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  • Question 1 - A 78 year old male is brought into the emergency department from a...

    Correct

    • A 78 year old male is brought into the emergency department from a retirement home due to increasing disorientation and drowsiness. Blood tests reveal a serum sodium level of 117 mmol/L and the patient is administered Intravenous 3% sodium chloride solution. The patient initially demonstrates some improvement, becoming more awake and less confused, but after approximately 90 minutes, he becomes lethargic and experiences difficulty speaking with noticeable dysarthria.

      What is the probable underlying reason?

      Your Answer: Central pontine myelinolysis

      Explanation:

      The probable underlying reason for the patient’s symptoms is central pontine myelinolysis. This condition is characterized by the destruction of the myelin sheath in the pons, a region of the brainstem. It is often caused by a rapid correction of hyponatremia, which is a low level of sodium in the blood. In this case, the patient’s serum sodium level was initially low at 117 mmol/L, and the administration of intravenous 3% sodium chloride solution caused a rapid increase in sodium levels. This sudden change in sodium concentration can lead to the development of central pontine myelinolysis. The initial improvement in the patient’s symptoms may have been due to the correction of hyponatremia, but the subsequent development of lethargy and dysarthria suggests the onset of central pontine myelinolysis.

      Further Reading:

      Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels in the blood due to excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH, also known as arginine vasopressin (AVP), is responsible for promoting water and sodium reabsorption in the body. SIADH occurs when there is impaired free water excretion, leading to euvolemic (normal fluid volume) hypotonic hyponatremia.

      There are various causes of SIADH, including malignancies such as small cell lung cancer, stomach cancer, and prostate cancer, as well as neurological conditions like stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and meningitis. Infections such as tuberculosis and pneumonia, as well as certain medications like thiazide diuretics and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can also contribute to SIADH.

      The diagnostic features of SIADH include low plasma osmolality, inappropriately elevated urine osmolality, urinary sodium levels above 30 mmol/L, and euvolemic. Symptoms of hyponatremia, which is a common consequence of SIADH, include nausea, vomiting, headache, confusion, lethargy, muscle weakness, seizures, and coma.

      Management of SIADH involves correcting hyponatremia slowly to avoid complications such as central pontine myelinolysis. The underlying cause of SIADH should be treated if possible, such as discontinuing causative medications. Fluid restriction is typically recommended, with a daily limit of around 1000 ml for adults. In severe cases with neurological symptoms, intravenous hypertonic saline may be used. Medications like demeclocycline, which blocks ADH receptors, or ADH receptor antagonists like tolvaptan may also be considered.

      It is important to monitor serum sodium levels closely during treatment, especially if using hypertonic saline, to prevent rapid correction that can lead to central pontine myelinolysis. Osmolality abnormalities can help determine the underlying cause of hyponatremia, with increased urine osmolality indicating dehydration or renal disease, and decreased urine osmolality suggesting SIADH or overhydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65 year old female is brought into the hospital after experiencing a...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old female is brought into the hospital after experiencing a cardiac arrest at the nearby soccer field where she was watching a game. The patient was promptly assessed by the medical team at the field and received a shock from an automated defibrillator device, leading to a return of spontaneous circulation.

      Your consultant informs you that the objective now is to minimize the severity of the post-cardiac arrest syndrome. Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements of the post-cardiac arrest syndrome?

      Your Answer: Post-cardiac arrest renal dysfunction

      Explanation:

      The post-cardiac arrest syndrome consists of four components. The first component is post-cardiac arrest brain injury, which refers to any damage or impairment to the brain that occurs after a cardiac arrest. The second component is post-cardiac arrest myocardial dysfunction, which is a condition where the heart muscle does not function properly after a cardiac arrest.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      41
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman visits your office expressing concern about a recent unprotected sexual...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits your office expressing concern about a recent unprotected sexual encounter that occurred three days ago. She is extremely anxious and determined to prevent pregnancy. The patient has a history of asthma and currently takes Clenil Modulite. Her BMI is 30.

      What is the most appropriate choice for her in this situation?

      Your Answer: Levonelle 1.5 mg

      Correct Answer: Copper IUD

      Explanation:

      Women have three options when requesting emergency contraception. The first option is Levonelle 1.5 mg, which contains levonorgestrel and can be used up to 72 hours after unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI). If vomiting occurs within 2 hours of taking the tablet, another one should be given. Levonelle mainly works by preventing ovulation.

      The second option is ulipristal acetate, the newest treatment available. It can be used up to 120 hours after UPSI. If vomiting occurs within 3 hours of ingestion, another tablet should be given. Ulipristal acetate also works by inhibiting ovulation. However, it should be avoided in patients taking enzyme-inducing drugs, those with severe hepatic impairment, or those with severe asthma requiring oral steroids.

      The third option is the copper IUD, which can be fitted up to 5 days after UPSI or ovulation, whichever is longer. The failure rate of the copper IUD is less than 1 in 1000, making it 10-20 times more effective than oral emergency contraceptive options. It is important to note that Levonelle and ulipristal may be less effective in women with higher BMIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman presents with symptoms of painful urination and frequent urination. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with symptoms of painful urination and frequent urination. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant. A urine dipstick test reveals the presence of blood, protein, white blood cells, and nitrites. Based on her history of chronic kidney disease and an eGFR of 38 ml/minute, you diagnose her with a urinary tract infection (UTI) and decide to prescribe antibiotics. However, there are no culture or sensitivity results available. Which of the following antibiotics would be the most appropriate choice in this situation?

      Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin

      Correct Answer: Cefalexin

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of pregnant women with lower urinary tract infections (UTIs), it is recommended to provide them with an immediate prescription for antibiotics. It is important to consider their previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any prior use of antibiotics that may have contributed to the development of resistant bacteria. Before starting antibiotics, it is advised to obtain a midstream urine sample from pregnant women and send it for culture and susceptibility testing.

      Once the microbiological results are available, it is necessary to review the choice of antibiotic. If the bacteria are found to be resistant, it is recommended to switch to a narrow-spectrum antibiotic whenever possible. The choice of antibiotics for pregnant women aged 12 years and over is summarized below:

      First-choice:
      – Nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release taken orally twice daily for 3 days, if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is above 45 ml/minute.

      Second-choice (if there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms with the first-choice antibiotic for at least 48 hours, or if the first-choice is not suitable):
      – Amoxicillin 500 mg taken orally three times daily for 7 days (only if culture results are available and show susceptibility).
      – Cefalexin 500 mg taken twice daily for 7 days.

      For alternative second-choice antibiotics, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist and choose the appropriate antibiotics based on the culture and sensitivity results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      23.6
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  • Question 5 - You are reviewing a 35-year-old man after receiving his most recent blood results....

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a 35-year-old man after receiving his most recent blood results. He is currently taking ramipril for his blood pressure, which is well controlled. He used to consume 30 units of alcohol per week until three months ago when he was advised to reduce his intake following his last set of blood tests. He has since remained completely abstinent. He has no identifiable risk factors for chronic liver disease. On examination, you can palpate a 1 cm liver edge below the right costal margin. His most recent two sets of blood results are provided below.

      Blood results today:
      Bilirubin: 19 µmol/L (3-20)
      ALT: 98 IU/L (5-40)
      AST: 46 IU/L (5-40)
      ALP: 126 IU/L (20-140)
      GGT: 225 IU/L (5-40)

      Blood results 3 months ago:
      Bilirubin: 19 µmol/L (3-20)
      ALT: 126 IU/L (5-40)
      AST: 39 IU/L (5-40)
      ALP: 118 IU/L (20-140)
      GGT: 35 IU/L (5-40)

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alcohol excess

      Correct Answer: Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis in this case is non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), which is characterized by fatty infiltration of the liver and is commonly associated with obesity. It is the most frequent cause of persistently elevated ALT levels in patients without risk factors for chronic liver disease.

      Risk factors for developing NASH include obesity, particularly truncal obesity, diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia.

      The clinical features of NASH can vary, with many patients being completely asymptomatic. However, some may experience right upper quadrant pain, nausea and vomiting, and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver).

      The typical biochemical profile seen in NASH includes elevated transaminases, with an AST:ALT ratio of less than 1. Often, there is an isolated elevation of ALT, and gamma-GT levels may be mildly elevated. In about one-third of patients, non-organ specific autoantibodies may be present. The presence of antinuclear antibodies (ANA) is associated with insulin resistance and indicates a higher risk of rapid progression to advanced liver disease.

      If the AST level is significantly elevated or if the gamma-GT level is markedly elevated, further investigation for other potential causes should be considered. A markedly elevated gamma-GT level may suggest alcohol abuse, although it can also be elevated in NASH alone.

      Diagnosis of NASH is confirmed through a liver biopsy, which will reveal increased fat deposition and a necro-inflammatory response within the hepatocytes.

      Currently, there is no specific treatment for NASH. However, weight loss and medications that improve insulin resistance, such as metformin, may help slow down the progression of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are getting ready to administer local anesthesia to the skin of a...

    Incorrect

    • You are getting ready to administer local anesthesia to the skin of a patient's groin before inserting a femoral venous catheter. You opt for lidocaine as the choice of medication. What is the mechanism of action of lidocaine?

      Your Answer: Blockade of voltage-gated Na+ channels

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine works by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels. These channels are responsible for the propagation of action potentials in nerve fibers. By blocking these channels, lidocaine prevents the influx of sodium ions into the nerve cells, thereby inhibiting the generation and conduction of nerve impulses. This results in local anesthesia, as the transmission of pain signals from the skin to the brain is effectively blocked.

      Further Reading:

      Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.

      The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.

      If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.

      It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      4.3
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  • Question 7 - A 42-year-old man presents with central chest pain that has been present for...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents with central chest pain that has been present for the past three days. The pain is worsened by deep inspiration and lying flat and relieved by sitting forwards. He recently returned from a vacation in Spain, which involved a short flight. He has no significant medical history but smokes 15 cigarettes per day. His father died from a heart attack at the age of 58. His vital signs are as follows: HR 102, BP 128/72, temperature 37.1oC, SaO2 96% on room air. His ECG shows widespread concave ST elevation and PR depression.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Pericarditis refers to the inflammation of the pericardium, which can be caused by various factors such as infections (typically viral, like coxsackie virus), drug-induced reactions (e.g. isoniazid, cyclosporine), trauma, autoimmune conditions (e.g. SLE), paraneoplastic syndromes, uremia, post myocardial infarction (known as Dressler’s syndrome), post radiotherapy, and post cardiac surgery.

      The clinical presentation of pericarditis often includes retrosternal chest pain that worsens with lying flat and improves when sitting forwards, along with shortness of breath, rapid heartbeat, and the presence of a pericardial friction rub.

      Characteristic electrocardiogram (ECG) changes associated with pericarditis typically show widespread concave or ‘saddle-shaped’ ST elevation, widespread PR depression, reciprocal ST depression and PR elevation in aVR (and sometimes V1), and sinus tachycardia is commonly observed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A patient presents with fatigue, loss of appetite, yellowing of the skin, and...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with fatigue, loss of appetite, yellowing of the skin, and pain in the upper right side of the abdomen. The doctor suspects a diagnosis of acute hepatitis B.
      Which of the following blood test results is most indicative of an acute hepatitis B infection?

      Your Answer: HBsAg positive, IgM anti-HBc positive

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is a protein found on the surface of the hepatitis B virus. It can be detected in high levels in the blood during both acute and chronic hepatitis B virus infections. The presence of HBsAg indicates that the person is capable of spreading the infection to others. Normally, the body produces antibodies to HBsAg as part of the immune response to the infection. HBsAg is also used to create the hepatitis B vaccine.

      Hepatitis B surface antibody (anti-HBs) indicates that a person has recovered from the hepatitis B virus infection and is now immune to it. This antibody can also develop in individuals who have been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B.

      Total hepatitis B core antibody (anti-HBc) appears when symptoms of acute hepatitis B begin and remains present for life. The presence of anti-HBc indicates that a person has either had a previous or ongoing infection with the hepatitis B virus, although the exact time frame cannot be determined. This antibody is not present in individuals who have received the hepatitis B vaccine.

      IgM antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (IgM anti-HBc) indicates a recent infection or acute hepatitis B. If this antibody is present, it suggests that the infection occurred within the past six months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 68 year old male is brought into the emergency department from his...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old male is brought into the emergency department from his nursing home due to the sudden onset of profuse foul smelling diarrhea over the past 2 days that has not improved. The patient has been feeling slightly unwell for the past few weeks and was prescribed a week-long course of amoxicillin by his GP for a chest infection, which he completed. He then started taking clindamycin for lower limb cellulitis five days ago, which he is still taking. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in determining the underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Stool cytotoxin assay

      Explanation:

      C. difficile diarrhoea is typically diagnosed by testing a stool sample for the presence of its toxin using the cytotoxin assay. This patient has several risk factors for developing c.diff diarrhoea, including recent use of broad spectrum antibiotics, being over the age of 65, and residing in a nursing home. The gold standard for diagnosing c.diff diarrhoea is the detection of exotoxin in the stool using the cytotoxin assay. The C13 urea breath test is used to detect h.pylori infection, while stool antigen testing is commonly used to detect h.pylori as well as rotavirus and other viral causes of gastroenteritis. Stool microscopy is utilized to identify the presence of parasitic organisms such as protozoa and helminths.

      Further Reading:

      Clostridium difficile (C.diff) is a gram positive rod commonly found in hospitals. Some strains of C.diff produce exotoxins that can cause intestinal damage, leading to pseudomembranous colitis. This infection can range from mild diarrhea to severe illness. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is often caused by C.diff, with 20-30% of cases being attributed to this bacteria. Antibiotics such as clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins are frequently associated with C.diff infection.

      Clinical features of C.diff infection include diarrhea, distinctive smell, abdominal pain, raised white blood cell count, and in severe cases, toxic megacolon. In some severe cases, diarrhea may be absent due to the infection causing paralytic ileus. Diagnosis is made by detecting Clostridium difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool. There are two types of exotoxins produced by C.diff, toxin A and toxin B, which cause mucosal damage and the formation of a pseudomembrane in the colon.

      Risk factors for developing C.diff infection include age over 65, antibiotic treatment, previous C.diff infection, exposure to infected individuals, proton pump inhibitor or H2 receptor antagonist use, prolonged hospitalization or residence in a nursing home, and chronic disease or immunosuppression. Complications of C.diff infection can include toxic megacolon, colon perforation, sepsis, and even death, especially in frail elderly individuals.

      Management of C.diff infection involves stopping the causative antibiotic if possible, optimizing hydration with IV fluids if necessary, and assessing the severity of the infection. Treatment options vary based on severity, ranging from no antibiotics for mild cases to vancomycin or fidaxomicin for moderate cases, and hospital protocol antibiotics (such as oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole) for severe or life-threatening cases. Severe cases may require admission under gastroenterology or GI surgeons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      52.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and kidney disease is prescribed...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and kidney disease is prescribed a new diuretic medication. Upon reviewing her blood test results, you observe the presence of hyperkalemia.
      Which of the following diuretics is most likely to be the cause?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is a medication used to treat conditions such as congestive cardiac failure, hypertension, hepatic cirrhosis with ascites and edema, and Conn’s syndrome. It functions as a competitive aldosterone receptor antagonist, primarily working in the distal convoluted tubule. In this area, it hinders the reabsorption of sodium ions and enhances the reabsorption of potassium ions. Spironolactone is commonly known as a potassium-sparing diuretic.

      The main side effect of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, particularly when renal impairment is present. In severe cases, hyperkalemia can be life-threatening. Additionally, there is a notable occurrence of gastrointestinal disturbances, with nausea and vomiting being the most common. Women may experience menstrual disturbances, while men may develop gynecomastia, both of which are attributed to the antiandrogenic effects of spironolactone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      15.4
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose 30...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose 30 minutes ago. She is currently showing no symptoms and her vital signs are stable. The attending physician recommends administering a dose of activated charcoal.
      Which of the following substances or toxins is activated charcoal effective in decontaminating?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is a commonly used substance for decontamination in cases of poisoning. Its main function is to adsorb the molecules of the ingested toxin onto its surface.

      Activated charcoal is a chemically inert form of carbon. It is a fine black powder that has no odor or taste. It is produced by subjecting carbonaceous matter to high temperatures, a process known as pyrolysis, and then concentrating it with a zinc chloride solution. This creates a network of pores within the charcoal, giving it a large absorptive area of approximately 3,000 m2/g. This porous structure helps prevent the absorption of the harmful toxin by up to 50%.

      The usual dosage of activated charcoal is 50 grams for adults and 1 gram per kilogram of body weight for children. It can be administered orally or through a nasogastric tube. It is important to give the charcoal within one hour of ingestion, and it may be repeated after one hour if necessary.

      However, there are certain situations where activated charcoal should not be used. If the patient is unconscious or in a coma, there is a risk of aspiration, so the charcoal should not be given. Similarly, if seizures are likely to occur, there is a risk of aspiration and the charcoal should be avoided. Additionally, if there is reduced gastrointestinal motility, there is a risk of obstruction, so activated charcoal should not be used in such cases.

      Activated charcoal is effective in treating overdose with various drugs and toxins, including aspirin, paracetamol, barbiturates, tricyclic antidepressants, digoxin, amphetamines, morphine, cocaine, and phenothiazines. However, it is ineffective in treating overdose with substances such as iron, lithium, boric acid, cyanide, ethanol, ethylene glycol, methanol, malathion, DDT, carbamate, hydrocarbon, strong acids, or alkalis.

      There are some potential adverse effects associated with activated charcoal. These include nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, bezoar formation (a mass of undigested material that can cause blockages), bowel obstruction, pulmonary aspiration (inhaling the charcoal into the lungs), and impaired absorption of oral medications or antidotes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      7.7
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  • Question 12 - You are resuscitating a 68-year-old patient with suspected sepsis and your attending physician...

    Correct

    • You are resuscitating a 68-year-old patient with suspected sepsis and your attending physician requests you perform a central line insertion. You discuss the most appropriate approach for the central line. Which approach carries the highest risk of infection?

      Your Answer: Femoral

      Explanation:

      The risk of infection is highest with femoral central lines.

      A central venous catheter (CVC) is a type of catheter that is inserted into a large vein in the body, typically in the neck, chest, or groin. It has several important uses, including CVP monitoring, pulmonary artery pressure monitoring, repeated blood sampling, IV access for large volumes of fluids or drugs, TPN administration, dialysis, pacing, and other procedures such as placement of IVC filters or venous stents.

      When inserting a central line, it is ideal to use ultrasound guidance to ensure accurate placement. However, there are certain contraindications to central line insertion, including infection or injury to the planned access site, coagulopathy, thrombosis or stenosis of the intended vein, a combative patient, or raised intracranial pressure for jugular venous lines.

      The most common approaches for central line insertion are the internal jugular, subclavian, femoral, and PICC (peripherally inserted central catheter) veins. The internal jugular vein is often chosen due to its proximity to the carotid artery, but variations in anatomy can occur. Ultrasound can be used to identify the vessels and guide catheter placement, with the IJV typically lying superficial and lateral to the carotid artery. Compression and Valsalva maneuvers can help distinguish between arterial and venous structures, and doppler color flow can highlight the direction of flow.

      In terms of choosing a side for central line insertion, the right side is usually preferred to avoid the risk of injury to the thoracic duct and potential chylothorax. However, the left side can also be used depending on the clinical situation.

      Femoral central lines are another option for central venous access, with the catheter being inserted into the femoral vein in the groin. Local anesthesia is typically used to establish a field block, with lidocaine being the most commonly used agent. Lidocaine works by blocking sodium channels and preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      In summary, central venous catheters have various important uses and should ideally be inserted using ultrasound guidance. There are contraindications to their insertion, and different approaches can be used depending on the clinical situation. Local anesthesia is commonly used for central line insertion, with lidocaine being the preferred agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      29.6
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  • Question 13 - A 32 year old male presents to the emergency department with worsening abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old male presents to the emergency department with worsening abdominal pain and diarrhea. The patient had previously been referred to a gastroenterologist by his primary care physician for recurrent episodes of abdominal pain and diarrhea accompanied by anemia. Barium contrast studies were performed last week, and the report indicates the presence of 'cobblestoning' and 'rose thorn ulcers' in the terminal ileum and colon.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Cobblestoning and rose thorn ulcers are visual characteristics seen in radiological images of individuals with Crohn’s disease. Cobblestoning occurs when there are linear ulcerations running both lengthwise and widthwise, creating a cobblestone-like appearance on the intestinal wall. This effect is enhanced by the presence of nodular wall swelling, and when barium enters the deep crevices of the ulcers, it further accentuates the cobblestone pattern.

      Further Reading:

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a chronic condition characterized by inflammation of the intestinal tract and an imbalance of the intestinal microbiota. The two main forms of IBD are Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis (UC). In some cases, it is not possible to differentiate between Crohn’s disease and UC, and the term inflammatory bowel disease type-unclassified may be used.

      Crohn’s disease is a chronic, relapsing-remitting inflammatory disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, from the mouth to the anus. It most commonly involves the ileum and colon. The inflammation in Crohn’s disease affects all layers of the intestinal wall, leading to complications such as strictures, fistulas, and adhesions. Risk factors for developing Crohn’s disease include a family history, smoking, infectious gastroenteritis, appendicectomy, and the use of NSAIDs and oral contraceptive drugs. Symptoms of Crohn’s disease can vary but often include diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and perianal disease. Extraintestinal features, such as arthritis, erythema nodosum, and uveitis, can also occur.

      Ulcerative colitis is a chronic, relapsing-remitting inflammatory disease that primarily affects the large bowel. The inflammation in UC is limited to the intestinal mucosa and does not involve skip lesions like in Crohn’s disease. Risk factors for developing UC include a family history, not smoking, and no appendix. Symptoms of UC include bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, and abdominal pain. Extraintestinal features, such as arthritis and uveitis, can also occur. Complications of UC include toxic megacolon, bowel obstruction, bowel perforation, strictures, fistula formation, anemia, malnutrition, and colorectal cancer.

      Diagnosing IBD involves various investigations, including blood tests, stool microscopy and culture, fecal calprotectin testing, endoscopy with biopsy, and imaging modalities such as CT and MR enterography. The management of Crohn’s disease and UC is complex and may involve corticosteroids, immunosuppressive drugs, biologic therapy, surgery, and nutritional support. Patients with IBD should also be monitored for nutritional deficiencies, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      4.2
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  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old teacher complains of a red and itchy urticarial rash on her...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old teacher complains of a red and itchy urticarial rash on her hands that appeared 15 minutes after she wore a pair of latex gloves. What is the most probable cause for the development of this rash?

      Your Answer: Type I hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      Type I hypersensitivity reactions are allergic reactions that occur when a person is exposed again to a particular antigen, known as an allergen. These reactions are triggered by IgE and typically happen within 15 to 30 minutes after exposure to the allergen.

      A rapid onset of an urticarial rash, which occurs shortly after being exposed to an allergen (such as latex), is highly likely to be caused by a type I hypersensitivity reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of smoking and a confirmed diagnosis of...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of smoking and a confirmed diagnosis of peripheral vascular disease comes in with suspected acute limb ischemia.

      What is the primary cause of acute limb ischemia?

      Your Answer: Thrombotic occlusion

      Explanation:

      Acute limb ischaemia refers to a sudden decrease in blood flow to a limb, which puts the limb at risk of tissue death. This condition is most commonly caused by either a sudden blockage of a partially blocked artery or an embolus that travels from another part of the body. It is considered a surgical emergency, as without prompt surgical intervention, the limb may suffer extensive tissue damage within six hours.

      The typical signs of acute limb ischaemia are often described using the 6 Ps: constant and persistent pain, absence of pulses in the ankle, paleness or discoloration of the limb, loss of power or paralysis, reduced sensation or numbness, and a sensation of coldness. The leading cause of acute limb ischaemia is a sudden blockage of a previously narrowed artery (60% of cases). The second most common cause is an embolism, such as from a blood clot in the heart or following a heart attack. It is important to differentiate between these two causes, as the treatment and prognosis differ.

      Other potential causes of acute limb ischaemia include trauma, Raynaud’s syndrome, iatrogenic injury (caused by medical procedures), popliteal aneurysm, aortic dissection, and compartment syndrome. If acute limb ischaemia is suspected, it is crucial to seek immediate assessment by a vascular surgeon.

      The management of acute limb ischaemia in a hospital setting depends on factors such as the type and location of the blockage, duration of ischaemia, presence of other medical conditions, type of blood vessel affected, and the viability of the limb. Treatment options may include percutaneous catheter-directed thrombolytic therapy, surgical embolectomy, or endovascular revascularisation if the limb can still be saved. The choice between surgical and endovascular techniques will depend on various factors, including the urgency of revascularisation and the severity of sensory and motor deficits.

      In cases where the limb is beyond salvage, amputation may be necessary. This is because attempting to revascularise a limb with irreversible ischaemia and extensive muscle death can lead to a condition called reperfusion syndrome, which can cause inflammation and damage to multiple organs, potentially resulting in death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 3-year-old boy has been brought into the Emergency Department having seizures that...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy has been brought into the Emergency Department having seizures that have lasted for 25 minutes prior to his arrival. On arrival, he is continuing to have a tonic-clonic seizure.
      What dose of phenytoin is recommended in the treatment of the convulsing child that reaches that stage of the APLS algorithm?

      Your Answer: 20 mg/kg over 20 minutes

      Explanation:

      If a child who is experiencing convulsions reaches step 3 of the APLS algorithm, it is recommended to prepare a phenytoin infusion. This infusion should be administered at a dosage of 20 mg/kg over a period of 20 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You are part of the resus team treating a 42-year-old female patient. Due...

    Correct

    • You are part of the resus team treating a 42-year-old female patient. Due to deteriorating GCS, your consultant advises you to prepare for rapid sequence induction. You contemplate which induction agent is most appropriate for this patient. What side effect of etomidate prevents its use in septic patients?

      Your Answer: Adrenal suppression

      Explanation:

      Etomidate is not recommended for use in septic patients because it can suppress adrenal cortisol production, leading to increased morbidity and mortality in sepsis cases. However, it is a suitable choice for haemodynamically unstable patients who are not experiencing sepsis, as it does not cause significant hypotension like other induction agents. Additionally, etomidate can be beneficial for patients with head injuries and elevated intracranial pressure, as it reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure.

      Further Reading:

      There are four commonly used induction agents in the UK: propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate.

      Propofol is a 1% solution that produces significant venodilation and myocardial depression. It can also reduce cerebral perfusion pressure. The typical dose for propofol is 1.5-2.5 mg/kg. However, it can cause side effects such as hypotension, respiratory depression, and pain at the site of injection.

      Ketamine is another induction agent that produces a dissociative state. It does not display a dose-response continuum, meaning that the effects do not necessarily increase with higher doses. Ketamine can cause bronchodilation, which is useful in patients with asthma. The initial dose for ketamine is 0.5-2 mg/kg, with a typical IV dose of 1.5 mg/kg. Side effects of ketamine include tachycardia, hypertension, laryngospasm, unpleasant hallucinations, nausea and vomiting, hypersalivation, increased intracranial and intraocular pressure, nystagmus and diplopia, abnormal movements, and skin reactions.

      Thiopentone is an ultra-short acting barbiturate that acts on the GABA receptor complex. It decreases cerebral metabolic oxygen and reduces cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure. The adult dose for thiopentone is 3-5 mg/kg, while the child dose is 5-8 mg/kg. However, these doses should be halved in patients with hypovolemia. Side effects of thiopentone include venodilation, myocardial depression, and hypotension. It is contraindicated in patients with acute porphyrias and myotonic dystrophy.

      Etomidate is the most haemodynamically stable induction agent and is useful in patients with hypovolemia, anaphylaxis, and asthma. It has similar cerebral effects to thiopentone. The dose for etomidate is 0.15-0.3 mg/kg. Side effects of etomidate include injection site pain, movement disorders, adrenal insufficiency, and apnoea. It is contraindicated in patients with sepsis due to adrenal suppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with a one-week history of occasional dizzy spells...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with a one-week history of occasional dizzy spells and feeling generally under the weather. She experienced one brief episode where she fainted. She was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus four months ago and has been prescribed high-dose ibuprofen. During the examination, she has swelling in her hands and feet but no other notable findings. Her EKG shows broad QRS complexes and tall peaked T waves.
      Which ONE blood test will confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urea and electrolytes

      Explanation:

      This patient’s ECG shows signs consistent with hyperkalemia, including broad QRS complexes, tall-peaked T waves, and bizarre p waves. It is estimated that around 10% of patients with SLE have hyperkalemia, which is believed to be caused by hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism. Additionally, the patient has been taking a high dose of ibuprofen, which can also contribute to the development of hyperkalemia. NSAIDs are thought to induce hyperkalemia by reducing renin secretion, leading to decreased potassium excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      34.7
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department after being hit by...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought into the emergency department after being hit by a car while riding her bike. The patient was not wearing a helmet and suffered a head injury from hitting the pavement. She has a significant scalp contusion and appears drowsy. There is a suspicion of increased intracranial pressure. How does intracranial pressure affect cerebral perfusion pressure?

      Your Answer: Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) = mean arterial pressure (MAP) - intracranial pressure (ICP)

      Explanation:

      Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is calculated by adding the intracranial pressure (ICP) to the diastolic blood pressure (DBP).

      Further Reading:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.

      The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.

      There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.

      Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old man comes in with swelling of his face, particularly his upper...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes in with swelling of his face, particularly his upper lip, and his hands. He has a confirmed diagnosis of hereditary angioedema.
      Which of the following statements about hereditary angioedema is correct?

      Your Answer: It is caused by a deficiency of C1 esterase

      Correct Answer: Long-term prophylaxis can be achieved with tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Hereditary angioedema is a condition caused by a lack of C1 esterase inhibitor, a protein that is part of the complement system. It is typically inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. Symptoms usually start in childhood and continue sporadically into adulthood. Attacks can be triggered by minor surgical procedures, dental work, and stress. The main clinical signs of hereditary angioedema include swelling of the skin and mucous membranes, with the face, tongue, and extremities being the most commonly affected areas. There is often a tingling sensation before an attack, sometimes accompanied by a non-itchy rash.

      Angioedema and anaphylaxis resulting from C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency do not respond to adrenaline, steroids, or antihistamines. Treatment requires the use of C1 esterase inhibitor concentrate or fresh frozen plasma, both of which contain C1 esterase inhibitor. In situations that may trigger an attack, short-term prophylaxis can be achieved by administering C1 esterase inhibitor or fresh frozen plasma infusions prior to the event. For long-term prevention, androgenic steroids like stanozolol or antifibrinolytic drugs such as tranexamic acid can be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his father with symptoms of fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his father with symptoms of fever and irritability. He also complains of lower abdominal pain and stinging during urination. A urine dipstick is performed on a clean catch urine, which reveals the presence of blood, protein, leucocytes, and nitrites. You diagnose him with a urinary tract infection (UTI) and prescribe antibiotics. His blood tests today show that his eGFR is 38 ml/minute. He has no history of other UTIs or infections requiring antibiotics in the past 12 months.
      Which of the following antibiotics is the most appropriate to prescribe in this case?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of young people under 16 years with lower urinary tract infection (UTI), it is important to obtain a urine sample before starting antibiotics. This sample can be tested using a dipstick or sent for culture and susceptibility testing. In cases where children under 5 present with fever along with lower UTI, it is recommended to follow the guidance outlined in the NICE guideline on fever in under 5s.

      Immediate antibiotic prescription should be offered to children and young people under 16 years with lower UTI. When making this prescription, it is important to consider previous urine culture and susceptibility results, as well as any history of antibiotic use that may have led to resistant bacteria. If a urine sample has been sent for culture and sensitivity testing, the choice of antibiotic should be reviewed once the microbiological results are available. If the bacteria are found to be resistant and symptoms are not improving, a narrow-spectrum antibiotic should be used whenever possible.

      For non-pregnant women aged 16 years and under, the following antibiotics can be considered:
      – Children under 3 months: It is recommended to refer to a pediatric specialist and treat with an intravenous antibiotic in line with the NICE guideline on fever in under 5s.
      – First-choice in children over 3 months: Nitrofurantoin (if eGFR >45 ml/minute) or Trimethoprim (if low risk of resistance*).
      – Second-choice in children over 3 months (when there is no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice for at least 48 hours, or when first-choice is not suitable): Nitrofurantoin (if eGFR >45 ml/minute and not used as first-choice), Amoxicillin (only if culture results are available and susceptible), or Cefalexin.

