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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus complains of diarrhoea, fatigue and weight loss for the past three months. She has been on a gluten-free diet for the last four weeks and feels better. She wants to confirm if she has coeliac disease. What is the next best course of action?

      Your Answer: Check anti-endomysial antibodies

      Correct Answer: Ask her to reintroduce gluten for the next 6 weeks before further testing

      Explanation:

      Before undergoing testing, patients need to consume gluten for a minimum of 6 weeks. Failure to do so may result in negative results for serological tests and jejunal biopsy, especially if the patient is adhering to a gluten-free diet. To ensure accurate results, patients should consume gluten in multiple meals every day for at least 6 weeks before undergoing further testing.

      Investigating Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.

      To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.

      In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old man is prescribed topical fusidic acid for a small patch of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is prescribed topical fusidic acid for a small patch of impetigo on his chin. He has a history of heart disease and recently underwent a cardiac procedure. After seven days of treatment, there has been no improvement in his symptoms. On examination, a persistent small, crusted area is noted on the right side of his chin. While waiting for swab results, what is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Oral flucloxacillin

      Correct Answer: Topical mupirocin

      Explanation:

      In light of the recent hospitalization and the ineffectiveness of fusidic acid, it is important to consider the possibility of MRSA. The most suitable treatment option in this case would be topical mupirocin.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking advice on quitting smoking as...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking advice on quitting smoking as she is planning to start a family. Despite several attempts to quit on her own, she has been unsuccessful. She is hesitant to attend a smoking cessation program and asks about medical options to aid in quitting. What would be the most suitable management to suggest, considering she has not tried any medications before?

      Your Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) alone

      Explanation:

      Smoking Cessation Options for a Woman Trying to Conceive

      Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) is the recommended option for a woman trying to conceive who is struggling to quit smoking. While it is ideal for her to delay conception until she has successfully quit smoking and ceased NRT, the benefits of NRT outweigh the risks of smoking and NRT. It is important for her to also receive behavioral support through a Stop Smoking Service. E-cigarettes are not currently recommended due to lack of evidence on their safety and effectiveness. Bupropion and varenicline are contraindicated in pregnancy and should not be prescribed. While attending a Stop Smoking Service is preferred, medical treatments such as NRT can be prescribed in primary care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, nausea and mild jaundice. He admits...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents with abdominal swelling, nausea and mild jaundice. He admits to a long history of regular alcohol consumption, drinking two 330ml bottles of lager per day (3% ABV) as well as a 75cl bottle of 12% ABV wine per week.

      What is this man's weekly alcohol consumption in units (to the nearest unit of alcohol)?

      Your Answer: 21 units

      Correct Answer: 23 units

      Explanation:

      Calculating Units of Alcohol

      To calculate the number of units of alcohol in a drink, you need to multiply the percentage of alcohol (ABV) by the volume in millilitres and then divide by 1000. However, there are potential pitfalls to watch out for, such as converting volumes from centilitres to millilitres and adjusting for daily or weekly consumption.

      For example, if a person drinks two 330ml bottles of lager per day with a 3% ABV, the calculation would be 3% x 330ml = 9.9ml, divided by 1000 = 0.99 units per bottle, rounded up to 1 unit. This equates to 14 units per week. If they also drink one 750ml bottle of wine per week with a 12% ABV, the calculation would be 12% x 750ml = 90ml, divided by 1000 = 9 units per bottle. Therefore, the total amount of units consumed per week would be 23 units.

      It is important to check the units of volume and duration when calculating units of alcohol. The UK recommendations are for no more than 14 units per week for both sexes. While these calculations may seem simple, it is important to be prepared for any eventuality in an exam setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      36.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 56-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up. He reports feeling healthy...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up. He reports feeling healthy and has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and osteoarthritis. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. Tests show an eGFR of 75 mL/min/1.73m², microalbuminuria in the urinalysis, and unilateral hydronephrosis on ultrasound. What stage of chronic kidney disease is he in?

      Your Answer: Stage 2

      Explanation:

      Chronic kidney disease should only be diagnosed as stages 1 and 2 if there is supporting evidence to accompany the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). In this case, the patient has been diagnosed with stage 2 chronic kidney disease due to the eGFR and the presence of hydronephrosis and microalbuminuria, indicating structural kidney issues.

      However, if the patient had a normal ultrasound and no protein in their urine, the eGFR alone would not be enough to diagnose chronic kidney disease.

      Stage 1 chronic kidney disease is diagnosed when the eGFR is above 90, but only if there is also evidence of proteinuria and/or an abnormal ultrasound.

      Stage 3a chronic kidney disease is diagnosed when the eGFR is between 45-59, regardless of whether there is structural damage or not.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 47-year-old man has recently been prescribed apixaban by his haematologist after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man has recently been prescribed apixaban by his haematologist after experiencing a pulmonary embolism. He is currently taking other medications for his co-existing conditions. Can you identify which of his medications may potentially interact with apixaban?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      If anticoagulation is being used for deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, the British National Formulary recommends avoiding the simultaneous use of apixaban and carbamazepine. This is because carbamazepine may lower the plasma concentration of apixaban. No interactions have been identified between apixaban and the other options listed.

      Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used to prevent stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation (AF), as well as for the prevention and treatment of venous thromboembolism (VTE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention, patients must have certain risk factors, such as a prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure. There are four DOACs available, each with a different mechanism of action and method of excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of DOACs are excreted either through the kidneys or the liver, with the exception of apixaban and edoxaban, which are excreted through the feces. Reversal agents are available for dabigatran and rivaroxaban, but not for apixaban or edoxaban.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old man has been experiencing pain in his right shoulder for a...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man has been experiencing pain in his right shoulder for a few weeks. Upon examination, the doctor passively abducts the shoulder. Passive abduction is complete but painful, especially between 70° and 120° of abduction. As the patient lowers his arm slowly, it drops to the side when it reaches 90°. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rotator cuff tear

      Explanation:

      Understanding Shoulder Pain: Differentiating Rotator Cuff Tear from Other Shoulder Disorders

      The shoulder joint is a complex structure composed of bones, muscles, tendons, and ligaments. Shoulder pain is a common complaint, and one of the most frequent causes is rotator cuff tendon disease. The rotator cuff is a group of four muscles that help with shoulder movement and stability. When the tendons of these muscles become inflamed, they can cause pain, particularly during abduction, resulting in a painful arc.

      However, not all shoulder pain is due to rotator cuff tendon disease. Other disorders, such as biceps tendinitis, frozen shoulder, and subacromial bursitis, can also cause similar symptoms. Biceps tendinitis is characterized by tenderness over the bicipital groove, while frozen shoulder causes a global restriction of all movements. Subacromial bursitis, on the other hand, is an inflammatory condition of the bursa that sits between the supraspinatus tendon and the bony arch of the acromion process.

      To differentiate rotator cuff tear from other shoulder disorders, several tests can be performed. The drop arm test, for instance, can distinguish a complete rotator cuff tear from rotator cuff tendinitis. A tear usually follows trauma in young people, while in the elderly, it is often caused by attrition from bony spurs or intrinsic degeneration of the cuff.

      In conclusion, diagnosing shoulder pain can be challenging, as several different problems may exist in the same shoulder at the same time. Understanding the different disorders that can cause shoulder pain and performing appropriate tests can help differentiate rotator cuff tear from other shoulder disorders and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old shopkeeper has returned to see you with depression. You have seen...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old shopkeeper has returned to see you with depression. You have seen him on a number of occasions over the past 20 years with a moderate depression and you conclude that his symptoms have returned.

      When he was first seen, as a student, he was given lofepramine, then dosulepin but responded poorly. This was switched to fluoxetine and he appeared to respond well and finished his medication six months later.

      Then in his 30s he suffered from another bout of depression following the failure of a business venture. He was given fluoxetine and was treated successfully, stopping his therapy eight months later.

