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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following a suicide attempt....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following a suicide attempt. He was found at home with an empty bottle of paracetamol by his side. Still conscious, a history was obtained from him to assess his risk of further attempts. Which of the following is considered to be the strongest risk factor for successful suicide?

      Your Answer: Addiction to opiates

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, an addiction to opiates is considered the strongest risk factor for committing suicide.

      Other options:
      Being a female – Being male is one of the most significant risk factors for suicide.
      Being married – Having family support is an important protective factor for suicide.
      Having five children – Having children at home is thought to be a protective factor.
      Having never seen a general practitioner – Having a chronic mental or physical condition is however a risk factor for suicide.

      Risk factors of suicide:
      There are several factors shown to be associated with an increased risk of suicide:
      Male sex
      History of deliberate self-harm
      Alcohol or drug misuse
      History of mental illness (depression, schizophrenia)
      History of chronic disease
      Advancing age
      Unemployment or social isolation/living alone
      Being unmarried, divorced or widowed
      Previous attempt to commit suicide.

      Signs pointing towards suicidal intension:
      Efforts to avoid discovery
      Planning
      Leaving a written note
      Final acts such as sorting out finances
      Violent method

      Protective factors against suicide:
      Family support
      Having children at home
      Religious belief

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 2 - Which among the following factors is not associated with a poor prognosis in...

    Correct

    • Which among the following factors is not associated with a poor prognosis in patients with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Acute onset

      Explanation:

      A patient with a gradual onset of schizophrenia is to be associated with a poor prognosis.

      Schizophrenia is a functional psychotic disorder characterized by the presence of delusional beliefs, hallucinations, and disturbances in thought, perception, and behaviour.

      Clinical features:
      Schneider’s first-rank symptoms may be divided into auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions:

      Auditory hallucinations of a specific type:
      Two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person
      Thought echo
      Voices commenting on the patient’s behaviour

      Thought disorder:
      Thought insertion
      Thought withdrawal
      Thought broadcasting

      Passivity phenomena:
      Bodily sensations being controlled by external influence
      Actions/impulses/feelings – experiences which are imposed on the Individual or influenced by others

      Other features of schizophrenia include
      Impaired insight (a feature of all psychoses)
      Incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances)
      Decreased speech
      Neologisms: made-up words
      Catatonia
      Negative symptoms: incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), avolition (poor motivation).

      Treatment:
      For the initial treatment of acute psychosis, it is recommended to commence an oral second-generation antipsychotics such as aripiprazole, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, etc.
      Once the acute phase is controlled, switching to a depot preparation like aripiprazole, paliperidone, zuclopenthixol, fluphenazine, haloperidol, pipotiazine, or risperidone is recommended.
      Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) and the use of art and drama therapies help counteract the negative symptoms of the disease, improve insight, and assist relapse prevention.
      Clozapine is used in case of treatment resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A 46 year old woman with a history of depression visits the clinic...

    Correct

    • A 46 year old woman with a history of depression visits the clinic for a review. She was started on Fluoxetine 7 weeks earlier and is requesting that this medication be stopped because she feels well. What recommendation would you give with regards to the treatment?

      Your Answer: It should be continued for at least another 6 months

      Explanation:

      Depressive disorders require long-term treatment with antidepressants, psychotherapy, or both. The goal of antidepressant therapy is complete remission of symptoms and return to normal daily functioning. Studies have shown that achieving remission and continuing antidepressant therapy long after the acute symptoms remit can protect against the relapse or recurrence of the psychiatric episode. Many patients, however, inadvertently or intentionally skip doses of their antidepressant, and even discontinue it, if their symptoms improve or if they experience side effects. Antidepressant discontinuation may increase the risk of relapse or precipitate certain distressing symptoms such as gastrointestinal complaints, dizziness, flu-like symptoms, equilibrium disturbances, and sleep disorders.

      Pharmacologic therapy should be continued long enough to sustain remission and avoid relapses and recurrences. Recurrence refers to a return of depression at a time beyond the expected duration of the index episode (> 9 months after remission). This means that physicians and patients alike should not be too eager to discontinue medication prematurely. An interval of 6 months has been thought to be the usual duration of antidepressant therapy. New recommendations, however, suggest that treatment should continue for up to 9 months after symptoms have resolved (continuation phase) to prevent relapse and for longer to help prevent recurrence (maintenance phase).

      SSRI discontinuation symptoms are similar to those of the TCAs, with dizziness, gastrointestinal symptoms, and sleep disorders common. Anecdotal reports have included complaints of “electric shock–like” sensations, flashes, and “withdrawal buzz.” The type and severity of the symptoms correlate with the relative affinities of the agents for the serotonin reuptake sites and with secondary effects on other neurotransmitters; with SRIs that also affect cholinergic systems, the symptoms possibly correlate with cholinergic rebound.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - A 36 year old female who has been suffering from depression for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year old female who has been suffering from depression for the past 5 years was recently admitted to the psychiatric intensive care unit. She is currently being managed on Sertraline. In clinic she was observed to be sitting in a fixed position for several hours, awake but unable to move. What would be an appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Quetiapine

      Correct Answer: ECT

      Explanation:

      Catatonia is a state of apparent unresponsiveness to external stimuli and apparent inability to move normally in a person who is apparently awake. Catatonia can be acute and occur in severely ill patients with underlying psychiatric or other medical disorders.