      Please refer to the BNF for children for dosing information. It is important to consider the risk of resistance when choosing antibiotics. A lower risk of resistance may be more likely if the antibiotic has not been used in the past 3 months, if previous urine culture suggests susceptibility (but was not used), and in younger people in areas where local epidemiology data suggest low resistance. On the other hand, a higher risk of resistance may be more likely with recent antibiotic use and in older people in residential facilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      53.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 22-year-old individual comes in with a painful, itchy, red left eye. During...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old individual comes in with a painful, itchy, red left eye. During the examination, there is noticeable redness in the conjunctiva, and follicles are observed on the inner eyelid when it is turned inside out. They recently had a mild and short-lived upper respiratory tract infection, but there are no other significant medical history.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Viral conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      Conjunctivitis is the most common reason for red eyes, accounting for about 35% of all eye problems seen in general practice. It occurs when the conjunctiva, the thin layer covering the white part of the eye, becomes inflamed. Conjunctivitis can be caused by an infection or an allergic reaction.

      Infective conjunctivitis is inflammation of the conjunctiva caused by a viral, bacterial, or parasitic infection. The most common type of infective conjunctivitis is viral, with adenoviruses being the main culprits. Bacterial conjunctivitis is also common and is usually caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus, or Haemophilus influenzae.

      The symptoms of infective conjunctivitis include sudden redness of the conjunctiva, discomfort described as a gritty or burning sensation, watering of the eyes, and discharge that may temporarily blurry vision. It can be challenging to differentiate between viral and bacterial conjunctivitis based on symptoms alone.

      Here are some key features that can help distinguish between viral and bacterial conjunctivitis:

      Features suggestive of viral conjunctivitis:
      – Mild to moderate redness of the conjunctiva
      – Presence of follicles on the inner surface of the eyelids
      – Swelling of the eyelids
      – Small, pinpoint bleeding under the conjunctiva
      – Pseudomembranes (thin layers of tissue) may form on the inner surface of the eyelids in severe cases, often caused by adenovirus
      – Less discharge (usually watery) compared to bacterial conjunctivitis
      – Mild to moderate itching
      – Symptoms of upper respiratory tract infection and swollen lymph nodes in front of the ears

      Features suggestive of bacterial conjunctivitis:
      – Purulent or mucopurulent discharge with crusting of the eyelids, which may cause them to stick together upon waking
      – Mild or no itching
      – Swollen lymph nodes in front of the ears, which are often present in severe bacterial conjunctivitis
      – If the discharge is copious and mucopurulent, infection with Neisseria gonorrhoeae should be considered.

      By considering these distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and manage cases of conjunctivitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 72 year old is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to sudden onset of confusion. The patient's spouse is concerned the sudden decrease in consciousness is due to a hemorrhage as the patient is on blood thinners. Neurological examination reveals flaccid paralysis. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is initiated before CT scan as the patient experiences a respiratory arrest. Which of the following syndromes is this patient most likely suffering from?

      Your Answer: Tonsillar herniation

      Explanation:

      Tonsillar herniation occurs when the cerebellar tonsils are pushed through the foramen magnum. This condition is characterized by a decrease in consciousness, respiratory arrest, and flaccid paralysis.

      Further Reading:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.

      The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.

      There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.

      Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 60-year-old woman presents with new onset difficulty breathing. During chest examination, you...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with new onset difficulty breathing. During chest examination, you observe whispering pectoriloquy over her left lower lobe.
      What is the PRIMARY probable cause of this chest sign?

      Your Answer: Pleural effusion

      Correct Answer: Lung consolidation

      Explanation:

      Whispering pectoriloquy is a phenomenon that occurs when there is lung consolidation. It is characterized by an amplified and clearer sound of whispering that can be heard when using a stethoscope to listen to the affected areas of the lungs. To conduct the test, patients are usually instructed to whisper the phrase ninety-nine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A middle-aged man who lives alone is brought in by ambulance; he is...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged man who lives alone is brought in by ambulance; he is drowsy, vomiting and complaining of a headache. There is currently a summer heatwave, and you suspect a diagnosis of heat stroke.

      What is the threshold temperature used in the definition of heat stroke?

      Your Answer: Above 40.6°C

      Explanation:

      Heat stroke is a condition characterized by a systemic inflammatory response, where the core body temperature rises above 40.6°C. It is accompanied by alterations in mental state and varying degrees of organ dysfunction.

      There are two types of heat stroke. The first is classic non-exertional heat stroke, which occurs when individuals are exposed to high environmental temperatures. This form of heat stroke is commonly seen in elderly patients during heat waves.

      The second type is exertional heat stroke, which occurs during intense physical activity in hot weather conditions. This form of heat stroke is often observed in endurance athletes who participate in strenuous exercise in high temperatures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 22-year-old arrives at the emergency department after ingesting a combination of pills...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old arrives at the emergency department after ingesting a combination of pills 45 minutes ago following a heated dispute with their partner. The patient reports consuming approximately 30 tablets in total, consisting of four or five different types. These tablets were sourced from their grandparents medication, although the patient is uncertain about their specific names. They mention the possibility of one tablet being called bisoprolol. What is the recommended antidote for beta-blocker toxicity?

      Your Answer: Glucagon

      Explanation:

      Glucagon is the preferred initial treatment for beta-blocker poisoning when there are symptoms of slow heart rate and low blood pressure.

      Further Reading:

      Poisoning in the emergency department is often caused by accidental or intentional overdose of prescribed drugs. Supportive treatment is the primary approach for managing most poisonings. This includes ensuring a clear airway, proper ventilation, maintaining normal fluid levels, temperature, and blood sugar levels, correcting any abnormal blood chemistry, controlling seizures, and assessing and treating any injuries.

      In addition to supportive treatment, clinicians may need to consider strategies for decontamination, elimination, and administration of antidotes. Decontamination involves removing poisons from the skin or gastrointestinal tract. This can be done through rinsing the skin or using methods such as activated charcoal, gastric lavage, induced emesis, or whole bowel irrigation. However, induced emesis is no longer commonly used, while gastric lavage and whole bowel irrigation are rarely used.

      Elimination methods include urinary alkalinization, hemodialysis, and hemoperfusion. These techniques help remove toxins from the body.

      Activated charcoal is a commonly used method for decontamination. It works by binding toxins in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing their absorption. It is most effective if given within one hour of ingestion. However, it is contraindicated in patients with an insecure airway due to the risk of aspiration. Activated charcoal can be used for many drugs, but it is ineffective for certain poisonings, including pesticides (organophosphates), hydrocarbons, strong acids and alkalis, alcohols (ethanol, methanol, ethylene glycol), iron, lithium, and solvents.

      Antidotes are specific treatments for poisoning caused by certain drugs or toxins. For example, cyanide poisoning can be treated with dicobalt edetate, hydroxocobalamin, or sodium nitrite and sodium thiosulphate. Benzodiazepine poisoning can be treated with flumazanil, while opiate poisoning can be treated with naloxone. Other examples include protamine for heparin poisoning, vitamin K or fresh frozen plasma for warfarin poisoning, fomepizole or ethanol for methanol poisoning, and methylene blue for methemoglobinemia caused by benzocaine or nitrates.

      There are many other antidotes available for different types of poisoning, and resources such as TOXBASE and the National Poisons Information Service (NPIS) can provide valuable advice on managing poisonings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 65 year old patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of a...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of a productive cough and fever. The patient's primary care physician had prescribed antibiotics a few days ago to treat a suspected respiratory infection. The patient's INR is tested as they are on warfarin for atrial fibrillation. The INR comes back as 6.7.

      Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to result in an extended INR?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Macrolide antibiotics, such as clarithromycin and erythromycin, are widely known to prolong the International Normalized Ratio (INR). Several drugs can increase the potency of warfarin, and the macrolides, along with ciprofloxacin and metronidazole, are the antibiotics that have the most significant impact on enhancing the effect of warfarin.

      Further Reading:

      Management of High INR with Warfarin

      Major Bleeding:
      – Stop warfarin immediately.
      – Administer intravenous vitamin K 5 mg.
      – Administer 25-50 u/kg four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate.
      – If prothrombin complex concentrate is not available, consider using fresh frozen plasma (FFP).
      – Seek medical attention promptly.

      INR > 8.0 with Minor Bleeding:
      – Stop warfarin immediately.
      – Administer intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg.
      – Repeat vitamin K dose if INR remains high after 24 hours.
      – Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.0.
      – Seek medical advice if bleeding worsens or persists.

      INR > 8.0 without Bleeding:
      – Stop warfarin immediately.
      – Administer oral vitamin K 1-5 mg using the intravenous preparation orally.
      – Repeat vitamin K dose if INR remains high after 24 hours.
      – Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.0.
      – Seek medical advice if any symptoms or concerns arise.

      INR 5.0-8.0 with Minor Bleeding:
      – Stop warfarin immediately.
      – Administer intravenous vitamin K 1-3mg.
      – Restart warfarin when INR is below 5.0.
      – Seek medical advice if bleeding worsens or persists.

      INR 5.0-8.0 without Bleeding:
      – Withhold 1 or 2 doses of warfarin.
      – Reduce subsequent maintenance dose.
      – Monitor INR closely and seek medical advice if any concerns arise.

      Note: In cases of intracranial hemorrhage, prothrombin complex concentrate should be considered as it is faster acting than fresh frozen plasma (FFP).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You review a middle-aged man who has a non-operable brain tumor and is...

    Correct

    • You review a middle-aged man who has a non-operable brain tumor and is experiencing severe nausea. He has received prior radiotherapy and chemotherapy but is now solely under the care of the palliative team. During your review, he mentions that he also experiences vertigo and struggles to keep his food down due to the intensity of his nausea. His current medications only include basic pain relief.
      What is the MOST appropriate anti-emetic to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cyclizine

      Explanation:

      All of the mentioned medications are antiemetics that can be used to treat nausea. However, cyclizine would be the most appropriate choice as it also possesses anti-histamine properties, which can help alleviate symptoms of vertigo. Ondansetron is a specific 5HT3 antagonist that is particularly effective for patients undergoing cytotoxic treatment. Domperidone acts on the chemoreceptor trigger zone and is also highly beneficial for patients receiving cytotoxic treatment. Metoclopramide directly affects the gastrointestinal tract and is a useful anti-emetic for individuals with gastro-duodenal, hepatic, and biliary diseases. Haloperidol may be considered in end-of-life care situations where other medications have not yielded successful results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with itchy, hyperpigmented patches on her chest...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with itchy, hyperpigmented patches on her chest and back. She recently returned from her vacation in Ibiza and the areas have become much more noticeable since being exposed to the sun.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pityriasis versicolor

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a common skin condition caused by an infection with the yeasts Malassezia furfur and Malassezia globosa. It typically presents as multiple patches of altered pigmentation, primarily on the trunk. In individuals with fair skin, these patches are usually darker in color, while in those with darker skin or a tan, they may appear lighter (known as pityriasis versicolor alba). It is not uncommon for the rash to cause itching.

      The recommended treatment for pityriasis versicolor involves the use of antifungal agents. One particularly effective option is ketoconazole shampoo, which is sold under the brand name Nizoral. To use this shampoo, it should be applied to the affected areas and left on for approximately five minutes before being rinsed off. This process should be repeated daily for a total of five days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old patient presents with dysuria, fevers, rigors, and left-sided loin pain. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with dysuria, fevers, rigors, and left-sided loin pain. On examination, there is tenderness over his left renal angle and he has a temperature of 38.6°C. You suspect the most likely diagnosis is pyelonephritis.
      Which of the following is not a reason to consider hospital admission in a patient with pyelonephritis?

      Your Answer: A temperature greater than 38°C

      Correct Answer: Failure to improve significantly within 12 hours of starting antibiotics

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. Additionally, they are showing signs of sepsis, which indicates a more serious illness or condition. Therefore, it would be advisable to admit the patient for inpatient treatment.

      According to the recommendations from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients with pyelonephritis should be admitted if it is severe or if they exhibit any signs or symptoms that suggest a more serious condition, such as sepsis. Signs of sepsis include significant tachycardia, hypotension, or breathlessness, as well as marked signs of illness like impaired level of consciousness, profuse sweating, rigors, pallor, or significantly reduced mobility. A temperature greater than 38°C or less than 36°C is also indicative of sepsis.

      NICE also advises considering referral or seeking specialist advice for individuals with acute pyelonephritis if they are significantly dehydrated or unable to take oral fluids and medicines, if they are pregnant, if they have a higher risk of developing complications due to known or suspected abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases like diabetes mellitus or immunosuppression, or if they have recurrent episodes of urinary tract infections (UTIs).

      For non-pregnant women and men, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line options include cefalexin, ciprofloxacin, or co-amoxiclav (taking into account local microbial resistance data), and trimethoprim if sensitivity is known. Intravenous first-line options are amikacin, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, or gentamicin if the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment. Co-amoxiclav may be used if given in combination or if sensitivity is known. Antibacterials may be combined if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis. For intravenous second-line options, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist.

      For pregnant women, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is cefalexin for oral first-line treatment. If the patient is severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment, cefuroxime is the recommended intravenous first-line option. If there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis, it is advised to consult a local microbiologist for intravenous second-line

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friend following...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friend following taking an overdose of one of his prescribed medications. He is agitated, confused and is experiencing visual hallucinations. His heart rate is currently 110 bpm, and his pupils are dilated. It is difficult to obtain a history from him as he is mumbling. You also note that he appears flushed and his skin is warm to the touch.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Chlorpromazine

      Explanation:

      This patient exhibits clinical features that are consistent with the ingestion of a drug that blocks the action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine in the central and peripheral nervous system. There are several anticholinergic drugs commonly used in clinical practice. Some examples include antihistamines like promethazine and diphenhydramine, typical and atypical antipsychotics such as haloperidol and quetiapine, anticonvulsants like carbamazepine, antidepressants like tricyclic antidepressants, and antispasmodics like hyoscine butylbromide. Other sources of anticholinergic effects can come from plants like datura species and certain mushrooms.

      When someone ingests an anticholinergic drug, they may experience a toxidrome, which is characterized by an agitated delirium and various signs of acetylcholine receptor blockade in both the central and peripheral nervous system. The central inhibition leads to an agitated delirium, which is marked by fluctuating mental status, confusion, restlessness, visual hallucinations, picking at objects in the air, mumbling, slurred speech, disruptive behavior, tremor, myoclonus, and in rare cases, coma and seizures. The peripheral inhibition can cause dilated pupils, sinus tachycardia, dry mouth, hot and flushed skin, increased body temperature, urinary retention, and ileus.

      In summary, the ingestion of an anticholinergic drug can result in a toxidrome characterized by an agitated delirium and various signs of central and peripheral acetylcholine receptor blockade. It is important to be aware of the potential effects of these drugs and to recognize the clinical features associated with their ingestion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      15.6
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  • Question 32 - A 35-year-old individual presents to the emergency department complaining of progressive weakness and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old individual presents to the emergency department complaining of progressive weakness and numbness over the past few days. The patient reports initially experiencing numbness in both feet, which has gradually extended up to the knees. Additionally, there is weakness in both legs and numbness in the fingertips that appeared earlier today. The patient has no regular medication and is generally in good health. However, about three weeks ago, during a trip to India, the patient suffered from a week-long illness characterized by watery, occasionally bloody, diarrhea and abdominal cramps, which have completely resolved. What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      This explanation suggests that the patient’s symptoms are consistent with a case of travellers diarrhoea, which is in line with their medical history. GBS typically occurs within 1-3 weeks after the initial viral or bacterial infection that caused it.

      Further Reading:

      Campylobacter jejuni is a common cause of gastrointestinal infections, particularly travellers diarrhoea. It is a gram-negative bacterium that appears as curved rods. The infection is transmitted through the feco-oral route, often through the ingestion of contaminated meat, especially poultry. The incubation period for Campylobacter jejuni is typically 1-7 days, and the illness usually lasts for about a week.

      The main symptoms of Campylobacter jejuni infection include watery, and sometimes bloody, diarrhea accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, malaise, and headache. In some cases, complications can arise from the infection. Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS) is one such complication that is associated with Campylobacter jejuni. Approximately 30% of GBS cases are caused by this bacterium.

      When managing Campylobacter jejuni infection, conservative measures are usually sufficient, with a focus on maintaining hydration. However, in cases where symptoms are severe, such as high fever, bloody diarrhea, or high-output diarrhea, or if the person is immunocompromised, antibiotics may be necessary. NICE recommends the use of clarithromycin, administered at a dose of 250-500 mg twice daily for 5-7 days, starting within 3 days of the onset of illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 68 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of dizziness...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of dizziness and palpitations that have been occurring for the past 2 hours. An ECG confirms the presence of atrial fibrillation. The patient has no previous history of atrial fibrillation but was diagnosed with mild aortic valve stenosis 8 months ago during an echocardiogram ordered by his primary care physician. The patient reports that the echocardiogram was done because he was experiencing shortness of breath, which resolved after 2-3 months and was attributed to a recent bout of pneumonia. The decision is made to attempt pharmacological cardioversion. What is the most appropriate medication to use for this purpose in this patient?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, amiodarone is recommended as the initial choice for pharmacological cardioversion of atrial fibrillation (AF) in individuals who have evidence of structural heart disease.

      Further Reading:

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained cardiac arrhythmia, affecting around 5% of patients over the age of 70-75 years and 10% of patients aged 80-85 years. While AF can cause palpitations and inefficient cardiac function, the most important aspect of managing patients with AF is reducing the increased risk of stroke.

      AF can be classified as first detected episode, paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent. First detected episode refers to the initial occurrence of AF, regardless of symptoms or duration. Paroxysmal AF occurs when a patient has 2 or more self-terminating episodes lasting less than 7 days. Persistent AF refers to episodes lasting more than 7 days that do not self-terminate. Permanent AF is continuous atrial fibrillation that cannot be cardioverted or if attempts to do so are deemed inappropriate. The treatment goals for permanent AF are rate control and anticoagulation if appropriate.

      Symptoms of AF include palpitations, dyspnea, and chest pain. The most common sign is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is essential for diagnosing AF, as other conditions can also cause an irregular pulse.

      Managing patients with AF involves two key parts: rate/rhythm control and reducing stroke risk. Rate control involves slowing down the irregular pulse to avoid negative effects on cardiac function. This is typically achieved using beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. If one drug is not effective, combination therapy may be used. Rhythm control aims to restore and maintain normal sinus rhythm through pharmacological or electrical cardioversion. However, the majority of patients are managed with a rate control strategy.

      Reducing stroke risk in patients with AF is crucial. Risk stratifying tools, such as the CHA2DS2-VASc score, are used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy. Anticoagulation is recommended for patients with a score of 2 or more. Clinicians can choose between warfarin and novel oral anticoagulants (NOACs) for anticoagulation.

      Before starting anticoagulation, the patient’s bleeding risk should be assessed using tools like the HAS-BLED score or the ORBIT tool. These tools evaluate factors such as hypertension, abnormal renal or liver function, history of bleeding, age, and use of drugs that predispose to bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      19.8
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  • Question 34 - You are with a mountain expedition group and have moved from an altitude...

    Correct

    • You are with a mountain expedition group and have moved from an altitude of 3380m to 3760 metres over the past two days. One of your group members, who is in their 50s, has become increasingly breathless over the past 6 hours and is now breathless at rest and has started coughing up blood stained sputum. The patient's observations are shown below:

      Blood pressure 148/94 mmHg
      Pulse 128 bpm
      Respiration rate 30 bpm
      Oxygen saturations 84% on air

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: High altitude pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      As a person ascends to higher altitudes, their risk of developing high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) increases. This patient is displaying signs and symptoms of HAPE, including a dry cough that may progress to frothy sputum, possibly containing blood. Breathlessness, initially experienced during exertion, may progress to being present even at rest.

      Further Reading:

      High Altitude Illnesses

      Altitude & Hypoxia:
      – As altitude increases, atmospheric pressure decreases and inspired oxygen pressure falls.
      – Hypoxia occurs at altitude due to decreased inspired oxygen.
      – At 5500m, inspired oxygen is approximately half that at sea level, and at 8900m, it is less than a third.

      Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS):
      – AMS is a clinical syndrome caused by hypoxia at altitude.
      – Symptoms include headache, anorexia, sleep disturbance, nausea, dizziness, fatigue, malaise, and shortness of breath.
      – Symptoms usually occur after 6-12 hours above 2500m.
      – Risk factors for AMS include previous AMS, fast ascent, sleeping at altitude, and age <50 years old.
      – The Lake Louise AMS score is used to assess the severity of AMS.
      – Treatment involves stopping ascent, maintaining hydration, and using medication for symptom relief.
      – Medications for moderate to severe symptoms include dexamethasone and acetazolamide.
      – Gradual ascent, hydration, and avoiding alcohol can help prevent AMS.

      High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE):
      – HAPE is a progression of AMS but can occur without AMS symptoms.
      – It is the leading cause of death related to altitude illness.
      – Risk factors for HAPE include rate of ascent, intensity of exercise, absolute altitude, and individual susceptibility.
      – Symptoms include dyspnea, cough, chest tightness, poor exercise tolerance, cyanosis, low oxygen saturations, tachycardia, tachypnea, crepitations, and orthopnea.
      – Management involves immediate descent, supplemental oxygen, keeping warm, and medication such as nifedipine.

      High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE):
      – HACE is thought to result from vasogenic edema and increased vascular pressure.
      – It occurs 2-4 days after ascent and is associated with moderate to severe AMS symptoms.
      – Symptoms include headache, hallucinations, disorientation, confusion, ataxia, drowsiness, seizures, and manifestations of raised intracranial pressure.
      – Immediate descent is crucial for management, and portable hyperbaric therapy may be used if descent is not possible.
      – Medication for treatment includes dexamethasone and supplemental oxygen. Acetazolamide is typically used for prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      11.8
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  • Question 35 - A 65-year-old patient presents with nausea and vomiting and decreased urine output. He...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with nausea and vomiting and decreased urine output. He has only passed a small amount of urine in the last day, and he has noticeable swelling in his ankles. His blood tests show a sudden increase in his creatinine levels in the last 48 hours, leading to a diagnosis of acute kidney injury (AKI).
      Which of the following is NOT a cause of AKI that occurs before the kidneys?

      Your Answer: Glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function. This results in the accumulation of waste products and disturbances in fluid and electrolyte balance. AKI can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease, known as acute-on-chronic kidney disease. It is a relatively common condition, with approximately 15% of adults admitted to hospitals in the UK developing AKI.

      The causes of AKI can be categorized into pre-renal, intrinsic renal, and post-renal factors. The majority of AKI cases in the community are due to pre-renal causes, accounting for 90% of cases. These are often associated with conditions such as hypotension from sepsis or fluid depletion. Medications, particularly ACE inhibitors and NSAIDs, are also frequently implicated in AKI.

      The table below summarizes the most common causes of AKI:

      Pre-renal:
      – Volume depletion (e.g., hemorrhage, severe vomiting or diarrhea, burns)
      – Oedematous states (e.g., cardiac failure, liver cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome)
      – Hypotension (e.g., cardiogenic shock, sepsis, anaphylaxis)
      – Cardiovascular conditions (e.g., severe cardiac failure, arrhythmias)
      – Renal hypoperfusion: NSAIDs, COX-2 inhibitors, ACE inhibitors or ARBs, Abdominal aortic aneurysm
      – Renal artery stenosis
      – Hepatorenal syndrome

      Intrinsic renal:
      – Glomerular disease (e.g., glomerulonephritis, thrombosis, hemolytic-uremic syndrome)
      – Tubular injury: acute tubular necrosis (ATN) following prolonged ischemia
      – Acute interstitial nephritis due to drugs (e.g., NSAIDs), infection, or autoimmune diseases
      – Vascular disease (e.g., vasculitis, polyarteritis nodosa, thrombotic microangiopathy, cholesterol emboli, renal vein thrombosis, malignant hypertension)
      – Eclampsia

      Post-renal:
      – Renal stones
      – Blood clot
      – Papillary necrosis
      – Urethral stricture
      – Prostatic hypertrophy or malignancy
      – Bladder tumor
      – Radiation fibrosis
      – Pelvic malignancy
      – Retroperitoneal fibrosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      20
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 10-year-old girl comes in with sudden abdominal pain. She has a high...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl comes in with sudden abdominal pain. She has a high temperature and feels very nauseous. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the right iliac fossa. You suspect she may have acute appendicitis.
      What is the most frequent location of the appendix's tip?

      Your Answer: Ascending retrocaecal

      Explanation:

      The appendix is a slender and curved tube that is attached to the back and middle part of the caecum. It has a small triangular tissue called the mesoappendix that holds it in place from the tissue of the terminal ileum.

      Although it contains a significant amount of lymphoid tissue, the appendix does not serve any important function in humans. The position of the free end of the appendix can vary greatly. There are five main locations where it can be found, with the most common being the retrocaecal and subcaecal positions.

      The distribution of these positions is as follows:

      – Ascending retrocaecal (64%)
      – Subcaecal (32%)
      – Transverse retrocaecal (2%)
      – Ascending preileal (1%)
      – Ascending retroileal (0.5%)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      7.9
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  • Question 37 - A 68 year old female is brought into the emergency home from her...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old female is brought into the emergency home from her nursing home due to severe diarrhea for the past 3 days. You observe that over the past month the patient has undergone three rounds of antibiotics for recurrent cellulitis. You contemplate the likelihood of a Clostridium difficile infection. What proportion of antibiotic-associated diarrhea is attributed to Clostridium difficile infection?

      Your Answer: 20-30%

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile (C.diff) is a gram positive rod commonly found in hospitals. Some strains of C.diff produce exotoxins that can cause intestinal damage, leading to pseudomembranous colitis. This infection can range from mild diarrhea to severe illness. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is often caused by C.diff, with 20-30% of cases being attributed to this bacteria. Antibiotics such as clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins are frequently associated with C.diff infection.

      Clinical features of C.diff infection include diarrhea, distinctive smell, abdominal pain, raised white blood cell count, and in severe cases, toxic megacolon. In some severe cases, diarrhea may be absent due to the infection causing paralytic ileus. Diagnosis is made by detecting Clostridium difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool. There are two types of exotoxins produced by C.diff, toxin A and toxin B, which cause mucosal damage and the formation of a pseudomembrane in the colon.

      Risk factors for developing C.diff infection include age over 65, antibiotic treatment, previous C.diff infection, exposure to infected individuals, proton pump inhibitor or H2 receptor antagonist use, prolonged hospitalization or residence in a nursing home, and chronic disease or immunosuppression. Complications of C.diff infection can include toxic megacolon, colon perforation, sepsis, and even death, especially in frail elderly individuals.

      Management of C.diff infection involves stopping the causative antibiotic if possible, optimizing hydration with IV fluids if necessary, and assessing the severity of the infection. Treatment options vary based on severity, ranging from no antibiotics for mild cases to vancomycin or fidaxomicin for moderate cases, and hospital protocol antibiotics (such as oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole) for severe or life-threatening cases. Severe cases may require admission under gastroenterology or GI surgeons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 42-year-old man presents with occasional right upper quadrant pain. The pain typically...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents with occasional right upper quadrant pain. The pain typically lasts for 20 to 45 minutes and then goes away on its own. Nausea frequently accompanies the pain. The pain tends to occur following the consumption of a high-fat meal.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gallstones

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of biliary colic. Biliary colic occurs when a gallstone temporarily blocks either the cystic duct or Hartmann’s pouch, leading to contractions in the gallbladder. The blockage is relieved when the stone either falls back into the gallbladder or passes through the duct.

      Patients with biliary colic typically experience colicky pain in the upper right quadrant of their abdomen. This pain can last anywhere from 15 minutes to 24 hours and is often accompanied by feelings of nausea and vomiting. It is not uncommon for the pain to radiate into the right scapula area.

      Eating fatty foods can exacerbate the pain as they stimulate the release of cholecystokinin, which in turn causes the gallbladder to contract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 25-year-old male medical student presents with intense vomiting that began a couple...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male medical student presents with intense vomiting that began a couple of hours after consuming a microwaved Chinese takeout.
      What is the MOST LIKELY single causative organism?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Correct Answer: Bacillus cereus

      Explanation:

      Bacillus cereus is a type of bacterium that is Gram-positive, rod-shaped, and beta-haemolytic. It is responsible for causing a condition known as ‘fried rice syndrome’.

      The bacterium forms hardy spores that can withstand boiling temperatures and remain viable even when rice is left at room temperature for extended periods before being fried. When these spores germinate, they can lead to the development of the syndrome.

      There are two types of strains associated with Bacillus cereus. The first type produces an emetic enterotoxin, which results in symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. These symptoms typically occur within 1 to 6 hours after consuming contaminated food and can be quite severe, lasting for about 6 to 24 hours.

      The second type of strain produces a diarrheagenic enterotoxin. This strain is commonly associated with the ingestion of meat, vegetables, and dairy products. Symptoms of this type of infection include abdominal pain and vomiting, which usually begin 8 to 12 hours after ingestion and resolve within 12 to 24 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      6.9
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  • Question 40 - A 68-year-old woman with a history of chronic anemia receives a blood transfusion...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman with a history of chronic anemia receives a blood transfusion as part of her treatment protocol. She has a known history of heart failure, for which she takes metoprolol and hydrochlorothiazide. She becomes short of breath, volume overloaded, and edematous during the transfusion.
      Which of the following tests will be most useful in confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: BNP

      Explanation:

      Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) is a reaction that occurs when a large volume of blood is infused rapidly. It is the second leading cause of deaths related to transfusions, accounting for about 20% of all fatalities.

      TACO typically happens in patients with limited cardiac reserve or chronic anemia who receive a fast blood transfusion. Elderly individuals, infants, and severely anemic patients are particularly vulnerable.

      The common signs of TACO include acute respiratory distress, rapid heartbeat, high blood pressure, the appearance of acute or worsening fluid accumulation in the lungs on a chest X-ray, and evidence of excessive fluid retention.

      The B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) can be a helpful diagnostic tool for TACO. Usually, the BNP level is elevated to at least 1.5 times the baseline before the transfusion.

      In many cases, simply slowing down the rate of transfusion, positioning the patient upright, and administering diuretics will be sufficient. In more severe cases, the transfusion should be stopped, and non-invasive ventilation may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. For...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. For the past two days, she has had severe diarrhoea and vomiting. She has not passed urine so far today. She normally weighs 20 kg. On examination, she has sunken eyes and dry mucous membranes. She is tachycardia and tachypnoeic and has cool peripheries. Her capillary refill time is prolonged.
      What is her estimated percentage dehydration?

      Your Answer: 10%

      Explanation:

      Generally speaking, if a child shows clinical signs of dehydration but does not exhibit shock, it can be assumed that they are 5% dehydrated. On the other hand, if shock is also present, it can be assumed that the child is 10% dehydrated or more. To put it in simpler terms, 5% dehydration means that the body has lost 5 grams of fluid per 100 grams of body weight, which is equivalent to 50 milliliters per kilogram of fluid. Similarly, 10% dehydration implies a loss of 100 milliliters per kilogram of fluid.

      The clinical features of dehydration and shock are summarized below:

      Dehydration (5%):
      – The child appears unwell
      – The heart rate may be normal or increased (tachycardia)
      – The respiratory rate may be normal or increased (tachypnea)
      – Peripheral pulses are normal
      – Capillary refill time (CRT) is normal or slightly prolonged
      – Blood pressure is normal
      – Extremities feel warm
      – Decreased urine output
      – Reduced skin turgor
      – Sunken eyes
      – Depressed fontanelle
      – Dry mucous membranes

      Clinical shock (10%):
      – The child appears pale, lethargic, and mottled
      – Tachycardia (increased heart rate)
      – Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate)
      – Weak peripheral pulses
      – Prolonged CRT
      – Hypotension (low blood pressure)
      – Extremities feel cold
      – Decreased urine output
      – Decreased level of consciousness

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      12.6
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  • Question 42 - A 68-year-old woman is seen in an outpatient clinic for her abdominal aortic...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman is seen in an outpatient clinic for her abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).
      What is considered an indication for elective surgery for an AAA in UK clinical practice?

      Your Answer: An aneurysm of 4.5 cm in diameter that has increased in size 1 cm in the past 6 months

      Explanation:

      An abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition where the abdominal aorta becomes enlarged, either in a specific area or throughout its length, reaching 1.5 times its normal size. Most AAAs are found between the diaphragm and the point where the aorta splits into two branches. They can be classified into three types based on their location: suprarenal, pararenal, and infrarenal. Suprarenal AAAs involve the origin of one or more visceral arteries, pararenal AAAs involve the origins of the renal arteries, and infrarenal AAAs start below the renal arteries. The majority of AAAs (approximately 85%) are infrarenal. In individuals over 50 years old, a normal infrarenal aortic diameter is 1.7 cm in men and 1.5 cm in women. An infrarenal aorta with a diameter greater than 3 cm is considered to be an aneurysm. While most AAAs do not cause symptoms, an expanding aneurysm can sometimes lead to abdominal pain or pulsatile sensations. Symptomatic AAAs have a high risk of rupture. In the UK, elective surgery for AAAs is typically recommended if the aneurysm is larger than 5.5 cm in diameter or if it is larger than 4.5 cm in diameter and has increased in size by more than 0.5 cm in the past six months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 60-year-old man who has recently undergone treatment for prostate cancer presents with...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man who has recently undergone treatment for prostate cancer presents with lower abdominal pain, urinary difficulties, and frequent urination. The treatment has not been effective, and he has been informed that he only has a few months left to live.