      One month before your consultation, your primary care organisation advised that you should consider initiating treatment for newly diagnosed depressed patients with citalopram, due to cost benefits. Your choice is further enhanced by a recent meeting with a pharmaceutical representative who presents a convincing argument for treating patients with a new selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which is claimed to have greater efficacy than existing treatments.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment for his current exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Antidepressant

      When it comes to treating depression, finding the right medication can be a challenge. However, if a patient has responded well to a particular drug in the past, it is recommended to consider that drug for a recurrent episode. In the case of this patient, he has responded well to fluoxetine but not to lofepramine or dosulepin. While it is possible that an alternative SSRI could work, such as citalopram or a new SSRI from a pharmaceutical representative, the best course of action is to consider the drug that has worked for him in the past. By doing so, the patient has a higher chance of responding positively to the medication and experiencing relief from their symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      53.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A week ago you started an elderly patient with urge incontinence on immediate...

    Correct

    • A week ago you started an elderly patient with urge incontinence on immediate release oxybutynin tablets.

      She says she had to stop taking them because of side effects.

      What side effect is commonly found in elderly women taking oxybutynin?

      Your Answer: Dry mouth

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side Effects of Oxybutynin

      Oxybutynin is a medication that belongs to the antimuscarinic class of drugs. It is commonly used to treat urinary incontinence and overactive bladder. However, it can cause several side effects such as dry mouth, constipation, dry eyes, and decreased sweating. If the immediate release formulation of oxybutynin is not well-tolerated, a sustained release formulation may be considered.

      It is important to note that a recent clinical review published in the BMJ has highlighted the potential cognitive side effects of medications with a high anticholinergic burden, including oxybutynin. This can lead to cognitive impairment, which can worsen the symptoms of dementia or even lead to false positive diagnoses. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the potential side effects of oxybutynin and to discuss any concerns with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are educating the parent of a 5-year-old child with eczema about the...

    Incorrect

    • You are educating the parent of a 5-year-old child with eczema about the proper application of emollients. Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Emollients should be applied against the direction of hair growth

      Correct Answer: Creams soak into the skin faster than ointments

      Explanation:

      Understanding Eczema in Children

      Eczema is a common skin condition that affects around 15-20% of children and is becoming more prevalent. It usually appears before the age of 2 and clears up in around 50% of children by the age of 5 and in 75% of children by the age of 10. The condition is characterized by an itchy, red rash that can worsen with repeated scratching. In infants, the face and trunk are often affected, while in younger children, eczema typically occurs on the extensor surfaces. In older children, a more typical distribution is seen, with flexor surfaces affected and the creases of the face and neck.

      To manage eczema in children, it is important to avoid irritants and use simple emollients. Large quantities of emollients should be prescribed, roughly in a ratio of 10:1 with topical steroids. If a topical steroid is also being used, the emollient should be applied first, followed by waiting at least 30 minutes before applying the topical steroid. Creams soak into the skin faster than ointments, and emollients can become contaminated with bacteria, so fingers should not be inserted into pots. Many brands have pump dispensers to prevent contamination.

      In severe cases, wet wrapping may be used, which involves applying large amounts of emollient (and sometimes topical steroids) under wet bandages. Oral ciclosporin may also be used in severe cases. By understanding the features and management of eczema in children, parents and caregivers can help alleviate symptoms and improve the child’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 67-year-old retired coal miner is presenting with long-standing hand symptoms. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old retired coal miner is presenting with long-standing hand symptoms. He reports experiencing intermittent color changes in the tips of all digits of both hands up to the proximal interphalangeal joints in all digits. These changes occur when his hands are exposed to cold and the affected areas of the digits appear markedly white. They then turn red in color and become numb and painful before recovering. He tries to warm his hands when they turn white, and it takes about 20 minutes for the fingers to return to a normal appearance. He has no issues affecting his feet and is otherwise healthy, taking no regular medication. His hand difficulties developed gradually over many years, but his daughter is concerned about them and convinced him to seek a review as she has noticed he seems to struggle gripping objects at times. What is the most appropriate next step in managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Check a fingerprick blood glucose and arrange a HbA1c blood test

      Correct Answer: Refer for nerve conduction tests

      Explanation:

      Hand Arm Vibration Syndrome in Ex-Miners

      Hand arm vibration syndrome (HAVS) is a condition caused by prolonged exposure to vibration, often through work, that damages nerves and blood vessels. Ex-miners are at high risk of developing HAVS due to their frequent use of hand-held vibrating tools in their work. Symptoms of HAVS include numbness, tingling, and pain in the hands and fingers, as well as a blanching or whitening of the fingers known as vibration white finger.

      If an ex-miner presents with these symptoms, it is important to take a detailed occupational history to determine if they were exposed to handheld vibrating tools in their previous work. If there is no history of such exposure, an alternative diagnosis should be considered and further investigation may be necessary. Early diagnosis and management of HAVS is crucial to prevent further damage and improve outcomes for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, low mood, and...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, low mood, and difficulty passing stools. Upon conducting a set of initial blood tests, the following results are obtained:

      Calcium 3.2 mmol/l
      Albumin 38 g/l

      What is the most effective diagnostic test to identify the underlying reason for his elevated calcium levels?

      Your Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      Parathyroid hormone levels serve as a valuable tool in identifying the underlying causes of hypercalcaemia, with malignancy and primary hyperparathyroidism being the most prevalent culprits. If the parathyroid hormone levels are normal or elevated, it indicates the presence of primary hyperparathyroidism.

      Understanding the Causes of Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. The two most common causes of hypercalcaemia are primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy. Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause in non-hospitalized patients, while malignancy is the most common cause in hospitalized patients. Malignancy-related hypercalcaemia may be due to various processes, including PTHrP from the tumor, bone metastases, and myeloma. Measuring parathyroid hormone levels is crucial in diagnosing hypercalcaemia.

      Other causes of hypercalcaemia include sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, histoplasmosis, vitamin D intoxication, acromegaly, thyrotoxicosis, milk-alkali syndrome, drugs such as thiazides and calcium-containing antacids, dehydration, Addison’s disease, and Paget’s disease of the bone. Paget’s disease of the bone usually results in normal calcium levels, but hypercalcaemia may occur with prolonged immobilization.

      In summary, hypercalcaemia can be caused by various medical conditions, with primary hyperparathyroidism and malignancy being the most common. It is essential to identify the underlying cause of hypercalcaemia to provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of nausea, headache...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of nausea, headache and difficulty sleeping over the past few days. She has been experiencing moderate symptoms of depression without any suicidal ideation. She is employed as a nurse and resides with her husband and 12-year-old daughter who are supportive. She doesn't consume alcohol. She commenced taking sertraline 50 mg daily five days ago but has not observed any improvement in her mood.

      What is the best course of action for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Continue sertraline at 50 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Depression: Sertraline and Alternatives

      When treating depression with sertraline, it is important to understand the common side-effects, which include headache, insomnia, nausea, and diarrhea. These side-effects are usually mild and resolve within three weeks. Improvement in mood is expected 4-6 weeks after starting medication, so not noticing improvement after one week is normal. It is recommended to continue sertraline at the current dose and review in 3-5 weeks, increasing the dose if there has been a partial improvement or considering changing to an alternative antidepressant if there has been no improvement.

      If there has been no improvement after 4-6 weeks, switching to an alternative SSRI, such as citalopram, may be indicated. If two SSRIs have failed to achieve a good response, or if there are contraindications for SSRIs, a selective noradrenaline-reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), such as venlafaxine, may be an option. However, it should not be prescribed concomitantly with a monoamine oxidase inhibitor due to the risk of serotonin syndrome.

      It is important to counsel the patient about the possibility of increased anxiety, worsening mood, and suicidality in the first two weeks and to instigate an early review after 1-2 weeks if aged under 30 years or at high risk of suicide. Discontinuation of sertraline is not recommended as side-effects are normal and should improve in time. Increasing the dose should not be done more frequently than weekly and would more commonly be increased after 4-6 weeks if there has been a partial response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 7-year-old boy has had three episodes of central abdominal pain in the...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy has had three episodes of central abdominal pain in the last three months, each lasting a few days. The pain variably increases and decreases during an episode. It has been severe enough to affect school attendance. When his mother brings him she has no pain and physical examination is normal.
      Select from this list the most likely eventual finding for the cause of the symptoms in this boy.