      A history of behavioural responses to others usually includes the presence of the following:
      – Mutism (absence of speech)
      – Negativism (performing actions contrary to the commands of the examiner)
      – Echopraxia (repeating the movements of others)
      – Echolalia (repeating the words of others)
      – Waxy flexibility (slight, even resistance to positioning by examiner)
      – Withdrawal (absence of responses to the environment).

      In the presence of a catatonic state, both first and second generation antipsychotics (SGA) may contribute to maintaining or worsening the catatonic state and increase the risk of developing NMS (neuroleptic malignant syndrome).

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is effective in all forms of catatonia, even after pharmacotherapy with benzodiazepines has failed. Response rate ranges from 80% to 100% and results superior to those of any other therapy in psychiatry. ECT should be considered first-line treatment in patients with malignant catatonia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, delirious mania or severe catatonic excitement, and in general in all catatonic patients that are refractory or partially responsive to benzodiazepines. Early intervention with ECT is encouraged to avoid undue deterioration of the patient’s medical condition.

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a procedure, done under general anaesthesia, in which small electric currents are passed through the brain, intentionally triggering a brief seizure. ECT seems to cause changes in brain chemistry that can quickly reverse symptoms of certain mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - A 35 year old female is observed wiping off the door handle before...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old female is observed wiping off the door handle before going outside. She also says that she has to wash her hands before and after leaving the house. She explains that she gets very uptight and anxious if these are not done in a certain order. This has been ongoing for the past four years and is upsetting her deeply. What is the most appropriate treatment for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Exposure-response prevention (ERP) therapy

      Explanation:

      Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is a common, chronic and long-lasting disorder in which a person has uncontrollable, reoccurring thoughts (obsessions) and behaviours (compulsions) that he or she feels the urge to repeat over and over.
      People with OCD may have symptoms of obsessions, compulsions, or both. These symptoms can interfere with all aspects of life, such as work, school, and personal relationships.

      Obsessions are repeated thoughts, urges, or mental images that cause anxiety. Common symptoms include:
      Fear of germs or contamination
      Unwanted forbidden or taboo thoughts involving sex, religion, and harm
      Aggressive thoughts towards others or self
      Having things symmetrical or in a perfect order

      Compulsions are repetitive behaviours that a person with OCD feels the urge to do in response to an obsessive thought. Common compulsions include:
      -Excessive cleaning and/or handwashing
      -Ordering and arranging things in a particular, precise way
      -Repeatedly checking on things, such as repeatedly checking to see if the door is locked or that the oven is off
      -Compulsive counting

      Research also shows that a type of CBT called Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP) is effective in reducing compulsive behaviours in OCD, even in people who did not respond well to SRI medication. ERP has become the first-line psychotherapeutic treatment for OCD

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - A 21-year-old female presents to the emergency department having taken an overdose of...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old female presents to the emergency department having taken an overdose of 40 x 500mg paracetamol tablets and 400ml of vodka. This is her fourth attendance with an overdose over the past 3 years. She is also known to the local police after an episode of reckless driving/road rage. On arrival, she is tearful and upset. Vital signs and general physical examination are normal apart from evidence of cutting on her arms. She is given activated charcoal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The given clinical scenario is highly suggestive of a borderline personality disorder.

      Borderline personality disorder is marked out by instability in moods, behaviour, and relationships. The diagnosis is confirmed by the presence of at least 5 of the following symptoms;
      1) Extreme reactions including panic, depression, rage, or frantic actions to abandonment, whether real or perceived
      2) A pattern of intense and stormy relationships with family, friends, and loved ones, often veering from extreme closeness and love to extreme dislike or anger
      3) Distorted and unstable self-image or sense of self, which can result in sudden changes in feelings, opinions, values, or plans and goals for the future (such as school or career choices)
      4) Impulsive and often dangerous behaviours, such as spending sprees, unsafe sex, substance abuse, reckless driving, and binge eating
      5) Recurring suicidal behaviours or threats or self-harming behaviour, such as cutting, intense and highly changeable moods, with each episode lasting from a few hours to a few days
      6) Chronic feelings of emptiness and/or boredom
      7) Inappropriate, intense anger or problems controlling anger
      8) Having stress-related paranoid thoughts or severe dissociative symptoms, such as feeling cut off from oneself, observing oneself from outside the body, or losing touch with reality.

      Other options:
      There are no features consistent with endogenous depression, such as early morning wakening or loss of appetite.
      There are also no features consistent with hypomania such as pressure of speech, a flight of ideas, or over-exuberant behaviour.
      The lack of history of drug abuse rules out drug-induced psychosis.
      An anti-social personality disorder is characterized by a failure to conform to social norms and repeated lawbreaking. There is consistent irresponsibility, impulsivity, and disregard for both their safety and that of others. This is not the case in the given scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - A 63-year-old male presents with behavioural disturbances. He has a history of chronic...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old male presents with behavioural disturbances. He has a history of chronic alcohol intake and previous Wernicke's encephalopathy. He has not consumed alcohol in the past 2 years. Which among the following phenomena is he likely to display on further assessment?

      Your Answer: Confabulation

      Explanation:

      In a patient with chronic alcoholism, one can expect confabulations, which point towards a diagnosis of Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      Korsakoff’s is characterized by confabulation and amnesia, typically occurring in alcoholics secondary to chronic vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency.

      Other options:
      Dysthymia refers to mild depression.
      Hydrophobia is a feature of rabies
      Lilliputians may be observed in delirium tremens.
      Perseveration is repetitive speech patterns, commonly seen after traumatic brain injury.

