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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old woman comes to you with sudden leg swelling after starting nifedipine...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to you with sudden leg swelling after starting nifedipine for her consistently high blood pressure. She appears distressed and informs you that she is already taking 10 mg of ramipril daily. You discontinue nifedipine and record her intolerance in her medical history. Upon further inquiry, you discover that she had previously experienced leg swelling with amlodipine and a rash with verapamil. Unfortunately, her blood pressure rises again after discontinuing amlodipine. What alternative medication can be prescribed next?

      Your Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      For a patient with hypertension who is under 55 years old and cannot tolerate calcium channel blockers, the next line of therapy is a thiazide-like diuretic such as indapamide. It is important to note that drug intolerance refers to the inability to tolerate adverse effects of a medication, while tolerance refers to the ability to tolerate adverse effects and continue taking the medication. Beta-blockers like atenolol may be considered as a fourth-line intervention depending on the patient’s potassium levels, but they are no longer part of initial hypertension management. Candesartan should not be co-prescribed with an ACE inhibitor like ramipril unless directed by a specialist. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, is also not recommended as the patient has been found to be intolerant to this class of medication.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      225.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old woman with suspected heart failure undergoes open-access Doppler echocardiography and is...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman with suspected heart failure undergoes open-access Doppler echocardiography and is diagnosed with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. She has experienced increased shortness of breath since the diagnosis and now requires four pillows to sleep comfortably. Which medication is most likely to provide the quickest relief of symptoms for this patient?

      Your Answer: Furosemide

      Explanation:

      Medications for Heart Failure: Understanding the Recommendations

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management. When it comes to medication, it’s important to understand which drugs are recommended and when they should be prescribed. Here’s a breakdown of some common medications and their appropriate use in heart failure treatment:

      Furosemide: This loop diuretic is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) for patients with symptoms of fluid overload. The dose should be adjusted based on symptoms and reviewed regularly.

      Spironolactone: While this aldosterone antagonist can be considered for all patients, NICE advises that it should only be added if symptoms persist despite optimal treatment with an ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker. Referral to a specialist may be necessary.

      Carvedilol: This beta-blocker is indicated for heart failure, but it won’t provide rapid symptom relief. It may even worsen symptoms if given while there are still signs of fluid overload.

      Digoxin: This drug has a limited role in heart failure management and should not be routinely prescribed. It may be helpful for patients in normal sinus rhythm.

      Ramipril: An ACE inhibitor should be prescribed routinely, but it should not be initiated in patients with suspected valve disease until a specialist has assessed the condition. An angiotensin-II receptor antagonist is an alternative if the ACE inhibitor is not tolerated.

      Understanding the appropriate use of these medications can help improve outcomes for patients with heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which of the following is the least acknowledged in individuals who are prescribed...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least acknowledged in individuals who are prescribed amiodarone medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gynaecomastia

      Explanation:

      Gynaecomastia can be caused by drugs such as spironolactone, which is the most frequent cause, as well as cimetidine and digoxin.

      Adverse Effects and Drug Interactions of Amiodarone

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat irregular heartbeats. However, its use can lead to several adverse effects. One of the most common adverse effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Other adverse effects include corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a slate-grey appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.

      It is also important to note that amiodarone can interact with other medications. For example, it can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, leading to an increased INR. Additionally, it can increase digoxin levels. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor patients closely for adverse effects and drug interactions when using amiodarone. Proper management and monitoring can help minimize the risks associated with this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 58-year-old man has persistent atrial fibrillation.
    Which of the following is the single...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man has persistent atrial fibrillation.
      Which of the following is the single risk factor that places him most at risk of stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Previous transient ischaemic attack

      Explanation:

      Understanding CHA2DS2-VASc Scoring for Stroke Risk in Atrial Fibrillation Patients

      The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is a useful tool for predicting the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation. A score of 0 indicates a low risk, while a score of 1 suggests a moderate risk, and a score of 2 or higher indicates a high risk. One of the risk factors that carries a score of 2 is a previous transient ischaemic attack, while age 75 years or older is another. Other risk factors, such as age 65-74 and female sex at any age, carry a score of 1 each. If a patient has no risk factors, their score would be zero, and not anticoagulating them would be an option. However, it is important to consider bleeding risk, calculated using the ORBIT criteria, before starting anticoagulation in all cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which patient with cardiac issues would you deem suitable for air travel? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which patient with cardiac issues would you deem suitable for air travel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patient who had an uncomplicated myocardial infarction (MI) two days ago

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fitness to Fly Guidelines for Medical Conditions

      Fitness to fly can be a complex topic, and it is important to advise patients to consult their airline for specific policies regarding their medical condition. The UK Civil Aviation Authority’s aviation health unit has produced guidelines for healthcare professionals to clarify fitness to fly for various medical conditions. These guidelines provide a concise overview of key points that are commonly encountered in general practice.