      Your Answer: No cause will be found

      Explanation:

      Recurrent Abdominal Pain in Children: Possible Causes and Diagnosis

      Recurrent abdominal pain is a common complaint among children, but it is often difficult to identify the underlying cause. In many cases, no organic pathology can be found, but a significant number of cases are organic and require careful examination and investigation. Recurrent abdominal pain is defined as pain that occurs for at least three episodes within three months and is severe enough to affect a child’s activities.

      The most probable causes of recurrent abdominal pain in children are irritable bowel syndrome, abdominal migraine/periodic syndrome, constipation, mesenteric adenitis, and urinary tract infections. However, other possible causes should also be considered.

      Despite the lack of organic pathology in most cases, psychological factors are not always the cause. A study found no significant differences in emotional and behavioral scores between patients with organic pathology and those without. Therefore, a thorough examination and investigation are necessary to identify the underlying cause of recurrent abdominal pain in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Sarah, a 13-year-old girl presented with hip pain, particularly when walking. The pain...

    Correct

    • Sarah, a 13-year-old girl presented with hip pain, particularly when walking. The pain had been progressively worsening. She also reported a snapping sensation in her hip when moving. Sarah has a history of recurrent dislocations in her left shoulder, but no previous diagnosis of congenital hip dysplasia. Her father has been diagnosed with Ehler-Danlos syndrome.

      During the hip examination, Sarah displayed normal active and passive movement with no limitations in range of motion. There was no swelling in the joint. What is a useful method for assessing hypermobility?

      Your Answer: Beighton score

      Explanation:

      The Beighton score is a valuable method for evaluating hypermobility, with a positive result indicating at least 5 out of 9 criteria met in adults or at least 6 out of 9 in children. In contrast, Schirmer’s test is commonly employed to diagnose Sjogren syndrome, while plain radiographs and MRI scans are not effective for assessing hypermobility.

      Ehler-Danlos syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue, specifically type III collagen. This causes the tissue to be more elastic than usual, resulting in increased skin elasticity and joint hypermobility. Common symptoms include fragile skin, easy bruising, and recurrent joint dislocation. Additionally, individuals with Ehler-Danlos syndrome may be at risk for serious complications such as aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse, aortic dissection, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and angioid retinal streaks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent headache that...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent headache that has been bothering her for the past 5 months. She has been keeping a headache diary which shows that she experiences symptoms for approximately 20-25 days each month. The headache is usually felt on one side of her head, and she has been taking paracetamol 1g qds and ibuprofen 400mg tds daily to alleviate her symptoms. The doctor suspects that she may be suffering from medication overuse headache. What is the most appropriate course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: Gradually withdraw analgesics + start propranolol

      Correct Answer: Abruptly stop analgesics

      Explanation:

      Understanding Medication Overuse Headache

      Medication overuse headache is a common cause of chronic daily headache that affects up to 1 in 50 people. It is characterized by headaches that occur for 15 days or more per month and are worsened by regular use of symptomatic medication. Patients who use opioids and triptans are at the highest risk of developing this condition. Additionally, there may be psychiatric comorbidity associated with medication overuse headache.

      According to the 2008 SIGN guidelines, the management of medication overuse headache involves abruptly withdrawing simple analgesics and triptans, which may initially worsen headaches. On the other hand, opioid analgesics should be gradually withdrawn. However, withdrawal symptoms such as vomiting, hypotension, tachycardia, restlessness, sleep disturbances, and anxiety may occur when medication is stopped. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before discontinuing any medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      95.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old man visits his General Practitioner requesting a repeat prescription for his...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits his General Practitioner requesting a repeat prescription for his glaucoma eye drops, which were recently changed at the hospital. He also asks for an additional salbutamol inhaler due to his mild asthma becoming more problematic lately. What eye drops is this patient likely to have been prescribed? Choose one answer.

      Your Answer: Latanoprost

      Correct Answer: Timolol

      Explanation:

      Managing Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Primary open-angle glaucoma is the most common form of glaucoma, characterized by restricted drainage of aqueous humour through the trabecular meshwork, resulting in ocular hypertension and gradual visual field loss. To manage this condition, drugs are available that reduce ocular hypertension through different mechanisms. Typically, a topical β blocker like timolol or a prostaglandin analogue such as latanoprost is the first-line treatment. However, it may be necessary to combine these drugs or add others like sympathomimetics (brimonidine), carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (dorzolamide), or miotics (pilocarpine) later on. It’s important to note that topical β blockers should not be used in patients with asthma or obstructive airways disease unless there are no other suitable treatment options due to the risk of systemic absorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the diabetes clinic for the first time. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the diabetes clinic for the first time. She is obese, plethoric, and has significant bruising on her limbs and new striae on her abdomen. Additionally, she has a dorsal kyphosis due to a vertebral collapse earlier this year. What is the most effective way to distinguish Cushing syndrome caused by an adrenal adenoma from Cushing syndrome caused by a pituitary adenoma? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: 0900 h serum cortisol of 200 nmol/l after overnight low dose dexamethasone test

      Correct Answer: Undetectable serum adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) level

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Cushing Syndrome

      Cushing syndrome can be caused by various factors, including pituitary adenoma, ectopic ACTH secretion, adrenal adenoma, adrenal carcinoma, adrenal nodular hyperplasia, or excess glucocorticoid administration. To diagnose Cushing syndrome, several diagnostic tests are available.

      Undetectable Serum Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH) Level: In adrenal causes of Cushing syndrome, the ACTH level is suppressed or undetectable. However, a normal ACTH level can sometimes be found in pituitary-driven Cushing syndrome and ectopic ACTH, as there is overlap between the normal and elevated ranges.

      Raised Urine Cortisol/Creatinine Ratio: This test is not helpful in differentiating the cause of Cushing syndrome as the urine cortisol/creatinine ratio is elevated in all causes.

      0900 h Serum Cortisol of 200 nmol/l after Overnight Low Dose Dexamethasone Test: An unsuppressed 0900 h cortisol level after an overnight dexamethasone suppression test is diagnostic for Cushing syndrome. However, all causes of Cushing syndrome will give an unsuppressed 0900 h cortisol level.

      Normal 0900 h Serum Cortisol Level: The serum cortisol level can be normal in both adrenal and pituitary causes, as it has a wide range of normal. However, there is a loss of diurnal variation with reduced cortisol production in the evening compared with the morning.

      Serum Potassium of 2.2 mmol/l: Serum potassium is most likely to be low in cases of ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and can be due to the mineralocorticoid of cortisol itself or in adrenal carcinoma as a result of excessive mineralocorticoid (aldosterone) activity.

      Diagnostic Tests for Cushing Syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old comes in with back pain that radiates to the left leg....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old comes in with back pain that radiates to the left leg. The patient reports decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of the left calf and lateral foot. Which nerve roots are likely affected in this case?

      Your Answer: L5-S1

      Correct Answer: S1-S2

      Explanation:

      Understanding L5 and S1 Radiculopathy

      L5 radiculopathy is the most common type of radiculopathy that affects the lumbosacral spine. It is characterized by back pain that radiates down the lateral aspect of the leg and into the foot. On the other hand, S1 radiculopathy presents with pain that radiates down the posterior aspect of the leg and into the foot from the back.

      When examining a patient with L5 radiculopathy, weakness may be observed in leg extension (gluteus maximus), foot eversion, plantar flexion, and toe flexion. Sensation is also reduced on the lateral foot and posterior aspect of the leg. Meanwhile, patients with S1 radiculopathy may exhibit weakness in foot plantar flexion and toe flexion. Sensation is generally reduced on the posterior aspect of the leg and the lateral foot.

