anticoagulant monotherapy.

      Managing Combination Antiplatelet and Anticoagulant Therapy

      With the rise of comorbidity, it is becoming more common for patients to require both antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy. However, this combination increases the risk of bleeding and may not be necessary in all cases. While there are no guidelines to cover every scenario, a recent review in the BMJ offers expert opinion on how to manage this situation.

      For patients with stable cardiovascular disease who require an anticoagulant, it is recommended that they also receive an antiplatelet. However, if the patient has an indication for anticoagulant therapy, such as atrial fibrillation, it is best to prescribe anticoagulant monotherapy without the addition of antiplatelets.

      In patients who have experienced an acute coronary syndrome or undergone percutaneous coronary intervention, there is a stronger indication for antiplatelet therapy. Typically, patients are given triple therapy (two antiplatelets and one anticoagulant) for four weeks to six months after the event, followed by dual therapy (one antiplatelet and one anticoagulant) for the remaining 12 months. However, the stroke risk in atrial fibrillation varies according to risk factors, so there may be variation in treatment from patient to patient.

      If a patient on antiplatelets develops venous thromboembolism (VTE), they will likely be prescribed anticoagulants for three to six months. An ORBIT score should be calculated to determine the risk of bleeding. Patients with a low risk of bleeding may continue taking antiplatelets, while those with an intermediate or high risk of bleeding should consider stopping them.

      Overall, managing combination antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 40 - A 50-year-old woman has been visiting the clinic multiple times in the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has been visiting the clinic multiple times in the past six months due to a persistent skin rash. She is referred to a Dermatologist, who diagnoses mycosis fungoides after conducting a biopsy of the affected area.
      What is the most probable skin symptom that the patient is experiencing during the initial stages of the disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic patches of dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma is a group of lymphoproliferative disorders that involve neoplastic T lymphocytes localizing to the skin. The most common form is mycosis fungoides, which presents as patches, plaques, or tumors on the skin. The disease can progress slowly over years or decades, mimicking benign dermatoses in its early stages. Patches may appear as erythematous pink-brown flat areas with atrophy and fine scaling, and may be non-diagnostic on biopsy. As the disease progresses, patches may become infiltrative and evolve into palpable plaques, and eventually into tumors. Sézary syndrome is a variant of T-cell lymphoma that affects the skin of the entire body, causing erythroderma. This variant has a poor prognosis, with a median survival of two to four years. Late-stage mycosis fungoides may present with ulcerated tumors and lymph node infiltration, and can spread to affect distant organs. Psoriatic-like plaques are a less likely presentation in the early stages of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 41 - A 42-year-old woman presents with complaints of constant fatigue and weight gain. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with complaints of constant fatigue and weight gain. She has no significant medical history and currently weighs 52 kg. Laboratory results reveal:

      Free T4 6.9 pmol/l
      TSH 10.8 mu/l

      What is the best course of action to take in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start levothyroxine 75 mcg od

      Explanation:

      For this woman with symptomatic hypothyroidism requiring thyroxine replacement, the recommended starting dose according to BNF guidelines is 50-100 mcg once daily for patients under 50 years old. Additionally, clinical studies have demonstrated that an initial treatment dose of 1.6mcg/kg/day is appropriate for younger patients without heart disease. Therefore, the answer aligns with both the BNF recommendations and relevant research findings.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25 mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.

      Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.

      *source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 42 - A depressed, 35-year-old woman presents with confusion, pinpoint pupils and bradycardia.

    She has...

    Incorrect

    • A depressed, 35-year-old woman presents with confusion, pinpoint pupils and bradycardia.

      She has been found in a distressed state at the home of her terminally ill mother where she has access to a number of different analgesics. You suspect an overdose.

      Which one of the following is most likely?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Opiate

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Opiate Overdose

      An opiate overdose can lead to confusion, coma, pinpoint pupils, and bradycardia. Other symptoms may include hypotension, hypothermia, and respiratory arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 43 - A 60-year-old patient on your morning telephone appointment list reports a painful watering...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient on your morning telephone appointment list reports a painful watering left eye after mowing the lawn. His daughter can see a grass seed visibly stuck near his cornea.