      When it comes to cardiovascular contraindications for commercial airline flights, there are several factors to consider. For example, patients who have had an uncomplicated myocardial infarction within the last seven days or a coronary artery bypass graft within the last ten days are not fit to travel. However, patients who have undergone percutaneous coronary intervention/stenting may be fit to travel after a minimum of five days, but they require medical assessment. Additionally, patients with unstable angina or uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmia should not fly.

      It is important to note that different sources may provide slightly different guidance on fitness to fly. However, the CAA guidelines are considered the closest to national guidance and are likely to be used in examination questions. Examining bodies may also choose answers that fall within the reference range of multiple accredited sources to avoid controversial answers. Overall, understanding fitness to fly guidelines for medical conditions is crucial for ensuring the safety and well-being of patients during air travel.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 6 - A 49-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for review. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for review. He has a past medical history of hypertension, migraine, and obesity (BMI is 38). Currently, he takes metformin 1 g BD and ramipril 5 mg OD for blood pressure control. His latest HbA1c is 50 mmol/mol, and his total cholesterol is 5.2 with an LDL cholesterol of 3.5. His QRisk2 score is 21%.

      During the consultation, you discuss the addition of lipid-lowering medication to reduce his cardiovascular risk, especially in light of his recently treated hypertension. You both agree that starting him on Atorvastatin 20 mg at night is an appropriate treatment for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease.

      Before prescribing the medication, you review his latest blood results, which show normal full blood count, renal function, and thyroid function. However, his liver function tests reveal an ALT of 106 IU/L (<60) and an ALP of 169 IU/L (20-200). Bilirubin levels are within normal limits.

      Upon further investigation, you discover that the ALT rise has persisted since his first blood tests at the surgery over four years ago. However, the liver function results have remained stable over this time, showing no significant variation from the current values. A liver ultrasound done two years ago reports some evidence of fatty infiltration only.

      What is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 20 mg nocte can be initiated and repeat liver function tests should be performed within the first three months of use

      Explanation:

      Liver Function and Statin Therapy

      Liver function should be assessed before starting statin therapy. If liver transaminases are three times the upper limit of normal, statins should not be initiated. However, if the liver enzymes are elevated but less than three times the upper limit of normal, statin therapy can be used. It is important to repeat liver function tests within the first three months of treatment and then at 12 months, as well as if a dose increase is made or if clinically indicated.

      In the case of a modest ALT elevation due to fatty deposition in the liver, statin therapy can still be beneficial for primary prevention, especially if the patient’s Qrisk2 score is over 10%. Mild derangement in liver function is not uncommon in overweight type 2 diabetics. The patient can be treated with the usual NICE-guided primary prevention dose of atorvastatin, which is 20 mg nocte. A higher dose or alternative statin may be required in the future, depending on the patient’s response to the initial treatment and lifestyle modifications. The slight ALT rise doesn’t necessarily require a lower statin dose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 7 - A 60-year-old patient of yours has a persistently high diastolic blood pressure above...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient of yours has a persistently high diastolic blood pressure above 90 mmHg.

      Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring is not currently available so you decide to check his home blood pressures.

      According to NICE what is the minimum number of blood pressure readings a patient should record at home?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Twice a day for 4 days

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Hypertension Monitoring

      The management of hypertension is a crucial aspect of general practice, and knowledge of the NICE guidelines is essential for GPs. According to the 2019 NICE guidance on Hypertension (NG136), updated in March 2022, blood pressure should be recorded twice daily for at least four days, ideally for seven days. Two consecutive measurements should be taken for each recording, at least one minute apart, with the person seated. The first day’s measurements should be discarded, and the average value of the remaining measurements used to confirm the diagnosis. Although home readings are acceptable if ambulatory equipment is unavailable, they should not be considered equal to ambulatory monitoring. This question tests your knowledge of the NICE guidelines for hypertension monitoring, which have remained consistent since the earlier guidance (CG127) issued in 2011.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 8 - A 75-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia and previous myocardial...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of diabetes, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia and previous myocardial infarction presents to his GP with intermittent abdominal pain that he has been experiencing for two months. The pain is dull in nature and radiates to his lower back. During examination, a pulsatile expansile mass is detected in the central abdomen. The patient had undergone an abdominal ultrasound 6 months ago which showed an abdominal aortic diameter of 5.1 cm. The GP repeats the ultrasound and refers the patient to the vascular clinic. The vascular surgeon reviews the patient's ultrasound report which shows no focal pancreatic, liver or gallbladder disease, trace free fluid, a 5.4 cm diameter abdominal aorta, no biliary duct dilation, and normal-sized and mildly echogenic kidneys.