      Understanding the differences between L5 and S1 radiculopathy is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions. Proper diagnosis and management can help alleviate symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman, who was prescribed the oral contraceptive pill a week earlier,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman, who was prescribed the oral contraceptive pill a week earlier, develops central abdominal pain, vomiting and weakness in both lower limbs. She is anxious and confused.
      What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Mesenteric artery occlusion

      Correct Answer: Acute intermittent porphyria

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of abdominal pain in a young woman on combined oral contraceptives

      Abdominal pain is a common symptom that can have various causes. In a young woman who has recently started taking combined oral contraceptives, several conditions should be considered in the differential diagnosis. One rare but potentially life-threatening disorder is acute intermittent porphyria, which can present with severe, poorly localized abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, low serum sodium, red urine, tachycardia, hypertension, anxiety, confusion, convulsions, muscle weakness, and paralysis. Another possibility is diabetic ketoacidosis, which may also cause abdominal pain but is usually accompanied by dehydration, tachypnea, and ketonuria. Guillain–Barré syndrome can cause neuropathic pain in the legs and back, but not typically in the abdomen. Mesenteric artery occlusion is more common in older patients with risk factors for arterial thrombosis, while sickle cell crisis is more likely in patients with a history of sickle cell disease. None of these conditions are directly related to the use of oral contraceptives, but some factors such as excess alcohol, excess iron, exposure to estrogens, and certain drugs or infections can trigger acute intermittent porphyria or exacerbate other conditions. Therefore, a thorough medical history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies may be necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 21 - A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with burns on the extensor...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with burns on the extensor aspects of his lower legs. He accidentally spilled hot water on himself while wearing shorts. Upon examination, he has pale, pink skin with small blisters forming. The burns are classified as superficial dermal burns. Using a chart, you calculate the TBSA of the burns. What is the minimum TBSA that would require immediate referral to the plastic surgeons?

      Your Answer: 3%

      Explanation:

      First Aid and Management of Burns

      Burns can be caused by heat, electricity, or chemicals. Immediate first aid involves removing the person from the source of the burn and irrigating the affected area with cool water. The extent of the burn can be assessed using Wallace’s Rule of Nines or the Lund and Browder chart. The depth of the burn can be determined by its appearance, with full-thickness burns being the most severe. Referral to secondary care is necessary for deep dermal and full-thickness burns, as well as burns involving certain areas of the body or suspicion of non-accidental injury.

      Severe burns can lead to tissue loss, fluid loss, and a catabolic response. Intravenous fluids and analgesia are necessary for resuscitation and pain relief. Smoke inhalation can result in airway edema, and early intubation may be necessary. Circumferential burns may require escharotomy to relieve compartment syndrome and improve ventilation. Conservative management is appropriate for superficial burns, while more complex burns may require excision and skin grafting. There is no evidence to support the use of antimicrobial prophylaxis or topical antibiotics in burn patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      37.6
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  • Question 22 - A 27-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and dyspnoea...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and dyspnoea that have been getting worse over the past three months. He is typically healthy and has no family history of heart or lung disease or sudden death.
      During the examination, he seems nervous and fidgety, has an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP), an enlarged heart, a loud third heart sound, and peripheral swelling. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals sinus tachycardia (ST) with a heart rate of 110 beats per minute (bpm) (normal range: 60-100 bpm).
      Based on the probable diagnosis, what is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms? Choose only ONE option.

      Your Answer: Cocaine

      Explanation:

      Causes of Dilated Cardiomyopathy: A Brief Overview

      Dilated cardiomyopathy is a condition that often presents as congestive heart failure, with symptoms such as dyspnoea, fatigue, and weakness. There are several potential causes of dilated cardiomyopathy, including cocaine use, amyloidosis, and sarcoidosis.

      Cocaine use can directly damage the heart, leading to heart failure, while amyloidosis can cause both dilated and restrictive cardiomyopathy. Sarcoidosis, a chronic inflammatory condition, is a rare cause of dilated cardiomyopathy.

      Other substances, such as cannabis and benzodiazepines, are not typically associated with cardiomyopathy. However, chronic cannabis use can lead to other heart and lung conditions, while abrupt withdrawal from benzodiazepines can cause a rare form of cardiomyopathy called Takotsubo cardiomyopathy.

      Overall, it is important to identify the underlying cause of dilated cardiomyopathy in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      48.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 70-year-old man with prostatism has a serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) concentration of...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with prostatism has a serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) concentration of 7.5 ng/ml (normal range 0 - 4 ng/ml).
      What is the most appropriate conclusion to make from this information?

      Your Answer: It could be explained by prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding PSA Levels in Prostate Health: What You Need to Know

      PSA levels can be a useful indicator of prostate health, but they are not always straightforward to interpret. Here are some key points to keep in mind:

      – PSA has a low specificity: prostatitis and acute urinary retention can both result in increased serum PSA concentrations. As the patient is known to have prostatism, this could well account for a raised PSA; however, further investigation to exclude a malignancy may be warranted.
      – It is diagnostic of malignancy: Although this level is certainly compatible with malignancy; it is not diagnostic of it. Further investigations, including magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scanning and/or prostatic biopsies, are needed to confirm a diagnosis of prostate cancer.
      – It is invalidated if he underwent a digital rectal examination 8 days before the blood sample was taken: Although DRE is known to increase PSA levels, it is a minor and only transient effect. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme says that the test should be postponed for a week following DRE.
      – It is prognostically highly significant: In general, the higher the PSA, the greater the likelihood of malignancy, but some patients with malignancy have normal levels (often taken as = 4 ng/ml but are actually age dependent). The absolute PSA concentration correlates poorly with prognosis in prostatic cancer. Other factors such as the tumour staging and Gleason score need to be considered.
      – It is unremarkable in a man of this age: Although PSA does increase with age, the British Association of Urological Surgeons gives a maximum level of 7.2 ng/ml in those aged 70–75 years (although it acknowledges that there is no ‘safe “maximum” level’). Therefore, this level can still indicate malignancy, regardless of symptoms.

      In summary, PSA levels can provide important information about prostate health, but they should always be interpreted in the context of other factors and confirmed with further testing if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      34.2
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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic with joint issues. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic with joint issues. He has been experiencing swelling of the small joints in both hands upon waking up for the past few weeks, along with severe morning stiffness that takes about three hours to improve. He occasionally experiences discomfort in other joints and has had a swollen knee in the past. His current medications include allopurinol and Nizoral shampoo, which he has been purchasing over the counter to treat the scales on his scalp. He has tested negative for rheumatoid factor. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthropathy

      Correct Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Possible Seronegative Arthritis Diagnosis

      It is possible that the patient is taking allopurinol for gout, which can suppress symptoms once the correct dose is established. Haemochromatosis typically causes joint pain but not acute swelling. Palindromic rheumatism is often a diagnosis of exclusion and can progress to rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) causes morning stiffness and mainly affects the shoulder girdle in older individuals. Although the description could fit for RA, acute psoriatic arthropathy can be clinically indistinguishable. However, the patient’s seronegative arthritis and likely scalp psoriasis provide further clues. While skin lesions may not be present, nail changes are usually observed. Approximately 25% of RA cases are seronegative, but the overall presentation suggests a possible diagnosis of seronegative arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 25 - In a 78-year-old man with dementia, which feature is the LEAST suggestive of...

    Incorrect

    • In a 78-year-old man with dementia, which feature is the LEAST suggestive of approaching end of life (within the next 12 months)?

      Your Answer: Unable to walk without assistance

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Recognizing Late Stage Dementia and the Importance of Advance Care Planning

      Late stage dementia is characterized by a decline in physical and cognitive abilities, making it difficult for individuals to perform activities of daily living without assistance. Indicators of late stage dementia include urinary and fecal incontinence, inability to walk without assistance, and a lack of meaningful conversation. A Barthel score of less than three is also a sign of late stage dementia. Other signs include weight loss, urinary tract infections, severe pressure sores, recurrent fever, reduced oral intake, and aspiration pneumonia.

      It is important to note that a Mini-Mental State examination score of less than 10 indicates severe dementia, but not necessarily that the patient is in decline towards death. However, it is crucial to discuss with dementia patients while they still have mental capacity how they would like the later stages of their care managed. Advance care planning can help ensure that their wishes are respected and that they receive the appropriate care and support during this difficult time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      22.4
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  • Question 26 - A mother brings her 5 year-old daughter to clinic with a widespread rash....

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 5 year-old daughter to clinic with a widespread rash. You diagnose Chickenpox. You know her mother, who is also a patient at the practice, is currently 25 weeks pregnant with her second child. Should you take any action regarding her exposure to Chickenpox?