      What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral fluconazole

      Explanation:

      This patient’s symptoms are consistent with a diagnosis of oesophageal candidiasis, which is commonly seen in patients undergoing treatment for haematopoietic or lymphatic malignancies.

      The classic combination of symptoms associated with oesophageal candidiasis includes dysphagia, odynophagia, and retrosternal pain. This infection can be life-threatening and often requires hospital admission.

      The recommended treatment for oesophageal candidiasis is as follows:

      – First-line treatment involves taking oral fluconazole at a daily dose of 200-400 mg.
      – If the patient is unable to tolerate oral treatment, intravenous fluconazole can be used instead.
      – Second-line treatment options include oral itraconazole, oral posaconazole, or intravenous or oral voriconazole.

      It is important to seek medical attention promptly for oesophageal candidiasis, as timely treatment is crucial in managing this potentially serious infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      9.7
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  • Question 44 - You have a debrief session with your mentor after a case involving a...

    Correct

    • You have a debrief session with your mentor after a case involving a patient who experienced systemic toxicity from local anesthesia. Towards the end of the conversation, your mentor emphasizes the importance of reporting such episodes. In the UK, which of the following organizations should be notified about incidents of local anesthetic systemic toxicity?

      Your Answer: National Patient Safety Agency

      Explanation:

      Instances of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) should be promptly reported to the National Patient Safety Agency (NPSA). Additionally, it is advisable to report any adverse drug reactions to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) through their yellow card scheme. Please refer to the follow-up section in the notes for further details.

      Further Reading:

      Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.

      The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.

      If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.

      It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      7.8
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  • Question 45 - A 35-year-old weightlifter who admits to heavy use of anabolic steroids presents with...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old weightlifter who admits to heavy use of anabolic steroids presents with extremely severe acne. He has numerous disfiguring, ulcerated, nodular lesions covering his face, back, and chest. Many of the lesions have bleeding crusts, and he has significant scarring. Some of the lesions have also connected and formed sinuses. He is also experiencing general malaise, joint pain, and a feverish feeling. You take his temperature and it is currently 39°C.
      What is the MOST appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer for hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Acne conglobata is an extremely severe form of acne where acne nodules come together and create sinuses. Acne fulminans, on the other hand, is a rare and severe complication of acne conglobata that is accompanied by systemic symptoms. It is linked to elevated levels of androgenic hormones, specific autoimmune conditions, and a genetic predisposition.

      The typical clinical characteristics of acne fulminans are as follows:

      – Sudden and abrupt onset
      – Inflammatory and ulcerated nodular acne primarily found on the chest and back
      – Often painful lesions
      – Ulcers on the upper trunk covered with bleeding crusts
      – Severe acne scarring
      – Fluctuating fever
      – Painful joints and arthropathy
      – General feeling of illness (malaise)
      – Loss of appetite and weight loss
      – Enlarged liver and spleen (hepatosplenomegaly)

      It is crucial to refer patients immediately for a specialist evaluation and hospital admission. Treatment options for acne fulminans include systemic corticosteroids, dapsone, ciclosporin, and high-dose intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      20.9
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  • Question 46 - A 35-year-old woman has recently started taking a new medication. She is experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman has recently started taking a new medication. She is experiencing severe muscle pains.
      Which ONE of the following drugs is most likely to cause myopathy as a side effect?

      Your Answer: Simvastatin

      Explanation:

      Statins, although generally safe and well-tolerated, can cause myopathy and myotoxicity. This range of muscle-related side effects can vary from mild muscle pain to the most severe case of rhabdomyolysis, which can lead to kidney failure, blood clotting issues, and even death.

      The different levels of myotoxicity associated with statins are as follows:
      – Myalgia: muscle symptoms without an increase in creatine kinase (CK) levels.
      – Asymptomatic myopathy: elevated CK levels without muscle symptoms.
      – Myositis: muscle symptoms with CK levels elevated less than 10 times the upper limit of normal.
      – Rhabdomyolysis: muscle symptoms with CK levels elevated more than 10 times the upper limit of normal, potentially leading to myoglobinuria (presence of myoglobin in urine) and renal failure.

      Most statins are broken down by the cytochrome P450 enzyme system. When taken with drugs that strongly inhibit this system, the concentration of statins in the blood can significantly increase. This, in turn, raises the risk of myopathy. A well-known example of this is the combination of statins with macrolide antibiotics like erythromycin and clarithromycin. Co-prescribing these drugs with statins has been linked to a higher risk of myopathy, hospitalization due to rhabdomyolysis, acute kidney injury, and increased mortality rates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 60-year-old woman comes in with a cough producing green sputum that has...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman comes in with a cough producing green sputum that has been ongoing for the past two days. During the examination, she has a fever, with a temperature of 38.0°C, and exhibits coarse crackles in the lower right lung on chest examination.

      What is the MOST LIKELY single causative organism?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are in line with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). The most frequent cause of CAP in an adult patient who is otherwise in good health is Streptococcus pneumoniae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 7 year old girl is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Correct

    • A 7 year old girl is brought into the emergency department after being bitten by a bee. The patient's arm has started to swell and she is having difficulty breathing. You diagnose anaphylaxis and decide to administer adrenaline. What is the most suitable dose to give this patient?

      Your Answer: 300 micrograms (0.3ml 1 in 1,000) by intramuscular injection

      Explanation:

      A 7-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department after being bitten by a bee. She is experiencing swelling in her arm and difficulty breathing, which are signs of anaphylaxis. To treat this condition, the most suitable dose of adrenaline to administer to the patient is 300 micrograms (0.3ml 1 in 1,000) by intramuscular injection.

      Further Reading:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.

      In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.

      Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.

      The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.

      Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of occasional palpitations and feelings of anxiety for the past two months. The patient reports experiencing excessive heat most of the time. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 138/84 mmHg
      Pulse: 110 bpm
      Respiration rate: 16 bpm
      Temperature: 37.5ºC

      During the examination, a low amplitude tremor and finger clubbing are observed. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms consistent with hyperthyroidism, including palpitations or a fast heart rate, anxiety, clubbing, tremors, and heat intolerance. Other common symptoms of hyperthyroidism include eye signs such as proptosis and lid retraction, weight loss, pretibial myxoedema, diarrhea, increased appetite, and irregular menstrual periods. It is important to note that while some of these symptoms can also occur in phaeochromocytoma, this condition is rare and typically accompanied by high blood pressure.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma. hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of dizziness. She is currently...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of dizziness. She is currently unable to leave her bed and is lying still. The dizziness symptoms are present at all times and not worsened by head position. She has vomited multiple times this morning. She had a respiratory infection last week that was treated with antibiotics and has now resolved. She had a similar episode 3 months ago, which lasted about five days and then resolved. On examination, she has an unsteady gait, normal hearing, and prominent horizontal nystagmus to the left side. The Hallpike maneuver was negative.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vestibular neuronitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between the various causes of vertigo can be challenging, but there are several clues in the question that can help determine the most likely cause. The sudden onset of severe fixed vertigo, not related to position, following a sinus infection suggests vestibular neuronitis rather than labyrinthitis. Vestibular neuronitis is typically characterized by severe vertigo without hearing loss or tinnitus.

      Here are the key clinical features of the different causes of vertigo mentioned in the question:

      Vestibular neuronitis:
      – Infection of the 8th cranial nerve, which can be viral or bacterial
      – Often preceded by a sinus infection or upper respiratory tract infection
      – Severe vertigo
      – Vertigo is not related to position
      – No hearing loss or tinnitus
      – Nausea and vomiting are common
      – Nystagmus (involuntary eye movement) away from the side of the lesion
      – Episodes may recur over an 18-month period

      Labyrinthitis:
      – Usually caused by a viral infection
      – Can affect the entire inner ear and 8th cranial nerve
      – Severe vertigo
      – Vertigo can be related to position
      – May be accompanied by sensorineural hearing loss and tinnitus
      – Nausea and vomiting are common
      – Nystagmus away from the side of the lesion

      Benign positional vertigo:
      – Often idiopathic (no known cause)
      – Can be secondary to trauma or other inner ear disorders
      – Triggered by head movement, rolling over, or looking upward
      – Brief episodes lasting less than 5 minutes
      – No hearing loss or tinnitus
      – Nausea is common, vomiting is rare
      – Positive Hallpike maneuver (a diagnostic test)

      Meniere’s disease:
      – Idiopathic (no known cause)
      – Sensorineural hearing loss
      – Hearing loss usually gradually progressive and affects one ear
      – Associated with tinnitus
      – Vertigo attacks typically last 2-3 hours
      – Attacks of vertigo last less than 24 hours
      – Sensation of fullness or pressure in the ear(s)
      – Nausea and vomiting are common
      – Nystagmus away from the side of the lesion
      – More common in individuals with migraines

      Acoustic neuroma:
      – Benign tumor of the 8th cranial nerve in the brain
      – Gradually worsening unilateral sensorineural hearing loss
      – Facial numbness and tingling

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 25 year old female is treated for anaphylaxis and responds well to...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old female is treated for anaphylaxis and responds well to treatment. You inform the patient that she will need to remain under observation. What is the minimum duration an adult patient should be observed following an episode of anaphylaxis?

      Your Answer: 6-12 hours

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, it is recommended that adults and young people aged 16 years or older who receive emergency treatment for suspected anaphylaxis should be observed for a minimum of 6-12 hours from the time symptoms first appear. There are certain situations where a longer observation period of 12 hours is advised. These include cases where the allergen is still being absorbed slowly, the patient required more than 2 doses of adrenaline, there is severe asthma or respiratory compromise, or if the presentation occurs at night or there is difficulty in accessing emergency care.

      Further Reading:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.

      In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.

      Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.

      The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.

      Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
      https://www.resus.org.uk/sites/default/files/2021-05/Emergency%20Treatment%20of%20Anaphylaxis%20May%202021_0.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 62-year-old male patient comes in with a recent onset left-sided headache accompanied...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old male patient comes in with a recent onset left-sided headache accompanied by feeling generally under the weather and decreased vision in his left eye. He mentioned that brushing his hair on the side of his headache has been painful. He has also been experiencing discomfort around his shoulder girdle for the past few weeks.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Temporal arteritis

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with a classic case of temporal arteritis, also known as giant cell arteritis (GCA). Temporal arteritis is a chronic condition characterized by inflammation in the walls of medium and large arteries, specifically granulomatous inflammation. It typically affects individuals who are over 50 years old.

      The clinical features of temporal arteritis include headache, tenderness in the scalp, jaw claudication, and episodes of sudden blindness or amaurosis fugax (usually occurring in one eye). Some patients may also experience systemic symptoms such as fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, weight loss, and depression.

      Temporal arteritis is often associated with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) in about 50% of cases. PMR is characterized by stiffness, aching, and tenderness in the upper arms (bilateral) and pain in the pelvic girdle.

      Visual loss is an early and significant complication of temporal arteritis, and once it occurs, it rarely improves. Therefore, early treatment with high-dose corticosteroids is crucial to prevent further visual loss and other ischemic complications. If temporal arteritis is suspected, immediate initiation of high-dose glucocorticosteroid treatment (40 – 60 mg prednisolone daily) is necessary. It is also important to arrange an urgent referral for specialist evaluation, including a same-day ophthalmology assessment for those with visual symptoms, and a temporal artery biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 14-year-old girl was cycling down a hill when a car backed up...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl was cycling down a hill when a car backed up in front of her, resulting in a collision. She visits the emergency department, reporting upper abdominal pain caused by the handlebars. You determine that a FAST scan is necessary. What is the main objective of performing a FAST scan for blunt abdominal trauma?

      Your Answer: Detect the presence of intraperitoneal fluid

      Explanation:

      The primary goal of performing a FAST scan in cases of blunt abdominal trauma is to identify the existence of intraperitoneal fluid. According to the Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM), the purpose of using ultrasound in the initial evaluation of abdominal trauma is specifically to confirm the presence of fluid within the peritoneal cavity, with the assumption that it is blood. However, it is important to note that ultrasound is not reliable for diagnosing injuries to solid organs or hollow viscus.

      Further Reading:

      Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.

      When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.

      In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.

      In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 22-year-old woman comes in with bloody diarrhea that has been persisting for...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman comes in with bloody diarrhea that has been persisting for a few days. She has recently returned from a backpacking adventure across various Middle Eastern and African nations.
      What is the SINGLE most probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli

      Correct Answer: Enterohaemorrhagic Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Traveller’s diarrhoea (TD) is a prevalent illness that affects travellers all around the world. It is estimated that up to 50% of Europeans who spend two or more weeks in developing regions experience TD. This condition is characterized by the passage of three or more loose stools within a 24-hour period. Typically, individuals with TD also experience abdominal cramps, nausea, and bloating.

      In most cases of gastroenteritis, there is no need for stool microscopy and culture. However, it is advisable to arrange these tests if the patient has recently returned from overseas travel, is severely ill, has prolonged symptoms, comes from an institution, or works as a food handler.

      Bacteria are responsible for approximately 80% of TD cases, while viruses and protozoa account for the remaining cases. The most common causative organism is Escherichia coli, with Enterohaemorrhagic Escherichia coli being the strain most likely to cause bloody diarrhoea.

      Infective causes of bloody diarrhoea include Campylobacter jejuni, Shigella spp., Salmonella spp., Clostridium difficile, Yersinia spp., Schistosomiasis, and Amoebiasis (Entamoeba histolytica).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with anxiety. She also exhibits symptoms of dry...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with anxiety. She also exhibits symptoms of dry mouth, coughing, lower body temperature, altered perception of time and space, and bloodshot eyes. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cannabis use

      Explanation:

      The clinical manifestations of cannabis use encompass various aspects. Firstly, it can amplify pre-existing mood states, leading to feelings of euphoria, depression, or anxiety. Additionally, cannabis can distort one’s perception of time and space, creating a sense of disorientation. It also enhances the enjoyment of aesthetic experiences, making them more pleasurable. Visual hallucinations may also occur as a result of cannabis use. Physiological effects include dry mouth, coughing, and irritation of the respiratory tract. Furthermore, cannabis use often leads to an increased appetite and a decrease in body temperature. Reddened eyes and respiratory tract irritation are also common symptoms associated with cannabis use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 72-year-old woman comes in with a history of passing fresh red blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman comes in with a history of passing fresh red blood mixed in with her last three bowel movements. She is experiencing low blood pressure, and her shock index is calculated to be 1.4.

      Which initial investigation is recommended for hospitalized patients with lower gastrointestinal bleeding who are in a state of hemodynamic instability?

      Your Answer: CT scan of abdomen

      Correct Answer: CT angiography

      Explanation:

      The British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) has developed guidelines for healthcare professionals who are assessing cases of acute lower intestinal bleeding in a hospital setting. These guidelines are particularly useful when determining which patients should be referred for further evaluation.

      When patients present with lower gastrointestinal bleeding (LGIB), they should be categorized as either unstable or stable. Unstable patients are defined as those with a shock index greater than 1, which is calculated by dividing the heart rate by the systolic blood pressure (HR/SBP).

      For stable patients, the next step is to determine whether their bleed is major (requiring hospitalization) or minor (suitable for outpatient management). This can be determined using a risk assessment tool called the Oakland risk score, which takes into account factors such as age, hemoglobin level, and findings from a digital rectal examination.

      Patients with a minor self-limiting bleed (e.g., an Oakland score of less than 8 points) and no other indications for hospital admission can be discharged with urgent follow-up for further investigation as an outpatient.

      Patients with a major bleed should be admitted to the hospital and scheduled for a colonoscopy as soon as possible.

      If a patient is hemodynamically unstable or has a shock index greater than 1 even after initial resuscitation, and there is suspicion of active bleeding, a CT angiography (CTA) should be considered. This can be followed by endoscopic or radiological therapy.

      If no bleeding source is identified by the initial CTA and the patient remains stable after resuscitation, an upper endoscopy should be performed immediately, as LGIB associated with hemodynamic instability may indicate an upper gastrointestinal bleeding source. Gastroscopy may be the first investigation if the patient stabilizes after initial resuscitation.

      If indicated, catheter angiography with the possibility of embolization should be performed as soon as possible after a positive CTA to increase the chances of success. In centers with a 24/7 interventional radiology service, this procedure should be available within 60 minutes for hemodynamically unstable patients.

      Emergency laparotomy should only be considered if all efforts to locate the bleeding using radiological and/or endoscopic methods have been exhausted, except in exceptional circumstances.

      In some cases, red blood cell transfusion may be necessary. It is recommended to use restrictive blood transfusion thresholds, such as a hemoglobin trigger of 7 g/dL and a target of 7-9 g/d

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      43.2
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department. As part of your treatment, a dose of adrenaline is given.
      Which of the following is NOT a beta-adrenergic effect of adrenaline?

      Your Answer: Transient hypoxaemia

      Correct Answer: Systemic vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      The effects of adrenaline on alpha-adrenergic receptors result in the narrowing of blood vessels throughout the body, leading to increased pressure in the coronary and cerebral arteries. On the other hand, the effects of adrenaline on beta-adrenergic receptors enhance the strength of the heart’s contractions and increase the heart rate, which can potentially improve blood flow to the coronary and cerebral arteries. However, it is important to note that these positive effects may be counteracted by the simultaneous increase in oxygen consumption by the heart, the occurrence of abnormal heart rhythms, reduced oxygen levels due to abnormal blood flow patterns, impaired small blood vessel function, and worsened heart function following a cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 35 year old woman is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old woman is brought into the emergency department after being rescued from a building fire. The patient does not appear to have sustained any major burns but reports that she was inhaling smoke for around 20 minutes before being rescued. What are the two types of poisoning that you would be most concerned about in this patient?

      Your Answer: Carbon monoxide and cyanide poisoning

      Explanation:

      When patients are exposed to the inhalation of combustion byproducts, they face the danger of being poisoned by carbon monoxide and cyanide. In situations where hydrocarbons and substances containing carbon and nitrogen are incompletely burned, the formation of both carbon monoxide and cyanide gas can occur. Individuals who inhale smoke are particularly vulnerable to this type of poisoning.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance following an...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance following an episode of fainting at home. The parents noticed that the girl suddenly collapsed and appeared pale. After lifting her up, she quickly regained consciousness and her color returned. After a thorough examination and investigation by the pediatric team, a diagnosis of a brief resolved unexplained event (BRUE) is made.
      Which of the following is NOT a recognized risk factor for a BRUE?

      Your Answer: High birth weight

      Explanation:

      The term Apparent Life-Threatening Event (ALTE) has traditionally been used to describe a specific type of event. However, in 2016, the American Academy of Paediatrics (AAP) recommended replacing ALTE with a new term called Brief Resolved Unexplained Event (BRUE).

      An ALTE is defined as an episode that is frightening to the observer and is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as apnoea (central or occasionally obstructive), color change (usually cyanotic or pallid but occasionally erythematous or plethoric), significant change in muscle tone (usually marked limpness), choking, or gagging. In some cases, the observer may even fear that the infant has died.

      On the other hand, BRUE has stricter criteria and is only applicable to episodes that occur in infants under 12 months old. A BRUE is characterized by being brief (lasting less than 1 minute, typically 2-30 seconds), resolved (the infant must have returned to their baseline state), and not explained by any identifiable medical condition. It must also exhibit at least one of the following symptoms: cyanosis or pallor, absent, decreased, or irregular breathing, marked change in muscle tone (hyper- or hypotonia), or altered level of responsiveness.

      To diagnose a BRUE, a thorough history and physical examination of the infant must be conducted, and no explanation for the event should be found. Additionally, there are several risk factors associated with the development of a BRUE, including prematurity, age less than ten weeks, recent anesthesia, airway or maxillofacial abnormalities, history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, previous apnoeic episode, recent upper respiratory tract infection. Low birth weight may also be a risk factor, while high birth weight has no recognized association with BRUEs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 32-year-old individual comes in with a recent onset of low back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old individual comes in with a recent onset of low back pain that has been getting worse over the past few days. They have been experiencing chills today and their temperature is elevated at 38°C.
      Which of the following is a warning sign that suggests an infectious origin for their back pain?

      Your Answer: Radicular pain

      Correct Answer: Use of immunosuppressant drugs

      Explanation:

      Infectious factors that can lead to back pain consist of discitis, vertebral osteomyelitis, and spinal epidural abscess. There are certain warning signs, known as red flags, that indicate the presence of an infectious cause for back pain. These red flags include experiencing a fever, having tuberculosis, being diabetic, having recently had a bacterial infection such as a urinary tract infection, engaging in intravenous drug use, and having a weakened immune system due to conditions like HIV or the use of immunosuppressant drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife following...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife following taking an overdose of one of his prescribed medications. Upon further questioning, you discover that he has taken an overdose of quetiapine. You discuss the case with your consultant, and she explains that the clinical features of this type of poisoning are due to central and peripheral acetylcholine receptor blockade.

      Which of the following clinical effects occurs as a result of peripheral acetylcholine receptor blockade?

      Your Answer: Mydriasis

      Explanation:

      Anticholinergic drugs work by blocking the effects of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter, in both the central and peripheral nervous systems. These drugs are commonly used in clinical practice and include antihistamines, typical and atypical antipsychotics, anticonvulsants, antidepressants, antispasmodics, antiemetics, antiparkinsonian agents, antimuscarinics, and certain plants. When someone ingests an anticholinergic drug, they may experience a toxidrome, which is characterized by an agitated delirium and various signs of acetylcholine receptor blockade in the central and peripheral systems.

      The central effects of anticholinergic drugs result in an agitated delirium, which is marked by fluctuating mental status, confusion, restlessness, visual hallucinations, picking at objects in the air, mumbling, slurred speech, disruptive behavior, tremor, myoclonus, and in rare cases, coma or seizures. On the other hand, the peripheral effects can vary and may include dilated pupils, sinus tachycardia, dry mouth, hot and flushed skin, increased body temperature, urinary retention, and ileus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 35 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of a...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of a growing area of redness that has been spreading from a mosquito bite for the past two days. Upon examination, you observe slightly tender redness on the right lower limb, which feels warm and mildly painful to touch. The patient does not have a fever, and vital signs are within normal range.

      You determine that the patient has mild cellulitis. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Discharge with oral flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Flucloxacillin is recommended as the initial treatment for mild cellulitis, according to NICE guidelines. The recommended dosage for flucloxacillin is 500-1000 mg taken four times a day for a period of 5-7 days. However, if a patient is allergic to penicillin or if flucloxacillin is not suitable for them, alternative medications such as clarithromycin, doxycycline, or erythromycin can be used as second-line options. It is important to note that for cellulitis near the eyes, co-amoxiclav is advised as the first-line treatment, while for cellulitis in patients with lymphedema who do not require hospital admission, amoxicillin is recommended as the first-line treatment.

      Further Reading:

      Cellulitis is an inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues caused by an infection, usually by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It commonly occurs on the shins and is characterized by symptoms such as erythema, pain, swelling, and heat. In some cases, there may also be systemic symptoms like fever and malaise.

      The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification to determine the appropriate management of cellulitis. Class I cellulitis refers to cases without signs of systemic toxicity or uncontrolled comorbidities. Class II cellulitis involves either systemic illness or the presence of a co-morbidity that may complicate or delay the resolution of the infection. Class III cellulitis is characterized by significant systemic upset or limb-threatening infection due to vascular compromise. Class IV cellulitis involves sepsis syndrome or a severe life-threatening infection like necrotizing fasciitis.

      According to the guidelines, patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. This also applies to patients with severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail individuals, immunocompromised patients, those with significant lymphedema, and those with facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild). Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the necessary facilities and expertise are available in the community to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.

      The recommended first-line treatment for mild to moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin. For patients allergic to penicillin, clarithromycin or clindamycin is recommended. In cases where patients have failed to respond to flucloxacillin, local protocols may suggest the use of oral clindamycin. Severe cellulitis should be treated with intravenous benzylpenicillin and flucloxacillin.

      Overall, the management of cellulitis depends on the severity of the infection and the presence of any systemic symptoms or complications. Prompt treatment with appropriate antibiotics is crucial to prevent further complications and promote healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 28 year old male presents to the emergency department after experiencing 4...

    Correct

    • A 28 year old male presents to the emergency department after experiencing 4 days of severe vomiting and diarrhea. A peripheral cannula is inserted, and blood samples are taken, revealing the following results:

      Na+ 135 mmol/L
      K+ 2.3 mmol/L
      Ur 8.8 mmol/L
      Cr 123 umol/L

      The medical team decides to administer intravenous fluids. They plan to infuse a 1 liter bag of 0.9% saline with 40 mmol of potassium chloride. What would be the most appropriate duration for this infusion?

      Your Answer: 4 hours

      Explanation:

      The recommended maximum infusion rate for IV fluids containing potassium is 10 mmol/hr in normal circumstances outside of the HDU/ICU setting, according to NHS SPS. However, in certain situations, higher infusion rates may be used. The BNF advises a maximum infusion rate of 20 mmol/hr for saline containing KCl, which is commonly administered to patients with DKA. If infusion rates exceed 10 mmol/hr, it is recommended to administer the fluids ideally in a HDU/level 2/ICU setting, through a central line, using an infusion pump, and with cardiac monitoring in place.

      Further Reading:

      Vasoactive drugs can be classified into three categories: inotropes, vasopressors, and unclassified. Inotropes are drugs that alter the force of muscular contraction, particularly in the heart. They primarily stimulate adrenergic receptors and increase myocardial contractility. Commonly used inotropes include adrenaline, dobutamine, dopamine, isoprenaline, and ephedrine.

      Vasopressors, on the other hand, increase systemic vascular resistance (SVR) by stimulating alpha-1 receptors, causing vasoconstriction. This leads to an increase in blood pressure. Commonly used vasopressors include norepinephrine, metaraminol, phenylephrine, and vasopressin.

      Electrolytes, such as potassium, are essential for proper bodily function. Solutions containing potassium are often given to patients to prevent or treat hypokalemia (low potassium levels). However, administering too much potassium can lead to hyperkalemia (high potassium levels), which can cause dangerous arrhythmias. It is important to monitor potassium levels and administer it at a controlled rate to avoid complications.

      Hyperkalemia can be caused by various factors, including excessive potassium intake, decreased renal excretion, endocrine disorders, certain medications, metabolic acidosis, tissue destruction, and massive blood transfusion. It can present with cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal, and neuromuscular symptoms. ECG changes, such as tall tented T-waves, prolonged PR interval, flat P-waves, widened QRS complex, and sine wave, are also characteristic of hyperkalemia.

      In summary, vasoactive drugs can be categorized as inotropes, vasopressors, or unclassified. Inotropes increase myocardial contractility, while vasopressors increase systemic vascular resistance. Electrolytes, particularly potassium, are important for bodily function, but administering too much can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and ECG changes is crucial in managing hyperkalemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of recurrent falls. She is accompanied...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of recurrent falls. She is accompanied by her daughter, who tells you that the falls have been getting worse over the past year and that she has also been acting strangely and showing signs of memory loss. Recently, she has also experienced several episodes of urinary incontinence. On examination, you observe that she has a wide-based, shuffling gait.

      What is the definitive treatment for the underlying condition in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Acetazolamide

      Correct Answer: Surgical insertion of a CSF shunt

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms that are characteristic of normal-pressure hydrocephalus (NPH). NPH is a type of communicating hydrocephalus where the pressure inside the skull, as measured through lumbar puncture, is either normal or occasionally elevated. It primarily affects elderly individuals, and the likelihood of developing NPH increases with age.

      Around 50% of NPH cases are idiopathic, meaning that no clear cause can be identified. The remaining cases are secondary to various conditions such as head injury, meningitis, subarachnoid hemorrhage, central nervous system tumors, and radiotherapy.

      The typical presentation of NPH includes a classic triad of symptoms: gait disturbance (often characterized by a broad-based and shuffling gait), sphincter disturbance leading to incontinence (usually urinary incontinence), and progressive dementia with memory loss, inattention, inertia, and bradyphrenia.

      Diagnosing NPH primarily relies on identifying the classic clinical triad mentioned above. Additional investigations can provide supportive evidence and may involve CT and MRI scans, which reveal enlarged ventricles and periventricular lucency. Lumbar puncture can also be performed to assess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) levels, which are typically normal or intermittently elevated. Intraventricular monitoring may show beta waves present for more than 5% of a 24-hour period.

      NPH is one of the few reversible causes of dementia, making early recognition and treatment crucial. Medical treatment options include the use of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (such as acetazolamide) and repeated lumbar punctures as temporary measures. However, the definitive treatment for NPH involves surgically inserting a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) shunt. This procedure provides lasting clinical benefits for 70% to 90% of patients compared to their pre-operative state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - You are treating an 82-year-old patient who is unable to bear weight after...

    Correct

    • You are treating an 82-year-old patient who is unable to bear weight after a fall. X-ray results confirm a fractured neck of femur. You inform the patient that they will be referred for surgery. In terms of the blood supply to the femoral neck, which artery is responsible for supplying blood to this area?

      Your Answer: Deep femoral artery

      Explanation:

      The femoral neck receives its blood supply from branches of the deep femoral artery, also known as the profunda femoris artery. The deep femoral artery gives rise to the medial and lateral circumflex branches, which form a network of blood vessels around the femoral neck.

      Further Reading:

      Fractured neck of femur is a common injury, especially in elderly patients who have experienced a low impact fall. Risk factors for this type of fracture include falls, osteoporosis, and other bone disorders such as metastatic cancers, hyperparathyroidism, and osteomalacia.

      There are different classification systems for hip fractures, but the most important differentiation is between intracapsular and extracapsular fractures. The blood supply to the femoral neck and head is primarily from ascending cervical branches that arise from an arterial anastomosis between the medial and lateral circumflex branches of the femoral arteries. Fractures in the intracapsular region can damage the blood supply and lead to avascular necrosis (AVN), with the risk increasing with displacement. The Garden classification can be used to classify intracapsular neck of femur fractures and determine the risk of AVN. Those at highest risk will typically require hip replacement or arthroplasty.

      Fractures below or distal to the capsule are termed extracapsular and can be further described as intertrochanteric or subtrochanteric depending on their location. The blood supply to the femoral neck and head is usually maintained with these fractures, making them amenable to surgery that preserves the femoral head and neck, such as dynamic hip screw fixation.

      Diagnosing hip fractures can be done through radiographs, with Shenton’s line and assessing the trabecular pattern of the proximal femur being helpful techniques. X-rays should be obtained in both the AP and lateral views, and if an occult fracture is suspected, an MRI or CT scan may be necessary.

      In terms of standards of care, it is important to assess the patient’s pain score within 15 minutes of arrival in the emergency department and provide appropriate analgesia within the recommended timeframes. Patients with moderate or severe pain should have their pain reassessed within 30 minutes of receiving analgesia. X-rays should be obtained within 120 minutes of arrival, and patients should be admitted within 4 hours of arrival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 72-year-old man presents with a severe exacerbation of his COPD. You have...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with a severe exacerbation of his COPD. You have been asked to administer a loading dose of aminophylline. He weighs 70 kg.
      What is the appropriate loading dose for him?

      Your Answer: 200 mg over 20 minutes

      Correct Answer: 300 mg over 15 minutes

      Explanation:

      The recommended daily oral dose for adults is 900 mg, which should be taken in 2-3 divided doses. For severe asthma or COPD, the initial intravenous dose is 5 mg/kg and should be administered over 10-20 minutes. This can be followed by a continuous infusion of 0.5 mg/kg/hour. In the case of a patient weighing 60 kg, the appropriate loading dose would be 300 mg. It is important to note that the therapeutic range for aminophylline is narrow, ranging from 10-20 microgram/ml. Therefore, it is beneficial to estimate the plasma concentration of aminophylline during long-term treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A 45-year-old construction worker comes in with intense lower back pain. He has...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old construction worker comes in with intense lower back pain. He has experienced back pain on and off for several years, but it has recently worsened significantly. He is walking with a noticeable limp, and during the examination, you observe that he has weakness in knee extension. You decide to conduct a digital rectal examination and discover that his anal sphincter tone is unexpectedly loose.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cauda equina syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious complication that can occur when a disc in the spine ruptures. This happens when the material from the disc is pushed into the spinal canal and puts pressure on a bundle of nerves in the lower back and sacrum. When this happens, it can lead to problems with controlling the bladder and bowels.