      What aspect of the patient's medical history suggests that surgery may be necessary?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences abdominal pain, it is likely that they have a symptomatic AAA which poses a high risk of rupture. In such cases, surgical intervention, specifically endovascular repair (EVAR), is necessary rather than relying on medical treatment or observation. The abdominal aortic diameter must be greater than 5.5cm to be classified as high rupture risk, which is a close call. The presence of trace free fluid is generally considered normal. Conservative measures, such as quitting smoking, should be taken to address cardiovascular risk factors. An AAA’s velocity of growth should be monitored, and a high-risk AAA would only be indicated if there is an increase of more than 1 cm per year. Ultimately, the decision to proceed with elective surgery is a complex one that should be made in consultation with the patient and surgeon.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, so it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If the width is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. If the width is between 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or greater, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.

      For patients with a low risk of rupture (asymptomatic, aortic diameter < 5.5cm), abdominal ultrasound surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture (symptomatic, aortic diameter >=5.5cm or rapidly enlarging), referral to vascular surgery for probable intervention should occur within 2 weeks. Treatment options include elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if unsuitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, where the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm, and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is the least acknowledged side effect of sildenafil? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least acknowledged side effect of sildenafil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abnormal liver function tests

      Explanation:

      Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 10 - A 75 year old man has come for a surgical consultation regarding an...

    Incorrect

    • A 75 year old man has come for a surgical consultation regarding an ambulatory blood pressure monitoring reading of 142/84 mmHg. He has no history of coronary heart disease, renal disease or diabetes, and is only taking lansoprazole regularly. His 10-year cardiovascular risk score was recently assessed to be 8%. Which of the following should be included in his management plan for follow up?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lifestyle advice

      Explanation:

      When a patient is diagnosed with stage 2 hypertension, regardless of their age, it is recommended to start antihypertensive medication and reinforce lifestyle advice.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 64-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a blood pressure check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a blood pressure check-up. He has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and ischemic heart disease.

      The patient is currently taking the following medications:
      - Ramipril 10 mg once daily
      - Amlodipine 10 mg once daily
      - Bendroflumethiazide 2.5mg once daily
      - Atorvastatin 80 mg once daily
      - Aspirin 75 mg once daily

      The most recent change to his blood pressure medication was the addition of bendroflumethiazide 6 months ago, which has reduced his average home systolic readings by approximately 15 mmHg. The average of home blood pressure monitoring over the past two weeks is now 160/82 mmHg.

      A blood test is conducted, and the results show:
      - K+ 4.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      After ruling out secondary causes of hypertension, what is the next course of action in managing his blood pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add atenolol 25 mg orally once daily

      Explanation:

      The patient has poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and a standard-dose thiazide diuretic. As their potassium levels are above 4.5mmol/l, it is recommended to add an alpha- or beta-blocker to their medication regimen. According to the 2019 NICE guidelines, this stage is considered treatment resistance hypertension, and the GP should also assess for adherence to medication and postural drop. If blood pressure remains high, referral to a specialist or adding a fourth drug may be necessary. Bendroflumethiazide should not be stopped as it has been effective in lowering blood pressure. Atenolol is a suitable beta-blocker to start with, and a reasonable starting dose is 25 mg, which can be adjusted based on the patient’s response. Spironolactone should only be considered if potassium levels are below 4.5mmol/l.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old gentleman attends surgery for review of his heart failure.

    He was recently...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old gentleman attends surgery for review of his heart failure.

      He was recently diagnosed when he was admitted to hospital with shortness of breath. Echocardiography has revealed impaired left ventricular function. He also has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.

      His current medications are: aspirin 75 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily, metformin 850 mg TDS, ramipril 10 mg daily, and simvastatin 40 mg daily.