      According to the Caine criteria, the presence of any two among the four following criteria can be used to clinically diagnose Wernicke’s Encephalopathy:
      Dietary deficiency
      Oculomotor abnormalities
      Cerebellar dysfunction
      Either altered mental status or mild memory impairment
      Korsakoff psychosis:
      Altered mental status – disorientation, confabulations
      Oculomotor findings – most often horizontal nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, cranial nerve IV palsy, conjugate gaze
      Ataxia – wide-based gait

      Treatment:
      The mainstay of treatment in an acute presentation is thiamine replacement.
      Electrolyte abnormalities should be corrected and fluids replaced.
      In particular, magnesium requires replacement, as thiamine-dependent enzymes cannot operate in a magnesium-deficient state.
      After the acute phase of vitamin and electrolyte replacement, memory rehabilitation is beneficial in Korsakoff syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old female is brought to the OPD by her husband. She has...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female is brought to the OPD by her husband. She has been refusing to go outside for the past 3 months, telling her husband she is afraid of catching avian flu. On exploring this further, she is concerned because of the high number of migrating birds that she can see in her garden. She reports that the presence of her husband's socks on the washing line in the garden alerted her to this. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute paranoid schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Based on the given clinical scenario, the most probable diagnosis in this patient is acute paranoid schizophrenia.

      Schizophrenia is a functional psychotic disorder characterized by the presence of delusional beliefs, hallucinations, and disturbances in thought, perception, and behaviour.

      Clinical features:
      Schneider’s first-rank symptoms may be divided into auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions:

      Auditory hallucinations of a specific type:
      Two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person
      Thought echo
      Voices commenting on the patient’s behaviour

      Thought disorder:
      Thought insertion
      Thought withdrawal
      Thought broadcasting

      Passivity phenomena:
      Bodily sensations being controlled by external influence
      Actions/impulses/feelings – experiences which are imposed on the Individual or influenced by others

      Other features of schizophrenia include
      Impaired insight (a feature of all psychoses)
      Incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances)
      Decreased speech
      Neologisms: made-up words
      Catatonia
      Negative symptoms: incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), avolition (poor motivation).

      Treatment:
      For the initial treatment of acute psychosis, it is recommended to commence an oral second-generation antipsychotics such as aripiprazole, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, etc.
      Once the acute phase is controlled, switching to a depot preparation like aripiprazole, paliperidone, zuclopenthixol, fluphenazine, haloperidol, pipotiazine, or risperidone is recommended.
      Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) and the use of art and drama therapies help counteract the negative symptoms of the disease, improve insight, and assist relapse prevention.
      Clozapine is used in case of treatment resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      10.6
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old man asks to be referred to a plastic surgeon as he...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man asks to be referred to a plastic surgeon as he claims that his ears are too big in proportion to his face and he seldom leaves the house because of this. His records show that he was treated for anxiety and depression with fluoxetine previously and has been off work with back pain for the past 4 months. On examination, his ears appear to be normal. What is the most appropriate term of this behaviour?

      Your Answer: Dysmorphophobia

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in the given scenario would be body dysmorphic disorder or dysmorphophobia

      It is a mental disorder where patients have a significantly distorted body image.

      Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) IV criteria:
      Preoccupation with an imagined defect in appearance. If a slight physical anomaly is present, the person’s concern is markedly excessive.
      The preoccupation causes clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning
      The preoccupation is not better accounted for by another mental disorder (e.g., dissatisfaction with body shape and size in Anorexia Nervosa).

      Treatment:
      Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) is the most commonly used and most empirically supported intervention to improve body image.
      Several drugs have been targets of study in anorexia nervosa treatment, including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, antidepressants, antipsychotics, nutritional supplementation, and hormonal medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 10 - Which of the following listed below is not a recognised feature of anorexia...

    Correct

    • Which of the following listed below is not a recognised feature of anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer: Reduced growth hormone levels

      Explanation:

      Physiological abnormalities in anorexia include:
      – Hypokalaemia – from diuretic or laxative use
      – Low FSH, LH, oestrogens and testosterone – most consistent endocrine abnormality was low serum luteinizing and follicle stimulating hormone (LH and FSH) levels associated with depressed serum oestradiol levels.
      – Raised cortisol and growth hormone
      – Impaired glucose tolerance – lack of glucose precursors in the diet or low glycogen stores. Low blood glucose may also be due to impaired insulin clearance
      – Hypercholesterolemia
      – Hypercarotenaemia
      – Low T3

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 11 - A 21-year-old man is brought by his girlfriend who says he has 'not...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man is brought by his girlfriend who says he has 'not been himself' and has been feeling 'out of sorts' for the past 3 weeks. There is no history of past mental health problems. Which of the following symptoms is highly suggestive of depression in this patient?

      Your Answer: Early morning waking

      Explanation:

      Early morning waking is a highly suggestive feature of depression in this patient.

      NICE use the DSM-IV criteria to grade depression:
      1. Depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day
      2. Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all, or almost all, activities most of the day, nearly every day
      3. Significant weight loss or weight gain when not dieting or decrease or increase in appetite nearly every day
      4. Insomnia or hypersomnia nearly every day
      5. Psychomotor agitation or retardation nearly every day
      6. Fatigue or loss of energy nearly every day
      7. Feelings of worthlessness or excessive or inappropriate guilt nearly every day
      8. Diminished ability to think or concentrate, or indecisiveness nearly every day
      9. Recurrent thoughts of death, recurrent suicidal ideation without a specific plan, or a suicide attempt or a specific plan for committing suicide

      Subthreshold depressive symptoms: Fewer than 5 symptoms
      Mild depression: Few, if any, symptoms over the 5 required to make the diagnosis, and symptoms result in only minor functional impairment
      Moderate depression: Symptoms or functional impairment are between ‘mild’ and ‘severe’
      Severe depression: Most symptoms and the symptoms markedly interfere with functioning. Can occur with or without psychotic symptoms.