      There are certain signs that may indicate the presence of CES, which are known as red flags. These include experiencing sciatica on both sides of the body, having a severe or worsening neurological deficit in both legs, such as significant weakness in the muscles that extend the knee, turn the ankle outward, or lift the foot upward. Other red flags include difficulty starting to urinate or a decreased sensation of the flow of urine, a loss of feeling when the rectum is full, a loss of sensation in the perianal, perineal, or genital areas (also known as saddle anesthesia or paresthesia), and a looseness in the anal sphincter muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - You evaluate a 35-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with an anal...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 35-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with an anal fissure. He has been undergoing treatment for the last two months, which includes lactulose, senna, topical creams with local anesthetics, and topical GTN ointment. However, his symptoms continue to persist, and he describes the pain during bowel movements as intolerable.
      What would be the most suitable next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Topical diltiazem

      Correct Answer: Botulinum toxin injection

      Explanation:

      An anal fissure is a tear in the wall of the anal mucosa that exposes the circular muscle layer. The majority of these tears occur in the posterior midline. The most common cause is the passage of a large, hard stool after a period of constipation. If multiple fissures are present, it may indicate an underlying condition such as Crohn’s disease or tuberculosis.

      Both men and women are equally affected by anal fissures, and they are most commonly seen in individuals in their thirties. The typical symptoms of an anal fissure include intense, sharp pain during bowel movements, which can last up to an hour after passing stool. Additionally, there may be spots of bright red blood on the toilet paper when wiping, and a history of constipation.

      The initial management of an anal fissure involves non-operative measures such as using stool softeners and bulking agents. To alleviate the intense anal pain, analgesics and topical local anesthetics may be prescribed. According to a recent meta-analysis, first-line therapy should involve the use of topical GTN or diltiazem, with botulinum toxin being used as a rescue treatment if necessary (Modern perspectives in the treatment of chronic anal fissures. Ann R Coll Surg Engl. 2007 Jul;89(5):472-8.)

      Sphincterotomy, a surgical procedure, should be reserved for fissures that do not heal and has a success rate of 90%. Anal dilatation, also known as Lord’s procedure, is rarely used nowadays due to the high risk of subsequent fecal incontinence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - A 22 year old female presents to the emergency department with symptoms of...

    Correct

    • A 22 year old female presents to the emergency department with symptoms of headache, nausea, and vomiting. The patient has a history of being insulin dependent due to diabetes. Initial tests indicate that the patient is likely experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis. As part of the patient's treatment plan, you order an insulin infusion. What is an expected outcome of administering insulin in this situation?

      Your Answer: Increase blood pH

      Explanation:

      Insulin is known to have several effects on the body. One of its important functions is to increase blood pH. In patients with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), their blood pH is low due to acidosis. Insulin helps to correct this by reducing the levels of free fatty acids in the blood, which are responsible for the production of ketone bodies that contribute to acidosis. By doing so, insulin can increase the blood pH.

      Additionally, insulin plays a role in regulating glucose levels. It facilitates the movement of glucose from the blood into cells, leading to a decrease in blood glucose levels and an increase in intracellular glucose.

      Furthermore, insulin affects the balance of sodium and potassium in the body. It decreases the excretion of sodium by the kidneys and drives potassium from the blood into cells, resulting in a reduction in blood potassium levels. However, it is important to monitor potassium levels closely during insulin infusions, as if they become too low (hypokalemia), the infusion may need to be stopped.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.

      The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

      DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.

      The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.

      Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A 25-year-old man comes in with a persistent sore throat that has lasted...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes in with a persistent sore throat that has lasted for five days. He denies having a cough. During the examination, his temperature is measured at 39°C and a few tender anterior cervical lymph nodes are found. There is a noticeable amount of exudate on his right tonsil, which appears red and inflamed.

      What is his FeverPAIN score?

      Your Answer: 3

      Correct Answer: 4

      Explanation:

      The FeverPAIN score is a scoring system that is recommended by the current NICE guidelines for assessing acute sore throats. It consists of five items: fever in the last 24 hours, purulence, attendance within three days, inflamed tonsils, and no cough or coryza. Based on the score, different recommendations are given regarding the use of antibiotics.

      If the score is 0-1, it is unlikely to be a streptococcal infection, with only a 13-18% chance of streptococcus isolation. Therefore, antibiotics are not recommended in this case. If the score is 2-3, there is a higher chance (34-40%) of streptococcus isolation, so delayed prescribing of antibiotics is considered, with a 3-day ‘back-up prescription’. If the score is 4 or higher, there is a 62-65% chance of streptococcus isolation, and immediate antibiotic use is recommended if the infection is severe. Otherwise, a 48-hour short back-up prescription is suggested.

      The Fever PAIN score was developed from a study that included 1760 adults and children aged three and over. It was then tested in a trial that compared three different prescribing strategies: empirical delayed prescribing, using the score to guide prescribing, and combining the score with the use of a near-patient test (NPT) for streptococcus. The use of the score resulted in faster symptom resolution and a reduction in antibiotic prescribing, both by one third. However, the addition of the NPT did not provide any additional benefit.

      Overall, the FeverPAIN score is a useful tool for assessing acute sore throats and guiding antibiotic prescribing decisions. It has been shown to be effective in reducing unnecessary antibiotic use and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after collapsing...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after collapsing at home. The patient is observed to be hypotensive and drowsy upon arrival and is promptly transferred to the resuscitation bay. The patient's spouse informs you that the patient has been feeling sick with nausea and vomiting for the past 48 hours. It is important to note that the patient has a medical history of Addison's disease. What would be the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: 100mg IM hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      The first-line treatment for Addisonian (adrenal) crisis is hydrocortisone. This patient displays symptoms that indicate an Addisonian crisis, and the main components of their management involve administering hydrocortisone and providing intravenous fluids for resuscitation.

      Further Reading:

      Addison’s disease, also known as primary adrenal insufficiency or hypoadrenalism, is a rare disorder caused by the destruction of the adrenal cortex. This leads to reduced production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and adrenal androgens. The deficiency of cortisol results in increased production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) due to reduced negative feedback to the pituitary gland. This condition can cause metabolic disturbances such as hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, hypercalcemia, and hypoglycemia.

      The symptoms of Addison’s disease can vary but commonly include fatigue, weight loss, muscle weakness, and low blood pressure. It is more common in women and typically affects individuals between the ages of 30-50. The most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in developed countries is autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. Other causes include tuberculosis, adrenal metastases, meningococcal septicaemia, HIV, and genetic disorders.

      The diagnosis of Addison’s disease is often suspected based on low cortisol levels and electrolyte abnormalities. The adrenocorticotropic hormone stimulation test is commonly used for confirmation. Other investigations may include adrenal autoantibodies, imaging scans, and genetic screening.

      Addisonian crisis is a potentially life-threatening condition that occurs when there is an acute deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed Addison’s disease. Precipitating factors of an Addisonian crisis include infection, dehydration, surgery, trauma, physiological stress, pregnancy, hypoglycemia, and acute withdrawal of long-term steroids. Symptoms of an Addisonian crisis include malaise, fatigue, nausea or vomiting, abdominal pain, fever, muscle pains, dehydration, confusion, and loss of consciousness.

      There is no fixed consensus on diagnostic criteria for an Addisonian crisis, as symptoms are non-specific. Investigations may include blood tests, blood gas analysis, and septic screens if infection is suspected. Management involves administering hydrocortisone and fluids. Hydrocortisone is given parenterally, and the dosage varies depending on the age of the patient. Fluid resuscitation with saline is necessary to correct any electrolyte disturbances and maintain blood pressure. The underlying cause of the crisis should also be identified and treated. Close monitoring of sodium levels is important to prevent complications such as osmotic demyelination syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - A 40-year-old woman presents with a painful, swollen right ankle following a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with a painful, swollen right ankle following a recent hike in the mountains. You assess her for a possible sprained ankle.
      At which of the following locations do the NICE guidelines recommend that you measure the ankle circumference?

      Your Answer: 5 cm below the tibial tuberosity

      Correct Answer: 10 cm below the tibial tuberosity

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines for suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) suggest considering the possibility of DVT if typical symptoms and signs are present, particularly if the person has risk factors like previous venous thromboembolism and immobility.

      Typical signs and symptoms of DVT include unilateral localized pain (often throbbing) that occurs during walking or bearing weight, as well as calf swelling (or, less commonly, swelling of the entire leg). Other signs to look out for are tenderness, skin changes such as edema, redness, and warmth, and vein distension.

      To rule out other potential causes for the symptoms and signs, it is important to conduct a physical examination and review the person’s general medical history.

      When assessing leg and thigh swelling, it is recommended to measure the circumference of the leg 10 cm below the tibial tuberosity and compare it with the unaffected leg. A difference of more than 3 cm between the two legs increases the likelihood of DVT.

      Additionally, it is important to check for edema and dilated collateral superficial veins on the affected side.

      To assess the likelihood of DVT and guide further management, the two-level DVT Wells score can be used.

      For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on deep vein thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      12.9
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - There is a high number of casualties reported after a suspected CBRN (chemical,...

    Correct

    • There is a high number of casualties reported after a suspected CBRN (chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear) incident. It is believed that sarin gas is the responsible agent. Which of the following antidotes can be administered for sarin gas exposure?

      Your Answer: Pralidoxime

      Explanation:

      The primary approach to managing nerve gas exposure through medication involves the repeated administration of antidotes. The two antidotes utilized for this purpose are atropine and pralidoxime.

      Atropine is the standard anticholinergic medication employed to address the symptoms associated with nerve agent poisoning. It functions as an antagonist for muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, effectively blocking the effects caused by excessive acetylcholine. Initially, a 1.2 mg intravenous bolus of atropine is administered. This dosage is then repeated and doubled every 2-3 minutes until excessive bronchial secretion ceases and miosis (excessive constriction of the pupil) resolves. In some cases, as much as 100 mg of atropine may be necessary.

      Pralidoxime (2-PAMCl) is the standard oxime used in the treatment of nerve agent poisoning. Its mechanism of action involves reactivating acetylcholinesterase by scavenging the phosphoryl group attached to the functional hydroxyl group of the enzyme, thereby counteracting the effects of the nerve agent itself. For patients who are moderately or severely poisoned, pralidoxime should be administered intravenously at a dosage of 30 mg/kg of body weight (or 2 g in the case of an adult) over a period of four minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Major Incident Management & PHEM
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 32 year old has undergone reduction of fracture-dislocation to the right shoulder...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old has undergone reduction of fracture-dislocation to the right shoulder under procedural sedation. Following the reduction, the patient reports feeling nauseated and subsequently vomits. What is the most significant risk factor for postoperative nausea and vomiting?

      Your Answer: Female gender

      Explanation:

      The most significant factor in predicting postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) is being female. Females are three times more likely than males to experience PONV. Additionally, not smoking increases the risk of PONV by about two times. Having a history of motion sickness, PONV, or both also approximately doubles the risk of PONV. Age is another factor, with older adults being less likely to suffer from PONV. In children, those below 3 years of age have a lower risk of PONV compared to those older than 3.

      Further Reading:

      postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) is a common occurrence following procedures performed under sedation or anesthesia. It can be highly distressing for patients. Several risk factors have been identified for PONV, including female gender, a history of PONV or motion sickness, non-smoking status, patient age, use of volatile anesthetics, longer duration of anesthesia, perioperative opioid use, use of nitrous oxide, and certain types of surgery such as abdominal and gynecological procedures.

      To manage PONV, antiemetics are commonly used. These medications work by targeting different receptors in the body. Cyclizine and promethazine are histamine H1-receptor antagonists, which block the action of histamine and help reduce nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron is a serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist, which blocks the action of serotonin and is effective in preventing and treating PONV. Prochlorperazine is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist, which blocks the action of dopamine and helps alleviate symptoms of nausea and vomiting. Metoclopramide is also a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist and a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist, providing dual action against PONV. It is also a 5-HT4 receptor agonist, which helps improve gastric emptying and reduces the risk of PONV.

      Assessment and management of PONV involves a comprehensive approach. Healthcare professionals need to assess the patient’s risk factors for PONV and take appropriate measures to prevent its occurrence. This may include selecting the appropriate anesthesia technique, using antiemetics prophylactically, and providing adequate pain control. In cases where PONV does occur, prompt treatment with antiemetics should be initiated to alleviate symptoms and provide relief to the patient. Close monitoring of the patient’s condition and response to treatment is essential to ensure effective management of PONV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 62 year old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of abrupt...

    Correct

    • A 62 year old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of abrupt tearing chest pain that extends to the throat and back. The possibility of aortic dissection is being considered. What is the primary location for dissection?

      Your Answer: Ascending aorta

      Explanation:

      The primary location for aortic dissection, which is being considered in this case, is the ascending aorta.

      Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition in which blood flows through a tear in the innermost layer of the aorta, creating a false lumen. Prompt treatment is necessary as the mortality rate increases by 1-2% per hour. There are different classifications of aortic dissection, with the majority of cases being proximal. Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, connective tissue disorders, family history, and certain medical procedures.

      The presentation of aortic dissection typically includes sudden onset sharp chest pain, often described as tearing or ripping. Back pain and abdominal pain are also common, and the pain may radiate to the neck and arms. The clinical picture can vary depending on which aortic branches are affected, and complications such as organ ischemia, limb ischemia, stroke, myocardial infarction, and cardiac tamponade may occur. Common signs and symptoms include a blood pressure differential between limbs, pulse deficit, and a diastolic murmur.

      Various investigations can be done to diagnose aortic dissection, including ECG, CXR, and CT with arterial contrast enhancement (CTA). CT is the investigation of choice due to its accuracy in diagnosis and classification. Other imaging techniques such as transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE), magnetic resonance imaging/angiography (MRI/MRA), and digital subtraction angiography (DSA) are less commonly used.

      Management of aortic dissection involves pain relief, resuscitation measures, blood pressure control, and referral to a vascular or cardiothoracic team. Opioid analgesia should be given for pain relief, and resuscitation measures such as high flow oxygen and large bore IV access should be performed. Blood pressure control is crucial, and medications such as labetalol may be used to reduce systolic blood pressure. Hypotension carries a poor prognosis and may require careful fluid resuscitation. Treatment options depend on the type of dissection, with type A dissections typically requiring urgent surgery and type B dissections managed by thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) and blood pressure control optimization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - You evaluate a 45-year-old Asian man with a heart murmur. During auscultation, you...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 45-year-old Asian man with a heart murmur. During auscultation, you observe a loud first heart sound and a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex. Upon examination, you observe that he has plum-red discoloration of his cheeks.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      The clinical symptoms of mitral stenosis include shortness of breath, which tends to worsen during exercise and when lying flat. Tiredness, palpitations, ankle swelling, cough, and haemoptysis are also common symptoms. Chest discomfort is rarely reported.

      The clinical signs of mitral stenosis can include a malar flush, an irregular pulse if atrial fibrillation is present, a tapping apex beat that can be felt as the first heart sound, and a left parasternal heave if there is pulmonary hypertension. The first heart sound is often loud, and a mid-diastolic murmur can be heard.

      The mid-diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis is a rumbling sound that is best heard at the apex, in the left lateral position during expiration, using the bell of the stethoscope.

      Mitral stenosis is typically caused by rheumatic heart disease, and it is more common in females, with about two-thirds of patients being female.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A fit and healthy 40-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of facial...

    Correct

    • A fit and healthy 40-year-old woman presents with a sudden onset of facial palsy that began 48 hours ago. After conducting a thorough history and examination, the patient is diagnosed with Bell's palsy.
      Which of the following statements about Bell's palsy is accurate?

      Your Answer: ‘Bell’s phenomenon’ is the rolling upwards and outwards of the eye on the affected side when attempting to close the eye and bare the teeth

      Explanation:

      Bell’s palsy is a condition characterized by a facial paralysis that affects the lower motor neurons. It can be distinguished from an upper motor neuron lesion by the inability to raise the eyebrow and the involvement of the upper facial muscles.

      One distinctive feature of Bell’s palsy is the occurrence of Bell’s phenomenon, which refers to the upward and outward rolling of the eye on the affected side when attempting to close the eye and bare the teeth.

      Approximately 80% of sudden onset lower motor neuron facial palsies are attributed to Bell’s palsy. It is believed that this condition is caused by swelling of the facial nerve within the petrous temporal bone, which is secondary to a latent herpesvirus, specifically HSV-1 and HZV.

      Unlike some other conditions, Bell’s palsy does not lead to sensorineural deafness and tinnitus.

      Treatment options for Bell’s palsy include the use of steroids and acyclovir.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      18.1
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  • Question 78 - A 6-month-old infant develops jaundice and is found to have a diagnosis of...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old infant develops jaundice and is found to have a diagnosis of haemolytic disease of infancy.
      Which immunoglobulins mediate haemolytic disease of infancy?

      Your Answer: IgG

      Explanation:

      Haemolytic disease of the newborn is a condition that occurs in the fetus when IgG antibodies from the mother pass through the placenta. This is classified as a type II hypersensitivity reaction, also known as cytotoxic hypersensitivity. In this type of reaction, antibodies produced by the immune response attach to antigens on the patient’s own cell surfaces.

      The rhesus gene is composed of three parts, which can be C or c, D or d, and E or e. Approximately 15% of the population consists of rhesus negative women who are homozygous for d. When rhesus-positive fetal cells enter the bloodstream of a rhesus-negative mother, maternal anti-D IgG antibodies may be produced. This commonly occurs during delivery, but can also happen after fetal-maternal hemorrhage and certain medical procedures.

      Some other examples of type II hypersensitivity reactions include autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ANCA-associated vasculitides, Goodpasture’s syndrome, myasthenia gravis, and rhesus incompatibility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - A healthy and active 45-year-old woman comes in with paralysis of the facial...

    Correct

    • A healthy and active 45-year-old woman comes in with paralysis of the facial muscles on the right side. She is unable to frown or raise her eyebrow on the right side. When instructed to close her eyes and bare her teeth, the right eyeball rolls up and outwards. These symptoms began 24 hours ago. She has no significant medical history, and the rest of her examination appears normal.

      What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Bell’s palsy

      Explanation:

      The patient has presented with a facial palsy that affects only the left side and involves the lower motor neurons. This can be distinguished from an upper motor neuron lesion because the patient is unable to raise their eyebrow and the upper facial muscles are also affected. Additionally, the patient demonstrates a phenomenon known as Bell’s phenomenon, where the eye on the affected side rolls upwards and outwards when attempting to close the eye and bare the teeth.

      Approximately 80% of sudden onset lower motor neuron facial palsies are attributed to Bell’s palsy. It is believed that this condition is caused by swelling of the facial nerve within the petrous temporal bone, which is secondary to a latent herpesvirus, specifically HSV-1 and HZV.

      There are other potential causes for an isolated lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, including Ramsay-Hunt syndrome (caused by the herpes zoster virus), trauma, parotid gland tumor, cerebellopontine angle tumor (such as an acoustic neuroma), middle ear infection, cholesteatoma, and sarcoidosis.

      However, Ramsay-Hunt syndrome is unlikely in this case since there is no presence of pain or pustular lesions in and around the ear. An acoustic neuroma is also less likely, especially without any symptoms of sensorineural deafness or tinnitus. Furthermore, there are no clinical features consistent with an inner ear infection.

      The recommended treatment for this patient is the administration of steroids, and appropriate follow-up should be organized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 72 year old female is brought into the emergency department due to...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old female is brought into the emergency department due to near-fainting. Whilst in the department, the patient loses consciousness and upon examination, no pulse is detected. You begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Which two medications (aside from oxygen) are administered as part of the advanced life support resuscitation protocol?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline and amiodarone

      Explanation:

      According to the ALS algorithm, the main drugs used during CPR are oxygen, adrenaline, and amiodarone. Adrenaline is administered every 3-5 minutes as per the 2021 UK ALS algorithm. Amiodarone is given after 3 shocks.

      Further Reading:

      In the event of an adult experiencing cardiorespiratory arrest, it is crucial for doctors to be familiar with the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm. They should also be knowledgeable about the proper technique for chest compressions, the appropriate rhythms for defibrillation, the reversible causes of arrest, and the drugs used in advanced life support.

      During chest compressions, the rate should be between 100-120 compressions per minute, with a depth of compression of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths should be 30:2. It is important to change the person giving compressions regularly to prevent fatigue.

      There are two shockable ECG rhythms that doctors should be aware of: ventricular fibrillation (VF) and pulseless ventricular tachycardia (pVT). These rhythms require defibrillation.

      There are four reversible causes of cardiorespiratory arrest, known as the 4 H’s and 4 T’s. The 4 H’s include hypoxia, hypovolemia, hypo or hyperkalemia or metabolic abnormalities, and hypothermia. The 4 T’s include thrombosis (coronary or pulmonary), tension pneumothorax, tamponade, and toxins. Identifying and treating these reversible causes is crucial for successful resuscitation.

      When it comes to resus drugs, they are considered of secondary importance during CPR due to the lack of high-quality evidence for their efficacy. However, adrenaline (epinephrine) and amiodarone are the two drugs included in the ALS algorithm. Doctors should be familiar with the dosing, route, and timing of administration for both drugs.

      Adrenaline should be administered intravenously at a concentration of 1 in 10,000 (100 micrograms/mL). It should be repeated every 3-5 minutes. Amiodarone is initially given at a dose of 300 mg, either from a pre-filled syringe or diluted in 20 mL of Glucose 5%. If required, an additional dose of 150 mg can be given by intravenous injection. This is followed by an intravenous infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours. The first dose of amiodarone is given after 3 shocks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      25.2
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  • Question 81 - A 60-year-old man who has recently finished a course of antibiotics for a...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man who has recently finished a course of antibiotics for a respiratory infection comes in with excessive, foul-smelling diarrhea. After conducting tests, the patient is diagnosed with Clostridium Difficile diarrhea.
      What is the most effective measure to minimize transmission to other patients?

      Your Answer: Hand washing

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is Gram-positive, anaerobic, and capable of forming spores. When individuals take broad-spectrum antibiotics, it can disrupt the normal bacteria in their intestines, allowing C. difficile to multiply and cause C. difficile associated diarrhea (CDAD). This condition leads to inflammation and bleeding of the large intestine, resulting in a distinct pseudomembranous appearance. The main symptoms include abdominal cramps, bloody and/or watery diarrhea, and fever. It is worth noting that the majority of C. difficile infections occur in individuals aged 65 and above.

      To prevent the spread of C. difficile, it is crucial to practice proper hand hygiene. This involves washing hands with water and plain or antibacterial soap for 15 to 30 seconds after using the bathroom and before eating. Paying attention to areas such as the fingernails, between the fingers, and the wrists is essential. Thoroughly rinsing hands and drying them with a single-use towel is also recommended. Additionally, patients and their family members should remind healthcare providers to wash their hands regularly.

      While alcohol-based hand rubs can be effective against many bacteria, they may be less effective against C. difficile. Therefore, during an outbreak of C. difficile infection, it is advisable to use soap and running water instead.

      Taking precautions such as wearing an apron and gloves and isolating patients in separate rooms are important measures to prevent contact transmission. However, it is crucial to remember that these precautions will be ineffective if proper hand washing is neglected. Hand hygiene remains the primary and most crucial step in preventing the spread of C. difficile.

      When it comes to treatment, oral vancomycin is the recommended first-line option for C. difficile associated diarrhea. However, it is important to note that this treatment does not limit the spread of the bacteria from one patient to another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A 42-year-old woman comes in with retrosternal central chest discomfort that has been...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in with retrosternal central chest discomfort that has been ongoing for the past 48 hours. The discomfort intensifies with deep breaths and when lying flat, but eases when she sits upright. Additionally, the discomfort radiates to both of her shoulders. Her ECG reveals widespread concave ST elevation and PR depression. You strongly suspect a diagnosis of pericarditis.
      Which nerve is accountable for the pattern of her discomfort?

      Your Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      Pericarditis refers to the inflammation of the pericardium, which can be caused by various factors such as infections (typically viral, like coxsackie virus), drug-induced reactions (e.g. isoniazid, cyclosporine), trauma, autoimmune conditions (e.g. SLE), paraneoplastic syndromes, uraemia, post myocardial infarction (known as Dressler’s syndrome), post radiotherapy, and post cardiac surgery.

      The clinical presentation of pericarditis often includes retrosternal chest pain that is pleuritic in nature. This pain is typically relieved by sitting forwards and worsened when lying flat. It may also radiate to the shoulders. Other symptoms may include shortness of breath, tachycardia, and the presence of a pericardial friction rub.

      The pericardium receives sensory supply from the phrenic nerve, which also provides sensory innervation to the diaphragm, various mediastinal structures, and certain abdominal structures such as the superior peritoneum, liver, and gallbladder. Since the phrenic nerve originates from the 4th cervical nerve, which also provides cutaneous innervation to the front of the shoulder girdle, pain from pericarditis can also radiate to the shoulders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 25-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her roommate after...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her roommate after intentionally overdosing on amitriptyline. You administer activated charcoal. Which other medication, listed as an antidote by RCEM/NPIS, can be used to treat tricyclic overdose?

      Your Answer: Intralipid

      Correct Answer: Sodium bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Sodium bicarbonate is recommended as a treatment for TCA overdose according to the latest guidelines from RCEM and NPIS in 2021. Previous editions also suggested using glucagon if IV fluids and sodium bicarbonate were ineffective in treating the overdose.

      Further Reading:

      Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.

      TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.

      Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.

      Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.

      There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 10 year old boy is brought into the emergency department after falling...

    Correct

    • A 10 year old boy is brought into the emergency department after falling through the ice while playing on a frozen pond. The child was submerged up to his waist and it took his friends approximately 10-15 minutes to pull him out of the water completely. The child then spent an additional 10 minutes outside in wet clothes with an air temperature of -4ºC before an adult arrived and took him to the emergency department. A core temperature reading is taken and recorded as 29.6ºC. How would you best classify the patient?

      Your Answer: Moderate hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Moderate hypothermia is indicated by core temperatures ranging from 28-32ºC.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in depressed myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.

      In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.

      Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.

      Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      3.6
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  • Question 85 - A 45-year-old man with a history of bipolar affective disorder presents having ingested...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man with a history of bipolar affective disorder presents having ingested an excessive amount of his lithium medication. You measure his lithium level.
      At what level are toxic effects typically observed?

      Your Answer: 1.5 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      The therapeutic range for lithium typically falls between 0.4-0.8 mmol/l, although this range may differ depending on the laboratory. In general, the lower end of the range is the desired level for maintenance therapy and treatment in older individuals. Toxic effects are typically observed when levels exceed 1.5 mmol/l.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - You evaluate the airway and breathing of a child who has been brought...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate the airway and breathing of a child who has been brought into the emergency room by an ambulance after being rescued from a house fire. You suspect that the child may have signs of airway obstruction.
      Which of the following statements about managing the airway and breathing in burned patients is correct?

      Your Answer: 100% oxygen should be continued until carboxyhaemoglobin levels fall to <5%

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Patients who have suffered burns should receive high-flow oxygen (15 L) through a reservoir bag while their breathing is being evaluated. If intubation is necessary, it is crucial to use an appropriately sized endotracheal tube (ETT). Using a tube that is too small can make it difficult or even impossible to ventilate the patient, clear secretions, or perform bronchoscopy.

      According to the ATLS guidelines, adults should be intubated using an ETT with an internal diameter (ID) of at least 7.5 mm or larger. Children, on the other hand, should have an ETT with an ID of at least 4.5 mm. Once a patient has been intubated, it is important to continue administering 100% oxygen until their carboxyhemoglobin levels drop to less than 5%.

      To protect the lungs, it is recommended to use lung protective ventilation techniques. This involves using low tidal volumes (4-8 mL/kg) and ensuring that peak inspiratory pressures do not exceed 30 cmH2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 25-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with swollen lips and a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with swollen lips and a rash all over her body. According to her friend, she had recently consumed a sandwich. Anaphylaxis is suspected. You inquire about her medication use, and she presents a packet of propranolol. In addition to the usual treatment, which drug should be taken into consideration for this patient?

      Your Answer: Glucagon

      Explanation:

      Glucagon may be an option for individuals experiencing anaphylaxis while taking beta blockers. However, it should not be chosen over Adrenaline as the primary treatment. Glucagon stimulates the production of cyclic AMP, which helps to increase heart contractility and heart rate, both of which are necessary during anaphylaxis. It is important to note that rapid administration of glucagon may lead to adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting.

      Further Reading:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.

      In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.

      Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.

      The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.

      Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
      https://www.resus.org.uk/sites/default/files/2021-05/Emergency%20Treatment%20of%20Anaphylaxis%20May%202021_0.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      13.8
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  • Question 88 - You evaluate a 7-year-old girl with a rash covered in honey-colored crust on...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 7-year-old girl with a rash covered in honey-colored crust on her face and diagnose her with impetigo. You prescribe a topical fusidic acid treatment. The parents of the child would like to know the duration she should be kept away from school.

      What is the recommended period for keeping her away from school due to this infection?

      Your Answer: 5 days after starting antibiotic therapy

      Correct Answer: 48 hours after starting antibiotic therapy

      Explanation:

      Public Health England advises that children with impetigo should not attend school, nursery, or be under the care of childminders until the sores have formed a crust or until 48 hours after starting antibiotic treatment. Antibiotics help accelerate the healing process and decrease the period of contagiousness.

      For more information, please refer to the Guidance on Infection Control in Schools and other Childcare Settings.
      https://www.publichealth.hscni.net/sites/default/files/Guidance_on_infection_control_in%20schools_poster.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A patient with a previous complaint of upper abdominal pain and frequent bowel...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a previous complaint of upper abdominal pain and frequent bowel movements is diagnosed with a tapeworm infection. The infection was acquired after consuming a pork dish that was contaminated with the parasite.

      Which of the following organisms is the most probable cause of this infestation?

      Your Answer: Taenia saginata

      Correct Answer: Taenia solium

      Explanation:

      Two types of tapeworms, Taenia solium and Taenia saginata, can infest humans. Infestation occurs when people consume meat from intermediate hosts that contain the parasite’s tissue stages. Tapeworms compete for nutrients and infestation is often without symptoms. However, in more severe cases, individuals may experience epigastric pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in the patient’s stool.

      Taenia solium infestation can also lead to a condition called cysticercosis. This occurs when larval cysts infiltrate and spread throughout the lung, liver, eye, or brain. Cysticercosis presents with neurological symptoms, seizures, and impaired vision. Confirmation of cysticercosis involves the presence of antibodies and imaging tests such as chest X-rays and CT brain scans.

      The treatment for tapeworm infestation is highly effective and involves the use of medications like niclosamide or praziquantel. However, it is important to seek specialist advice when managing Taenia infections in the central nervous system, as severe inflammatory reactions can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      17.9
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  • Question 90 - You review a 30-year-old woman with a known diagnosis of HIV. She asks...

    Correct

    • You review a 30-year-old woman with a known diagnosis of HIV. She asks you some questions about her diagnosis.
      What is the median incubation period from HIV infection until the development of advanced HIV disease (also referred to as AIDS)?

      Your Answer: 10 years

      Explanation:

      The estimated median incubation period from HIV infection to the onset of advanced HIV disease, also known as AIDS, is around ten years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - The right of capable individuals to make well-informed choices regarding their personal healthcare...

    Incorrect

    • The right of capable individuals to make well-informed choices regarding their personal healthcare pertains to which of the subsequent principles?

      Your Answer: Capacity

      Correct Answer: Autonomy

      Explanation:

      The principle of autonomy pertains to the right of capable individuals to make well-informed choices regarding their personal healthcare. Autonomy emphasizes the importance of respecting an individual’s ability to make decisions about their own health, based on their own values, beliefs, and preferences. It recognizes that individuals have the right to be informed about their healthcare options, to give informed consent, and to have their choices respected by healthcare providers. Autonomy is a fundamental principle in medical ethics that promotes patient-centered care and respects the individual’s right to self-determination.

      Further Reading:

      Principles of Medical Ethics:

      1. Autonomy: Competent adults have the right to make informed decisions about their own medical care.
      2. Beneficence: Healthcare professionals should take actions that serve the best interests of patients.
      3. Non-maleficence: Healthcare professionals should not take actions that may injure or harm patients.
      4. Justice: Healthcare professionals should take actions that are fair and equitable to both the individual and society as a whole.

      Confidentiality:

      1. Use minimum necessary personal information and consider anonymizing information if possible.
      2. Manage and protect personal information to prevent improper access, disclosure, or loss.
      3. Understand and adhere to information governance appropriate to your role.
      4. Comply with the law when handling personal information.
      5. Share relevant information for direct care unless the patient objects.
      6. Obtain explicit consent to disclose identifiable information for purposes other than care or local clinical audit, unless required by law or justified in the public interest.
      7. Inform patients about disclosures of personal information they would not reasonably expect, unless not practicable or undermines the purpose of the disclosure.
      8. Support patients in accessing their information and respecting their legal rights.

      Obtaining Patient’s Consent for Disclosure:

      – Consent should be obtained for disclosing personal information for purposes other than direct care or local clinical audit, unless required by law or not appropriate or practicable.

      Situations Where Patient Consent is Not Required for Disclosure:

      – Adults at risk of or suffering abuse or neglect, as required by law.
      – Adults lacking capacity, if neglect or harm is suspected, unless not overall beneficial to the patient.
      – When required by law or approved through a statutory process.
      – When justified in the public interest, such as for the prevention, detection, or prosecution of serious crime, patient’s fitness to drive, serious communicable disease, or posing a serious risk to others through being unfit for work.