      He tells you that the ramipril was initiated when the diagnosis of heart failure was made and has been titrated up to 10 mg daily over the recent weeks. His symptoms are currently stable.

      Clinical examination reveals no peripheral oedema, his chest sounds clear and clinically he is in sinus rhythm at 76 beats per minute. His BP is 126/80 mHg.

      Providing there are no contraindications, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to add to his therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Treatment Recommendations for Heart Failure Patients

      Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors and beta blockers are recommended for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of their NYHA functional class. The ACE inhibitors should be considered first, followed by beta blockers once the patient’s condition is stable, unless contraindicated. However, the updated NICE guidance suggests using clinical judgment to decide which drug to start first. Combination treatment with an ACE-inhibitor and beta blocker is the preferred first-line treatment for these patients. Beta blockers have been shown to improve survival in heart failure patients, and three drugs are licensed for this use in the UK. Patients who are newly diagnosed with impaired left ventricular systolic function and are already taking a beta blocker should be considered for a switch to one shown to be beneficial in heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 13 - Your patient, who has been discharged after a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction, is...

    Incorrect

    • Your patient, who has been discharged after a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction, is unsure if he has experienced a heart attack. Which statement from the list accurately describes non-ST elevation myocardial infarction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a risk of recurrent infarction in up to 10% in the first month

      Explanation:

      Understanding Non-ST Elevation Myocardial Infarction (NSTEMI) and Unstable Angina

      Non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) is a condition that is diagnosed in patients with chest pain who have elevated troponin T levels without the typical ECG changes of acute MI, such as Q-waves and ST elevation. Instead, there may be persistent or transient ST-segment depression or T-wave inversion, flat T waves, pseudo-normalisation of T waves, or no ECG changes at all. On the other hand, unstable angina is diagnosed when there is chest pain but no rise in troponin levels.

      Despite their differences, both NSTEMI and unstable angina are grouped together as acute coronary syndromes. In the acute phase, 5-10% of patients may experience death or re-infarction. Additionally, another 5-10% of patients may experience death due to recurrent myocardial infarction in the month after an acute episode.

      To manage these patients, many units take an aggressive approach with early angiography and angioplasty. By understanding the differences between NSTEMI and unstable angina, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate and timely treatment to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 14 - An 80 year old male underwent an ECG due to palpitations and was...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old male underwent an ECG due to palpitations and was found to have AF with a heart rate of 76 bpm. Upon further evaluation, you determine that he has permanent AF and a history of hypertension. If there are no contraindications, what would be the most suitable initial step to take at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      According to the patient’s CHADSVASC2 score, which is 4, they have a high risk of stroke due to factors such as congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, age over 75, and being female. As per NICE guidelines, all patients with a CHADSVASC score of 2 or more should be offered anticoagulation, while taking into account their bleeding risk using the ORBIT score. Direct oral anticoagulants are now preferred over warfarin as the first-line treatment. For men with a score of 1, anticoagulation should be considered. Beta-blockers or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker should be offered first-line for rate control, while digoxin should only be used for sedentary patients.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 15 - You see a 65-year-old gentleman who was diagnosed with heart failure and an...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 65-year-old gentleman who was diagnosed with heart failure and an ejection fraction of 35%. He is currently on the maximum tolerated dose of an ACE-I and beta blocker. He reports to still be symptomatic from his heart failure.

      What would be the next appropriate step in his management to improve his prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to a heart failure specialist as no other drugs should be prescribed in primary care

      Explanation:

      MRA Treatment for Heart Failure Patients

      According to NICE guidelines, patients with heart failure and a reduced ejection fraction who continue to experience symptoms of heart failure should be offered an MRA such as spironolactone or eplerenone. Previously, only a heart failure specialist could initiate these treatments. However, now it is recommended that all healthcare professionals involved in the care of heart failure patients should consider offering these treatments to improve symptoms and reduce the risk of hospitalization. This guideline update aims to ensure that more patients have access to effective treatments for heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 16 - What is the correct option for measuring blood pressure using either an automated...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct option for measuring blood pressure using either an automated machine or a manual method?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients should rest for 5 minutes before the measurement is taken

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Measuring Blood Pressure

      When measuring blood pressure, it is important to follow certain guidelines to ensure accurate readings. The patient should be seated for at least five minutes, in a relaxed state without moving or speaking. Blood pressure should be recorded three times, initially testing in both arms. If there is a sustained difference of more than 20 mmHg, use the arm with the higher reading for subsequent measurements. The arm must be supported at the level of the heart.