      Treatment of depression:
      Psychotherapy (in the form of cognitive behavioural therapy or interpersonal therapy) alone or in combination with medications such as:
      – Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
      – Serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)
      – Atypical antidepressants
      – Serotonin-Dopamine Activity Modulators (SDAMs)
      – Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)

      There is also empirical support for the ability of CBT to prevent relapse.

      Electroconvulsive therapy is a useful treatment option for patients with severe depression refractory to medication or those with psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindications is raised intracranial pressure.

      Side-effects:
      Headache
      Nausea
      Short term memory impairment
      Memory loss of events before ECT
      Cardiac arrhythmia
      Long-term side-effects: Impaired memory

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 12 - Which of the following would suggest an increase risk of suicide in a...

    Correct

    • Which of the following would suggest an increase risk of suicide in a patient with a history of depression?

      Your Answer: History of arm cutting

      Explanation:

      Risk factors specific to depression:
      -Family history of mental disorder.
      -History of previous suicide attempts (this includes self-harm).
      -Severe depression.
      -Anxiety.
      -Feelings of hopelessness.
      -Personality disorder.
      -Alcohol abuse and/or drug abuse.
      -Male gender.

      Protective Factors for Suicide.
      Protective factors buffer individuals from suicidal thoughts and behaviour. To date, protective factors have not been studied as extensively or rigorously as risk factors. Identifying and understanding protective factors are, however, equally as important as researching risk factors.

      Protective Factors:
      -Effective clinical care for mental, physical, and substance abuse disorders
      -Easy access to a variety of clinical interventions and support for help seeking
      -Family and community support (connectedness)
      -Support from ongoing medical and mental health care relationships
      -Skills in problem solving, conflict resolution, and nonviolent ways of handling disputes
      -Cultural and religious beliefs that discourage suicide and support instincts for self-preservation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 13 - A prescription for Olanzapine is written for a 28 year old lady with...

    Correct

    • A prescription for Olanzapine is written for a 28 year old lady with a history of schizophrenia. Which adverse effect is she most likely to experience?

      Your Answer: Weight gain

      Explanation:

      Weight gain is an extremely common (5-40%) adverse effect of atypical antipsychotics such as olanzapine (dose dependent). Olanzapine causes orthostatic hypotension ≥20% of reported cases. Parkinsonism reactions occurs in 4% of people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - A 62 year old man expresses to his doctor that he believes that...

    Correct

    • A 62 year old man expresses to his doctor that he believes that his partner is being unfaithful. When asked if he has any evidence to prove that this is true, he says no. However, he appears to be distressed and believes that he is right. Which condition could this be a symptom of?

      Your Answer: Othello's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Othello syndrome (OS) is a type of paranoid delusional jealousy, characterized by the false absolute certainty of the infidelity of a partner, leading to preoccupation with a partner’s sexual unfaithfulness based on unfounded evidence. OS has been associated with psychiatric and neurological disorders including stroke, brain trauma, brain tumours, neurodegenerative disorders, encephalitis, multiple sclerosis, normal pressure hydrocephalus, endocrine disorders, and drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 15 - A 27 year old female from Zimbabwe is seen in December with depression....

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year old female from Zimbabwe is seen in December with depression. She has no past medical history of interest but is known to smoke Cannabis. She had similar episodes in the past winter. Which condition does this signify?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Seasonal affective disorder

      Explanation:

      Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is a type of depression that’s related to changes in seasons. SAD begins and ends at about the same time every year. For most people with SAD, the symptoms start in the fall and continue into the winter months, sapping the person’s energy and making him feel moody. Less often, SAD causes depression in the spring or early summer.

      Treatment for SAD may include light therapy (phototherapy), medications and psychotherapy.

      Signs and symptoms of SAD may include:
      Feeling depressed most of the day, nearly every day
      Losing interest in activities you once enjoyed
      Having low energy
      Having problems with sleeping
      Experiencing changes in your appetite or weight
      Feeling sluggish or agitated
      Having difficulty concentrating
      Feeling hopeless, worthless or guilty
      Having frequent thoughts of death or suicide.

      Seasonal affective disorder is diagnosed more often in women than in men. And SAD occurs more frequently in younger adults than in older adults.

      Factors that may increase your risk of seasonal affective disorder include:
      Family history. People with SAD may be more likely to have blood relatives with SAD or another form of depression.
      Having major depression or bipolar disorder. Symptoms of depression may worsen seasonally if you have one of these conditions.
      Living far from the equator. SAD appears to be more common among people who live far north or south of the equator. This may be due to decreased sunlight during the winter and longer days during the summer months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - Which one of the following statements is incorrect with regards to post-partum mental...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements is incorrect with regards to post-partum mental health problems?

      Your Answer: Sertraline can be used whilst mothers are breast feeding

      Correct Answer: Post-natal depression is seen in around 2-3% of women

      Explanation:

      Most new moms experience postpartum baby blues after childbirth, which commonly include mood swings, crying spells, anxiety and difficulty sleeping. Baby blues typically begin within the first two to three days after delivery, and may last for up to two weeks.