      Confidentiality Following a Patient’s Death:

      – Respect the patient’s confidentiality even after their death.
      – If the patient previously requested not to share personal information with those close to them, abide by their wishes.
      – Be considerate, sensitive, and responsive to those close to the patient, providing as much information as possible.

      The Law & Caldicott Guardians:

      Data Protection Act:
      – Sets rules and standards for the use and handling of personal data by organizations.
      – Personal data must be used fairly, lawfully, transparently, and for specified purposes.
      – Individuals have rights

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A 60-year-old woman presents with a history of passing fresh red blood mixed...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with a history of passing fresh red blood mixed in with her last three bowel movements. She has had her bowels open four times in the past 24 hours. On examination, she is haemodynamically stable with a pulse of 80 bpm and a BP of 120/77. Her abdomen is soft and nontender, and there is no obvious source of anorectal bleeding on rectal examination.
      Which risk assessment tool is recommended by the British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) guidelines to assess the severity of stable lower gastrointestinal bleeds?

      Your Answer: Glasgow-Blatchford score

      Correct Answer: Oakland score

      Explanation:

      The British Society of Gastroenterology (BSG) has developed guidelines for healthcare professionals who are assessing cases of acute lower intestinal bleeding in a hospital setting. These guidelines are particularly useful when determining which patients should be referred for further evaluation.

      When patients present with lower gastrointestinal bleeding (LGIB), they should be categorized as either unstable or stable. Unstable patients are defined as those with a shock index greater than 1, which is calculated by dividing the heart rate by the systolic blood pressure (HR/SBP).

      For stable patients, the next step is to determine whether their bleed is major (requiring hospitalization) or minor (suitable for outpatient management). This can be determined using a risk assessment tool called the Oakland risk score, which takes into account factors such as age, hemoglobin level, and findings from a digital rectal examination.

      Patients with a minor self-limiting bleed (e.g., an Oakland score of less than 8 points) and no other indications for hospital admission can be discharged with urgent follow-up for further investigation as an outpatient.

      Patients with a major bleed should be admitted to the hospital and scheduled for a colonoscopy as soon as possible.

      If a patient is hemodynamically unstable or has a shock index greater than 1 even after initial resuscitation, and there is suspicion of active bleeding, a CT angiography (CTA) should be considered. This can be followed by endoscopic or radiological therapy.

      If no bleeding source is identified by the initial CTA and the patient remains stable after resuscitation, an upper endoscopy should be performed immediately, as LGIB associated with hemodynamic instability may indicate an upper gastrointestinal bleeding source. Gastroscopy may be the first investigation if the patient stabilizes after initial resuscitation.

      If indicated, catheter angiography with the possibility of embolization should be performed as soon as possible after a positive CTA to increase the chances of success. In centers with a 24/7 interventional radiology service, this procedure should be available within 60 minutes for hemodynamically unstable patients.

      Emergency laparotomy should only be considered if all efforts to locate the bleeding using radiological and/or endoscopic methods have been exhausted, except in exceptional circumstances.

      In some cases, red blood cell transfusion may be necessary. It is recommended to use restrictive blood transfusion thresholds, such as a hemoglobin trigger of 7 g/dL and a target of 7-9 g/d

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 3-year-old girl presents with stridor and a barking cough. Her mother reports...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl presents with stridor and a barking cough. Her mother reports that she has had a slight cold for a few days and her voice had been hoarse. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.1°C, heart rate 135, respiratory rate 30, oxygen saturation 97% on room air. Her chest examination is unremarkable, but you observe the presence of stridor at rest.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Croup

      Explanation:

      Croup, also known as laryngo-tracheo-bronchitis, is typically caused by the parainfluenza virus. Other viruses such as rhinovirus, influenza, and respiratory syncytial viruses can also be responsible. Before the onset of stridor, there is often a mild cold-like illness that lasts for 1-2 days. Symptoms usually reach their peak within 1-3 days, with the cough often being more troublesome at night. A milder cough may persist for another 7-10 days.

      A distinctive feature of croup is a barking cough, but it does not indicate the severity of the condition. To reduce airway swelling, dexamethasone and prednisolone are commonly prescribed. If a child is experiencing vomiting, nebulized budesonide can be used as an alternative. However, it is important to note that steroids do not shorten the duration of the illness. In severe cases, nebulized adrenaline can be administered.

      Hospitalization for croup is uncommon and typically reserved for children who are experiencing worsening respiratory distress or showing signs of drowsiness or agitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      6.8
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  • Question 94 - You evaluate a 28-year-old patient with burns. Your supervisor recommends referring the patient...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 28-year-old patient with burns. Your supervisor recommends referring the patient to the burns unit. What is a recognized criterion for referral to the burns unit?

      Your Answer: Burn ≥ 3% TBSA (total body surface area) in an adult

      Explanation:

      A recognized criterion for referral to the burns unit is when a burn involves the upper limb, any burn that has not healed in 7 days, any burn with significant blistering, a burn with a pain score on presentation greater than 8 out of 10 on a visual analogue scale, or a burn that covers 3% or more of the total body surface area in an adult.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      33
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  • Question 95 - A 60 year old comes to the emergency department with worries of feeling...

    Correct

    • A 60 year old comes to the emergency department with worries of feeling nauseated and vomiting blood. The patient shows you a tissue paper with mostly coffee ground vomit and a few specks of fresh red blood. The patient mentions experiencing on-and-off abdominal pain for a few weeks. You suspect that the patient is experiencing an upper gastrointestinal bleed. What is the primary cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeding in adults?

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer disease

      Explanation:

      The primary cause of upper gastrointestinal bleeding in adults is peptic ulcer disease. Peptic ulcers are open sores that develop on the lining of the stomach or the upper part of the small intestine. These ulcers can be caused by factors such as infection with Helicobacter pylori bacteria, long-term use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), or excessive alcohol consumption. When a peptic ulcer bleeds, it can result in the vomiting of blood, which may appear as coffee ground vomit or have speckles of fresh red blood. Other symptoms that may accompany an upper gastrointestinal bleed include abdominal pain, nausea, and a feeling of fullness.

      Further Reading:

      Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is a condition characterized by a break in the mucosal lining of the stomach or duodenum. It is caused by an imbalance between factors that promote mucosal damage, such as gastric acid, pepsin, Helicobacter pylori infection, and NSAID drug use, and factors that maintain mucosal integrity, such as prostaglandins, mucus lining, bicarbonate, and mucosal blood flow.

      The most common causes of peptic ulcers are H. pylori infection and NSAID use. Other factors that can contribute to the development of ulcers include smoking, alcohol consumption, certain medications (such as steroids), stress, autoimmune conditions, and tumors.

      Diagnosis of peptic ulcers involves screening for H. pylori infection through breath or stool antigen tests, as well as upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. Complications of PUD include bleeding, perforation, and obstruction. Acute massive hemorrhage has a case fatality rate of 5-10%, while perforation can lead to peritonitis with a mortality rate of up to 20%.

      The symptoms of peptic ulcers vary depending on their location. Duodenal ulcers typically cause pain that is relieved by eating, occurs 2-3 hours after eating and at night, and may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Gastric ulcers, on the other hand, cause pain that occurs 30 minutes after eating and may be associated with nausea and vomiting.

      Management of peptic ulcers depends on the underlying cause and presentation. Patients with active gastrointestinal bleeding require risk stratification, volume resuscitation, endoscopy, and proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. Those with perforated ulcers require resuscitation, antibiotic treatment, analgesia, PPI therapy, and urgent surgical review.

      For stable patients with peptic ulcers, lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, avoiding trigger foods, eating smaller meals, quitting smoking, reducing alcohol consumption, and managing stress and anxiety are recommended. Medication review should be done to stop causative drugs if possible. PPI therapy, with or without H. pylori eradication therapy, is also prescribed. H. pylori testing is typically done using a carbon-13 urea breath test or stool antigen test, and eradication therapy involves a 7-day triple therapy regimen of antibiotics and PPI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      5.9
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  • Question 96 - A patient presents with a history of feeling constantly thirsty and urinating large...

    Correct

    • A patient presents with a history of feeling constantly thirsty and urinating large amounts. She also experiences extreme fatigue. A diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is suspected, and a fasting blood glucose sample is scheduled.
      What is the current WHO threshold for diagnosing diabetes mellitus using a fasting blood sample in this case?

      Your Answer: 7 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      According to the 2011 recommendations from the World Health Organization (WHO), the following criteria are used to diagnose diabetes mellitus:

      – A random venous plasma glucose concentration that exceeds 11.1 mmol/l.
      – A fasting plasma glucose concentration that is higher than 7.0 mmol/l.
      – A two-hour plasma glucose concentration that exceeds 11.1 mmol/l, measured two hours after consuming 75g of anhydrous glucose during an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
      – An HbA1c level that is greater than 48 mmol/mol (equivalent to 6.5%).

      These guidelines provide specific thresholds for diagnosing diabetes mellitus based on various glucose measurements and HbA1c levels. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these criteria when evaluating individuals for diabetes mellitus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      4.9
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  • Question 97 - A 10-month-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father. For...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-month-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father. For the past three days, she has had severe vomiting. She has had no wet diapers so far today and is lethargic and not her usual self. She was recently weighed by her pediatrician's nurse and was 8 kg.

      What is this child's HOURLY maintenance fluid requirement when healthy?

      Your Answer: 24 ml/hour

      Correct Answer: 36 ml/hour

      Explanation:

      The intravascular volume of an infant is approximately 80 ml/kg, while in older children it is around 70 ml/kg. Dehydration itself does not lead to death, but shock can occur when there is a loss of 20 ml/kg from the intravascular space. Clinical dehydration becomes evident only after total losses greater than 25 ml/kg.

      The table below summarizes the maintenance fluid requirements for well and normal children:

      Bodyweight: First 10 kg
      Daily fluid requirement: 100 ml/kg
      Hourly fluid requirement: 4 ml/kg

      Bodyweight: Second 10 kg
      Daily fluid requirement: 50 ml/kg
      Hourly fluid requirement: 2 ml/kg

      Bodyweight: Subsequent kg
      Daily fluid requirement: 20 ml/kg
      Hourly fluid requirement: 1 ml/kg

      For a well and normal child weighing less than 10 kg, the hourly maintenance fluid requirement is 4 ml/kg. Therefore, for this child, the hourly maintenance fluid requirement would be:

      9 x 4 ml/hour = 36 ml/hour

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      29.2
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  • Question 98 - A 32-year-old musician is currently participating in a community withdrawal program for a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old musician is currently participating in a community withdrawal program for a substance misuse issue. He has been attempting to quit for more than a year and consistently attends a community support group for his problem. The healthcare team in charge of his treatment have prescribed him Acamprosate to aid with his withdrawal.
      What substance is he most likely trying to withdraw from?

      Your Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Acamprosate, also known as Campral, is a medication used in the treatment of alcohol dependence. It is believed to work by stabilizing a chemical pathway in the brain that is disrupted during alcohol withdrawal. For optimal results, Acamprosate should be used alongside psychosocial support, as it helps reduce alcohol consumption and promote abstinence.

      When starting treatment with Acamprosate, it is important to begin as soon as possible after assisted withdrawal. The typical dosage is 1998 mg (666 mg three times a day), unless the patient weighs less than 60 kg, in which case a maximum of 1332 mg per day should be prescribed.

      Generally, Acamprosate is prescribed for up to 6 months. However, for those who benefit from the medication and wish to continue, it can be taken for a longer duration. If drinking persists 4-6 weeks after starting the drug, it should be discontinued.

      Patients who are prescribed Acamprosate should be closely monitored, with regular check-ins at least once a month for the first six months. If the medication is continued beyond six months, the frequency of check-ins can be reduced but should still occur at regular intervals.

      While routine blood tests are not mandatory, they can be considered if there is a need to monitor liver function recovery or as a motivational tool to show patients their progress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      11.8
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  • Question 99 - A 10-year-old girl is brought into the Emergency Department with stomach pain and...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought into the Emergency Department with stomach pain and throwing up. Her mom tells you that she has been losing weight lately and seems to be drinking a lot and peeing a lot. During the examination, she appears tired and you notice that she is dehydrated. She is breathing deeply and quickly. Her blood sugar levels are found to be very high when her blood is tested.
      Which of the following tests will be most useful in confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urine dipstick

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). To confirm the diagnosis, it is important to establish that his blood glucose levels are high, he has significant ketonuria or ketonaemia, and that he is experiencing acidosis. Therefore, out of the options provided, a urine dipstick test will be the most useful.

      DKA is a life-threatening condition that occurs when there is a lack of insulin, leading to an inability to metabolize glucose. This results in hyperglycemia and an osmotic diuresis, causing excessive thirst and increased urine production. If the urine output exceeds the patient’s ability to drink, dehydration becomes inevitable. Additionally, without insulin, fat becomes the primary energy source, leading to the production of large amounts of ketones and metabolic acidosis.

      DKA is characterized by three main factors:
      1. Hyperglycemia (blood glucose > 11 mmol/l)
      2. Ketonaemia (> 3 mmol/l) or significant ketonuria (> 2+ on urine dipstick)
      3. Acidosis (bicarbonate < 15 mmol/l and/or venous pH < 7.3) The clinical features of DKA include nausea, vomiting, excessive thirst, excessive urine production, abdominal pain, signs of dehydration, a smell of ketones on the breath (similar to pear drops), deep and rapid respiration (Kussmaul breathing), confusion or reduced consciousness, and tachycardia, hypotension, and shock. The following investigations should be performed:
      – Blood glucose measurement
      – Urine dipstick test (will show marked glycosuria and ketonuria)
      – Blood ketone assay (more sensitive and specific than urine dipstick)
      – Blood tests including full blood count (FBC) and urea and electrolytes (U&Es)
      – Arterial or venous blood gas analysis (to assess for metabolic acidosis)

      The principles of managing DKA are as follows:
      – Fluid boluses should only be given to reverse signs of shock and should be administered slowly in 10 ml/kg aliquots. If there are no signs of shock, fluid boluses should not be given, and specialist advice should be sought if a second bolus is required.
      – Rehydration should be done with replacement therapy over 48 hours after signs of shock have been reversed.
      – The first 20 ml/kg of fluid resuscitation should be given in addition

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      12.5
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  • Question 100 - A child has arrived at the Emergency Department with facial swelling and difficulty...

    Correct

    • A child has arrived at the Emergency Department with facial swelling and difficulty breathing. The child has been given adrenaline, corticosteroids, and chlorpheniramine and subsequently shows improvement. Your attending physician is uncertain if this was an anaphylactic reaction and suspects it may have been angioedema.
      What SINGLE test could confirm a diagnosis of anaphylaxis in this situation?

      Your Answer: Mast cell tryptase

      Explanation:

      The mast cell tryptase test, also known as the tryptase test, is a valuable tool for detecting mast cell activation and confirming the diagnosis of anaphylaxis in cases where there is uncertainty. Tryptase is the primary protein found in mast cells. During anaphylaxis, mast cells release their contents, leading to an increase in blood tryptase levels. Typically, these levels start to rise approximately 30 minutes after symptoms begin, reach their peak at 1-2 hours, and return to normal within 6-8 hours.

      For optimal results, it is recommended to collect three timed samples. The first sample should be taken as soon as possible after resuscitation efforts have commenced. The second sample should be obtained 1-2 hours after the onset of symptoms. Lastly, a third sample should be collected at the 24-hour mark to establish a baseline level.

      While skin allergy tests, like the patch test, and blood tests for specific IgE can help identify the trigger of an allergic reaction, they alone cannot confirm the occurrence of anaphylaxis. The mast cell tryptase test, on the other hand, provides valuable information in confirming the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 101 - A 32-year-old woman with a known history of HIV presents with multiple new...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a known history of HIV presents with multiple new small lumps around her anus and genitalia. During examination, two clusters of small lumps are observed. The lumps range in size from 1 to 5 mm, with two being pedunculated. They have a firm texture and exhibit colors ranging from grey to brown.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Verruca vulgaris

      Correct Answer: Verruca acuminata

      Explanation:

      Verruca acuminata, also known as Condylomata acuminata, are genital warts. These warts are typically transmitted through sexual activity and are primarily caused by different subtypes of the human papillomavirus (HPV). They usually appear in clusters, can be pedunculated, and vary in size between 1-5 mm. Immunosuppression increases the risk, and some studies suggest that 25% of affected patients will acquire a second sexually transmitted infection.

      Condylomata lata, on the other hand, are warty-plaque like lesions found on the genitals and perianal area during secondary syphilis.

      Verruca vulgaris, commonly known as common warts, present as raised warts with a roughened surface. They are most frequently observed on the hands.

      Verruca planae, which are smooth and flattened flesh-colored warts, can occur in large numbers. They are commonly seen on the face, hands, neck, wrists, and knees.

      Lastly, Verruca plantaris, also known as plantar warts or verrucas, manifest as hard and painful lumps, often with black specks in the center. These warts are typically found only on pressure points on the soles of the feet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      8.2
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  • Question 102 - A 28-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with sirens blaring after being involved in a car accident. She was hit by a truck while riding a bicycle and is suspected to have a pelvic injury. Her blood pressure is unstable, and the hospital has activated the massive transfusion protocol. You decide to also give her tranexamic acid.
      What is the appropriate initial dose of tranexamic acid to administer and over what duration of time?

      Your Answer: 1 g IV over 10 minutes

      Explanation:

      ATLS guidelines now suggest administering only 1 liter of crystalloid fluid during the initial assessment. If patients do not respond to the crystalloid, it is recommended to quickly transition to blood products. Studies have shown that infusing more than 1.5 liters of crystalloid fluid is associated with higher mortality rates in trauma cases. Therefore, it is advised to prioritize the early use of blood products and avoid large volumes of crystalloid fluid in trauma patients. In cases where it is necessary, massive transfusion should be considered, defined as the transfusion of more than 10 units of blood in 24 hours or more than 4 units of blood in one hour. For patients with evidence of Class III and IV hemorrhage, early resuscitation with blood and blood products in low ratios is recommended.

      Based on the findings of significant trials, such as the CRASH-2 study, the use of tranexamic acid is now recommended within 3 hours. This involves administering a loading dose of 1 gram intravenously over 10 minutes, followed by an infusion of 1 gram over eight hours. In some regions, tranexamic acid is also being utilized in the prehospital setting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 103 - You assess a patient who has experienced a minor antepartum bleeding. You have...

    Correct

    • You assess a patient who has experienced a minor antepartum bleeding. You have a conversation with the obstetric team about the necessity of rhesus-D prophylaxis.
      Which ONE statement about anti-D is accurate?

      Your Answer: Routine antenatal prophylaxis is recommended for RhD negative women at 28 and 34 weeks

      Explanation:

      Anti-D is an antibody of the IgG class that targets the Rhesus D (RhD) antigen. It is specifically administered to women who are RhD negative, meaning they do not have the RhD antigen on their red blood cells. When a RhD negative woman is exposed to the blood of a RhD positive fetus, she may develop antibodies against RhD that can cross the placenta and attack the red blood cells of the fetus, leading to a condition called hemolytic disease of the newborn. Anti-D is given to bind to the fetal red blood cells in the mother’s circulation and neutralize them before an immune response is triggered.

      RhD should be administered in the event of a sensitizing event, which can include childbirth, antepartum hemorrhage, miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, intrauterine death, amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, or abdominal trauma. It is important to administer Anti-D as soon as possible after a sensitizing event, but it can still provide some benefit even if given outside of the recommended 72-hour window, according to the British National Formulary (BNF).

      For RhD negative women, routine antenatal prophylaxis with Anti-D is recommended at 28 and 34 weeks of pregnancy, regardless of whether they have already received Anti-D earlier in the same pregnancy due to a sensitizing event.

      In cases of uncomplicated miscarriage before 12 weeks of gestation, confirmed by ultrasound, or mild and painless vaginal bleeding, prophylactic Anti-D is not necessary because the risk of feto-maternal hemorrhage is extremely low. However, in cases of therapeutic termination of pregnancy, whether through surgical or medical methods, confirmed RhD negative women who are not known to be sensitized to RhD should receive 250 IU of prophylactic Anti-D immunoglobulin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      30.4
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  • Question 104 - A 5-year-old boy has had multiple observed instances of momentary pauses that lasted...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy has had multiple observed instances of momentary pauses that lasted only a few seconds each. He ceases his activities and gazes emptily during these occurrences. The results of his brain scan indicated no abnormalities.
      What kind of seizure has he encountered?

      Your Answer: Absence seizure

      Explanation:

      This patient has been experiencing absence seizures, which are a form of primary generalized epilepsy that is frequently observed in children.

      The defining characteristic of absence seizures is a sudden and immediate loss of consciousness, causing a disruption in ongoing activities. During these episodes, individuals may exhibit a vacant stare and occasionally a brief upward movement of the eyes.

      While an EEG cannot definitively confirm or rule out an epilepsy diagnosis, it does provide valuable information in the diagnostic process. In the case of absence seizures, EEG results typically reveal generalized spike-and-slow wave complexes occurring at a frequency of 3-4 Hz.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 105 - You assess a patient who has recently undergone a localized lung segmentectomy. A...

    Correct

    • You assess a patient who has recently undergone a localized lung segmentectomy. A few days after the procedure, he presents with feelings of illness, and today's blood results reveal the development of hyponatremia.
      What is the most probable cause of this biochemical abnormality?

      Your Answer: Removal of hormonally active tumour

      Explanation:

      Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) that originates from neuroendocrine tissue has the potential to cause paraneoplastic endocrine syndromes, such as Cushing syndrome. This occurs due to the inappropriate secretion of ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). In this particular case, it is highly likely that the patient underwent surgery to remove an ACTH-secreting neuroendocrine tumor within the lung.

      The tumors associated with the production of ectopic ACTH are as follows:
      – SCLC – 50%
      – Bronchial carcinoid tumors – 10%
      – Thymic carcinoma – 10%
      – Pancreatic islet cell tumors – 5%
      – Phaeochromocytoma – 5%
      – Medullary carcinoma – 5%

      When ectopic ACTH-secreting tumors are present, the typical signs and symptoms of Cushing syndrome may be minimal. The onset of symptoms can be sudden, especially in rapidly growing SCLCs. The typical biochemical profile observed in these cases includes elevated sodium levels, low potassium levels, and metabolic alkalosis.

      The body’s homeostatic mechanism will attempt to compensate for the elevated sodium levels by lowering them. However, after the tumor is removed, a paradoxical period of hyponatremia may occur during the postoperative period. This hyponatremia gradually normalizes until the sodium levels reach a normal range once again.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      16.5
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  • Question 106 - A 28-year-old primigravida woman comes in with a slight vaginal bleeding. She describes...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old primigravida woman comes in with a slight vaginal bleeding. She describes the bleeding as lighter than her typical menstrual period. She is currently 9 weeks pregnant and her pregnancy test is positive. During the examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender, and the cervical os is closed.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Threatened miscarriage

      Explanation:

      A threatened miscarriage is characterized by bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy, but without the passing of any products of conception and with a closed cervical os. The main features of a threatened miscarriage include vaginal bleeding, often in the form of brown discharge or spotting, minimal abdominal pain, and a positive pregnancy test. It is important for stable patients who are more than 6 weeks pregnant and experiencing bleeding in early pregnancy, without any signs of an ectopic pregnancy, to seek follow-up care at an early pregnancy assessment unit (EPAU).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      106.7
      Seconds
  • Question 107 - A 32-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency Department after ingesting an overdose of paracetamol tablets 45 minutes ago. He is currently showing no symptoms and is stable in terms of his blood circulation. The attending physician recommends administering a dose of activated charcoal.
      What is the appropriate dosage of activated charcoal to administer?

      Your Answer: 50 g orally

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal is a commonly utilized substance for decontamination in cases of poisoning. Its main function is to attract and bind molecules of the ingested toxin onto its surface.

      Activated charcoal is a chemically inert form of carbon. It is a fine black powder that has no odor or taste. This powder is created by subjecting carbonaceous matter to high heat, a process known as pyrolysis, and then concentrating it with a solution of zinc chloride. Through this process, the activated charcoal develops a complex network of pores, providing it with a large surface area of approximately 3,000 m2/g. This extensive surface area allows it to effectively hinder the absorption of the harmful toxin by up to 50%.

      The typical dosage for adults is 50 grams, while children are usually given 1 gram per kilogram of body weight. Activated charcoal can be administered orally or through a nasogastric tube. It is crucial to administer it within one hour of ingestion, and if necessary, a second dose may be repeated after one hour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 108 - A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of recurrent falls. She is accompanied...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with a history of recurrent falls. She is accompanied by her daughter, who tells you that the falls have been getting worse over the past year and that she has also been acting strangely and showing signs of memory decline. Recently, she has also experienced several episodes of urinary incontinence. On examination, you observe that she has a wide-based, shuffling gait.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Normal-pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms that are characteristic of normal-pressure hydrocephalus (NPH). NPH is a type of communicating hydrocephalus where the pressure inside the skull, as measured through lumbar puncture, is either normal or occasionally elevated. It primarily affects elderly individuals, and the likelihood of developing NPH increases with age.

      Around 50% of NPH cases are idiopathic, meaning that no clear cause can be identified. The remaining cases are secondary to various conditions such as head injury, meningitis, subarachnoid hemorrhage, central nervous system tumors, and radiotherapy.

      The typical presentation of NPH includes a classic triad of symptoms: gait disturbance (often characterized by a broad-based and shuffling gait), sphincter disturbance leading to incontinence (usually urinary incontinence), and progressive dementia with memory loss, inattention, inertia, and bradyphrenia.

      Diagnosing NPH primarily relies on identifying the classic clinical triad mentioned above. Additional investigations can provide supportive evidence and may involve CT and MRI scans, which reveal enlarged ventricles and periventricular lucency. Lumbar puncture can also be performed to assess cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) levels, which are typically normal or intermittently elevated. Intraventricular monitoring may show beta waves present for more than 5% of a 24-hour period.

      NPH is one of the few reversible causes of dementia, making early recognition and treatment crucial. Medical treatment options include the use of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (such as acetazolamide) and repeated lumbar punctures as temporary measures. However, the definitive treatment for NPH involves surgically inserting a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) shunt. This procedure provides lasting clinical benefits for 70% to 90% of patients compared to their pre-operative state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      5.6
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  • Question 109 - A 57 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 24...

    Correct

    • A 57 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 24 hour history of worsening pain on the left side of the mouth and jaw. Upon examination, there is noticeable swelling of the gum around the 1st and 2nd upper left molar teeth, indicative of a dental abscess. Which of the following signs would warrant hospitalization?

      Your Answer: Swelling of sublingual space

      Explanation:

      Patients with dental abscess should be evaluated for signs of spread into deep fascial planes. Infection of the sublingual space can lead to serious complications that can be life-threatening. Swelling in this area can cause the tongue to elevate, potentially obstructing the airway. Other complications include infections such as mediastinitis, necrotizing fasciitis, cavernous sinus thrombosis, sepsis, thoracic empyema, Lemierre’s syndrome, cerebral abscess, orbital abscess, and osteomyelitis.

      There are certain indications that may require admission to the hospital for dental abscess. These include evidence of significant systemic disturbance, inability to control the infection with antibiotics, rapid spread of infection, stridor or compromised airway, swelling of the sublingual space or pharynx, difficulty swallowing or speaking, immunocompromised patients, abscess requiring drainage under general anesthesia.

      Fever and pain are common symptoms of dental abscess but by themselves are not enough to warrant admission. Ideally, dental abscess should be managed through urgent dental review. However, if immediate dental review is not available, the patient may be treated with antibiotics as long as there are no signs of more severe infection.

      Further Reading:

      Dental abscess is a condition that usually occurs as a result of dental caries or following a dental procedure or trauma. Dental caries refers to the loss of enamel caused by acids produced by bacteria in the mouth. This allows bacteria to enter the pulp, root, and local tissues, leading to infection. The infection can then spread to surrounding tissues, causing conditions such as gingivitis or dental abscess. In severe cases, the infection can spread to deep fascial planes, resulting in conditions like retropharyngeal abscess or Ludwig’s angina.

      A dental abscess is typically caused by a combination of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, such as Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, and Prevotella. When assessing a patient with a suspected dental abscess, a thorough history and inspection of the mouth, face, and neck are necessary. This helps confirm the diagnosis and assess the risk of serious complications, such as airway compromise or deep/spreading infection.

      Some concerning features on history or examination include systemic upset (e.g., fever, vomiting), sublingual or pharyngeal swelling, stridor, dysphagia, dysphonia, dyspnea, and progression of illness despite current antibiotic treatment. It’s important to consider non-dental causes of mouth and jaw pain, such as trauma, referred sinus pain, cardiac pain radiating to the jaw, trigeminal neuralgia, otalgia radiating to the jaw, and parotid gland swelling.

      Management of a dental abscess typically involves providing analgesia (NSAIDs and paracetamol) and facilitating early dental review. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, such as when the patient does not have immediate access to a dentist and is systemically unwell, shows signs of severe infection, or is a high-risk individual (e.g., immunocompromised or diabetic). The choice of antibiotics includes amoxicillin, phenoxymethylpenicillin, or clarithromycin (if penicillin allergic). In severe or spreading infections, metronidazole may be added. The typical course of antibiotics is 5 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      5.9
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  • Question 110 - A 6-year-old girl has recently been diagnosed with whooping cough. Her parents would...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl has recently been diagnosed with whooping cough. Her parents would like to ask you some questions.

      Which SINGLE statement about whooping cough is true?

      Your Answer: Encephalopathy is a recognised complication

      Explanation:

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a respiratory infection caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. It is transmitted through respiratory droplets and has an incubation period of approximately 7-21 days. This highly contagious disease can be transmitted to about 90% of close household contacts.

      The clinical course of whooping cough can be divided into two stages. The first stage, known as the catarrhal stage, resembles a mild respiratory infection with symptoms such as low-grade fever and a runny nose. Although a cough may be present, it is usually mild and not as severe as in the next stage. The catarrhal stage typically lasts for about a week.

      The second stage, called the paroxysmal stage, is when the characteristic paroxysmal cough develops as the catarrhal symptoms begin to subside. During this stage, coughing occurs in spasms, often preceded by an inspiratory whoop and followed by a series of rapid expiratory coughs. Other symptoms may include vomiting, subconjunctival hemorrhages, and petechiae. Patients generally feel well between spasms, and there are usually no abnormal chest findings. This stage can last up to 3 months, with a gradual recovery during this period. The later stages are sometimes referred to as the convalescent stage.

      Complications of whooping cough can include secondary pneumonia, rib fractures, pneumothorax, herniae, syncopal episodes, encephalopathy, and seizures.

      To diagnose whooping cough, nasopharyngeal swabs can be cultured in a medium called Bordet-Gengou agar, which contains blood, potato extract, glycerol, and an antibiotic to isolate Bordetella pertussis.

      Although antibiotics do not alter the clinical course of the infection, they can reduce the period of infectiousness and help prevent further spread.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      26.6
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  • Question 111 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with a temporary vision loss in her right...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with a temporary vision loss in her right eye half an hour after a yoga session. She had observed flickering lights in the eye before the incident and also experienced a headache that persisted for a few hours. Her visual symptoms disappeared after 45 minutes, but she still experiences slight nausea.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Migraine

      Explanation:

      The presentation, in this instance, is consistent with retinal (ocular) migraine. As per the International Headache Society, the primary clinical features of retinal migraine include an expanding blind-spot in the center of vision, flickering or flashing lights, temporary loss of vision in one eye lasting less than an hour, headache lasting anywhere from 4 to 72 hours (often affecting only one side of the head), nausea and vomiting, sensitivity to light and sound, and a prodrome present in 50-60% of cases. Retinal migraine is relatively uncommon, affecting only 1 in 200 individuals with migraines, and is believed to occur due to the narrowing of blood vessels in the choroidal or retinal arteries. Factors that can trigger retinal migraine include recent intense exercise, changes in posture, and the use of oral contraceptives.

      Acute optic neuritis typically presents with unilateral vision loss that worsens over a couple of weeks and then spontaneously improves within three weeks. This condition is more commonly seen in individuals under the age of 45 and is often accompanied by pain around the eyes that worsens with eye movement. A relative afferent pupillary defect and pallor of the optic disc, visible 4-6 weeks after the onset, are frequently observed. The most common cause of optic neuritis in this age group is acute demyelination.

      Retinal hemorrhage leads to painless vision loss, while acute glaucoma and amaurosis fugax are unlikely to occur in individuals of this age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      79.1
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  • Question 112 - A 36 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of increased...