      Your Answer: Enquire as to her Chickenpox history

      Explanation:

      When pregnant women are exposed to Chickenpox, it is important to inquire about their prior history of the infection. If they are uncertain or have not had it before, it is recommended to test for varicella antibodies. In cases where they are found to be non-immune, varicella immunoglobulin should be considered. This treatment can be administered at any stage of pregnancy and is effective for up to 10 days following exposure.

      Chickenpox Exposure in Pregnancy: Risks and Management

      Chickenpox is caused by the varicella-zoster virus and can pose risks to both the mother and fetus during pregnancy. The mother is at a five times greater risk of pneumonitis, while the fetus is at risk of developing fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) if the mother is exposed to Chickenpox before 20 weeks gestation. FVS can result in skin scarring, eye defects, limb hypoplasia, microcephaly, and learning disabilities. There is also a risk of shingles in infancy and severe neonatal varicella if the mother develops a rash between 5 days before and 2 days after birth.

      To manage Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) may be necessary. If the pregnant woman is not immune to varicella, VZIG or antivirals may be given within 10 days of exposure. Waiting until days 7-14 is recommended to reduce the risk of developing clinical varicella. However, the decision on choice of PEP for women exposed from 20 weeks of pregnancy should take into account patient and health professional preference as well as the ability to offer and provide PEP in a timely manner.

      If a pregnant woman develops Chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought. Oral aciclovir may be given if the pregnant woman is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash. However, caution should be exercised if the woman is < 20 weeks. Overall, managing Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy requires careful consideration of the risks and benefits to both the mother and fetus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      12.5
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a check-up after undergoing a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a check-up after undergoing a corneal transplant. What is the most indicative sign of graft rejection?

      Your Answer: Red eye, corneal clouding and decreased visual acuity

      Explanation:

      postoperative Complications Following Corneal Transplant Surgery

      Corneal transplant surgery is a common procedure used to treat various eye conditions. However, like any surgery, it can have complications. Here are some postoperative complications that may occur following corneal transplant surgery:

      1. Corneal Graft Rejection: This occurs when the body’s immune system attacks the transplanted cornea. Symptoms include a red eye, corneal clouding, with or without uveitis, and decreased visual acuity. Treatment involves urgent referral and the use of topical and systemic steroids.

      2. Early Graft Failure: This is usually due to defective donor endothelium or operative trauma. Symptoms include a red eye and decreased visual acuity.

      3. Positive Seidel’s Test: This test is used to identify a penetrating injury. A positive test would show a wound leak after transplant surgery. Treatment involves urgent referral and surgical intervention.

      4. Corneal Abrasion: Epithelial defects giving symptoms and signs of a corneal abrasion (pain and fluorescein staining) may occur in the postoperative period.

      5. Protruding Sutures: A red eye with an associated foreign body sensation in the postoperative period might be produced by protruding sutures.

      6. Watery Discharge: A watery discharge on its own doesn’t suggest graft rejection.

      In conclusion, it is important to be aware of these potential complications and seek medical attention if any symptoms arise. Early detection and treatment can improve the chances of a successful outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      13
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  • Question 28 - A 9-month-old girl is presented to the surgical department after experiencing a seizure....

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old girl is presented to the surgical department after experiencing a seizure. She appears lethargic, has a fever, and her capillary refill time is 3 seconds. The medical team suspects meningococcal septicaemia. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: IM benzylpenicillin 600mg

      Correct Answer: IM benzylpenicillin 300 mg

      Explanation:

      The RCGP has previously provided feedback that doctors are required to have knowledge of emergency medication dosages, with a specific emphasis on suspected cases of meningococcal septicaemia.

      Paediatric Drug Doses for Emergency Situations

      When it comes to prescribing drugs for children in emergency situations, it is important to consult the current British National Formulary (BNF) and be familiar with the appropriate dosages. For instance, in cases of suspected meningococcal septicaemia in the community, IM benzylpenicillin is often prescribed. The following dosages are recommended based on the child’s age: 300 mg for those under 1 year old, 600 mg for those between 1 and 10 years old, and 1200 mg for those over 10 years old. It is important to note that these dosages are just a guide and should be adjusted based on the child’s individual needs and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      27.3
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  • Question 29 - You have been seeing a 52-year-old man who has been frequently attending with...

    Correct

    • You have been seeing a 52-year-old man who has been frequently attending with lower respiratory tract infections. He has lost weight and appears pale and gaunt. During your consultation, you inquire about his travel history and any potential exposure to sexually transmitted infections. The patient confesses to having unprotected sexual intercourse with a sex worker while on a business trip to Thailand a few years ago when his marriage was going through a rough patch. Since then, he has reconciled with his wife and she has been his only sexual partner. With the patient's consent, you conduct a blood test to screen for Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which comes back positive. You discuss the implications of the result with the patient, but he insists that he cannot disclose this information to his wife, who is also a patient at your practice. What is your course of action?

      Your Answer: Give the patient an opportunity to tell his wife and if he doesn't then inform him that it is your duty to inform her

      Explanation:

      The question pertains to patient confidentiality and when it is acceptable to breach it. Specifically, if a patient has been diagnosed with a serious communicable disease, there is a risk of transmission to another patient. According to GMC guidelines, it is permissible to disclose information to a sexual partner of a patient with a sexually transmitted serious communicable disease if the patient has not informed them and cannot be convinced to do so. However, the patient should be informed before the disclosure is made, if possible and safe to do so. Any decision to disclose personal information without consent must be justified. Therefore, in this scenario, if the patient refuses to inform their spouse, it is appropriate to inform the spouse after informing the patient of the decision. It is important to follow professional guidelines in such situations, and other options would not be appropriate.

      GMC Guidance on Confidentiality

      Confidentiality is a crucial aspect of medical practice that must be upheld at all times. The General Medical Council (GMC) provides extensive guidance on confidentiality, which can be accessed through a link provided. As such, we will not attempt to replicate the detailed information provided by the GMC here. It is important for healthcare professionals to familiarize themselves with the GMC’s guidance on confidentiality to ensure that they are meeting the necessary standards and protecting patient privacy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 30 - A 27-year-old female is seeking your help as her seasonal allergic rhinitis (grass...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female is seeking your help as her seasonal allergic rhinitis (grass pollen allergy) has just started. Despite starting her nasal steroid, nasal antihistamine, and oral antihistamine 2 weeks ago, she has not experienced significant relief from her symptoms. She is getting married in a few days and is looking for a quick solution to improve her nasal itching and watery discharge.

      What would you recommend as a possible option for her?

      Your Answer: Offer short course of oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      When standard treatment fails to control allergic rhinitis, it may be necessary to use short courses of steroids to manage important life events. However, it is important to note that oral steroids should only be used for a brief period if the symptoms are severe and significantly impacting the person’s quality of life. There is no evidence to suggest that switching to a different steroid nasal spray would be more effective. Chlorphenamine, a sedating antihistamine, would not be suitable in this situation. Intramuscular steroids are not recommended due to the risk of avascular necrosis from repeated doses. While immunotherapy may be an option in the long term, it will not provide immediate relief in time for a significant event such as a wedding.

      Understanding Allergic Rhinitis

      Allergic rhinitis is a condition that causes inflammation in the nose due to sensitivity to allergens such as dust mites, grass, tree, and weed pollens. It can be classified into seasonal, perennial, or occupational, depending on the timing and cause of symptoms. Seasonal rhinitis, which occurs due to pollens, is commonly known as hay fever. Symptoms of allergic rhinitis include sneezing, bilateral nasal obstruction, clear nasal discharge, post-nasal drip, and nasal pruritus.

      The management of allergic rhinitis involves allergen avoidance and medication. For mild-to-moderate intermittent or mild persistent symptoms, oral or intranasal antihistamines may be prescribed. For moderate-to-severe persistent symptoms or if initial drug treatment is ineffective, intranasal corticosteroids may be recommended. In some cases, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary to cover important life events. Topical nasal decongestants, such as oxymetazoline, may also be used for short periods, but prolonged use can lead to tachyphylaxis and rebound hypertrophy of the nasal mucosa (rhinitis medicamentosa) upon withdrawal.