      Postpartum depression may be mistaken for baby blues at first — but the signs and symptoms are more intense and last longer, and may eventually interfere with your ability to care for your baby and handle other daily tasks. Symptoms usually develop within the first few weeks after giving birth, but may begin earlier, during pregnancy or later, up to a year after birth.

      The period prevalence of postpartum depression among women is a striking 21.9% the first year after birth, which makes it one of the most common medical complications of childbearing. Sertraline has been identified as an antidepressant of choice for breastfeeding women because infants are unlikely to develop quantifiable serum sertraline levels and very few adverse events associated with sertraline have been reported.

      Women with a prior episode of postpartum psychosis have about a 30% risk of having another episode in the next pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 17 - A 40 year old man who has a 12 year history of bipolar...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old man who has a 12 year history of bipolar disorder is placed on Lithium. How often should his Lithium levels be checked once a stable dose has been achieved?

      Your Answer: Every 3 months

      Explanation:

      Lithium acts by:
      – I inhibiting postsynaptic D2 receptor super sensitivity
      – Altering cation transport in nerve and muscle cells and influencing reuptake of serotonin or norepinephrine
      – Inhibiting phosphatidylinositol cycle second messenger systems

      The NICE guidelines for depression and bipolar disorder both recommend Lithium as an effective treatment; patients who take lithium should have regular blood tests to monitor the amount of lithium in their blood (every 3 months), and to make sure the lithium has not caused any problems with their kidneys or thyroid (every 6 months).

      Lithium adverse effects include:
      – Leucocytosis (most patients) which is when the white cells are above the normal range in the blood.
      – Polyuria/polydipsia (30-50%)
      – Dry mouth (20-50%)
      – Hand tremor (45% initially, 10% after 1 year of treatment)
      – Confusion (40%)
      – Decreased memory (40%)
      – Headache (40%)
      – Muscle weakness (30% initially, 1% after 1 year of treatment)
      – Electrocardiographic (ECG) changes (20-30%)
      – Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea (10-30% initially, 1-10% after 1-2 years of treatment)
      – Hyperreflexia (15%)
      – Muscle twitch (15%)
      – Vertigo (15%)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A 26 year old male admits to you that he was sexually abused...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old male admits to you that he was sexually abused in his childhood. Which one of the following features is not a characteristic feature of post-traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer: Loss of inhibitions

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is an anxiety disorder caused by stressful, frightening or distressing events.

      PTSD is a lasting consequence of traumatic ordeals that cause intense fear, helplessness, or horror, such as a sexual or physical assault, the unexpected death of a loved one, an accident, war, or natural disaster. Families of victims can also develop PTSD, as can emergency personnel and rescue workers.

      PTSD is diagnosed after a person experiences symptoms for at least one month following a traumatic event. However symptoms may not appear until several months or even years later. The disorder is characterized by three main types of symptoms:
      -Re-experiencing the trauma through intrusive distressing recollections of the event, flashbacks, and nightmares.
      -Emotional numbness and avoidance of places, people, and activities that are reminders of the trauma.
      -Increased arousal such as difficulty sleeping and concentrating, feeling jumpy, and being easily irritated and angered.

      The goal of PTSD treatment is to reduce the emotional and physical symptoms, to improve daily functioning, and to help the person better cope with the event that triggered the disorder. Treatment for PTSD may involve psychotherapy (a type of counselling), medication, or both.

      Certain antidepressant medications are used to treat PTSD and to control the feelings of anxiety and its associated symptoms including selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants. Mood stabilizers such are sometimes used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - A 43 year old ex-marine who has a history of post-traumatic stress disorder...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old ex-marine who has a history of post-traumatic stress disorder visits the office for a review. He is reluctant to try cognitive behavioural therapy. Which medication could be useful in this patient?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Mirtazapine

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is an anxiety disorder caused by stressful, frightening or distressing events.

      PTSD is a lasting consequence of traumatic ordeals that cause intense fear, helplessness, or horror, such as a sexual or physical assault, the unexpected death of a loved one, an accident, war, or natural disaster. Families of victims can also develop PTSD, as can emergency personnel and rescue workers.

      PTSD is diagnosed after a person experiences symptoms for at least one month following a traumatic event. However symptoms may not appear until several months or even years later. The disorder is characterized by three main types of symptoms:
      -Re-experiencing the trauma through intrusive distressing recollections of the event, flashbacks, and nightmares.
      -Emotional numbness and avoidance of places, people, and activities that are reminders of the trauma.
      -Increased arousal such as difficulty sleeping and concentrating, feeling jumpy, and being easily irritated and angered.

      The goal of PTSD treatment is to reduce the emotional and physical symptoms, to improve daily functioning, and to help the person better cope with the event that triggered the disorder. Treatment for PTSD may involve psychotherapy (a type of counselling), medication, or both.

      Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) therapy was initially developed in 1987 for the treatment of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is guided by the Adaptive Information Processing model. EMDR is an individual therapy typically delivered one to two times per week for a total of 6-12 sessions, although some people benefit from fewer sessions. Sessions can be conducted on consecutive days.

      Drug treatments (paroxetine, mirtazapine, amitriptyline or phenelzine) should be considered for the treatment of PTSD when a sufferer expresses a preference to not engage in trauma-focused psychological treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old man visits the clinic and demands a CT scan of his...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man visits the clinic and demands a CT scan of his stomach. He states it is 'obvious' he has cancer despite previous negative investigations. Which disorder is this an example of?