      If the blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg or higher, up to three readings should be taken, and the lower of the last two recorded as the blood pressure. It is important to note that automated devices may not measure blood pressure accurately if there is pulse irregularity, such as atrial fibrillation. In such cases, blood pressure should be measured manually using direct auscultation over the brachial artery. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure accurate blood pressure readings for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 17 - What additional action is mentioned in the latest NICE guidance for monitoring blood...

    Incorrect

    • What additional action is mentioned in the latest NICE guidance for monitoring blood pressure in diabetic patients compared to non-diabetic patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measure BP standing and sitting

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Treatment for Hypertension

      When monitoring treatment for hypertension, it is recommended by NICE to use clinic blood pressure (BP) measurements. However, for patients with type 2 diabetes, symptoms of postural hypotension, or those aged 80 and over, both standing and sitting BP should be measured. Patients who wish to self-monitor their BP should use home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) and receive proper training and advice. Additionally, for patients with white-coat effect or masked hypertension, ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) or HBPM can be considered in addition to clinic BP measurements.

      It is important to note that for adults with type 2 diabetes who have not been previously diagnosed with hypertension or renal disease, BP should be measured at least annually. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively monitor and manage hypertension in their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old man with known congestive cardiac failure presents to his General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with known congestive cardiac failure presents to his General Practitioner for his annual review. He reports that his heart failure symptoms have been stable in recent months. On examination his heart rate is 68 bpm but is noted to be irregularly irregular, blood pressure is 136/84 mmHg, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute and oxygen saturations 95% in air. An electrocardiogram (ECG) confirms atrial fibrillation (AF) with a stable ventricular rate of 72 bpm.
      Which single medication from the following list would be most beneficial from the point of view of this patient’s atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation: Anticoagulation with Warfarin as Initial Therapy

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) patients who are haemodynamically stable have an intermediate risk and require anticoagulation therapy. The initial treatment for such patients is anticoagulation with warfarin, which is also indicated in valvular heart disease and the elderly. Other options for anticoagulation include apixaban, dabigatran etexilate, and rivaroxaban, within their licensed indications. The decision to use anticoagulation in AF is guided by the CHA2DS2-VASc scores, which assess the risk factors for stroke. Patients with a very low risk of stroke (CHA2DS2-VASc score of 0 for men, or 1 for women) should not be offered stroke prevention therapy. Anticoagulation should be offered to people with a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 2 (1 in men) or above, taking bleeding risk into account.

      While furosemide is a potential treatment for congestive cardiac failure, it is not urgently required in haemodynamically stable patients. Aspirin is no longer recommended for stroke prevention in any patient with AF. Digoxin is a potential rate-limiting medication in people with non-paroxysmal AF, but rate limitation is not the first priority in this case as the ventricular rate is normal. Sotalol, a cardioselective beta-blocker, is used in rate control for AF with a fast ventricular response, but is not required for this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 19 - A 62-year-old woman has been visiting the practice nurse for a few weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman has been visiting the practice nurse for a few weeks for blood pressure (BP) checks. Her results have shown significant variability. She presents you with a diary of home readings that the nurse has instructed her to take twice daily over the past two weeks. Her average BP based on these readings is 135/80 mmHg. Her BP today in the clinic is 162/102 mmHg, and the nurse has recorded similar levels on the last two visits. She doesn't want to take medication for her BP. She has no other medical conditions.
      What is the most suitable course of action? Choose ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accept the home blood pressure (BP) readings and diagnose white-coat hypertension

      Explanation:

      Managing White-Coat Hypertension with Home Blood Pressure Monitoring

      According to current NICE guidance, hypertension should be diagnosed in patients with a clinic BP of 140/90 mmHg or greater and either average daily ambulatory BP monitoring (ABPM) or home BP monitoring (HBPM) readings of greater than 135/85. However, if a patient’s home readings are within normal range, their elevated clinic BP is likely due to white-coat hypertension. In such cases, further assessment with ABPM is unnecessary. Monthly BP reviews with the practice nurse are also unnecessary if HBPM readings are normal. Treatment is not recommended based on clinic readings alone, and specialist referral is not needed if HBPM readings are within normal range. Home blood pressure monitoring can effectively manage white-coat hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 20 - Barbara is a 57-year-old woman who has come to see you after high...