    Correct

    • A 36 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of increased thirst and frequent urination. During the assessment, you order blood and urine samples to measure osmolality. The results reveal an elevated plasma osmolality of 320 mOSm/Kg and a decreased urine osmolality of 198 mOSm/Kg. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetes insipidus

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is characterized by specific biochemical markers. One of these markers is a low urine osmolality, meaning that the concentration of solutes in the urine is lower than normal. In contrast, the serum osmolality, which measures the concentration of solutes in the blood, is high in individuals with DI. This combination of low urine osmolality and high serum osmolality is indicative of DI. Other common biochemical disturbances associated with DI include elevated plasma osmolality, polyuria (excessive urine production), and hypernatremia (high sodium levels in the blood). However, it is important to note that sodium levels can sometimes be within the normal range in individuals with DI. It is worth mentioning that conditions such as Addison’s disease, syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), and primary polydipsia are associated with low serum osmolality and hyponatremia. Additionally, the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) can also lead to hyponatremia as a side effect.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition characterized by either a decrease in the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (cranial DI) or insensitivity to antidiuretic hormone (nephrogenic DI). Antidiuretic hormone, also known as arginine vasopressin, is produced in the hypothalamus and released from the posterior pituitary. The typical biochemical disturbances seen in DI include elevated plasma osmolality, low urine osmolality, polyuria, and hypernatraemia.

      Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, CNS infections, pituitary tumors, and pituitary surgery. Nephrogenic DI, on the other hand, can be genetic or result from electrolyte disturbances or the use of certain drugs. Symptoms of DI include polyuria, polydipsia, nocturia, signs of dehydration, and in children, irritability, failure to thrive, and fatigue.

      To diagnose DI, a 24-hour urine collection is done to confirm polyuria, and U&Es will typically show hypernatraemia. High plasma osmolality with low urine osmolality is also observed. Imaging studies such as MRI of the pituitary, hypothalamus, and surrounding tissues may be done, as well as a fluid deprivation test to evaluate the response to desmopressin.

      Management of cranial DI involves supplementation with desmopressin, a synthetic form of arginine vasopressin. However, hyponatraemia is a common side effect that needs to be monitored. In nephrogenic DI, desmopressin supplementation is usually not effective, and management focuses on ensuring adequate fluid intake to offset water loss and monitoring electrolyte levels. Causative drugs need to be stopped, and there is a risk of developing complications such as hydroureteronephrosis and an overdistended bladder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7.1
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  • Question 113 - With freezing temperatures anticipated, your consultant requests that you organize a teaching session...

    Correct

    • With freezing temperatures anticipated, your consultant requests that you organize a teaching session for the junior physicians regarding the management of frostbite. What imaging modality is preferred for evaluating perfusion abnormalities in extremities impacted by frostbite?

      Your Answer: Technetium 99 (Tc-99) pertechnetate scintigraphy

      Explanation:

      Technetium 99 (Tc-99) pertechnetate scintigraphy is the preferred imaging method for evaluating frostbite. This technique is highly accurate in detecting tissue damage and provides both sensitivity and specificity.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in decreased myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.

      In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.

      Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.

      Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      47.6
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  • Question 114 - A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with tuberculosis during her pregnancy and given isoniazid...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with tuberculosis during her pregnancy and given isoniazid as part of her medication. As a result of this treatment, the newborn develops a defect.

      Which of the following defects is the most probable outcome due to the use of this medication during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Neuropathy

      Explanation:

      The standard drug regimen for tuberculosis is generally safe to use during pregnancy, with the exception of streptomycin which should be avoided. However, the use of isoniazid during pregnancy has been associated with potential risks such as liver damage in the mother and the possibility of neuropathy and seizures in the newborn.

      Here is a list outlining some commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If taken during the second and third trimesters, these medications can lead to reduced blood flow, kidney failure, and a condition called oligohydramnios.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can cause ototoxicity, resulting in hearing loss in the baby.

      Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can increase the risk of first trimester abortions, delayed labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and a condition called fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose significant risks.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When taken late in pregnancy, these medications can cause respiratory depression in the baby and lead to a withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If taken during the first trimester, these drugs can cause abnormalities in the fingers and toes. If taken during the second and third trimesters, they may result in fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: This medication can increase the risk of hemorrhagic disease in the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: Use of this drug in newborns can lead to a condition known as grey baby syndrome.

      Corticosteroids: If taken during the first trimester, corticosteroids may increase the risk of orofacial clefts in the baby.

      Danazol: When taken during the first trimester, this medication can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling crushed or broken tablets of finasteride as it can be absorbed through the skin and affect the development of male sex organs in the baby.

      Haloperidol: If taken during the first trimester, this medication may increase the risk of limb malformations. If taken during the third trimester, it can lead to an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the newborn.

      Heparin: Use of heparin during pregnancy is associated with an acceptable bleeding rate and a low rate of thrombotic recurrence in the mother.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      9
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  • Question 115 - A 25-year-old woman who is 32-weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy is brought...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 32-weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy is brought in by ambulance after a car accident. She has noticeable bruising on her lower abdomen and is experiencing intense abdominal pain. During the examination, you are unable to feel the top of the uterus and can easily feel the baby's body parts. Blood samples have been sent to the lab and the patient has an IV line in place.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary uterine rupture

      Explanation:

      Uterine rupture can occur in two forms: primary, which happens without any previous uterine surgery or trauma, and secondary, which occurs when there is scar dehiscence. In secondary rupture, the rupture can range from the peritoneum to the endometrium, or the peritoneum may remain intact while the underlying uterine tissue ruptures.

      There are several risk factors associated with uterine rupture, including multiparity, a uterine scar from a previous Caesarean section, previous uterine surgery, dysfunctional labor, and augmented labor with medications like oxytocin or prostaglandins.

      The clinical features of uterine rupture include abdominal pain and tenderness, abdominal guarding and rigidity, inability to feel the uterine fundus (in cases of fundal rupture), cessation of uterine contractions, chest pain or shoulder tip pain, vaginal bleeding, abnormal fetal lie (such as oblique or transverse), easy palpation of fetal parts outside the uterus, absent fetal heart sounds, and abnormal CTG findings like late decelerations and reduced variability. Maternal shock can also occur and may be severe.

      Immediate resuscitation is crucial and should involve intravenous fluids and/or blood transfusion. This should be followed by a laparotomy. After the baby is delivered, the uterus should be repaired or a hysterectomy may be performed. The decision between these two management options depends on factors such as the site and extent of the rupture, as well as the mother’s condition, age, and parity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      5.9
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  • Question 116 - A 32-year-old man is brought in by ambulance following a car crash. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is brought in by ambulance following a car crash. A FAST scan is conducted to evaluate for a haemoperitoneum.
      Which of the subsequent anatomical regions is evaluated as part of a typical 4 view FAST scan?

      Your Answer: Lower chest

      Correct Answer: Left upper quadrant

      Explanation:

      A Focussed Assessment with Sonography for Trauma (FAST) scan is a point-of-care ultrasound examination conducted when a trauma patient arrives. Its primary purpose is to identify the presence of intra-abdominal free fluid, which is typically assumed to be haemoperitoneum in the context of trauma. This information helps healthcare providers make decisions regarding further management of the patient.

      The sensitivity of FAST scanning for detecting intraperitoneal fluid is approximately 90%, while its specificity is around 95%. However, its sensitivity for detecting solid organ injuries is much lower. As a result, FAST scanning has largely replaced diagnostic peritoneal lavage as the preferred initial method for assessing haemoperitoneum.

      During a standard FAST scan, four regions are assessed. The first is the subxiphoid transverse view, which is used to check for pericardial effusion and left lobe liver injuries. The second is the longitudinal view of the right upper quadrant, which helps identify right liver injuries, right kidney injuries, and fluid in the hepatorenal recess (Morison’s pouch). The third is the longitudinal view of the left upper quadrant, which is used to assess for splenic injury and left kidney injury. Lastly, the transverse and longitudinal views of the suprapubic region are examined to assess the bladder and fluid in the pouch of Douglas.

      In addition to the standard FAST scan, an extended FAST or eFAST may also be performed. This involves examining the left and right thoracic regions to assess for the presence of pneumothorax and haemothorax.

      The hepatorenal recess is the deepest part of the peritoneal cavity when a patient is lying flat. Therefore, it is the most likely area for fluid to accumulate in a supine position.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      10.5
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  • Question 117 - A 32-year-old man receives a blood transfusion and experiences a severe transfusion reaction....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man receives a blood transfusion and experiences a severe transfusion reaction. His condition quickly worsens, and he ultimately succumbs to this reaction. His death is reported to Serious Hazards of Transfusion (SHOT).
      What is the primary cause of transfusion-related fatalities in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: TACO

      Correct Answer: TRALI

      Explanation:

      Transfusion-related lung injury (TRALI) is responsible for about one-third of all transfusion-related deaths, making it the leading cause. On the other hand, transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) accounts for approximately 20% of these fatalities, making it the second leading cause. TACO occurs when a large volume of blood is rapidly infused, particularly in patients with limited cardiac reserve or chronic anemia. Elderly individuals, infants, and severely anemic patients are especially vulnerable to this reaction.

      The typical signs of TACO include acute respiratory distress, rapid heart rate, high blood pressure, the appearance of acute or worsening pulmonary edema on a chest X-ray, and evidence of excessive fluid accumulation. In many cases, simply reducing the transfusion rate, positioning the patient upright, and administering diuretics will be sufficient to manage the condition. However, in more severe cases, it is necessary to halt the transfusion and consider non-invasive ventilation.

      Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is defined as new acute lung injury (ALI) that occurs during or within six hours of transfusion, not explained by another ALI risk factor. Transfusion of part of one unit of any blood product can cause TRALI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      7.6
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  • Question 118 - A 68 year old male visits the emergency department on a Saturday night...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old male visits the emergency department on a Saturday night complaining of severe watery diarrhea that has been ongoing for the past five days. The patient mentions that he saw his primary care physician a few days ago regarding the diarrhea, and the physician sent a stool sample for testing. The patient informs you that his physician was concerned because he had recently completed two courses of antibiotics, which may have triggered the diarrhea. Upon reviewing the pathology results, you observe that the stool has tested positive for clostridium difficile cytotoxin.

      Which of the following antibiotics is most likely responsible for causing this patient's diarrhea?

      Your Answer: Clindamycin

      Explanation:

      C. difficile infection is often linked to the use of certain antibiotics such as clindamycin, cephalosporins (particularly third and fourth generation), fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins. To treat C. difficile diarrhea, metronidazole and vancomycin are commonly prescribed.

      Further Reading:

      Clostridium difficile (C.diff) is a gram positive rod commonly found in hospitals. Some strains of C.diff produce exotoxins that can cause intestinal damage, leading to pseudomembranous colitis. This infection can range from mild diarrhea to severe illness. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is often caused by C.diff, with 20-30% of cases being attributed to this bacteria. Antibiotics such as clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins are frequently associated with C.diff infection.

      Clinical features of C.diff infection include diarrhea, distinctive smell, abdominal pain, raised white blood cell count, and in severe cases, toxic megacolon. In some severe cases, diarrhea may be absent due to the infection causing paralytic ileus. Diagnosis is made by detecting Clostridium difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool. There are two types of exotoxins produced by C.diff, toxin A and toxin B, which cause mucosal damage and the formation of a pseudomembrane in the colon.

      Risk factors for developing C.diff infection include age over 65, antibiotic treatment, previous C.diff infection, exposure to infected individuals, proton pump inhibitor or H2 receptor antagonist use, prolonged hospitalization or residence in a nursing home, and chronic disease or immunosuppression. Complications of C.diff infection can include toxic megacolon, colon perforation, sepsis, and even death, especially in frail elderly individuals.

      Management of C.diff infection involves stopping the causative antibiotic if possible, optimizing hydration with IV fluids if necessary, and assessing the severity of the infection. Treatment options vary based on severity, ranging from no antibiotics for mild cases to vancomycin or fidaxomicin for moderate cases, and hospital protocol antibiotics (such as oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole) for severe or life-threatening cases. Severe cases may require admission under gastroenterology or GI surgeons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      9.1
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  • Question 119 - A 65 year old male is brought into the emergency department by his...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old male is brought into the emergency department by his concerned daughter. The patient has become increasingly confused and disoriented over the past week. Of note, the patient has a history of alcohol dependence and is currently being treated by the gastroenterologists for liver cirrhosis. The patient's daughter informs you that her father stopped drinking 10 months ago. The patient had complained of frequent urination and painful urination the day before his symptoms started.

      You suspect the possibility of hepatic encephalopathy. Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to administer to this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral lactulose

      Explanation:

      Lactulose and the oral antibiotic Rifaximin are commonly prescribed to patients with hepatic encephalopathy. The main goal of treatment for this condition is to identify and address any factors that may have triggered it. Lactulose is administered to relieve constipation, which can potentially lead to hepatic encephalopathy. On the other hand, Rifaximin is used to decrease the presence of enteric bacteria that produce ammonia.

      Further Reading:

      Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.

      Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.

      The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.

      Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.

      Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.

      Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.

      Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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  • Question 120 - A 14 year old male is brought into the emergency department with a...

    Correct

    • A 14 year old male is brought into the emergency department with a dislocated shoulder following a fall from a skateboard. The patient has been receiving Entonox during ambulance transport. What is a contraindication to administering Entonox in this case?

      Your Answer: Pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Nitrous oxide should not be used in cases where there is trapped air, such as pneumothorax. This is because nitrous oxide can diffuse into the trapped air and increase the pressure, which can be harmful. This can be particularly dangerous in conditions like pneumothorax, where the trapped air can expand and affect breathing, or in cases of intracranial air after a head injury, trapped air after a recent underwater dive, or recent injection of gas into the eye.

      Further Reading:

      Entonox® is a mixture of 50% nitrous oxide and 50% oxygen that can be used for self-administration to reduce anxiety. It can also be used alongside other anesthesia agents. However, its mechanism of action for anxiety reduction is not fully understood. The Entonox bottles are typically identified by blue and white color-coded collars, but a new standard will replace these with dark blue shoulders in the future. It is important to note that Entonox alone cannot be used as the sole maintenance agent in anesthesia.

      One of the effects of nitrous oxide is the second-gas effect, where it speeds up the absorption of other inhaled anesthesia agents. Nitrous oxide enters the alveoli and diffuses into the blood, displacing nitrogen. This displacement causes the remaining alveolar gases to become more concentrated, increasing the fractional content of inhaled anesthesia gases and accelerating the uptake of volatile agents into the blood.

      However, when nitrous oxide administration is stopped, it can cause diffusion hypoxia. Nitrous oxide exits the blood and diffuses back into the alveoli, while nitrogen diffuses in the opposite direction. Nitrous oxide enters the alveoli much faster than nitrogen leaves, resulting in the dilution of oxygen within the alveoli. This can lead to diffusion hypoxia, where the oxygen concentration in the alveoli is diluted, potentially causing oxygen deprivation in patients breathing air.

      There are certain contraindications for using nitrous oxide, as it can expand in air-filled spaces. It should be avoided in conditions such as head injuries with intracranial air, pneumothorax, recent intraocular gas injection, and entrapped air following a recent underwater dive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
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  • Question 121 - A 45-year-old male patient comes in with loss of appetite, vomiting, fatigue, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male patient comes in with loss of appetite, vomiting, fatigue, and disorientation. His blood tests show low sodium levels, and after further examination, he is diagnosed with drug-induced syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH).
      Which of the following medications is most likely causing this presentation?

      Your Answer: Chloramphenicol

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) is characterized by the presence of low sodium levels and low osmolality due to the inappropriate and continuous release or action of the hormone, despite normal or increased blood volume. This leads to a decreased ability to excrete water.
      There are several factors that can cause SIADH, with carbamazepine being a well-known example. These causes can be grouped into different categories. One category is CNS damage, which includes conditions like meningitis and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Another category is malignancy, with small-cell lung cancer being a common cause. Certain drugs, such as carbamazepine, SSRIs, amitriptyline, and morphine, can also trigger SIADH. Infections, such as pneumonia, lung abscess, and brain abscess, are another potential cause. Lastly, endocrine disorders like hypothyroidism can contribute to the development of SIADH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      7.7
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  • Question 122 - A 25-year-old woman develops an irritating rash after a recent viral infection. The...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman develops an irritating rash after a recent viral infection. The rash is characterized by multiple wheals of varying sizes on her skin, surrounded by redness. It is extremely itchy and accompanied by a slight burning sensation. The rash lasts for a few hours but is now nearly gone. She has a history of mild asthma but no other significant medical conditions.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this individual?

      Your Answer: Urticaria

      Explanation:

      Urticaria is a condition characterized by a raised, itchy rash on the skin and mucous membranes. It can be localized or widespread and affects about 15% of people at some point in their lives. There are two forms of urticaria: acute and chronic, with the acute form being more common.

      In about 50% of cases of acute urticaria, a specific trigger can be identified. Common triggers include allergies (such as foods, bites, stings, and drugs), skin contact with irritants (like chemicals, nettles, and latex), physical stimuli (such as firm rubbing, pressure, and extremes of temperature), and viral infections.

      The main skin lesion seen in urticaria is called a wheal or wheel. Wheals typically have three characteristics: a central swelling that can be red or white in color, surrounded by a red area (known as the flare), and they are usually very itchy, sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Wheals are temporary and usually disappear within 1 to 24 hours, returning the skin to its normal appearance.

      Wheals can vary in size, ranging from a few millimeters to lesions as large as 10 cm in diameter. They can appear as single lesions or multiple ones, and sometimes they merge together to form large patches. In some cases, urticaria can also cause swelling of the soft tissues in the eyelids, lips, and tongue, known as angioedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      11.8
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  • Question 123 - A 25-year-old patient presents with a 48-hour history of right-sided facial weakness accompanied...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old patient presents with a 48-hour history of right-sided facial weakness accompanied by pain behind the right ear. On examination, there is noticeable asymmetry in the face, with the patient unable to raise the right eyebrow or lift the right side of the mouth. There is no tenderness or swelling in the mastoid area, and the external auditory canal and tympanic membrane appear normal. Evaluation of the remaining cranial nerves shows no abnormalities, and there are no other focal neurological deficits detected. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prescribe prednisolone 50 mg daily for 10 days

      Explanation:

      The main treatment options for Bell’s palsy are oral prednisolone and proper eye care. Referral to a specialist is typically not necessary. It is recommended to start steroid treatment within 72 hours of symptom onset. Currently, NICE does not recommend the use of antiviral medications for Bell’s palsy.

      Further Reading:

      Bell’s palsy is a condition characterized by sudden weakness or paralysis of the facial nerve, resulting in facial muscle weakness or drooping. The exact cause is unknown, but it is believed to be related to viral infections such as herpes simplex or varicella zoster. It is more common in individuals aged 15-45 years and those with diabetes, obesity, hypertension, or upper respiratory conditions. Pregnancy is also a risk factor.

      Diagnosis of Bell’s palsy is typically based on clinical symptoms and ruling out other possible causes of facial weakness. Symptoms include rapid onset of unilateral facial muscle weakness, drooping of the eyebrow and corner of the mouth, loss of the nasolabial fold, otalgia, difficulty chewing or dry mouth, taste disturbance, eye symptoms such as inability to close the eye completely, dry eye, eye pain, and excessive tearing, numbness or tingling of the cheek and mouth, speech articulation problems, and hyperacusis.

      When assessing a patient with facial weakness, it is important to consider other possible differentials such as stroke, facial nerve tumors, Lyme disease, granulomatous diseases, Ramsay Hunt syndrome, mastoiditis, and chronic otitis media. Red flags for these conditions include insidious and painful onset, duration of symptoms longer than 3 months with frequent relapses, pre-existing risk factors, systemic illness or fever, vestibular or hearing abnormalities, and other cranial nerve involvement.

      Management of Bell’s palsy involves the use of steroids, eye care advice, and reassurance. Steroids, such as prednisolone, are recommended for individuals presenting within 72 hours of symptom onset. Eye care includes the use of lubricating eye drops, eye ointment at night, eye taping if unable to close the eye at night, wearing sunglasses, and avoiding dusty environments. Reassurance is important as the majority of patients make a complete recovery within 3-4 months. However, some individuals may experience sequelae such as facial asymmetry, gustatory lacrimation, inadequate lid closure, brow ptosis, drooling, and hemifacial spasms.

      Antiviral treatments are not currently recommended as a standalone treatment for Bell’s palsy, but they may be given in combination with corticosteroids on specialist advice. Referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary if the patient has eye symptoms such as pain, irritation, or itch.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      52.5
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  • Question 124 - A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with itchy, hyperpigmented patches on her chest...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with itchy, hyperpigmented patches on her chest and back. She recently returned from her vacation in Ibiza and the areas have become more noticeable after sun exposure. What is the most suitable treatment for her condition?

      Your Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo (Nizoral)

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a common skin condition caused by an infection with the yeasts Malassezia furfur and Malassezia globosa. It typically presents as multiple patches of altered pigmentation, primarily on the trunk. In individuals with fair skin, these patches are usually darker in color, while in those with darker skin or a tan, they may appear lighter (known as pityriasis versicolor alba). It is not uncommon for the rash to cause itching.

      The recommended treatment for pityriasis versicolor involves the use of antifungal agents. One particularly effective option is ketoconazole shampoo, which is sold under the brand name Nizoral. To use this shampoo, it should be applied to the affected areas and left on for approximately five minutes before being rinsed off. This process should be repeated daily for a total of five days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      4.6
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  • Question 125 - A 32-year-old traveler returns from a visit to West Africa with frequent headaches...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old traveler returns from a visit to West Africa with frequent headaches and occasional fevers. Laboratory tests reveal the presence of malaria. The patient is promptly initiated on treatment, but his condition worsens, leading to the development of jaundice, renal failure, and haemoglobinuria.

      What is the MOST LIKELY organism responsible for this illness?

      Your Answer: Plasmodium falciparum

      Explanation:

      Malaria is a contagious illness that is spread by female mosquitoes of the Anopheles genus. It is a parasitic infection caused by the Plasmodium genus. There are five species of Plasmodium that are known to cause disease in humans: Plasmodium falciparum, Plasmodium ovale, Plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium malariae, and Plasmodium knowlesi.

      The main symptom of malaria is the malarial paroxysm, which is a recurring pattern of symptoms. It begins with a cold phase, during which the patient experiences intense chills. This is followed by a hot stage, where the patient feels extremely hot. Finally, there is a sweating stage, during which the fever subsides and the patient sweats profusely. Upon examination, the patient may exhibit signs of anemia, jaundice, and have an enlarged liver and spleen, but there is no evidence of swollen lymph nodes.

      If a patient develops haemoglobinuria (the presence of hemoglobin in the urine) and renal failure after treatment, it may indicate a condition called blackwater fever, which is caused by Plasmodium falciparum. In this condition, an autoimmune reaction occurs between the parasite and quinine, leading to the destruction of red blood cells, hemoglobinuria, jaundice, and renal failure. Blackwater fever can be life-threatening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      17
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  • Question 126 - A 65-year-old man comes in with unintentional weight loss and a noticeable lump...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes in with unintentional weight loss and a noticeable lump in his abdomen. After a CT scan, it is discovered that he has a cancerous growth in his cecum.
      Where is the most likely location for this lump to be felt?

      Your Answer: Right iliac fossa

      Explanation:

      The caecum, positioned between the ileum and the ascending colon, serves as the closest segment of the large intestine. It can be found in the right iliac fossa, just below the ileocaecal junction. In case of enlargement, it can be detected through palpation. This structure is situated within the peritoneal cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      7.2
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  • Question 127 - The triage nurse contacts you to urgently evaluate a 5-year-old child who seems...

    Correct

    • The triage nurse contacts you to urgently evaluate a 5-year-old child who seems to be experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. You concur with the assessment and decide to administer adrenaline. What is the appropriate dosage of adrenaline to give to this patient?

      Your Answer: 150 micrograms (0.15 ml 1 in 1,000) by intramuscular injection

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.

      In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.

      Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.

      The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.

      Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
      https://www.resus.org.uk/sites/default/files/2021-05/Emergency%20Treatment%20of%20Anaphylaxis%20May%202021_0.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      6.2
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  • Question 128 - A 25-year-old patient visits your clinic with concerns about a recent alteration in...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old patient visits your clinic with concerns about a recent alteration in her usual vaginal discharge. She is not sexually active at the moment and has no other health issues. She does not report any itching symptoms but has observed a strong fishy odor and a greyish-white appearance in the discharge.
      What is the most suitable treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common condition that affects up to a third of women during their childbearing years. It occurs when there is an overgrowth of bacteria, specifically Gardnerella vaginalis. This bacterium is anaerobic, meaning it thrives in environments without oxygen. As it multiplies, it disrupts the balance of bacteria in the vagina, leading to a rise in pH levels and a decrease in lactic acid-producing lactobacilli. It’s important to note that BV is not a sexually transmitted infection.

      The main symptom of BV is a greyish discharge with a distinct fishy odor. However, it’s worth mentioning that around 50% of affected women may not experience any symptoms at all.

      To diagnose BV, healthcare providers often use Amsel’s criteria. This involves looking for the presence of three out of four specific criteria: a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, a positive fishy smell test when potassium hydroxide is added, the presence of clue cells on microscopy, and a thin, white, homogeneous discharge.

      The primary treatment for BV is oral metronidazole, typically taken for 5-7 days. This medication has an initial cure rate of about 75%. It’s crucial to provide special care to pregnant patients diagnosed with BV, as it has been linked to an increased risk of late miscarriage, early labor, and chorioamnionitis. Therefore, prompt treatment for these patients is of utmost importance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 129 - A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department following a fall...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old male presents to the emergency department following a fall onto an outstretched hand. Following assessment you order an X-ray of the wrist which confirms a dorsally angulated extra-articular fracture of the right distal radius. You also observe cortical thinning and increased radiolucency of the bone and consider the possibility of underlying osteoporosis. What is a risk factor for osteoporosis?

      Your Answer: Menopause

      Explanation:

      Osteoporosis and fragility fractures are more likely to occur in individuals with low levels of estrogen. Menopause, which causes a decrease in estrogen, can lead to estrogen deficiency. Estrogen plays a role in preventing bone breakdown by inhibiting osteoclast activity. After menopause, there is an increase in osteoclast activity, resulting in a rapid decline in bone mineral density. Osteoporosis is also associated with the long-term use of corticosteroids.

      Further Reading:

      Fragility fractures are fractures that occur following a fall from standing height or less, and may be atraumatic. They often occur in the presence of osteoporosis, a disease characterized by low bone mass and structural deterioration of bone tissue. Fragility fractures commonly affect the wrist, spine, hip, and arm.

      Osteoporosis is defined as a bone mineral density (BMD) of 2.5 standard deviations below the mean peak mass, as measured by dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA). Osteopenia, on the other hand, refers to low bone mass between normal bone mass and osteoporosis, with a T-score between -1 to -2.5.

      The pathophysiology of osteoporosis involves increased osteoclast activity relative to bone production by osteoblasts. The prevalence of osteoporosis increases with age, from approximately 2% at 50 years to almost 50% at 80 years.

      There are various risk factors for fragility fractures, including endocrine diseases, GI causes of malabsorption, chronic kidney and liver diseases, menopause, immobility, low body mass index, advancing age, oral corticosteroids, smoking, alcohol consumption, previous fragility fractures, rheumatological conditions, parental history of hip fracture, certain medications, visual impairment, neuromuscular weakness, cognitive impairment, and unsafe home environment.

      Assessment of a patient with a possible fragility fracture should include evaluating the risk of further falls, the risk of osteoporosis, excluding secondary causes of osteoporosis, and ruling out non-osteoporotic causes for fragility fractures such as metastatic bone disease, multiple myeloma, osteomalacia, and Paget’s disease.

      Management of fragility fractures involves initial management by the emergency clinician, while treatment of low bone density is often delegated to the medical team or general practitioner. Management considerations include determining who needs formal risk assessment, who needs a DXA scan to measure BMD, providing lifestyle advice, and deciding who requires drug treatment.

      Medication for osteoporosis typically includes vitamin D, calcium, and bisphosphonates. Vitamin D and calcium supplementation should be considered based on individual needs, while bisphosphonates are advised for postmenopausal women and men over 50 years with confirmed osteoporosis or those taking high doses of oral corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 130 - A 68 year old male is brought into the emergency department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old male is brought into the emergency department with a two week history of worsening nausea, muscle aches, fatigue, and weakness. You send urine and blood samples for analysis. The results are shown below:

      Na+ 126 mmol/l
      K+ 5.3 mmol/l
      Urea 7.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 90 µmol/l
      Glucose 6.0 mmol/l
      Urine osmolality 880 mosmol/kg

      You review the patient's medications. Which drug is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      This patient is experiencing hyponatremia, which is characterized by low plasma osmolality and high urine osmolality, indicating syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). One of the most common causes of SIADH is the use of SSRIs. On the other hand, lithium, sodium bicarbonate, and corticosteroids are known to cause hypernatremia. Plasma osmolality can be calculated using the formula (2 x Na) + Glucose + Urea. In this patient, the calculated osmolality is 265 mosmol/kg, which falls within the normal range of 275-295 mosmol/kg.

      Further Reading:

      Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels in the blood due to excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH, also known as arginine vasopressin (AVP), is responsible for promoting water and sodium reabsorption in the body. SIADH occurs when there is impaired free water excretion, leading to euvolemic (normal fluid volume) hypotonic hyponatremia.

      There are various causes of SIADH, including malignancies such as small cell lung cancer, stomach cancer, and prostate cancer, as well as neurological conditions like stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and meningitis. Infections such as tuberculosis and pneumonia, as well as certain medications like thiazide diuretics and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can also contribute to SIADH.

      The diagnostic features of SIADH include low plasma osmolality, inappropriately elevated urine osmolality, urinary sodium levels above 30 mmol/L, and euvolemic. Symptoms of hyponatremia, which is a common consequence of SIADH, include nausea, vomiting, headache, confusion, lethargy, muscle weakness, seizures, and coma.

      Management of SIADH involves correcting hyponatremia slowly to avoid complications such as central pontine myelinolysis. The underlying cause of SIADH should be treated if possible, such as discontinuing causative medications. Fluid restriction is typically recommended, with a daily limit of around 1000 ml for adults. In severe cases with neurological symptoms, intravenous hypertonic saline may be used. Medications like demeclocycline, which blocks ADH receptors, or ADH receptor antagonists like tolvaptan may also be considered.

      It is important to monitor serum sodium levels closely during treatment, especially if using hypertonic saline, to prevent rapid correction that can lead to central pontine myelinolysis. Osmolality abnormalities can help determine the underlying cause of hyponatremia, with increased urine osmolality indicating dehydration or renal disease, and decreased urine osmolality suggesting SIADH or overhydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 131 - A 35-year-old weightlifter who acknowledges frequent use of anabolic steroids presents with extremely...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old weightlifter who acknowledges frequent use of anabolic steroids presents with extremely severe acne. He has numerous disfiguring, ulcerated, nodular lesions covering his face, back, and chest. Many of the lesions have bleeding crusts, and he has significant scarring present. Several have also connected and formed sinuses. He is also experiencing overall discomfort with joint pains and a sensation of fever. You measure his temperature, and it is currently 39°C.
      What is the MOST LIKELY single diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acne fulminans

      Explanation:

      Acne conglobata is an extremely severe form of acne where acne nodules come together and create sinuses. Acne fulminans, on the other hand, is a rare and severe complication of acne conglobata that is accompanied by systemic symptoms. It is linked to elevated levels of androgenic hormones, specific autoimmune conditions, and a genetic predisposition.

      The typical clinical characteristics of acne fulminans are as follows:

      – Sudden and abrupt onset
      – Inflammatory and ulcerated nodular acne primarily found on the chest and back
      – Often painful lesions
      – Ulcers on the upper trunk covered with bleeding crusts
      – Severe acne scarring
      – Fluctuating fever
      – Painful joints and arthropathy
      – General feeling of illness (malaise)
      – Loss of appetite and weight loss
      – Enlarged liver and spleen (hepatosplenomegaly)

      It is crucial to refer patients immediately for a specialist evaluation and hospital admission. Treatment options for acne fulminans include systemic corticosteroids, dapsone, ciclosporin, and high-dose intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 132 - A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after overdosing on one of his prescribed medications. He is restless, disoriented, and experiencing visual hallucinations. His heart rate is currently 110 bpm, and his pupils are dilated. It is challenging to gather information from him as he is speaking incoherently. Upon further inquiry, you learn that he has ingested an anticholinergic medication.
      What is the antidote for this type of poisoning?

      Your Answer: Atropine

      Correct Answer: Physostigmine

      Explanation:

      Patients who present with an anticholinergic toxidrome can be difficult to manage due to the agitation and disruptive behavior that is typically present. It is important to provide meticulous supportive care to address the behavioral effects of delirium and prevent complications such as dehydration, injury, and pulmonary aspiration. Often, one-to-one nursing is necessary.

      The management approach for these patients is as follows:

      1. Resuscitate using a standard ABC approach.
      2. Administer sedation for behavioral control. Benzodiazepines, such as IV diazepam in 5 mg-10 mg increments, are the first-line therapy. The goal is to achieve a patient who is sleepy but easily roused. It is important to avoid over-sedating the patient as this can increase the risk of aspiration.
      3. Prescribe intravenous fluids as patients are typically unable to eat and drink, and may be dehydrated upon presentation.
      4. Insert a urinary catheter as urinary retention is often present and needs to be managed.
      5. Consider physostigmine as the specific antidote for anticholinergic delirium in carefully selected cases. Physostigmine acts as a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, temporarily blocking the breakdown of acetylcholine. This enhances its effects at muscarinic and nicotinic receptors, thereby reversing the effects of the anticholinergic agents.