      Your Answer: Hypochondrial disorder

      Explanation:

      Illness anxiety disorder (IAD) is a recent term for what used to be diagnosed as hypochondriasis, or hypochondrial disorder. People diagnosed with IAD strongly believe they have a serious or life-threatening illness despite having no, or only mild, symptoms.

      Symptoms of IAD may include:
      -Excessive worry over having or getting a serious illness.
      -Physical symptoms are not present or if present, only mild. If another illness is present, or there is a high risk for developing an illness, the person’s concern is out of proportion.
      -High level of anxiety and alarm over personal health status.
      -Excessive health-related behaviours (e.g., repeatedly checking body for signs of illness) or shows abnormal avoidance (e.g., avoiding doctors’ appointments and hospitals).
      -Fear of illness is present for at least six months (but the specific disease that is feared may change over that time).
      -Fear of illness is not due to another mental disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - A 30 year old male is reviewed following treatment using cognitive behaviour therapy...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old male is reviewed following treatment using cognitive behaviour therapy for bulimia. He thinks there has been no improvement in his condition and is interested in using pharmacological therapy. Which of the following is most suitable?

      Your Answer: High-dose fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Bulimia nervosa is a serious, potentially life-threatening eating disorder characterized by a cycle of bingeing and compensatory behaviours such as self-induced vomiting designed to undo or compensate for the effects of binge eating.

      According to the DSM-5, the official diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa are:
      Recurrent episodes of binge eating. An episode of binge eating is characterized by both of the following:
      Eating, in a discrete period of time (e.g. within any 2-hour period), an amount of food that is definitely larger than most people would eat during a similar period of time and under similar circumstances.
      A sense of lack of control over eating during the episode (e.g. a feeling that one cannot stop eating or control what or how much one is eating).
      Recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviour in order to prevent weight gain, such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives, diuretics, or other medications, fasting, or excessive exercise.
      The binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviours both occur, on average, at least once a week for three months.
      Self-evaluation is unduly influenced by body shape and weight.
      The disturbance does not occur exclusively during episodes of anorexia nervosa.

      Antidepressants as a group – particularly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) – are the mainstay of pharmacotherapy for bulimia nervosa. These may be helpful for patients with substantial concurrent symptoms of depression, anxiety, obsessions, or certain impulse disorder symptoms. They may be particularly good for patients who have not benefited from or had suboptimal response to suitable psychosocial therapy or who have a chronic, difficult course in combination with other treatments.

      Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved treatments
      Fluoxetine (Prozac): Initial dose 20 mg/d with advance over 1–2 weeks to 60 mg/d in the morning as tolerated. Some patients may need to begin at a lower dose if side effects are intolerable. A maximum dose of 80 mg/d may be used in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 22 - A 76 year old female who is admitted to the ward complains that...

    Correct

    • A 76 year old female who is admitted to the ward complains that she is experiencing visual hallucinations. She was admitted following a decline in mobility that was thought to be secondary to a urinary tract infection. Improvements have been seen clinically and biochemically while she has been admitted and she is currently awaiting discharge. Upon review, she states that she has seen wolves walking around her bed. She has a background of hypertension, depression and age-related macular degeneration. What is the most appropriate step in this patient's management?

      Your Answer: Reassure the patient

      Explanation:

      Charles Bonnet syndrome (CBS) involves visual hallucinations due to eye disease, usually associated with a sharp decline in vision. The phenomenon is seen in patients with moderate or severe visual impairment. It can occur spontaneously as the vision declines or it may be precipitated, in predisposed individuals, by concurrent illness such as infections elsewhere in the body.

      It is not clear why CBS develops or why some individuals appear to be predisposed to it. It is particularly noted in patients with advanced macular degeneration. It has been suggested that reduced or absent stimulation of the visual system leads to increased excitability of the visual cortex (deafferentation hypothesis). This release phenomenon is compared to phantom limb symptoms after amputation.

      CBS is much more common in older patients because conditions causing marked visual loss are more common in older people. However, it can occur at any age and has been described in children.
      The prevalence is hard to assess due to considerable under-reporting, perhaps because patients frequently fear that it is a sign of mental illness or dementia. However, it is thought to occur in:
      About 10-15% of patients with moderate visual loss.
      Possibly up to 50% of people with severe visual loss.
      Presentation:
      The nature of the hallucination depends on the part of the brain that is activated. The hallucinations may be black and white or in colour. They may involve grids/brickwork/lattice patterns but are typically much more complex:

      The hallucinations are always outside the body.
      The hallucinations are purely visual – other senses are not involved.
      The hallucinations have no personal meaning to the patient.
      Hallucinations may last seconds, minutes or hours.
      CBS tends to occur in a ‘state of quiet restfulness’. This may be after a meal or when listening to the radio (but not when dozing off).
      Symptoms also have a tendency to occur in dim lighting conditions.
      Patients may report high levels of distress, with some patients reporting anger, anxiety and even fear associated with the hallucinations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - A 49 year old man states that he is feeling down and has...

    Incorrect

    • A 49 year old man states that he is feeling down and has not been sleeping well. An assessment is done using a validated symptom measure which indicates that he is moderately depressed. He is currently taking Ramipril, Simvastatin and Aspirin for ischaemic heart disease. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Stop aspirin, start sertraline

      Correct Answer: Start sertraline + lansoprazole

      Explanation:

      Results of a randomized trial confirm that the antidepressant sertraline can be used safely in patients with recent MI or unstable angina and is effective in relieving depression in these patients.