      In summary, allergic rhinitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and affect daily life. Understanding the different types of allergic rhinitis and its symptoms can help in managing the condition effectively. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 31 - You are conducting a contraceptive evaluation on a 27-year-old female who is presently...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a contraceptive evaluation on a 27-year-old female who is presently using Dianette (co-cyprindiol). During the discussion, you mention the higher risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) associated with Dianette compared to standard combined oral contraceptive pills (COCP) that contain levonorgestrel. However, the patient is hesitant to switch as her acne has significantly improved since starting Dianette. Can you provide information on the exact increased risk of VTE in comparison to patients taking COCPs containing levonorgestrel?

      Your Answer: Around a 15% increased risk

      Correct Answer: Around twice the risk

      Explanation:

      Dianette has a VTE risk that is approximately 1.5-2.0 times higher than that of typical COCPs.

      Co-cyprindiol (Dianette) – Updated Guidance

      Co-cyprindiol, also known as Dianette, is a medication licensed for the treatment of severe acne in women who are unresponsive to prolonged oral antibacterial therapy and moderately severe hirsutism. It is also an effective contraceptive, which has contributed to its popularity. However, some post-marketing studies have shown that some women were being prescribed additional hormonal contraception alongside co-cyprindiol, which is unnecessary and increases the risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE).

      The duration of co-cyprindiol treatment is limited due to concerns about VTE. Interestingly, the increased risk of VTE associated with co-cyprindiol is similar to that of combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) containing desogestrel, gestodene, or drospirenone, compared to COCPs containing levonorgestrel. The current evidence suggests that the VTE risk is about 1.5-2.0 times higher. Therefore, it is important to consider the risks and benefits of co-cyprindiol and other COCPs when prescribing them to women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 32 - A mother is worried because her 2-year-old girl was exposed to measles two...

    Incorrect

    • A mother is worried because her 2-year-old girl was exposed to measles two days ago.

      Which one of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: She should anticipate the rash occurring in the next five days

      Correct Answer: Immunisation with the live attenuated virus is advised within 72 hours to confer protection

      Explanation:

      Measles Treatment and Complications

      If a person has been exposed to measles within the past 72 hours, the measles vaccine is the preferred treatment option. This vaccine can provide lifelong immunity, although it is not 100% effective in preventing the disease. If the vaccine is not an option, immune globulin can be given within six days of exposure.

      Complications from measles are common, with one-third of those infected experiencing issues such as pneumonia, otitis media, and diarrhea. However, the most serious complication is the development of subacute sclerosing pan-encephalitis.

      Measles typically begins with coryzal symptoms, followed by the appearance of a rash several days later.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 33 - A 36-year-old male who has recently immigrated from sub-Saharan Africa is undergoing tuberculosis...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old male who has recently immigrated from sub-Saharan Africa is undergoing tuberculosis screening. He reports no prior medical history and has never received a BCG vaccination. Although his chest x-ray appears normal, his Mantoux test and interferon gamma test are both positive. An HIV test is negative, leading to a suspected diagnosis of latent tuberculosis. What treatment option is most likely to be offered to him?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol for 2 months then step down to rifampicin and isoniazid for 4 months

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid for 6 months

      Explanation:

      Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications

      Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months with a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves rifampicin and isoniazid. For latent tuberculosis, treatment involves three months of isoniazid and rifampicin or six months of isoniazid with pyridoxine. Patients with meningeal tuberculosis require prolonged treatment of at least 12 months with the addition of steroids.

      Directly observed therapy may be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients with poor concordance. However, treatment can also lead to complications. Immune reconstitution disease can occur 3-6 weeks after starting treatment and often presents with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects can also occur, such as hepatitis, orange secretions, flu-like symptoms, peripheral neuropathy, agranulocytosis, hyperuricaemia causing gout, arthralgia, myalgia, and optic neuritis. It is important to monitor patients for these complications and adjust treatment as necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 34 - A 72-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of jaundice and weight...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of jaundice and weight loss. He reports having pale coloured stool and dark urine. He denies experiencing any abdominal pain or fever. He has no significant medical or family history.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Pancreatic Adenocarcinoma: Understanding the Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis

      Pancreatic adenocarcinoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. One of the key symptoms of this condition is painless jaundice, which is often accompanied by weight loss. This is due to the obstructive jaundice that occurs when the tumor is located at the head of the pancreas. Other symptoms may include pale stools and dark urine.

      It is important to note that patients may present with these symptoms before experiencing abdominal pain. This is why it is crucial to refer any patient aged 40 years and over with jaundice for suspected pancreatic cancer, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance.

      When considering a differential diagnosis, gallstone obstruction and cholecystitis can be ruled out due to the absence of severe abdominal pain. Chronic pancreatitis is also unlikely due to the lack of abdominal pain and the rarity of jaundice as a symptom. Hepatitis A may present with similar symptoms, but abdominal pain occurs in only 40% of patients.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and differential diagnosis of pancreatic adenocarcinoma is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment. Any patient with jaundice should be referred for suspected pancreatic cancer, regardless of other symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 35 - A 4-year-old child presents to the out of hours service with a two-night...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old child presents to the out of hours service with a two-night history of earache. The child has a fever, but no ear discharge. There is no vomiting, but loose stool was reported twice today and the child passed urine four hours ago. The child had a similar episode six months ago that resolved with antibiotics. The child has no significant medical history. On examination, the child is well hydrated, has no rash, and clear chest. The left ear has an erythematous bulging eardrum with no perforation or discharge. The right ear and throat show no abnormalities, and there is no cervical lymphadenopathy or mastoid tenderness. The child has a fever of 39°C, HR 130, RR 30, CRT <2 sec. Based on the NICE 'traffic light' system, what is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Admit to paediatrics as child is at high risk of serious illness

      Correct Answer: Advise on fluids and regular analgesia and send home with worsening advice as low risk of serious illness

      Explanation:

      Management of Unilateral Otitis Media in Primary Care

      This child doesn’t exhibit any life-threatening symptoms or signs of serious illness. Based on the NICE ‘traffic light’ system, there are no ‘red’ or ‘amber’ indicators. The most probable diagnosis is unilateral otitis media, which can be safely managed in primary care. Parents should be advised to administer Calpol and/or Nurofen for pain relief and encourage oral fluids. The average duration of acute otitis media is four days.

      Immediate antibiotics are only necessary for children with bilateral acute otitis media under the age of two, otorrhoea, systemic illness, symptoms and signs of serious illness and/or complications, or high risk of complications due to pre-existing comorbidity. Despite national guidelines, a large primary care study has shown that antibiotic prescribing remains high. Antibiotic prescriptions for otitis media have increased from 77% in 1995 to 85% in 2011. Therefore, it is crucial to educate patients on the natural duration of common infections and the potential harm of inappropriate antibiotic use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 36 - A 10-year-old girl has been brought to see you by her father who...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl has been brought to see you by her father who is concerned that she has another episode of tonsillitis. A locum sent a throat swab 3 days earlier, which is reported as showing a Group A streptococcus.
      Select the single most appropriate management.

      Your Answer: 5 days penicillin V

      Correct Answer: 10 days penicillin V

      Explanation:

      Throat Swabs and Antibiotic Treatment for Sore Throat

      Throat swabs are not always reliable in differentiating between infection and carriage, and their results take up to 48 hours to be reported. However, they may be useful in high-risk groups to guide treatment choices in case of treatment failure. Symptomatic treatment and a delayed prescription may be reasonable options for sore throat, but after three days, a prescription for antibiotics may be necessary. Penicillin V is the recommended antibiotic for a 10-day course, while erythromycin or clarithromycin should be given for 5 days if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Overall, careful consideration of the patient’s condition and risk factors is necessary in determining the appropriate treatment for sore throat.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 37 - You are counselling the wife of a man who has passed away suddenly...