    Incorrect

    • Barbara is a 57-year-old woman who has come to see you after high blood pressure readings during a routine check with the nurse.

      You take two blood pressure readings, the lower of which is 190/126 mmHg.

      Barbara has no headache or chest pain. On examination of her cardiovascular and neurological systems, there are no abnormalities. Fundoscopy is normal.

      What is the most crucial next step to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgently carry out investigations for target organ damage including ECG, urine dip and blood tests

      Explanation:

      If Cynthia’s blood pressure is equal to or greater than 180/120 mmHg and she has no worrying signs, the first step is to urgently investigate for any damage to her organs.

      According to NICE guidelines, if a person has severe hypertension but no symptoms or signs requiring immediate referral, investigations for target organ damage should be carried out as soon as possible. Since Cynthia has no such symptoms or signs, investigating for target organ damage is the correct option.

      If target organ damage is found, antihypertensive drug treatment should be considered immediately, without waiting for the results of ABPM or HBPM. Therefore, prescribing a calcium channel blocker is not the correct answer as assessing for organ damage is the more urgent priority.

      Repeating clinic blood pressure measurement within 7 days at this stage would not be helpful in guiding further management, as assessing for target organ damage is the priority. NICE recommends repeating clinic blood pressure measurement within 7 days only if no target organ damage is identified.

      Assessing for target organ damage involves testing for protein and haematuria in the urine, measuring HbA1C, electrolytes, creatinine, estimated glomerular filtration rate, total cholesterol, and HDL cholesterol in the blood, examining the fundi for hypertensive retinopathy, and performing a 12-lead electrocardiograph.

      NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.

      To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.

      If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.

      ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.

      Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 21 - You are reviewing current guidance in relation to the use of non-HDL cholesterol...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing current guidance in relation to the use of non-HDL cholesterol measurement with regards lipid modification therapy for cardiovascular disease prevention.
      Which of the following lipoproteins contribute to 'non-HDL cholesterol'?

      You are reviewing current guidance in relation to the use of non-HDL cholesterol measurement with regards lipid modification therapy for cardiovascular disease prevention.

      Which of the following lipoproteins contribute to 'non-HDL cholesterol'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LDL, IDL and VLDL cholesterol

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Non-HDL Cholesterol in Statin Treatment

      NICE guidelines recommend that high-intensity statin treatment for both primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease should aim for a greater than 40% reduction in non-HDL cholesterol. Non-HDL cholesterol includes LDL, IDL, and VLDL cholesterol. In the past, LDL reduction has been used as a marker of statin effect. However, non-HDL reduction is more useful as it takes into account the atherogenic properties of IDL and VLDL cholesterol, which may be raised even in the presence of normal LDL levels.

      Using non-HDL cholesterol also has other benefits. Hypertriglyceridaemia can interfere with lab-based LDL calculations, but it doesn’t impact non-HDL calculation, which is measured by a different method. Additionally, a fasting sample is not required to measure non-HDL cholesterol, making sampling and monitoring easier. Overall, non-HDL cholesterol is an important marker to consider in statin treatment for cardiovascular disease prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old man with a history of treated hypertension comes in for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of treated hypertension comes in for a check-up. He experienced a 2-hour episode yesterday where he struggled to find the right words while speaking. This is a new occurrence and there were no other symptoms present. Upon examination, there were no neurological abnormalities and his blood pressure was 150/100 mmHg. He is currently taking amlodipine. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg immediately + specialist review within 24 hours

      Explanation:

      This individual has experienced a TIA and is at a higher risk due to their age, blood pressure, and duration of symptoms. It is recommended by current guidelines that they receive specialist evaluation within 24 hours. If their symptoms have not completely subsided, aspirin should not be administered until the possibility of a hemorrhagic stroke has been ruled out. However, since this is a TIA with symptoms lasting less than 24 hours, aspirin should be administered promptly.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.

      Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.

      Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 23 - What is the typical target INR for a patient with a mechanical aortic...

    Incorrect

    • What is the typical target INR for a patient with a mechanical aortic valve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3.5

      Explanation:

      The recommended target INR for mechanical valves is 3.0 for aortic valves and 3.5 for mitral valves.

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options and Considerations

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged or diseased valves in the heart. The two main options for replacement are biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical valves. Bioprosthetic valves are usually derived from bovine or porcine sources and are preferred for older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve location. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease.