      What is the best course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to ophthalmology immediately for assessment that day

      Explanation:

      If a patient has an organic foreign body in their eye, such as a grass seed, it is crucial to refer them immediately to ophthalmology for assessment due to the risk of infection. The removal of the foreign body should also be done on the same day as the assessment, as this type of injury is often caused by high-velocity incidents during activities like grass cutting. Attempting to remove the foreign body in primary care or delaying the removal until the following day is not acceptable and may increase the risk of infection. Irrigation and antibiotics should not be used without proper assessment, as this may cause the foreign body to remain in the eye for a longer period of time and increase the risk of infection. It is important to note that, since the foreign body is organic material, it is necessary for the patient to be seen by the ophthalmology department on the same day rather than attempting to remove it at the practice.

      Corneal foreign body is a condition characterized by eye pain, foreign body sensation, photophobia, watering eye, and red eye. It is important to refer patients to ophthalmology if there is a suspected penetrating eye injury due to high-velocity injuries or sharp objects, significant orbital or peri-ocular trauma, or a chemical injury has occurred. Foreign bodies composed of organic material should also be referred to ophthalmology as they are associated with a higher risk of infection and complications. Additionally, foreign bodies in or near the centre of the cornea and any red flags such as severe pain, irregular pupils, or significant reduction in visual acuity should be referred to ophthalmology. For further information on management, please refer to Clinical Knowledge Summaries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 44 - A 67-year-old man presents for a medication review after being discharged from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents for a medication review after being discharged from the hospital three months ago following a cholecystectomy. He was started on several new medications due to hypertension and atrial fibrillation. Despite feeling well, he has noticed ankle swelling and suspects it may be a side effect of one of the new medications.

      During the examination, his blood pressure is 124/82 mmHg, and his heart rate is 68/min irregularly irregular.

      Which medication is most likely responsible for the observed side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Felodipine

      Explanation:

      Felodipine is more likely to cause ankle swelling than verapamil compared to dihydropyridines like amlodipine. Calcium channel blockers are commonly used as a first-line treatment for hypertension in patients over 55 years old, but a common side effect is peripheral edema. Dihydropyridines, such as amlodipine, work by selectively targeting vascular smooth muscle receptors, causing vasodilation and increased capillary pressure, which can lead to ankle edema. On the other hand, non-dihydropyridines like verapamil are more selective for myocardial calcium receptors, resulting in reduced cardiac contraction and heart rate.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 45 - A 56-year-old woman presents with a rash on her face. She reports having...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents with a rash on her face. She reports having a facial rash with flushing for a few weeks. Upon examination, there is a papulopustular rash with telangiectasia on both cheeks and nose. What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the potential complication associated with it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blepharitis

      Explanation:

      Acne rosacea is a skin condition that results in long-term facial flushing, erythema, telangiectasia, pustules, papules, and rhinophyma. It can also impact the eyes, leading to blepharitis, keratitis, and conjunctivitis. Treatment options include topical antibiotics such as metronidazole gel or oral tetracycline, particularly if there are ocular symptoms.

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 46 - A 55-year-old smoker visits his GP clinic.

    As per the NICE guidelines for...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old smoker visits his GP clinic.

      As per the NICE guidelines for identifying and referring suspected cancer (NG12), which of the following symptoms would necessitate an urgent chest x-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suspected rib fracture

      Explanation:

      Referral and Assessment Guidelines for Lung Cancer

      Persistent haemoptysis, superior vena caval obstruction, and stridor are all red flags for possible lung cancer and require immediate referral to a cancer specialist. In addition, NICE NG12 recommends an urgent chest X-ray within two weeks for individuals aged 40 and over who have unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, especially if they have a history of smoking. For those with persistent or recurrent chest infections, finger clubbing, supraclavicular or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis, an urgent chest X-ray should also be considered. Early detection and referral can improve outcomes for individuals with lung cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 47 - A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol visits his GP complaining of chest pains that occur during physical activity or climbing stairs to his office. The pain is crushing in nature and subsides with rest. The patient is currently taking atorvastatin 20 mg and aspirin 75 mg daily. He has no chest pains at the time of the visit and is otherwise feeling well. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. The GP prescribes a GTN spray for the chest pains and refers the patient to the rapid access chest pain clinic.