      Physostigmine is indicated in the following situations:

      1. Severe anticholinergic delirium that does not respond to benzodiazepine sedation.
      2. Poisoning with a pure anticholinergic agent, such as atropine.

      The dosage and administration of physostigmine are as follows:

      1. Administer in a monitored setting with appropriate staff and resources to manage adverse effects.
      2. Perform a 12-lead ECG before administration to rule out bradycardia, AV block, or broadening of the QRS.
      3. Administer IV physostigmine 0.5-1 mg as a slow push over 5 minutes. Repeat every 10 minutes up to a maximum of 4 mg.
      4. The clinical end-point of therapy is the resolution of delirium.
      5. Delirium may reoccur in 1-4 hours as the effects of physostigmine wear off. In such cases, the dose may be cautiously repeated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 133 - You are tasked with organizing a teaching session for the senior residents on...

    Correct

    • You are tasked with organizing a teaching session for the senior residents on head injuries & increased intracranial pressure. What is the intracranial volume of a typical adult?

      Your Answer: 1400ml

      Explanation:

      On average, the intracranial volume in adults is around 1400ml.

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.

      The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.

      There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.

      Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      2.1
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  • Question 134 - You intend to administer a peripheral nerve block using 1% lidocaine to a...

    Incorrect

    • You intend to administer a peripheral nerve block using 1% lidocaine to a healthy young female weighing 50 kg. What is the maximum amount of lidocaine that can be given in this scenario?

      Your Answer: 300 mg lidocaine hydrochloride

      Correct Answer: 150 mg lidocaine hydrochloride

      Explanation:

      The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine is 3 mg per kilogram of body weight, with a maximum limit of 200 mg. However, when lidocaine is administered with adrenaline in a 1:200,000 ratio, the maximum safe dose increases to 7 mg per kilogram of body weight, with a maximum limit of 500 mg.

      In this particular case, the patient weighs 50 kg, so the maximum safe dose of lidocaine hydrochloride would be 50 multiplied by 3 mg, resulting in a total of 150 mg.

      For more detailed information on lidocaine hydrochloride, you can refer to the BNF section dedicated to this topic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
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  • Question 135 - A 30 year old male with a history of hereditary angioedema (HAE) presents...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old male with a history of hereditary angioedema (HAE) presents to the emergency department with sudden facial swelling. What is the most suitable management for an acute exacerbation of hereditary angioedema?

      Your Answer: Icatibant acetate

      Explanation:

      In the UK, the most commonly used treatment for acute exacerbations of hereditary angioedema (HAE) in emergency departments is C1-Esterase inhibitor. However, there are alternative options available. Icatibant acetate, sold under the brand name Firazyr®, is a bradykinin receptor antagonist that is licensed in the UK and Europe and can be used as an alternative treatment. Another alternative is the transfusion of fresh frozen plasma.

      Further Reading:

      Angioedema and urticaria are related conditions that involve swelling in different layers of tissue. Angioedema refers to swelling in the deeper layers of tissue, such as the lips and eyelids, while urticaria, also known as hives, refers to swelling in the epidermal skin layers, resulting in raised red areas of skin with itching. These conditions often coexist and may have a common underlying cause.

      Angioedema can be classified into allergic and non-allergic types. Allergic angioedema is the most common type and is usually triggered by an allergic reaction, such as to certain medications like penicillins and NSAIDs. Non-allergic angioedema has multiple subtypes and can be caused by factors such as certain medications, including ACE inhibitors, or underlying conditions like hereditary angioedema (HAE) or acquired angioedema.

      HAE is an autosomal dominant disease characterized by a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. It typically presents in childhood and can be inherited or acquired as a result of certain disorders like lymphoma or systemic lupus erythematosus. Acquired angioedema may have similar clinical features to HAE but is caused by acquired deficiencies of C1 esterase inhibitor due to autoimmune or lymphoproliferative disorders.

      The management of urticaria and allergic angioedema focuses on ensuring the airway remains open and addressing any identifiable triggers. In mild cases without airway compromise, patients may be advised that symptoms will resolve without treatment. Non-sedating antihistamines can be used for up to 6 weeks to relieve symptoms. Severe cases of urticaria may require systemic corticosteroids in addition to antihistamines. In moderate to severe attacks of allergic angioedema, intramuscular epinephrine may be considered.

      The management of HAE involves treating the underlying deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. This can be done through the administration of C1 esterase inhibitor, bradykinin receptor antagonists, or fresh frozen plasma transfusion, which contains C1 inhibitor.

      In summary, angioedema and urticaria are related conditions involving swelling in different layers of tissue. They can coexist and may have a common underlying cause. Management involves addressing triggers, using antihistamines, and in severe cases, systemic corticosteroids or other specific treatments for HAE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 136 - You ask your consultant to review a patient you have seen with knee...

    Correct

    • You ask your consultant to review a patient you have seen with knee pain. Following a history and examination, the consultant makes a diagnosis of patellofemoral pain syndrome.

      Which SINGLE statement is correct regarding this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: It affects more than one tendon

      Explanation:

      De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and thickening of the sheath that contains the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus. This leads to pain on the radial side of the wrist. It is more commonly observed in women, particularly those aged between 30 and 50 years. The condition is often associated with repetitive activities that involve pinching and grasping.

      During examination, swelling and tenderness along the tendon sheath may be observed. The tendon sheath itself may also appear thickened. The most pronounced tenderness is usually felt over the tip of the radial styloid. A positive Finkelstein’s test, which involves flexing the wrist and moving it towards the ulnar side while the thumb is flexed across the palm, can help confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis involves avoiding movements that can trigger symptoms and using a thumb splint to immobilize the thumb. In cases where symptoms persist, a local corticosteroid injection or surgical decompression may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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  • Question 137 - A 2-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his father who...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his father who is concerned as the child has developed a rash. The father tells you the rash started yesterday evening but only affected the face and behind the ears. Dad thought the child had a cold as he has had a dry cough, itchy eyes, and runny nose for the past 2-3 days but became concerned when the rash and high fever appeared. On examination, you note the child has a widespread rash to the trunk, limbs, and face which is maculopapular in some areas while the erythema is more confluent in other areas. There are small blue-white spots seen to the buccal mucosa. The child's temperature is 39ºC. You note the child has not received any childhood vaccines.

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Correct Answer: Measles

      Explanation:

      The rash in measles typically begins as a maculopapular rash on the face and behind the ears. Within 24-36 hours, it spreads to the trunk and limbs. The rash may merge together, especially on the face, creating a confluent appearance. Usually, the rash appears along with a high fever. Before the rash appears, there are usually symptoms of a cold for 2-3 days. Koplik spots, which are blue-white spots on the inside of the cheeks (usually seen opposite the molars), can be observed 1-2 days before the rash appears and can be detected during a mouth examination.

      It is important to note that the rash in rubella infection is similar to that of measles. However, there are two key differences: the presence of Koplik spots and a high fever (>38.3ºC) are characteristic of measles. Erythema infectiosum, on the other hand, causes a rash that resembles a slapped cheek.

      Further Reading:

      Measles is a highly contagious viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is primarily spread through aerosol transmission, specifically through droplets in the air. The incubation period for measles is typically 10-14 days, during which patients are infectious from 4 days before the appearance of the rash to 4 days after.

      Common complications of measles include pneumonia, otitis media (middle ear infection), and encephalopathy (brain inflammation). However, a rare but fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) can also occur, typically presenting 5-10 years after the initial illness.

      The onset of measles is characterized by a prodrome, which includes symptoms such as irritability, malaise, conjunctivitis, and fever. Before the appearance of the rash, white spots known as Koplik spots can be seen on the buccal mucosa. The rash itself starts behind the ears and then spreads to the entire body, presenting as a discrete maculopapular rash that becomes blotchy and confluent.

      In terms of complications, encephalitis typically occurs 1-2 weeks after the onset of the illness. Febrile convulsions, giant cell pneumonia, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis are also possible complications of measles.

      When managing contacts of individuals with measles, it is important to offer the MMR vaccine to children who have not been immunized against measles. The vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection, so it should be administered within 72 hours of contact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
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  • Question 138 - A 42-year-old woman develops a severe skin rash two weeks after starting a...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman develops a severe skin rash two weeks after starting a course of vancomycin. Initially, she experienced general malaise with a mild fever and flu-like symptoms. Subsequently, she developed a rash characterized by multiple 'target lesions' which have now progressed to severe bullous, ulcerating skin lesions with areas of epidermal detachment. It is estimated that the epidermal detachment is affecting 35% of her total body surface area.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis

      Explanation:

      Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a severe and potentially life-threatening form of erythema multiforme. This condition leads to the detachment of the dermis from the lower layers of the skin. In some cases, it can result in death due to sepsis and failure of multiple organs.

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are considered to be different stages of the same mucocutaneous disease, with toxic epidermal necrolysis being more severe. The degree of epidermal detachment is used to differentiate between the two conditions. In Stevens-Johnson syndrome, less than 10% of the body surface area is affected by epidermal detachment, while in toxic epidermal necrolysis, it is greater than 30%. An overlap syndrome occurs when the detachment is between 10-30% of the body surface area.

      Certain medications can trigger Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis. These include tetracyclines, penicillins, vancomycin, sulphonamides, NSAIDs, and barbiturates. It is important to be aware of these potential triggers and seek medical attention if any symptoms or signs of these conditions develop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.6
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  • Question 139 - A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increasing numbness and weakness...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increasing numbness and weakness in his legs over the past 4 days. The symptoms seem to be spreading upwards towards his thighs, and he has also noticed some weakness in his hands. He mentions that he had a bad bout of diarrhea about three weeks ago, but otherwise, he has been healthy. What is the most likely organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      This patient’s medical history suggests a diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). GBS typically presents with initial symptoms of sensory changes or pain, accompanied by muscle weakness in the hands and/or feet. This weakness often spreads to the arms and upper body, affecting both sides. During the acute phase, GBS can be life-threatening, with around 15% of patients experiencing respiratory muscle weakness and requiring mechanical ventilation.

      The exact cause of GBS is unknown, but it is believed to involve an autoimmune response where the body’s immune system attacks the myelin sheath surrounding the peripheral nerves. In about 75% of cases, there is a preceding infection, commonly affecting the gastrointestinal or respiratory tracts.

      In this particular case, the most likely underlying cause is Campylobacter jejuni, a gastrointestinal pathogen. This is supported by the recent history of a severe diarrheal illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 140 - You assess a 60-year-old woman who has a confirmed diagnosis of aortic stenosis.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 60-year-old woman who has a confirmed diagnosis of aortic stenosis.
      Which ONE statement accurately describes aortic stenosis?

      Your Answer: Fixed splitting of the second heart sound occurs

      Correct Answer: A 4th heart sound may be present

      Explanation:

      Aortic stenosis can be identified through various clinical signs. These signs include a slow rising and low-volume pulse, as well as a narrow pulse pressure. The ejection systolic murmur, which is loudest in the aortic area (2nd intercostal space, close to the sternum), is another indicator. Additionally, a sustained apex beat and a thrill in the aortic area can be felt when the patient is sitting forward at the end of expiration. In some cases, a 4th heart sound may also be present. It is important to note that in severe cases of aortic stenosis, there may be reverse splitting of the second heart sound. However, fixed splitting of the 2nd heart sound is typically associated with ASD and VSD. Lastly, the presence of an ejection click can help exclude supra- or subaortic stenosis, especially if the valve is pliable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 141 - A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department and admits to...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male presents to the emergency department and admits to ingesting 60 paracetamol tablets 9 hours ago. What is the primary intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer: N-acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      N-acetylcysteine (NAC) enhances the production of glutathione, a substance that helps in the detoxification process. Specifically, NAC aids in the conjugation of NAPQI, a harmful metabolite of paracetamol, with glutathione, thereby neutralizing its toxicity.

      Further Reading:

      Paracetamol poisoning occurs when the liver is unable to metabolize paracetamol properly, leading to the production of a toxic metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI). Normally, NAPQI is conjugated by glutathione into a non-toxic form. However, during an overdose, the liver’s conjugation systems become overwhelmed, resulting in increased production of NAPQI and depletion of glutathione stores. This leads to the formation of covalent bonds between NAPQI and cell proteins, causing cell death in the liver and kidneys.

      Symptoms of paracetamol poisoning may not appear for the first 24 hours or may include abdominal symptoms such as nausea and vomiting. After 24 hours, hepatic necrosis may develop, leading to elevated liver enzymes, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. Other complications can include encephalopathy, oliguria, hypoglycemia, renal failure, and lactic acidosis.

      The management of paracetamol overdose depends on the timing and amount of ingestion. Activated charcoal may be given if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingesting a significant amount of paracetamol. N-acetylcysteine (NAC) is used to increase hepatic glutathione production and is given to patients who meet specific criteria. Blood tests are taken to assess paracetamol levels, liver function, and other parameters. Referral to a medical or liver unit may be necessary, and psychiatric follow-up should be considered for deliberate overdoses.

      In cases of staggered ingestion, all patients should be treated with NAC without delay. Blood tests are also taken, and if certain criteria are met, NAC can be discontinued. Adverse reactions to NAC are common and may include anaphylactoid reactions, rash, hypotension, and nausea. Treatment for adverse reactions involves medications such as chlorpheniramine and salbutamol, and the infusion may be stopped if necessary.

      The prognosis for paracetamol poisoning can be poor, especially in cases of severe liver injury. Fulminant liver failure may occur, and liver transplant may be necessary. Poor prognostic indicators include low arterial pH, prolonged prothrombin time, high plasma creatinine, and hepatic encephalopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 142 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the left flank and extending to the groin. You suspect a diagnosis of ureteric colic.
      What is the preferred imaging technique for confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Contrast helical computed tomography

      Correct Answer: Non-contrast helical computed tomography

      Explanation:

      The term renal colic is commonly used to describe a sudden and intense pain in the lower back caused by a blockage in the ureter, which is the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. However, a more accurate term is ureteric colic, as the pain usually arises from a blockage in the ureter itself.

      Renal or ureteric colic typically presents with a sudden onset of severe abdominal pain on one side, starting in the lower back or flank and radiating to the genital area in women or to the groin or testicle in men.

      The pain usually:
      – Lasts for minutes to hours and comes in spasms, with periods of no pain or a dull ache
      – Is often accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and blood in the urine
      – Is often described as the most intense pain a person has ever experienced (many women describe it as worse than childbirth).

      People with renal or ureteric colic:
      – Are restless and unable to find relief by lying still (which helps distinguish it from peritonitis)
      – May have a history of previous episodes
      – May have a fever and sweating if there is a urinary tract infection present
      – May complain of painful urination, frequent urination, and straining when the stone reaches the junction between the ureter and bladder (due to irritation of the bladder muscle).

      If possible, a urine dipstick test should be done to support the diagnosis and check for signs of a urinary tract infection.

      Checking for blood in the urine can also support the diagnosis of renal or ureteric colic. However, the absence of blood does not rule out the diagnosis and other causes of pain should be considered.

      Checking for nitrite and leukocyte esterase in the urine can indicate an infection.

      Pain management:
      – Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the first-line treatment for adults, children, and young people with suspected renal colic.
      – Intravenous paracetamol can be given to adults, children, and young people if NSAIDs are not suitable or not providing enough pain relief.
      – Opioids may be considered if both NSAIDs and intravenous paracetamol are not suitable or not providing enough pain relief.
      – Antispasmodics should not be given to adults, children, and young people with suspected renal colic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 143 - A 60-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department with a deep cut on...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department with a deep cut on their leg. They have a history of alcoholism and typically consumes 10-12 drinks daily. Despite previous attempts at sobriety, they have consistently relapsed within a few days. It is currently 11 am, and they have already consumed alcohol today.
      What would be the most suitable course of action to pursue?

      Your Answer: Refer them to the Community Drug and Alcohol Team for inpatient detox

      Correct Answer: Explore the reasons behind their previous relapses and the methods they have used to stop drinking in the past

      Explanation:

      When addressing the management of long-term alcohol abuse and promoting self-care, it is important to start by exploring the reasons behind the patient’s previous relapses. This will help understand her beliefs and understanding of her condition and identify any simple, supportive measures that can aid in her efforts to stop drinking.

      Referral to the Community Drug and Alcohol Team (CDAT) may be necessary at some point. Depending on the severity and duration of her alcohol abuse, she may be suitable for outpatient or community detox. However, if her drinking has been sustained and heavy for many years, she may require admission for additional support. It is important to note that there is often a long wait for available beds, so it would be more prudent to thoroughly explore her history before making this referral.

      While arranging for her liver function to be tested could be part of the general work-up, it is unlikely to be necessary for a leg laceration. It is crucial to avoid suddenly abstaining or prescribing chlordiazepoxide, as these actions can be potentially dangerous. Abrupt detoxification may lead to delirium tremens, which can have catastrophic effects. Chlordiazepoxide may be used under the supervision of experienced professionals, but close monitoring and regular appointments with a GP or specialist are essential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 144 - A 25-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a fall from a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male arrives at the emergency department following a fall from a wall and hitting his face on a concrete bollard. There is a suspicion of a Le Fort fracture. What clinical tests would you perform to confirm this?

      Your Answer: Place one hand on the forehead to stabilise it. With the other hand gently grip the upper teeth and anterior maxilla and gently rock the hard palate back and forth

      Explanation:

      To clinically test for Le Fort fractures, one can perform the following procedure: Place one hand on the forehead to stabilize it, and with the other hand, gently grip the upper teeth and anterior maxilla. Then, gently rock the hard palate back and forth.

      This test is useful in suspected cases of Le Fort fractures. In a Le Fort I fracture, only the teeth and hard palate will move, while the rest of the mid face and skull remain still. In Le Fort II fractures, the teeth, hard palate, and nose will move, but the eyes and zygomatic arches will remain still. In Le Fort III fractures, the entire face will move in relation to the forehead.

      Further Reading:

      The Le Fort fracture classification describes three fracture patterns seen in midface fractures, all involving the maxilla and pterygoid plate disruption. As the classification grading increases, the anatomic level of the maxillary fracture ascends from inferior to superior.

      Le Fort I fractures, also known as floating palate fractures, typically result from a downward blow struck above the upper dental row. Signs include swelling of the upper lip, bruising to the upper buccal sulcus, malocclusion, and mobile upper teeth.

      Le Fort II fractures, also known as floating maxilla fractures, are typically the result of a forceful blow to the midaxillary area. Signs include a step deformity at the infraorbital margin, oedema over the middle third of the face, sensory disturbance of the cheek, and bilateral circumorbital ecchymosis.

      Le Fort III fractures, also known as craniofacial dislocation or floating face fractures, are typically the result of high force blows to the nasal bridge or upper maxilla. These fractures involve the zygomatic arch and extend through various structures in the face. Signs include tenderness at the frontozygomatic suture, lengthening of the face, enophthalmos, and bilateral circumorbital ecchymosis.

      Management of Le Fort fractures involves securing the airway as a priority, following the ABCDE approach, and identifying and managing other injuries, especially cervical spine injuries. Severe bleeding may occur and should be addressed appropriately. Surgery is almost always required, and patients should be referred to maxillofacial surgeons. Other specialties, such as neurosurgery and ophthalmology, may need to be involved depending on the specific case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 145 - You are overseeing the care of a 72-year-old patient who is experiencing a...

    Correct

    • You are overseeing the care of a 72-year-old patient who is experiencing a peri-arrest arrhythmia. Laboratory results indicate that the patient has a significant deficiency of magnesium in their blood. After careful consideration, you determine that administering magnesium sulfate is necessary. What is the appropriate dosage regimen for this treatment?

      Your Answer: 2g IV given over 10-15 minutes

      Explanation:

      To treat serious arrhythmia caused by hypomagnesaemia, it is recommended to administer 2 g of magnesium sulphate intravenously over a period of 10-15 minutes.

      Further Reading:

      In the management of respiratory and cardiac arrest, several drugs are commonly used to help restore normal function and improve outcomes. Adrenaline is a non-selective agonist of adrenergic receptors and is administered intravenously at a dose of 1 mg every 3-5 minutes. It works by causing vasoconstriction, increasing systemic vascular resistance (SVR), and improving cardiac output by increasing the force of heart contraction. Adrenaline also has bronchodilatory effects.

      Amiodarone is another drug used in cardiac arrest situations. It blocks voltage-gated potassium channels, which prolongs repolarization and reduces myocardial excitability. The initial dose of amiodarone is 300 mg intravenously after 3 shocks, followed by a dose of 150 mg after 5 shocks.

      Lidocaine is an alternative to amiodarone in cardiac arrest situations. It works by blocking sodium channels and decreasing heart rate. The recommended dose is 1 mg/kg by slow intravenous injection, with a repeat half of the initial dose after 5 minutes. The maximum total dose of lidocaine is 3 mg/kg.

      Magnesium sulfate is used to reverse myocardial hyperexcitability associated with hypomagnesemia. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 2 g over 10-15 minutes. An additional dose may be given if necessary, but the maximum total dose should not exceed 3 g.

      Atropine is an antagonist of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and is used to counteract the slowing of heart rate caused by the parasympathetic nervous system. It is administered intravenously at a dose of 500 mcg every 3-5 minutes, with a maximum dose of 3 mg.

      Naloxone is a competitive antagonist for opioid receptors and is used in cases of respiratory arrest caused by opioid overdose. It has a short duration of action, so careful monitoring is necessary. The initial dose of naloxone is 400 micrograms, followed by 800 mcg after 1 minute. The dose can be gradually escalated up to 2 mg per dose if there is no response to the preceding dose.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to have knowledge of the pharmacology and dosing schedules of these drugs in order to effectively manage respiratory and cardiac arrest situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      4.2
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  • Question 146 - A 38-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of excessively heavy menstrual periods....

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of excessively heavy menstrual periods. Her GP recently ordered a complete blood count, which came back normal. During a vaginal examination, no apparent abnormalities were found. She is content with having finished having children.
      Based on the latest NICE guidelines, what would be the most appropriate treatment option for her? Select only ONE response.

      Your Answer: Mirena IUS

      Explanation:

      The most recent guidelines from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommend using a LNG-IUS, such as Mirena IUS, as the initial treatment for heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) in women who have no identified pathology, fibroids smaller than 3 cm without uterine cavity distortion, or suspected/diagnosed adenomyosis. If a woman declines or cannot use an LNG-IUS, alternative pharmacological treatments can be considered. These include non-hormonal options like Tranexamic acid or NSAIDs, as well as hormonal options like combined hormonal contraception or cyclical oral progestogens. to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and management of heavy menstrual bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 147 - A 35-year-old individual presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old individual presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain that started approximately 30 minutes after consuming a spicy meal. The patient reports not taking any regular or over-the-counter medications and denies any recreational drug use. They mention experiencing abdominal pain after eating for a few weeks and recently visited their general practitioner (GP) who requested a stool sample for testing. The patient states that the pain has worsened since then and they are also experiencing nausea. Upon reviewing the pathology results, it is noted that the stool sample tested positive for helicobacter pylori. The suspicion is that the patient has an h.pylori associated peptic ulcer. According to NICE guidelines, what is the recommended first-line treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Cefaclor plus metronidazole plus lansoprazole for 7 days

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin plus clarithromycin plus omeprazole for 7 days

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line antibiotics for eradicating H. pylori are amoxicillin in combination with either clarithromycin or metronidazole. According to NICE guidelines, for H. pylori-associated ulcers not caused by NSAID use, a 7-day eradication therapy is advised. This therapy consists of taking amoxicillin 1 g twice daily, along with either clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily or metronidazole 400 mg twice daily. Additionally, a proton pump inhibitor should be taken twice daily, with several options available. Please refer to the yellow box at the end of the notes for appropriate PPI choices.

      Further Reading:

      Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is a condition characterized by a break in the mucosal lining of the stomach or duodenum. It is caused by an imbalance between factors that promote mucosal damage, such as gastric acid, pepsin, Helicobacter pylori infection, and NSAID drug use, and factors that maintain mucosal integrity, such as prostaglandins, mucus lining, bicarbonate, and mucosal blood flow.

      The most common causes of peptic ulcers are H. pylori infection and NSAID use. Other factors that can contribute to the development of ulcers include smoking, alcohol consumption, certain medications (such as steroids), stress, autoimmune conditions, and tumors.

      Diagnosis of peptic ulcers involves screening for H. pylori infection through breath or stool antigen tests, as well as upper gastrointestinal endoscopy. Complications of PUD include bleeding, perforation, and obstruction. Acute massive hemorrhage has a case fatality rate of 5-10%, while perforation can lead to peritonitis with a mortality rate of up to 20%.

      The symptoms of peptic ulcers vary depending on their location. Duodenal ulcers typically cause pain that is relieved by eating, occurs 2-3 hours after eating and at night, and may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Gastric ulcers, on the other hand, cause pain that occurs 30 minutes after eating and may be associated with nausea and vomiting.

      Management of peptic ulcers depends on the underlying cause and presentation. Patients with active gastrointestinal bleeding require risk stratification, volume resuscitation, endoscopy, and proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. Those with perforated ulcers require resuscitation, antibiotic treatment, analgesia, PPI therapy, and urgent surgical review.

      For stable patients with peptic ulcers, lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, avoiding trigger foods, eating smaller meals, quitting smoking, reducing alcohol consumption, and managing stress and anxiety are recommended. Medication review should be done to stop causative drugs if possible. PPI therapy, with or without H. pylori eradication therapy, is also prescribed. H. pylori testing is typically done using a carbon-13 urea breath test or stool antigen test, and eradication therapy involves a 7-day triple therapy regimen of antibiotics and PPI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      67.3
      Seconds
  • Question 148 - You are informed that a 45-year-old individual is en route to the emergency...

    Correct

    • You are informed that a 45-year-old individual is en route to the emergency department after inhaling an unidentified gas that was intentionally released on a commuter train. Authorities suspect a potential terrorist attack and recommend checking the patient for signs of organophosphate poisoning. What clinical feature would be anticipated in a case of organophosphate poisoning?

      Your Answer: Drooling saliva

      Explanation:

      Organophosphate poisoning is characterized by a set of symptoms known as SLUDGE (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, Gastric cramps, Emesis). Additionally, individuals affected may experience pinpoint pupils, profuse sweating, tremors, and confusion. Organophosphates serve as the foundation for various weaponized nerve agents like Sarin and VX, which were infamously employed by the terrorist group Aum Shinrikyo during multiple attacks in Tokyo in the mid-1990s. While SLUDGE is a commonly used acronym to recall the clinical features, it is important to note that other symptoms such as pinpoint pupils, profuse sweating, tremors, and confusion are not included in the acronym.

      Further Reading:

      Chemical incidents can occur as a result of leaks, spills, explosions, fires, terrorism, or the use of chemicals during wars. Industrial sites that use chemicals are required to conduct risk assessments and have accident plans in place for such incidents. Health services are responsible for decontamination, unless mass casualties are involved, and all acute health trusts must have major incident plans in place.

      When responding to a chemical incident, hospitals prioritize containment of the incident and prevention of secondary contamination, triage with basic first aid, decontamination if not done at the scene, recognition and management of toxidromes (symptoms caused by exposure to specific toxins), appropriate supportive or antidotal treatment, transfer to definitive treatment, a safe end to the hospital response, and continuation of business after the event.

      To obtain advice when dealing with chemical incidents, the two main bodies are Toxbase and the National Poisons Information Service. Signage on containers carrying chemicals and material safety data sheets (MSDS) accompanying chemicals also provide information on the chemical contents and their hazards.

      Contamination in chemical incidents can occur in three phases: primary contamination from the initial incident, secondary contamination spread via contaminated people leaving the initial scene, and tertiary contamination spread to the environment, including becoming airborne and waterborne. The ideal personal protective equipment (PPE) for chemical incidents is an all-in-one chemical-resistant overall with integral head/visor and hands/feet worn with a mask, gloves, and boots.

      Decontamination of contaminated individuals involves the removal and disposal of contaminated clothing, followed by either dry or wet decontamination. Dry decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with non-caustic chemicals and involves blotting and rubbing exposed skin gently with dry absorbent material. Wet decontamination is suitable for patients contaminated with caustic chemicals and involves a warm water shower while cleaning the body with simple detergent.

      After decontamination, the focus shifts to assessing the extent of any possible poisoning and managing it. The patient’s history should establish the chemical the patient was exposed to, the volume and concentration of the chemical, the route of exposure, any protective measures in place, and any treatment given. Most chemical poisonings require supportive care using standard resuscitation principles, while some chemicals have specific antidotes. Identifying toxidromes can be useful in guiding treatment, and specific antidotes may be administered accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      7.3
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  • Question 149 - A 82 year old woman is brought into the emergency department by her...

    Correct

    • A 82 year old woman is brought into the emergency department by her two daughters. They are worried as the patient has become more disoriented and restless over the past two nights and has started shouting out. The patient's daughters inform you that the patient has limited mobility, relying on a wheelchair except for very short distances, but typically maintains normal awareness. When attempting to gather a medical history, the patient angrily tells you to 'go away' and repeatedly asks her daughters 'where am I?'

      Your Answer: 1 mg haloperidol by intramuscular injection

      Explanation:

      In cases of delirium with challenging behavior, short-term low-dose haloperidol is typically the preferred medication. This patient is likely experiencing delirium due to a urinary tract infection. If the patient’s behavior becomes aggressive or poses a risk to themselves or others, pharmacological intervention may be necessary if non-verbal and verbal de-escalation techniques are ineffective or inappropriate. It is important to note that antipsychotics should be avoided in patients with Parkinson’s disease. Low-dose haloperidol can be administered orally or through an intramuscular injection. However, if the patient refuses oral medication, alternative methods may need to be considered.

      Further Reading:

      Delirium is an acute syndrome that causes disturbances in consciousness, attention, cognition, and perception. It is also known as an acute confusional state. The DSM-IV criteria for diagnosing delirium include recent onset of fluctuating awareness, impairment of memory and attention, and disorganized thinking. Delirium typically develops over hours to days and may be accompanied by behavioral changes, personality changes, and psychotic features. It often occurs in individuals with predisposing factors, such as advanced age or multiple comorbidities, when exposed to new precipitating factors, such as medications or infection. Symptoms of delirium fluctuate throughout the day, with lucid intervals occurring during the day and worse disturbances at night. Falling and loss of appetite are often warning signs of delirium.

      Delirium can be classified into three subtypes based on the person’s symptoms. Hyperactive delirium is characterized by inappropriate behavior, hallucinations, and agitation. Restlessness and wandering are common in this subtype. Hypoactive delirium is characterized by lethargy, reduced concentration, and appetite. The person may appear quiet or withdrawn. Mixed delirium presents with signs and symptoms of both hyperactive and hypoactive subtypes.

      The exact pathophysiology of delirium is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve multiple mechanisms, including cholinergic deficiency, dopaminergic excess, and inflammation. The cause of delirium is usually multifactorial, with predisposing factors and precipitating factors playing a role. Predisposing factors include older age, cognitive impairment, frailty, significant injuries, and iatrogenic events. Precipitating factors include infection, metabolic or electrolyte disturbances, cardiovascular disorders, respiratory disorders, neurological disorders, endocrine disorders, urological disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, severe uncontrolled pain, alcohol intoxication or withdrawal, medication use, and psychosocial factors.

      Delirium is highly prevalent in hospital settings, affecting up to 50% of inpatients aged over 65 and occurring in 30% of people aged over 65 presenting to the emergency department. Complications of delirium include increased risk of death, high in-hospital mortality rates, higher mortality rates following hospital discharge, increased length of stay in hospital, nosocomial infections, increased risk of admission to long-term care or re-admission to hospital, increased incidence of dementia, increased risk of falls and associated injuries, pressure sores.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      8.5
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  • Question 150 - A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being found disoriented and lethargic by a family member. The family member informs you that the patient has a history of depression and that there were multiple empty bottles of aspirin at the patient's residence. Initial tests are conducted, including a salicylate level. Upon reviewing the salicylate result, you commence the urinary alkalinisation protocol. What is the desired treatment range?

      Your Answer: Urinary pH is 7.5-8.5

      Explanation:

      Urinary alkalinisation aims to achieve a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5. This process helps enhance the elimination of salicylates. It is important to regularly monitor urinary pH, ideally on an hourly basis.

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      3.5
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  • Question 151 - You assess a patient with nausea, vomiting, restlessness, and palpitations. She is on...

    Correct

    • You assess a patient with nausea, vomiting, restlessness, and palpitations. She is on theophylline for the treatment of her COPD. You suspect toxicity and order blood tests for evaluation.
      What is the target range for theophylline levels?