    Incorrect

    • You are counselling the wife of a man who has passed away suddenly due to a heart attack. Three weeks after his death, she brings up some financial struggles she is facing. What is the determining factor for her eligibility for the Bereavement Support Payment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Benefits for Bereavement

      When a loved one passes away, it can be a difficult time emotionally and financially. However, there are benefits available to help ease the financial burden. One such benefit is the Funeral Payment, which is a one-time payment given to the partner or parent of the deceased if they are on benefits to help pay for the funeral. Another benefit is the Bereavement Support Payment, which includes a lump sum and up to 18 monthly payments if the claimant is under the state pension age when their partner died. The amount received depends on the national insurance contributions and whether the claimant receives Child Benefit.

      Additionally, there is the Widowed Parent’s Allowance, which is payable to a parent whose husband or wife has died. To be eligible, the surviving partner must be bringing up a child under 19 years of age and receiving Child Benefit. The deceased partner must have made adequate national insurance contributions, and the woman may also be eligible if she was expecting her late husband’s baby. However, divorcees and those who remarry are not eligible to claim. While GPs may not be experts on these benefits, it is important to have a basic understanding of them to provide support and guidance to patients during a difficult time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 38 - You see a 44-year-old lady whose brother and nephew both died of pancreatic...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 44-year-old lady whose brother and nephew both died of pancreatic cancer. The lady was diagnosed with diabetes from a range of tests. In addition, she noticed that her skin started to have a yellow tinge and she complained of itching over her body.

      Which is the best management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an MRI of the pancreas

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Suspected Pancreatic Cancer

      With a strong family history of pancreatic cancer, it is important to have a low threshold for investigating any concerning symptoms. In addition, if a patient aged 60 or over presents with weight loss and any of the following symptoms – diarrhoea, back pain, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, constipation, or new-onset diabetes – a CT scan should be carried out urgently.

      In this case, the patient has also been diagnosed with diabetes and jaundice, which further warrants an urgent referral for suspected cancer. It is important to note that an MRI should not be arranged in primary care, and the decision can be left with the specialist. Additionally, an ultrasound is not the preferred investigation in this instance.

      A routine referral would be inappropriate due to the red flags highlighted in the patient’s history. With such a strong family history, it is crucial to investigate this patient further and take appropriate action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 39 - The community midwife has approached you regarding a patient she saw for her...

    Incorrect

    • The community midwife has approached you regarding a patient she saw for her booking appointment that morning. The patient is a 22-year-old student who did not plan on becoming pregnant and is currently taking multiple prescribed medications. The midwife has requested that you review the medication list to determine if any of them need to be discontinued. The patient is taking levothyroxine for hypothyroidism, beclomethasone and salbutamol inhalers for asthma, adapalene gel for acne, and occasionally uses metoclopramide for migraines. She also purchases paracetamol over the counter for her migraines. She is believed to be approximately 8 weeks pregnant but is waiting for her dating scan.

      Which of her medications, if any, should be stopped?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adapalene gel

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, it is not recommended to use topical or oral retinoids, including Adapalene gel, due to the risk of birth defects. Benzoyl peroxide can be considered as an alternative. Levothyroxine may need to be adjusted to meet the increased metabolic demands of pregnancy, and consultation with an endocrinologist may be necessary. beclomethasone inhaler should be continued to maintain good asthma control, unless there is a specific reason not to. Metoclopramide is generally considered safe during pregnancy and can be used if needed.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 40 - A 44-year-old man collapsed with sudden onset breathlessness associated with haemoptysis earlier that...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man collapsed with sudden onset breathlessness associated with haemoptysis earlier that day. He is usually fit and well with no significant past medical history and is not on any regular medication.

      His family brought him, unannounced, to the surgery reception and when you see him he appears pale and he feels noticeably short of breath at rest. He is complaining of sharp pains in the right side of his chest when he breathes in.

      Clinical examination reveals a patient who is short of breath at rest. His blood pressure is 98/68, pulse rate is 108 bpm and his respiratory rate 24 breaths per minute. Oxygen saturations are 93 % in room air. His temperature is 36.2 °C. Auscultation of the heart and lungs is normal. He has no calf swelling.

      There is no history of gastric ulceration or drug allergies.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate immediate next step in the assessment and management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange an immediate 'blue-light ambulance' for rapid transfer to hospital without any delay

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Pulmonary Embolism

      When a patient presents with sudden onset breathlessness, haemoptysis, pleuritic pain, hypotension, tachycardia, increased respiratory rate, and low oxygen saturations, pulmonary embolism (PE) should be suspected. It is important to note any risk factors that may increase the likelihood of an embolism. The absence of signs of deep vein thrombosis doesn’t exclude the possibility of a PE.

      Immediate admission to the hospital should be arranged for patients with suspected PE who have signs of haemodynamic instability or are pregnant or have given birth within the past 6 weeks. Management should not be delayed for results of a chest X-ray or ECG. Therefore, the correct option is to arrange immediate transfer to the hospital by blue light. Prescribing a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug fails to appreciate the possibility of pulmonary embolism and should not be selected.

      In summary, prompt recognition and management of suspected PE is crucial to prevent morbidity and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 41 - A 39-year-old teacher is being evaluated after starting an antidepressant. She initially presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old teacher is being evaluated after starting an antidepressant. She initially presented with various symptoms of depression and a PHQ-9 score of 18. She has experienced several significant life events leading up to her diagnosis.

      She is married with a daughter in college, but has a strong support system from her family. You decided to initiate treatment with sertraline 50 mg, but she reports no improvement in her depression and your assessment agrees.

      Despite the lack of effectiveness in her treatment thus far, she appears to be tolerating the medication without any adverse effects.

      Based on NICE guidelines for depression treatment, at what point in her treatment would you consider increasing the dosage if she has not responded?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Six to eight weeks

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Depression: Considerations for Medication Adjustment

      When treating depression, it is important to monitor the patient’s response to medication. If there is no improvement within three to four weeks, it may be necessary to increase the dose or switch to a different antidepressant. However, if there is some improvement at four weeks, it is recommended to continue treatment for an additional two to four weeks before making any further changes.

      In this particular case, the patient is tolerating the medication well and has support from her husband. Therefore, the focus should be on adjusting the medication. This recommendation is based on NICE guidance on Depression in adults (CG90) and is supported by other publications. By closely monitoring the patient’s response and making appropriate adjustments, healthcare providers can help improve outcomes for those struggling with depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 42 - You are examining pathology results for a 68-year-old woman who is typically healthy...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining pathology results for a 68-year-old woman who is typically healthy and takes no medication. Her routine blood tests, including a full blood count, renal and liver function, are all normal. A urine dip was also normal. You notice a urine albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) result and an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) result of >90 mL/min/1.73 m2. Her early morning ACR is 5.

      As per NICE guidelines, what stage of chronic kidney disease (CKD) does this woman fall under?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: G1A2

      Explanation:

      A patient with a urine ACR of 5 and an eGFR greater than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2 is classified as having G1A2 CKD. CKD is categorized based on the eGFR and urine ACR, with G1 representing stage 1 and an eGFR greater than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2, and A2 representing a urine ACR of 3-70 mg/mmol. Patients with G1A1 or G2A2 classification are not considered to have CKD in the absence of kidney damage markers.

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. To estimate renal function, serum creatinine levels are often used, but this may not be accurate due to differences in muscle. Therefore, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation are used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity. However, factors such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent red meat consumption may affect the accuracy of the result.