      What other medication should be considered in addition to the GTN?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      For the patient with stable angina, it is recommended to use a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as the first-line treatment to prevent angina attacks. In this case, a cardioselective beta-blocker like bisoprolol or atenolol, or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker such as verapamil or diltiazem should be considered while waiting for chest clinic assessment.

      As the patient is already taking aspirin 75 mg daily, there is no need to prescribe dual antiplatelet therapy. Aspirin is the preferred antiplatelet for stable angina.

      Since the patient is already taking atorvastatin, a fibrate like ezetimibe may not be necessary for lipid modification. However, if cholesterol levels or cardiovascular risk remain high, increasing the atorvastatin dose or encouraging positive lifestyle interventions like weight loss and smoking cessation can be helpful.

      It is important to note that nifedipine, a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is not recommended as the first-line treatment for angina management as it has limited negative inotropic effects. It can be used in combination with a beta-blocker if monotherapy is insufficient for symptom control.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 48 - A 50-year-old woman with type-2 diabetes complains of blood stained diarrhoea and cramping...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with type-2 diabetes complains of blood stained diarrhoea and cramping abdominal pain of several months’ duration. She underwent a hysterectomy and radiotherapy 2 years ago for endometrial carcinoma.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic radiation enteropathy

      Explanation:

      Chronic Radiation Enteropathy: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Chronic radiation enteropathy is a progressive disease that can occur months or even years after radiation therapy. It is characterized by transmural bowel damage, obliterative endarteritis, and altered intestinal transit, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea (which may be blood-stained), malabsorption, and dysmotility. Patients with a history of pelvic or abdominal radiation therapy are at risk for developing chronic radiation enteropathy, which can lead to intestinal obstruction, fistula formation, or perforation. Corrective surgery is associated with high morbidity and mortality, and long-term symptoms are common.

      Diagnosis of chronic radiation enteropathy is based on the persistence of symptoms for three or more months following irradiation. Differential diagnosis includes irritable bowel syndrome, lymphoma, pseudomembranous colitis, and ulcerative colitis. However, the history of pelvic radiation is a key factor in distinguishing chronic radiation enteropathy from other conditions. While irritable bowel syndrome may cause diarrhea, blood in the stool is not a typical symptom. Lymphoma and ulcerative colitis may also present with bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain, but the history of radiation therapy makes chronic radiation enteropathy more likely. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by infection with Clostridium difficile and is not typically associated with bloody stools.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 49 - You come across a 30-year-old accountant who has been diagnosed with Crohn's disease...

    Incorrect

    • You come across a 30-year-old accountant who has been diagnosed with Crohn's disease after experiencing abdominal pain, loose stools and a microcytic anaemia. The individual is seeking further information on the condition.

      Which of the following statements is accurate regarding Crohn's disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoporosis occurs in up to 30% of patients with inflammatory bowel disease

      Explanation:

      Upon diagnosis, approximately 66% of individuals with inflammatory bowel disease exhibit anaemia. Crohn’s disease is typically diagnosed at a median age of 30 years. The global incidence and prevalence of Crohn’s disease are on the rise.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that is more prevalent in women and increases with age. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis. Some of the most significant risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture history, low body mass index, and current smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, endocrine disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, chronic kidney disease, and certain genetic disorders. Additionally, certain medications such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors may worsen osteoporosis.

      If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause of osteoporosis and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include a history and physical examination, blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests. Other procedures may include bone densitometry, lateral radiographs, protein immunoelectrophoresis, and urinary Bence-Jones proteins. Additionally, markers of bone turnover and urinary calcium excretion may be assessed. By identifying the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors, healthcare providers can select the most appropriate form of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 50 - A 42-year-old Bangladeshi man with a history of mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old Bangladeshi man with a history of mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and started on anti-tuberculosis therapy. However, three weeks into the treatment, his INR has increased to 5.6. Which medication is the most likely cause of this increase?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      When answering questions about liver enzymes, it is crucial to determine whether the question pertains to induction or inhibition. Candidates should avoid hastily providing drugs that cause induction as the answer. Inhibited liver enzymes can result in an elevated INR. Additionally, isoniazid is known to inhibit the P450 system.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Children And Young People (2/3) 67%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/2) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/1) 100%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Health (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Passmed