      There are theoretical reasons for believing that selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), widely used to treat depression, might increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Gastroprotective drugs are advocated for high risk patients taking non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, another class of drug that causes gastrointestinal bleeding.

      Serotonin is released from platelets in response to vascular injury and promotes vasoconstriction and a change in the shape of the platelets that leads to aggregation. Platelets cannot themselves synthesise serotonin. SSRIs inhibit the serotonin transporter, which is responsible for the uptake of serotonin into platelets. It could thus be predicted that SSRIs would deplete platelet serotonin, leading to a reduced ability to form clots and a subsequent increase in the risk of bleeding.

      The well established association between nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs and upper gastrointestinal bleeding is estimated to result in 700-2000 deaths/year in the UK. This has led to the recommendation that patients in high risk groups should receive gastroprotection in the form of an H2 antagonist, proton pump inhibitor (lansoprazole), or misoprostol.

      Proton pump inhibitors have been shown to reduce endoscopically diagnosed mucosal damage and heal ulcers induced by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs but not to reduce the incidence of severe gastrointestinal bleeds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - Which among the following is most likely to be beneficial to a patient...

    Incorrect

    • Which among the following is most likely to be beneficial to a patient with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Adherence therapy

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Among the given options, cognitive-behavioural therapy is the most likely to benefit a patient with schizophrenia.

      Schizophrenia is a functional psychotic disorder characterized by the presence of delusional beliefs, hallucinations, and disturbances in thought, perception, and behaviour.

      Clinical features:
      Schneider’s first-rank symptoms may be divided into auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions:

      Auditory hallucinations of a specific type:
      Two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person
      Thought echo
      Voices commenting on the patient’s behaviour

      Thought disorder:
      Thought insertion
      Thought withdrawal
      Thought broadcasting

      Passivity phenomena:
      Bodily sensations being controlled by external influence
      Actions/impulses/feelings – experiences which are imposed on the Individual or influenced by others

      Other features of schizophrenia include
      Impaired insight (a feature of all psychoses)
      Incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances)
      Decreased speech
      Neologisms: made-up words
      Catatonia
      Negative symptoms: incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), avolition (poor motivation).

      Treatment:
      For the initial treatment of acute psychosis, it is recommended to commence an oral second-generation antipsychotics such as aripiprazole, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, etc.
      Once the acute phase is controlled, switching to a depot preparation like aripiprazole, paliperidone, zuclopenthixol, fluphenazine, haloperidol, pipotiazine, or risperidone is recommended.
      Cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) and the use of art and drama therapies help counteract the negative symptoms of the disease, improve insight, and assist relapse prevention.
      Clozapine is used in case of treatment resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - A 57 year old man is reviewed and discovered to be dependent on...

    Incorrect

    • A 57 year old man is reviewed and discovered to be dependent on Temazepam which was prescribed for him as a hypnotic. He wants to end his addiction and requests help. What is the most appropriate strategy?

      Your Answer: Switch to the equivalent chlordiazepoxide dose then slowly withdraw over the next 2 months

      Correct Answer: Switch to the equivalent diazepam dose then slowly withdraw over the next 2 months

      Explanation:

      Temazepam is a medication that is often prescribed for the treatment of short-term insomnia. It belongs to the benzodiazepine family of drugs and is classed as intermediate-acting, meaning that it can take between six and twenty-four hours for the drug to take effect.

      Although it is known that shorter-acting benzodiazepines are more harmful and more likely to cause addiction, temazepam is, nevertheless, a highly addictive drug. It should not be taken for longer than four weeks.

      -Adverse effects associated with the use of benzodiazepine hypnotics (to which the elderly are most vulnerable) include confusion, over sedation, increased risks of falls and consequent fractures

      -Withdrawal from a benzodiazepine hypnotic must be agreed between the clinician and the patient – patients should never be forced or threatened. The risks of continued benzodiazepine use should be explained. An agreed schedule for reduction of and gradual withdrawal from the benzodiazepine hypnotic should also be agreed. This will involve substitution of the hypnotic with a long-acting benzodiazepine (e.g. diazepam) and a subsequent gradual reduction in dose of the substituted benzodiazepine -the substituted benzodiazepine can then be withdrawn in steps of about one-eighth to one-tenth every fortnight
      Example: withdrawal schedule for patient on temazepam 20mg nocte
      week 1 – temazepam 10mg, diazepam 5mg
      week 2 – stop temazepam, diazepam 10mg
      week 4 – diazepam 9mg
      week 6 – diazepam 8mg
      continue reducing dose of diazepam by 1mg every fortnight – tapering of dose may be slower if necessary

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - A 61 year old male is noted to be depressed following a recent...

    Correct

    • A 61 year old male is noted to be depressed following a recent heart attack. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease. Which antidepressant would be appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Major depression (MD) often occurs after MI and has been shown to be an independent predictor of poor cardiovascular (CV) outcome.

      Results of a randomized trial confirm that the antidepressant sertraline can be used safely in patients with recent MI or unstable angina and is effective in relieving depression in these patients.