      CKD can be classified based on the eGFR. Stage 1 CKD is when the eGFR is greater than 90 ml/min, but there are signs of kidney damage on other tests. If all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD. Stage 2 CKD is when the eGFR is between 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage. Stage 3a and 3b CKD are when the eGFR is between 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively, indicating a moderate reduction in kidney function. Stage 4 CKD is when the eGFR is between 15-29 ml/min, indicating a severe reduction in kidney function. Stage 5 CKD is when the eGFR is less than 15 ml/min, indicating established kidney failure, and dialysis or a kidney transplant may be necessary. It is important to note that normal U&Es and no proteinuria are required for a diagnosis of CKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 43 - In which disease is the distal interphalangeal joint typically impacted? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which disease is the distal interphalangeal joint typically impacted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoriatic arthritis

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic Arthritis and Other Joint Pathologies

      Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that commonly affects the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joints. It is often accompanied by psoriasis around the adjacent nail, and other joint involvement is typically more asymmetric than in rheumatoid arthritis. On the other hand, reactive arthritis presents with uveitis, urethritis, and arthritis that doesn’t involve the DIP. Gout, another joint pathology, doesn’t typically affect the DIP either. While rheumatoid arthritis can occasionally affect the DIP, it is classically a metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) arthritis. Lastly, it is important to note that bursitis is a pathology of the bursa, not the joint itself.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 44 - A 50-year-old man has developed increasingly swollen legs over the previous month. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has developed increasingly swollen legs over the previous month. He has been lethargic and anorexic. He describes his urine is frothy. Dipstick testing of urine reveals a trace of blood but is strongly positive for protein. His blood pressure is 140/85. There are no other abnormal physical signs. He takes no medication apart from ibuprofen for intermittent backache.
      Select the single most likely cause for this.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome: Causes and Mechanisms

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. The primary causes of nephrotic syndrome include minimal-change nephropathy, focal glomerulosclerosis, and membranous nephropathy, while secondary causes include systemic diseases and drugs. Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults.

      The glomerular structural changes that may cause proteinuria involve damage to the endothelial surface, the glomerular basement membrane, or the podocytes. In membranous glomerulonephritis, immune complexes localize between the outer aspects of the basement membrane and the podocytes.

      If left untreated, nephrotic syndrome can progress to end-stage renal failure in 30-50% of patients. However, some patients with idiopathic membranous nephropathy may experience complete or partial spontaneous remission of nephrotic syndrome with stable renal function.

      It is important to differentiate nephrotic syndrome from other kidney conditions such as diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy, acute tubular necrosis, and acute interstitial nephritis. Understanding the causes and mechanisms of nephrotic syndrome can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 45 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes becomes very unwell...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes becomes very unwell with increased respiratory rate, drowsiness and thirst.

      On examination she is pyrexial 38°C, just about communicating, and smells of acetone. Her BP is 100/60 mmHg with a pulse of 105, her glucose is 27.5.

      How would you manage her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Review next day

      Explanation:

      Diabetic Ketoacidosis: A Serious Condition Requiring Hospital Management

      Diabetic ketoacidosis is a life-threatening condition that occurs due to absolute insulin deficiency, which is almost exclusively seen in type 1 diabetes. It carries a mortality rate of up to 5% and requires immediate hospital management.

      The accumulation of ketones in the body leads to metabolic acidosis, which is compensated for by respiratory mechanisms. Hyperkalaemia is often present at the time of presentation, but it can be resolved quickly with insulin therapy and fluid resuscitation.

      It is important to note that starting antibiotics or increasing insulin in a domiciliary setting is not appropriate for managing diabetic ketoacidosis. This condition requires prompt medical attention and close monitoring to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 46 - A middle-aged loner who is known to abuse alcohol is seen at home...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged loner who is known to abuse alcohol is seen at home following a telephone call from a concerned neighbour.

      You arrive to find that he has been living in squalid conditions. He exhibits a number of interesting signs on examination, and you suspect that he has developed Wernicke's encephalopathy.

      Wernicke's encephalopathy is characterised by a triad of an acute confusional state, ophthalmoplegia, and what other neurological symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ataxia

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy and its Ophthalmoplegic Signs

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is commonly associated with alcohol abuse, but it can also be caused by other factors that lead to thiamine deficiency. One of the most notable signs of this condition is ophthalmoplegia, which refers to the paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles. This can manifest as nystagmus, bilateral lateral rectus palsies, fixed pupils, papilloedema (rarely), and conjugate gaze palsies.

      Aside from ophthalmoplegia, patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy may also exhibit cerebellar signs in their limbs, such as a broad-based gait and vestibular disturbance. Up to 80% of patients may also experience some degree of peripheral neuropathy, which can involve motor or sensory loss. It is important to note that Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 47 - A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic for advice after suffering a transient...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic for advice after suffering a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) in which he experiences a left hemiparesis. He is found to have a right carotid bruit, and carotid stenosis is suspected.
      What is the most appropriate advice you can provide this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgery reduces the risk of stroke if he has severe carotid stenosis

      Explanation:

      Carotid Endarterectomy and Stenting for Severe Carotid Stenosis

      Carotid endarterectomy is a surgical procedure recommended by NICE for patients with moderate or severe carotid stenosis. It is most beneficial for those with severe stenosis, reducing the risk of stroke by up to 30% over three years. However, the presence of a carotid bruit alone is not enough to confirm or exclude significant stenosis or its severity.

      Carotid endarterectomy is indicated for patients with recent stroke or transient ischaemic attack, but surgery should be carried out within seven days of symptom onset for maximum benefit. While stenting with an emboli protection device may be as effective as endarterectomy, there may be a higher risk of stroke initially post-procedure.

      In addition to surgical intervention, the best medical management includes lowering blood pressure, treatment with statins, and antiplatelet therapy. It is important to start treatment as soon as possible to maximize the benefits of surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 48 - A 36-year-old woman has been having occasional pins and needles in her right...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman has been having occasional pins and needles in her right hand for the last month. During your neurological assessment, you try to elicit the triceps reflex by positioning her arm across her chest and tapping the triceps tendon with a reflex hammer. What nerve (and its corresponding nerve root) are you evaluating?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve C7

      Explanation:

      The triceps reflex arc is formed by the components of the radial nerve, which primarily derives from the C7 nerve root and innervates the triceps muscle. The triceps muscle, with its three heads of origin (long, lateral, and medial), is the chief extensor of the forearm and attaches to the olecranon of the ulna.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 49 - A 56-year-old woman is experiencing pain and tingling in her left hand every...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman is experiencing pain and tingling in her left hand every morning upon waking. The tingling sensation is affecting her thumb, index and middle fingers, as well as half of her ring finger. She finds some relief by hanging her arm out of bed. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve is compressed and deprived of blood supply as it passes through the carpal tunnel in the wrist. While it may be caused by secondary factors such as pregnancy, wrist arthritis, or myxoedema, the root cause is often unknown. Conservative management is typically the first line of treatment, which may involve wearing a wrist splint at night to keep the wrist in a neutral position. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and diuretics are not effective in treating carpal tunnel syndrome. Local corticosteroid injections may provide relief, but their long-term effectiveness is uncertain. In some cases, carpal tunnel release surgery may be necessary, which can be performed through an open or endoscopic method. It is important to differentiate carpal tunnel syndrome from other conditions such as cervical root lesion, pronator syndrome, tenosynovitis, and ulnar neuropathy, which have distinct symptoms and causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 50 - A 25-year-old woman who is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) seeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) seeks advice. She is currently on day 15 of her cycle and has missed her last two pills. Before this, she had taken her pill correctly every day. She had unprotected sex 10 hours ago and is unsure if she needs emergency contraception to avoid pregnancy.

      What advice should she be given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No emergency contraception is required and to continue taking her pill as normal

      Explanation:

      If the patient has missed two pills between days 8-14 of her cycle but has taken the previous 7 days of COCP correctly, emergency contraception is not necessary according to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health. Since the patient is not in need of emergency contraception, offering a hormonal-based option would be inappropriate. However, if emergency contraception is required, options include EllaOne (ulipristal acetate) up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse or Levonelle (levonorgestrel) up to 96 hours after unprotected intercourse.

      Inserting a copper IUD to prevent pregnancy would also be inappropriate in this case. If the patient is having difficulty remembering to take her pill correctly and is interested in long-acting contraception, counseling her on options such as intrauterine devices, subnormal contraceptive implants, and the contraceptive injection would be appropriate.

      It is important to note that emergency contraception can be prescribed up to 120 hours after unprotected sexual intercourse, but its effectiveness decreases over time. Therefore, advising a patient to take emergency contraception within 12 hours would be incorrect.

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (1/2) 50%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (3/4) 75%
Kidney And Urology (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (2/5) 40%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/1) 100%
Children And Young People (1/5) 20%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
Allergy And Immunology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/3) 33%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Passmed