      It is important to consider the patient’s age, medical history, and lifestyle when choosing a prosthetic heart valve. While bioprosthetic valves may not require long-term anticoagulation, they may need to be replaced sooner than mechanical valves. Mechanical valves, on the other hand, may require lifelong anticoagulation, which can be challenging for some patients. Additionally, following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis. Therefore, it is crucial to weigh the benefits and risks of each option and make an informed decision with the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 24 - A 50-year-old man comes to see you to ask about travel to India...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to see you to ask about travel to India to visit his relatives. He has been discharged recently from the local district general hospital after suffering an inferior myocardial infarction. He had an exercise test prior to discharge and has made a good recovery. He looks well wants to return to his family home to Mumbai to recuperate.

      According to the UK Civil Aviation Authority, what is the minimum time after an uncomplicated MI that he would be OK to fly home?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      Travel Restrictions After Myocardial Infarction

      After experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI), also known as a heart attack, patients may wonder when it is safe to travel by air. The minimum time for flying after an uncomplicated MI is generally accepted to be seven days, although some authorities suggest waiting up to three weeks. It is important to note that this question specifically asks for the minimum time after an uncomplicated MI that would be safe for air travel.

      Consensus national guidance in the UK, including advice from the Civil Aviation Authority and British Airways, supports the seven-day minimum for uncomplicated MI. Patients who have had a complicated MI should wait four to six weeks before flying. Patients with severe angina may require oxygen during the flight and should pre-book a supply with the airline. Patients who have undergone coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) or suffered a stroke should not travel for ten days. Decompensated heart failure or uncontrolled hypertension are contraindications to flying.

      In summary, patients who have experienced an uncomplicated MI may fly after seven days without requiring an exercise test. It is important to follow national guidance and consult with a healthcare provider before making any travel plans after a heart attack.

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      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 25 - A 60-year-old man presents with congestive heart failure.
    Which of the following drugs may...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with congestive heart failure.
      Which of the following drugs may be effective in reducing mortality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Pharmaceutical Treatments for Heart Failure: A Summary

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires careful management. There are several pharmaceutical treatments available, each with its own benefits and limitations. Here is a summary of some of the most commonly used drugs:

      Enalapril: This drug blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to improved cardiac output and reduced hospitalization rates.

      Digoxin: While this drug doesn’t improve mortality rates, it can be useful in managing symptoms.

      Amlodipine: This drug has not been shown to improve survival rates, but may be used in conjunction with other medications.

      Aspirin: This drug is only useful in cases of coronary occlusion or myocardial infarction.

      Furosemide: This drug can relieve congestive symptoms, but is not relevant for all heart failure patients.

      It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case of heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 26 - A 72-year-old woman presents to her GP with breathlessness and leg swelling. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents to her GP with breathlessness and leg swelling. She has heart failure (ejection fraction 33%), rheumatoid arthritis and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her medications are 7.5mg bisoprolol once daily, 10 mg lisinopril once daily, 20 mg furosemide twice daily, 500mg metformin three times daily and 1g paracetamol four times daily.

      During examination, she has mild bibasal crackles, heart sounds are normal and there is bilateral pedal pitting oedema. Heart rate is 72 beats per minute and regular, respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations are 94% on room air, blood pressure is 124/68 mmHg and her temperature is 36.2oC.

      Bloods from an appointment two weeks previously:

      Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 23 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 6.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 114 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What medication would be most appropriate to initiate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      For individuals with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction who continue to experience symptoms, it is recommended to add a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist, such as spironolactone, to their current treatment plan of an ACE inhibitor (or ARB) and beta-blocker. Prior to starting or increasing the dosage of a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist, it is important to monitor serum sodium, potassium, renal function, and blood pressure. Amiodarone is not typically used as a first line treatment for heart failure and should only be prescribed in consultation with a cardiology specialist. Digoxin may be recommended if heart failure worsens or becomes severe despite initial treatment, but it is important to note that a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist should be prescribed first. Ivabradine may also be used in heart failure, but it should not be prescribed if the patient’s heart rate is below 75 and is not typically used as a first line treatment.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 27 - A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner after undergoing primary coronary angioplasty for...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner after undergoing primary coronary angioplasty for a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction. He has been informed that he has a drug-eluting stent and is worried about potential negative consequences.
      What is accurate regarding these stents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The risk of re-stenosis is reduced

      Explanation:

      Understanding Drug-Eluting Stents and Antiplatelet Therapy for Coronary Stents

      Drug-eluting stents (DESs) are metal stents coated with a growth-inhibiting agent that reduces the frequency of restenosis by about 50%. However, the reformation of endothelium is slowed, which prolongs the risk of thrombosis. DESs are recommended if the artery to be treated has a calibre < 3 mm or the lesion is longer than 15 mm, and the price difference between DESs and bare metal stents (BMSs) is no more than £300. Antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel is required for patients with coronary stents to reduce stent thrombosis. Aspirin is continued indefinitely, while clopidogrel should be used for at least one month with a BMS (ideally, up to one year), and for at least 12 months with a DES. It is important for cardiologists to explain this information to patients, but General Practitioners should also have some knowledge of these procedures. Understanding Drug-Eluting Stents and Antiplatelet Therapy for Coronary Stents

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - A 59-year-old man comes to your clinic with hypertension. His initial investigations, including...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man comes to your clinic with hypertension. His initial investigations, including blood tests, electrocardiogram, and urine dip, all come back normal. His QRisk2 score is 18%. His blood pressure readings are consistently above 150/100. He has no significant medical history, but there is a family history of high blood pressure. Despite making lifestyle changes, his blood pressure remains elevated, and you both agree on treatment.

      What is your plan for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a calcium channel blocker

      Explanation:

      First Step in Managing Hypertension

      Having diagnosed hypertension, the first step in management involves considering several key factors in the patient’s history. One important factor is whether the patient has diabetes, as this influences the choice of antihypertensive medication. In diabetic patients, ACE inhibitors or ARBs are preferred over calcium antagonists due to their secondary benefits in managing diabetes.

      Another important factor is the patient’s age, with a threshold of 55 years indicating the preference for a calcium antagonist over an ACE inhibitor or ARB in step 1. This is because these medications are less effective in older individuals. Other age thresholds, such as 40 and 80 years, are also important in diagnosis and monitoring.

      While not relevant to this question, it is important to note that in patients under 80 years of age, the target blood pressure should be below 140/90 in clinic or below 135/85 in home or ambulatory monitoring. Additionally, a statin may be considered for patients with a QRisk2 score above 10.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - An 80-year-old gentleman presents with an infective exacerbation of his bronchiectasis. Following clinical...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old gentleman presents with an infective exacerbation of his bronchiectasis. Following clinical assessment you decide to treat him with a course of antibiotics. He has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation for which he takes lifelong warfarin. His notes state he is penicillin allergic and the patient confirms a history of a true allergy.

      You decide to prescribe a course of doxycycline, 200 mg on day 1 then 100 mg daily to complete a 14 day course.

      You can see his INR is very well managed and is consistently between 2.0 and 3.0 and he has been taking 3 mg and 4 mg on alternate days for the last six months without the need for any dose changes.

      What is the most appropriate management of his warfarin therapy during the treatment of this acute exacerbation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check his INR three to five days after starting the doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Managing Warfarin Patients on Antibiotics

      When a patient on warfarin requires antibiotics, it is a common clinical scenario that requires careful management. While there is no need to stop warfarin or switch to aspirin, it is important to monitor the patient’s INR levels closely. Typically, extra INR monitoring should be performed three to five days after starting the antibiotics to check for any potential impact on the INR. If necessary, a dosing change for warfarin may be needed.

      According to the British Committee for Standards in Haematology Guidelines for oral anticoagulation with warfarin (2011), it is important to follow specific recommendations for INR testing when a potential drug interaction occurs. By carefully monitoring INR levels and adjusting warfarin dosing as needed, healthcare providers can help ensure the safety and efficacy of treatment for patients on warfarin who require antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman of African origin comes in for a routine health check....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman of African origin comes in for a routine health check. She is a non-smoker, drinks 14 units of alcohol per week, is physically fit, active, and enjoys regular moderate exercise and a balanced diet. Her BMI is 26.8 kg/m2. Her average BP measured by home monitoring for 7 days is 160/95.
      What is the most suitable initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Treatment Recommendations for Hypertension

      Patients diagnosed with hypertension with a blood pressure reading of >150/95 mmHg (stage 2 hypertension) should be offered drug therapy. For patients younger than 55 years, an ACE inhibitor is recommended as the first-line treatment. However, patients over the age of 55 and black patients of any age should initially be treated with a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide diuretic. These recommendations aim to provide effective treatment options for patients with hypertension based on their age and race.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Health (2/2) 100%
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