      Adverse effects to note:
      Sertraline – Diarrhoea (13-24%), Nausea (13-30%), Headache (20-25%),
      Insomnia (12-28%)
      Imipramine – ECG changes, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia
      Confusion, extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), dizziness, paraesthesia, tinnitus
      Flupentixol – seizures, irregular/fast heartbeat, increased sweating
      Paroxetine – Hypertension, Tachycardia, Emotional lability, Pruritus
      Venlafaxine – Abnormal vision (4-6%), Hypertension (2-5%), Paraesthesia (2-3%), Vasodilation (2-6%), Aneurism, Deep vein thrombophlebitis, Takotsubo cardiomyopathy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A 55-year-old female inpatient in a psychiatric hospital has stopped eating or drinking...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old female inpatient in a psychiatric hospital has stopped eating or drinking as she believes she is dead and does not require food anymore. Which syndrome is characteristic of this finding?

      Your Answer: Cotard syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis of this patient is Cotard syndrome.

      Cotard syndrome is a rare mental disorder where the affected patient believes that they (or in some cases just a part of their body) is either dead or non-existent. This delusion is often difficult to treat and can result in significant problems due to patients stopping eating or drinking as they deem it not necessary. Cotard syndrome is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders.

      Other delusional syndromes:
      – Othello syndrome is a delusional belief that a patients partner is committing infidelity despite no evidence of this. It can often result in violence and controlling behaviour.
      – De Clerambault syndrome (otherwise known as erotomania), is where a patient believes that a person of higher social or professional standing is in love with them. Often this presents with people who believe celebrities are in love with them.
      – Capgras syndrome is characterised by a person believing their friend or relative had been replaced by an exact double.
      – Couvade syndrome is also known as ‘sympathetic pregnancy’. It affects fathers, particularly during the first and third trimesters of pregnancy, who suffer the somatic features of pregnancy.
      – Ekbom syndrome is also known as delusional parasitosis and is the belief that they are infected with parasites or have ‘bugs’ under their skin. This can vary from the classic psychosis symptoms in narcotic use where the user can ‘see’ bugs crawling under their skin or can be a patient who believes that they are infested with snakes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - A 40 year old patient of yours requests to stop treatment using Citalopram...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old patient of yours requests to stop treatment using Citalopram after taking it for the past two years for his depression. You have agreed to this because he feels well for the past year. What is the most appropriate method of discontinuing Citalopram?

      Your Answer: Withdraw gradually over the next 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Withdraw gradually over the next 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Citalopram is an antidepressant medication that works in the brain. It is approved for the treatment of major depressive disorder (MDD). Stopping citalopram abruptly may result in one or more of the following withdrawal symptoms: irritability, nausea, feeling dizzy, vomiting, nightmares, headache, and/or paraesthesia (prickling, tingling sensation on the skin).

      When discontinuing antidepressant treatment that has lasted for >3 weeks, gradually taper the dose (e.g., over 2 to 4 weeks) to minimize withdrawal symptoms and detect re-emerging symptoms. Reasons for a slower titration (e.g., over 4 weeks) include use of a drug with a half-life <24 hours (e.g., paroxetine, venlafaxine), prior history of antidepressant withdrawal symptoms, or high doses of antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - Which selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors listed below has the highest incidence of discontinuation...

    Correct

    • Which selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors listed below has the highest incidence of discontinuation symptoms?

      Your Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      A couple of papers written by the same authors indicate that children and adolescents taking an SSRI definitely experience discontinuation reactions that can be mild, moderate or severe when the medication is stopped suddenly or high doses are reduced substantially. Among the SSRIs paroxetine seems to be the worst offender and fluoxetine the least while sertraline and fluvoxamine tend to be intermediate. The rate of discontinuation syndrome varies with the particular SSRI involved. It is generally quoted as 25% but is higher for SSRIs with shorter half-lives. Paroxetine has been associated with more frequent discontinuation symptoms than the other SSRIs.

      The use of fluoxetine with its long half-life appears safer in this respect than paroxetine and venlafaxine causing the most concerns.

      Paroxetine has the shortest half-life with 21 hours of all listed SSRIs and as such it would be expected to have a higher incidence or severity (greater number of symptoms) and fluoxetine would have the least since it has a half life of 96 hours. Citalopram has a half-life of 35 hours while escitalopram has a half-life of 30 hours.

      The most common symptoms reported are: dizziness, light-headedness, drowsiness, poor concentration, nausea, headache and fatigue.
      Another common symptom in adults is paraesthesia described as burning, tingling, numbness or electric shock feelings usually in the upper half of the body or proximal lower limbs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old fireman presents following a recent traumatic incident where a child died...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old fireman presents following a recent traumatic incident where a child died in a house fire. He describes recurrent nightmares and flashbacks which have been present for the past 2 months. Suspecting a diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder what is the first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy or eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The first-line treatment for this patient would be cognitive behavioural therapy or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing therapy.

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) can develop in people of any age following a traumatic event, for example, a major disaster or childhood sexual abuse. It encompasses what became known as ‘shell shock’ following the first world war. One of the DSM-IV diagnostic criteria is that symptoms have been present for more than one month.

      Clinical features:
      Re-experiencing: flashbacks, nightmares, repetitive and distressing intrusive images
      Avoidance: avoiding people, situations or circumstances resembling or associated with the event
      Hyperarousal: hypervigilance for threat, exaggerated startle response, sleep problems, irritability and difficulty concentrating
      Emotional numbing – lack of ability to experience feelings, feeling detached from other people
      Depression
      Drug or alcohol misuse
      Anger

      Management:
      Following a traumatic event single-session interventions (often referred to as debriefing) are not recommended
      Watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than 4 weeks
      Trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases
      Drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults.
      If drug treatment is used then paroxetine or mirtazapine are recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (22/30) 73%
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