      Your Answer: 10-20 mg/L

      Explanation:

      The therapeutic range for theophylline is quite limited, ranging from 10 to 20 micrograms per milliliter (10-20 mg/L). It is important to estimate the plasma concentration of aminophylline during long-term treatment as it can provide valuable information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      16.6
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  • Question 152 - A patient presents with a blistering rash. The differential diagnosis includes pemphigoid vulgaris...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with a blistering rash. The differential diagnosis includes pemphigoid vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid.
      Which of the following features would indicate a diagnosis of bullous pemphigoid?

      Your Answer: Skin biopsy showing intra-epidermal deposition of IgG between cells throughout the epidermis

      Correct Answer: Prominent pruritus

      Explanation:

      Bullous pemphigoid (BP) is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the skin, causing blistering. It occurs when the immune system mistakenly attacks the basement membrane of the epidermis. This attack is carried out by immunoglobulins (IgG and sometimes IgE) and activated T lymphocytes. The autoantibodies bind to proteins and release cytokines, leading to complement activation, neutrophil recruitment, and the release of enzymes that destroy the hemidesmosomes. As a result, subepidermal blisters form.

      Pemphigus, on the other hand, is a group of autoimmune disorders characterized by blistering of the skin and mucosal surfaces. The most common type, pemphigus vulgaris (PV), accounts for about 70% of cases worldwide. PV is also autoimmune in nature, with autoantibodies targeting cell surface antigens on keratinocytes (desmogleins 1 and 3). This leads to a loss of adhesion between cells and their separation.

      Here is a comparison of the key differences between pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid:

      Pemphigus vulgaris:
      – Age: Middle-aged people (average age 50)
      – Oral involvement: Common
      – Blister type: Large, flaccid, and painful
      – Blister content: Fluid-filled, often haemorrhagic
      – Areas commonly affected: Initially face and scalp, then spread to the chest and back
      – Nikolsky sign: Usually positive
      – Pruritus: Rare
      – Skin biopsy: Intra-epidermal deposition of IgG between cells throughout the epidermis

      Bullous pemphigoid:
      – Age: Elderly people (average age 80)
      – Oral involvement: Rare
      – Blister type: Large and tense
      – Blister content: Fluid-filled
      – Areas commonly affected: Upper arms, thighs, and skin flexures
      – Nikolsky sign: Usually negative
      – Pruritus: Common
      – Skin biopsy: A band of IgG and/or C3 at the dermo-epidermal junction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.4
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  • Question 153 - A 30-year-old man comes in with a cough and wheezing.
    What ONE clinical...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes in with a cough and wheezing.
      What ONE clinical feature would indicate a potential diagnosis of severe asthma?

      Your Answer: Inability to complete sentences in one breath

      Correct Answer: Normal PaCO2

      Explanation:

      Asthma can be categorized into three levels of severity: moderate exacerbation, acute severe asthma, and life-threatening asthma.

      Moderate exacerbation is characterized by an increase in symptoms and a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) that is between 50-75% of the best or predicted value. There are no signs of acute severe asthma present.

      Acute severe asthma is indicated by a PEFR that is between 33-50% of the best or predicted value. Additionally, the respiratory rate is higher than 25 breaths per minute and the heart rate is higher than 110 beats per minute. People experiencing acute severe asthma may have difficulty completing sentences in one breath.

      Life-threatening asthma is the most severe level and requires immediate medical attention. It is identified by a PEFR that is less than 33% of the best or predicted value. Oxygen saturations are below 92% when breathing regular air. The PaCO2 levels are within the normal range of 4.6-6.0 KPa, but the PaO2 levels are below 8 KPa. Other symptoms include a silent chest, cyanosis, feeble respiratory effort, bradycardia, arrhythmia, hypotension, and signs of exhaustion, confusion, or coma.

      It is important to recognize the severity of asthma symptoms in order to provide appropriate medical care and intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 154 - A 52-year-old businessman returns from a visit to Los Angeles with difficulty breathing...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old businessman returns from a visit to Los Angeles with difficulty breathing and chest pain that worsens with deep breaths. The results of his arterial blood gas (ABG) on room air are as follows:

      pH: 7.48
      pO2: 7.4 kPa
      PCO2: 3.1 kPa
      HCO3-: 24.5 mmol/l

      Which ONE statement about his ABG is correct?

      Your Answer: He has a respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) interpretation is crucial in evaluating a patient’s respiratory gas exchange and acid-base balance. While the normal values on an ABG may slightly vary between analysers, they generally fall within the following ranges: pH of 7.35 – 7.45, pO2 of 10 – 14 kPa, PCO2 of 4.5 – 6 kPa, HCO3- of 22 – 26 mmol/l, and base excess of -2 – 2 mmol/l.

      In this particular case, the patient’s medical history raises concerns about a potential diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. The relevant ABG findings are as follows: significant hypoxia (indicating type 1 respiratory failure), elevated pH (alkalaemia), low PCO2, and normal bicarbonate levels. These findings suggest that the patient is experiencing primary respiratory alkalosis.

      By analyzing the ABG results, healthcare professionals can gain valuable insights into a patient’s respiratory function and acid-base status, aiding in the diagnosis and management of various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 155 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman comes in with dysuria, high body temperature, chills, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman comes in with dysuria, high body temperature, chills, and pain in her left side. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the left renal angle and her temperature is measured at 38.6°C. The triage nurse has already inserted a cannula and sent her blood samples to the laboratory.
      What is the MOST SUITABLE antibiotic to prescribe for this situation?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Correct Answer: Cefuroxime

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with a diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis. Additionally, she is showing signs of sepsis and is pregnant, which makes it necessary to admit her for inpatient treatment.

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), patients with pyelonephritis should be admitted if it is severe or if they exhibit any signs or symptoms that suggest a more serious illness or condition, such as sepsis. Signs of sepsis include significant tachycardia, hypotension, or breathlessness, as well as marked signs of illness like impaired level of consciousness, profuse sweating, rigors, pallor, or significantly reduced mobility. A temperature greater than 38°C or less than 36°C is also indicative of sepsis.

      NICE also recommends considering referral or seeking specialist advice for individuals with acute pyelonephritis if they are significantly dehydrated or unable to take oral fluids and medicines, if they are pregnant, if they have a higher risk of developing complications due to known or suspected structural or functional abnormalities of the genitourinary tract or underlying diseases like diabetes mellitus or immunosuppression, or if they have recurrent episodes of urinary tract infections (UTIs).

      For non-pregnant women and men, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line options include cefalexin, ciprofloxacin, or co-amoxiclav (taking into account local microbial resistance data), and intravenous first-line options (if severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment) include amikacin, ceftriaxone, cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, or gentamicin. Co-amoxiclav may be used if given in combination or if sensitivity is known. Antibacterials may be combined if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis. For intravenous second-line options, it is recommended to consult a local microbiologist.

      For pregnant women, the recommended choice of antibacterial therapy is as follows: oral first-line option is cefalexin, and intravenous first-line option (if severely unwell or unable to take oral treatment) is cefuroxime. Intravenous second-line options or combining antibacterials should be considered if there are concerns about susceptibility or sepsis, and consultation with a local microbiologist is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 156 - A 12-day-old baby girl is brought to the Emergency Department by the community...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-day-old baby girl is brought to the Emergency Department by the community midwife. She has been having difficulty with feeding, and her mother reports that she has been vomiting after most meals. Her diaper is stained with dark urine, and her mother mentions that her stools have been pale and chalky. She has some bruises on her arms and legs. The midwife has arranged for a heel prick test, which has revealed a total serum bilirubin of 208 mmol/l, with 80% being conjugated.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Breast milk jaundice

      Correct Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      This infant is displaying prolonged jaundice and failure to thrive. Prolonged jaundice is defined as jaundice that persists beyond the first 14 days of life. Neonatal jaundice can be divided into two categories: unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which can be either physiological or pathological, and conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which is always pathological.

      Causes of prolonged unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia include breast milk jaundice, infections (particularly urinary tract infections), haemolysis (most commonly rhesus haemolytic disease), hypothyroidism, hereditary disorders (such as Crigler-Najjar syndrome), and galactosemia.

      Causes of prolonged conjugated hyperbilirubinemia include biliary atresia, choledochal cysts, and neonatal hepatitis. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia often presents with symptoms such as failure to thrive, easy bruising or bleeding tendency, dark urine, and pale, chalky stools.

      In this case, the jaundice is clearly conjugated, and the only cause of prolonged conjugated hyperbilirubinemia listed is biliary atresia. To evaluate conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, an ultrasound of the bile ducts and gallbladder should be performed. If dilatation is observed, it may indicate the presence of choledochal cysts, which should be further investigated with a cholangiogram. If the bile ducts and gallbladder appear normal or are not visualized, a radionuclide scan is often conducted. The absence of excretion on the scan is consistent with biliary atresia.

      Biliary atresia is a condition characterized by progressive destruction or absence of the extrahepatic biliary tree and intrahepatic biliary ducts. It is a rare condition, occurring in approximately 1 in 10-15,000 live births in the western world. Infants with biliary atresia typically exhibit jaundice early on, and their stools are pale while their urine is dark starting from the second day of life. If left untreated, the condition will progress to chronic liver failure, leading to portal hypertension and hepatosplenomegaly. Without treatment, death is inevitable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 157 - A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friend because...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his friend because he took an excessive amount of aspirin 45 minutes ago.
      Which of the following should NOT be included in the treatment plan for severe salicylate poisoning that presents within 1 hour of overdose?

      Your Answer: 1.26% sodium bicarbonate administration

      Correct Answer: Forced alkaline diuresis

      Explanation:

      Salicylate poisoning is a fairly common form of poisoning that can lead to organ damage and death if not treated promptly. The symptoms of salicylate poisoning include nausea, vomiting, ringing in the ears, hearing loss, excessive sweating, dehydration, rapid breathing, flushed skin, and high fever in children. In severe cases, convulsions, swelling of the brain, coma, kidney failure, fluid in the lungs, and unstable heart function can occur.

      The treatment for salicylate poisoning involves stabilizing the patient’s airway, breathing, and circulation as needed, preventing further absorption of the poison, enhancing its elimination from the body, correcting any metabolic abnormalities, and providing supportive care. Unfortunately, there is no specific antidote available for salicylates. If a large amount of salicylate has been ingested within the past hour (more than 4.5 grams in adults or more than 2 grams in children), gastric lavage (stomach pumping) and administration of activated charcoal (50 grams) are recommended to reduce absorption and increase elimination.

      Medical investigations for salicylate poisoning should include measuring the level of salicylate in the blood, analyzing arterial blood gases, performing an electrocardiogram (ECG), checking blood glucose levels, assessing kidney function and electrolyte levels, and evaluating blood clotting. ECG abnormalities that may be present include widening of the QRS complex, AV block, and ventricular arrhythmias.

      The severity of salicylate poisoning is determined by the level of salicylate in the blood. Mild poisoning is defined as a salicylate level below 450 mg/L, moderate poisoning is between 450-700 mg/L, and severe poisoning is above 700 mg/L. In severe cases, aggressive intravenous fluid therapy is necessary to correct dehydration, and administration of 1.26% sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate the salicylate from the body. It is important to maintain a urine pH of greater than 7.5, ideally between 8.0-8.5. However, forced alkaline diuresis is no longer recommended. Life-threatening cases may require admission to the intensive care unit, intubation and ventilation, and possibly hemodialysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 158 - A 25-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department from working in a radiation...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department from working in a radiation lab. He informs you that he may have been exposed to dangerous radiation. The patient mentions that it has been less than 24 hours since he left lab. Which of the following tests provides the most accurate prognosis for the severity of radiation sickness?

      Your Answer: Lymphocyte count

      Explanation:

      The count of lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell, can serve as an early indication of the level of radiation exposure. The severity of the exposure can be determined by observing the decrease in lymphocyte count, which is directly related to the amount of radiation absorbed by the body. Ideally, the count is measured 12 hours after exposure and then repeated every 4 hours initially to track the rate of decrease.

      Further Reading:

      Radiation exposure refers to the emission or transmission of energy in the form of waves or particles through space or a material medium. There are two types of radiation: ionizing and non-ionizing. Non-ionizing radiation, such as radio waves and visible light, has enough energy to move atoms within a molecule but not enough to remove electrons from atoms. Ionizing radiation, on the other hand, has enough energy to ionize atoms or molecules by detaching electrons from them.

      There are different types of ionizing radiation, including alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays, and X-rays. Alpha particles are positively charged and consist of 2 protons and 2 neutrons from the atom’s nucleus. They are emitted from the decay of heavy radioactive elements and do not travel far from the source atom. Beta particles are small, fast-moving particles with a negative electrical charge that are emitted from an atom’s nucleus during radioactive decay. They are more penetrating than alpha particles but less damaging to living tissue. Gamma rays and X-rays are weightless packets of energy called photons. Gamma rays are often emitted along with alpha or beta particles during radioactive decay and can easily penetrate barriers. X-rays, on the other hand, are generally lower in energy and less penetrating than gamma rays.

      Exposure to ionizing radiation can damage tissue cells by dislodging orbital electrons, leading to the generation of highly reactive ion pairs. This can result in DNA damage and an increased risk of future malignant change. The extent of cell damage depends on factors such as the type of radiation, time duration of exposure, distance from the source, and extent of shielding.

      The absorbed dose of radiation is directly proportional to time, so it is important to minimize the amount of time spent in the vicinity of a radioactive source. A lethal dose of radiation without medical management is 4.5 sieverts (Sv) to kill 50% of the population at 60 days. With medical management, the lethal dose is 5-6 Sv. The immediate effects of ionizing radiation can range from radiation burns to radiation sickness, which is divided into three main syndromes: hematopoietic, gastrointestinal, and neurovascular. Long-term effects can include hematopoietic cancers and solid tumor formation.

      In terms of management, support is mainly supportive and includes IV fluids, antiemetics, analgesia, nutritional support, antibiotics, blood component substitution, and reduction of brain edema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 159 - A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain in his right testis that has been bothering him for the past five days. The pain has been increasing gradually and he has also noticed swelling in the affected testis. During the examination, his temperature is measured at 38.5°C and the scrotum appears red and swollen on the affected side. Palpation reveals extreme tenderness in the testis.
      What is the most probable organism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Epididymo-orchitis refers to the inflammation of the epididymis and/or testicle. It typically presents with sudden pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected area. This condition can also occur chronically, which means that the pain and inflammation last for more than six months.

      The causes of epididymo-orchitis vary depending on the age of the patient. In men under 35 years old, the infection is usually sexually transmitted and caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men over 35 years old, the infection is usually non-sexually transmitted and occurs as a result of enteric organisms that cause urinary tract infections, with Escherichia coli being the most common. However, there can be some overlap between these groups, so it is important to obtain a thorough sexual history in all age groups.

      Mumps should also be considered as a potential cause of epididymo-orchitis in the 15 to 30 age group, as mumps orchitis occurs in around 40% of post-pubertal boys with mumps.

      While most cases of epididymo-orchitis are infective, non-infectious causes can also occur. These include genito-urinary surgery, vasectomy, urinary catheterization, Behcet’s disease, sarcoidosis, and drug-induced cases such as those caused by amiodarone.

      Patients with epididymo-orchitis typically present with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling that develops relatively quickly. The affected testis will be tender to touch, and there is usually a palpable swelling of the epididymis that starts at the lower pole of the testis and spreads towards the upper pole. The testis itself may also be involved, and there may be redness and/or swelling of the scrotum on the affected side. Patients may experience fever and urethral discharge as well.

      The most important differential diagnosis to consider is testicular torsion, which requires immediate medical attention within 6 hours of onset to save the testicle. Testicular torsion is more likely in men under the age of 20, especially if the pain is very severe and sudden. It typically presents around four hours after onset. In this case, the patient’s age, longer history of symptoms, and the presence of fever are more indicative of epididymo-orchitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 160 - You review a 72-year-old man that is on the Clinical Decision Unit (CDU)...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 72-year-old man that is on the Clinical Decision Unit (CDU) following the reduction of a hip fracture. His GP recently organized a DEXA scan, and you have managed to access the results on the CDU computer. The results showed a T-score of -2.0 standard deviations. He has no independent risk factors for fractures and no other indicators of low bone mineral density.
      Which SINGLE statement regarding this case is true?

      Your Answer: The patient has osteoporosis

      Correct Answer: The patient has osteopenia

      Explanation:

      Fragility fractures occur when a person experiences a fracture from a force that would not typically cause a fracture, such as a fall from a standing height or less. The most common areas for fragility fractures are the vertebrae, hip, and wrist. Osteoporosis is diagnosed when a patient’s bone mineral density, measured by a T-score on a DEXA scan, is -2.5 standard deviations or below. This T-score compares the patient’s bone density to the peak bone density of a population. In women over 75 years old, osteoporosis can be assumed without a DEXA scan. Osteopenia is diagnosed when a patient’s T-score is between -1 and -2.5 standard deviations below peak bone density. Risk factors for fractures include a family history of hip fractures, excessive alcohol consumption, and rheumatoid arthritis. Low bone mineral density can be indicated by a BMI below 22 kg/m2, untreated menopause, and conditions causing prolonged immobility or certain medical conditions. Medications used to prevent osteoporotic fractures in postmenopausal women include alendronate, risedronate, etidronate, and strontium ranelate. Raloxifene is not used for primary prevention. Alendronate is typically the first-choice medication and is recommended for women over 70 years old with confirmed osteoporosis and either a risk factor for fracture or low bone mineral density. Women over 75 years old with two risk factors or two indicators of low bone mineral density may be assumed to have osteoporosis without a DEXA scan. Other pharmacological interventions can be tried if alendronate is not tolerated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 161 - You review a 72-year-old man who is currently on the Clinical Decision Unit...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 72-year-old man who is currently on the Clinical Decision Unit (CDU) after undergoing surgery for a hip fracture that occurred as a result of a fall. He informs you that he experienced the onset of menopause in his early 50s. His primary care physician recently arranged for a DEXA scan, and you have obtained the results from the CDU computer. The scan reveals a T-score of -3.0 standard deviations. Upon reviewing his medical history and family history, you discover that his father suffered a hip fracture in his early 60s, and the patient himself has a body mass index of 21 kg/m2.

      Which SINGLE statement regarding this case is true?

      Your Answer: She has osteoporosis and should be started on calcichew D3 forte only

      Correct Answer: She has osteoporosis and ideally should be started on a combination of treatment such as alendronate and calcichew D3 forte

      Explanation:

      Fragility fractures occur when a person experiences a fracture from a force that would not typically cause a fracture, such as a fall from a standing height or less. The most common areas for fragility fractures are the vertebrae, hip, and wrist. Osteoporosis is diagnosed when a patient’s bone mineral density, measured by a T-score on a DEXA scan, is -2.5 standard deviations or below. This T-score compares the patient’s bone density to the peak bone density of a population. In women over 75 years old, osteoporosis can be assumed without a DEXA scan. Osteopenia is diagnosed when a patient’s T-score is between -1 and -2.5 standard deviations below peak bone density. Risk factors for fractures include a family history of hip fractures, excessive alcohol consumption, and rheumatoid arthritis. Low bone mineral density can be indicated by a BMI below 22 kg/m2, untreated menopause, and conditions causing prolonged immobility or certain medical conditions. Medications used to prevent osteoporotic fractures in postmenopausal women include alendronate, risedronate, etidronate, and strontium ranelate. Raloxifene is not used for primary prevention. Alendronate is typically the first-choice medication and is recommended for women over 70 years old with confirmed osteoporosis and either a risk factor for fracture or low bone mineral density. Women over 75 years old with two risk factors or two indicators of low bone mineral density may be assumed to have osteoporosis without a DEXA scan. Other pharmacological interventions can be tried if alendronate is not tolerated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 162 - You are evaluating a 30-year-old individual who has suffered a severe head injury...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 30-year-old individual who has suffered a severe head injury after being attacked with a baseball bat. There are indications that the patient may be experiencing elevated intracranial pressure. In a person with normal physiological conditions, what percentage of the intracranial volume is typically occupied by cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

      Your Answer: 10%

      Explanation:

      The intracranial volume refers to the total space inside the skull. The main component of this volume is the brain parenchyma or neural tissue, which makes up the majority of the intracranial volume.

      Further Reading:

      Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.

      The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.

      There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.

      Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 163 - A child presents with blurred vision, nausea, vomiting, and low sodium levels. They...

    Incorrect

    • A child presents with blurred vision, nausea, vomiting, and low sodium levels. They are taking carbamazepine for epilepsy. You suspect toxicity and send bloods for assessment.
      What is the recommended therapeutic range for carbamazepine in children?

      Your Answer: 2-4 mg/L

      Correct Answer: 4-10 mg/L

      Explanation:

      The therapeutic range for carbamazepine is between 4 and 10 mg/L. This range indicates the optimal concentration of the medication in the bloodstream for it to be effective in treating certain conditions. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor the levels of carbamazepine in a patient’s blood to ensure they are within this range. If the levels are too low, the medication may not be effective, while levels that are too high can lead to potential side effects. By maintaining carbamazepine levels within the therapeutic range, healthcare providers can maximize the benefits of the medication while minimizing any potential risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 164 - A 45-year-old Irish woman comes in with a complaint of increasingly severe shortness...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old Irish woman comes in with a complaint of increasingly severe shortness of breath. During the interview, she mentions experiencing joint pain for several months and having painful skin lesions on both shins. A chest X-ray is performed, which shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy.
      What is the specific syndrome she is experiencing?

      Your Answer: Löfgren’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient presents with a medical history and physical examination findings that are consistent with a diagnosis of Löfgren’s syndrome, which is a specific subtype of sarcoidosis. This syndrome is most commonly observed in women in their 30s and 40s, and it is more prevalent among individuals of Nordic and Irish descent.

      Löfgren’s syndrome is typically characterized by a triad of clinical features, including bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy seen on chest X-ray, erythema nodosum, and arthralgia, with a particular emphasis on ankle involvement. Additionally, other symptoms commonly associated with sarcoidosis may also be present, such as a dry cough, breathlessness, fever, night sweats, malaise, weight loss, Achilles tendonitis, and uveitis.

      In order to further evaluate this patient’s condition, it is recommended to refer them to a respiratory specialist for additional investigations. These investigations may include measuring the serum calcium level, as it may be elevated, and assessing the serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) level, which may also be elevated. A high-resolution CT scan can be performed to assess the extent of involvement and identify specific lymph nodes for potential biopsy. If there are any atypical features, a lymph node biopsy may be necessary. Lung function tests can be conducted to evaluate the patient’s vital capacity, and an MRI scan of the ankles may also be considered.

      Fortunately, the prognosis for Löfgren’s syndrome is generally very good, and it is considered a self-limiting and benign condition. The patient can expect to recover within a timeframe of six months to two years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 165 - You are treating a patient who fell from a rooftop and has sustained...

    Correct

    • You are treating a patient who fell from a rooftop and has sustained a fracture to the left calcaneus. Which of the following injuries is frequently associated with calcaneal fractures?

      Your Answer: Vertebral fracture

      Explanation:

      When patients have calcaneal fractures, it is important to evaluate them for any additional injuries that may be present. These can include vertebral fractures, fractures in the opposite calcaneus, and injuries to the cuboid bone.

      Further Reading:

      Calcaneus fractures are a common type of lower limb and joint injury. The calcaneus, or heel bone, is the most frequently fractured tarsal bone. These fractures are often intra-articular, meaning they involve the joint. The most common cause of calcaneus fractures is a fall or jump from a height.

      When assessing calcaneus fractures, X-rays are used to visualize the fracture lines. Two angles are commonly assessed to determine the severity of the fracture. Böhler’s angle, which measures the angle between two tangent lines drawn across the anterior and posterior borders of the calcaneus, should be between 20-40 degrees. If it is less than 20 degrees, it indicates a calcaneal fracture with flattening. The angle of Gissane, which measures the depression of the posterior facet of the subtalar joint, should be between 120-145 degrees. An increased angle of Gissane suggests a calcaneal fracture.

      In the emergency department, the management of a fractured calcaneus involves identifying the injury and any associated injuries, providing pain relief, elevating the affected limb(s), and referring the patient to an orthopedic specialist. It is important to be aware that calcaneus fractures are often accompanied by other injuries, such as bilateral fractures of vertebral fractures.

      The definitive management of a fractured calcaneus can be done conservatively or through surgery, specifically open reduction internal fixation (ORIF). The orthopedic team will typically order a CT or MRI scan to classify the fracture and determine the most appropriate treatment. However, a recent UK heel fracture trial suggests that in most cases, ORIF does not improve fracture outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 166 - A 70-year-old woman presents with painless haematuria and mild urinary urgency. Urine microscopy...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman presents with painless haematuria and mild urinary urgency. Urine microscopy and culture are normal. An intravenous urogram (IVU) was also performed recently and was reported as being normal. On examination, you note that her bladder feels slightly distended. The rest of her examination was entirely normal.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bladder cancer

      Explanation:

      Bladder cancer is the most likely diagnosis in this case, as patients with painless haematuria should undergo cystoscopy to rule out bladder cancer. This procedure is typically done in an outpatient setting as part of a haematuria clinic, using a flexible cystoscope and local anaesthetic.

      Prostate cancer is less likely in this case, as the patient’s prostate examination was relatively normal and he only had mild symptoms of bladder outlet obstruction.

      Bladder cancer is the seventh most common cancer in the UK, with men being three times more likely to develop it than women. The main risk factors for bladder cancer are increasing age and smoking. Smoking is responsible for about 50% of bladder cancers, as it is believed to be linked to the excretion of aromatic amines and polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons through the kidneys. Smokers have a 2-6 times higher risk of developing bladder cancer compared to non-smokers.

      Painless macroscopic haematuria is the most common symptom in 80-90% of bladder cancer patients. There are usually no abnormalities found during a standard physical examination.

      Current recommendations state that the following patients should be urgently referred for a urological assessment: adults over 45 years old with unexplained visible haematuria not caused by a urinary tract infection, adults over 45 years old with visible haematuria that persists or recurs after successful treatment of a urinary tract infection, and adults aged 60 and over with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test.

      For those aged 60 and over with recurrent or persistent unexplained urinary tract infections, a non-urgent referral for bladder cancer is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 167 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his father. For...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his father. For the past two days, he has been experiencing severe diarrhea and vomiting. He has not urinated today. He typically weighs 25 kg. What is the child's hourly maintenance fluid requirement when he is in good health?

      Your Answer: 65 ml/hour

      Explanation:

      The intravascular volume of an infant is approximately 80 ml/kg, while in older children it is around 70 ml/kg. Dehydration itself does not lead to death, but shock can occur when there is a loss of 20 ml/kg from the intravascular space. Clinical dehydration becomes evident only after total losses greater than 25 ml/kg.

      The table below summarizes the maintenance fluid requirements for well, normal children: Bodyweight:

      – First 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 100 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 4 ml/kg.

      – Second 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 50 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 2 ml/kg.

      – Subsequent kg: Daily fluid requirement of 20 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 1 ml/kg.

      Based on this information, the hourly maintenance fluid requirements for this child can be calculated as follows:

      – First 10 kg: 4 ml/kg = 40 ml

      – Second 10 kg: 2 ml/kg = 20 ml

      – Subsequent kg: 1 ml/kg = 5 ml

      Therefore, the total hourly maintenance fluid requirement for this child is 65 ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 168 - A 32-year-old patient comes in with a complaint of excessive menstrual bleeding. The...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient comes in with a complaint of excessive menstrual bleeding. The periods are not excessively painful. A recent ultrasound scan showed the presence of small fibroids, all measuring less than 2-3 cm in diameter. During the examination, a slightly enlarged uterus is palpated. The patient expresses a strong desire to start a family soon.
      What would be the most appropriate initial treatment option to consider in this case?

      Your Answer: Tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Tranexamic acid is the best choice for this patient because her periods are heavy, but not very painful, and her fibroids are small. Additionally, she wants to start a family soon, so contraceptive options are not as suitable. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and management of heavy menstrual bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      6.7
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  • Question 169 - A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing discomfort in his...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient with advanced metastatic lung cancer is experiencing discomfort in his limbs and chest. He is started on regular maintenance treatment with potent opioids for his pain.
      According to NICE, what is the recommended initial rescue medication for breakthrough pain?

      Your Answer: Oral immediate-release morphine

      Explanation:

      When starting treatment with strong opioids for pain relief in palliative care, it is recommended to offer patients regular oral sustained-release or oral immediate-release morphine, depending on their preference. In addition, provide rescue doses of oral immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. For patients without renal or hepatic comorbidities, a typical total daily starting dose schedule of 20-30 mg of oral morphine is suggested, along with 5 mg of oral immediate-release morphine for rescue doses during the titration phase. It is important to adjust the dose until a good balance is achieved between pain control and side effects. If this balance is not reached after a few dose adjustments, it is advisable to seek specialist advice. Patients should be reviewed frequently, especially during the titration phase. For patients with moderate to severe renal or hepatic impairment, it is recommended to consult a specialist before prescribing strong opioids.

      For maintenance therapy, oral sustained-release morphine is recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with advanced and progressive disease who require strong opioids. Transdermal patch formulations should not be routinely offered as first-line maintenance treatment unless oral opioids are not suitable. If pain remains inadequately controlled despite optimizing first-line maintenance treatment, it is important to review the analgesic strategy and consider seeking specialist advice.

      When it comes to breakthrough pain, oral immediate-release morphine should be offered as the first-line rescue medication for patients on maintenance oral morphine treatment. Fast-acting fentanyl should not be offered as the first-line rescue medication. If pain continues to be inadequately controlled despite optimizing treatment, it may be necessary to seek specialist advice.

      In cases where oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are stable, transdermal patches with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered. However, it is important to consult a specialist for guidance if needed. Similarly, for patients in whom oral opioids are not suitable and analgesic requirements are unstable, subcutaneous opioids with the lowest acquisition cost can be considered, with specialist advice if necessary.

      For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary: Opioids for pain relief in palliative care. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg140

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative & End Of Life Care
      10.8
      Seconds
  • Question 170 - A 60-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a fever, chest pain that...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a fever, chest pain that worsens with breathing, and coughing up thick, yellowish sputum. A chest X-ray is done and shows signs of cavitating pneumonia in the upper lobe.

      Which of the following bacteria is most frequently linked to cavitating pneumonia in the upper lobe?

      Your Answer: Klebsiella pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Klebsiella pneumoniae is commonly observed in individuals who are dependent on alcohol. It is more prevalent in men compared to women and typically manifests after the age of 40.

      The clinical manifestations of this condition include fevers and rigors, pleuritic chest pain, purulent sputum, and haemoptysis, which occurs more frequently than with other bacterial pneumonias. Klebsiella pneumoniae tends to affect the upper lobes of the lungs and often leads to the formation of cavitating lesions.

      While Staphylococcus aureus can also cause cavitation, it usually affects multiple lobes and is not limited to the upper lobes. Other potential causes of cavitating pneumonia include Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and, although rare, Legionella pneumophila.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 171 - A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension presented to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension presented to the emergency department with a sudden onset severe occipital headache accompanied by vomiting and neck stiffness. There is no reported history of head injury. Upon clinical examination, his temperature is recorded as 37ºC, respiratory rate at 18 per minute, pulse at 88 beats per minute, and blood pressure at 160/100. It is observed that his right eye is laterally and inferiorly deviated, with a dilated pupil and drooping of the right upper eyelid.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer: CT head scan

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is a subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH).

      When assessing patients who present with an SAH, there may be focal neurological signs that can indicate the potential location of the aneurysm. Common sites for aneurysms include the bifurcation of the middle cerebral artery, the junction of the anterior communicating cerebral artery, and the junction of the posterior communicating artery with the internal carotid artery. If there is complete or partial palsy of the oculomotor nerve, it suggests the rupture of a posterior communicating artery aneurysm.

      While hypertension is a risk factor for SAH, a significant increase in blood pressure may occur as a reflex response following the haemorrhage.

      The first-line investigation for SAH is a CT head scan, which can detect over 95% of cases if performed within the first 24 hours. The sensitivity of the scan increases to nearly 100% if done within 6 hours of symptom onset. If the CT head scan is negative and there are no contraindications, a lumbar puncture (LP) should be performed to diagnose SAH. It is recommended to perform the LP at least 12 hours after the onset of headache. It is important to note that approximately 3% of patients with a negative CT scan will be confirmed to have had an SAH after undergoing an LP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 172 - A 72-year-old woman with a history of type II diabetes and hypertension presents...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman with a history of type II diabetes and hypertension presents with central chest discomfort. Her ECG showed ST depression in the inferior leads, but her discomfort subsides, and ECG returns to normal after receiving GTN spray and IV morphine. She was also given 300 mg of aspirin in the ambulance en route to the hospital. Her vital signs are as follows: SaO2 99% on room air, HR 89 bpm, and BP 139/82 mmHg. A troponin test has been scheduled and she is scheduled for an urgent coronary angiography.
      Which of the following medications should you also consider administering to this patient?

      Your Answer: Unfractionated heparin

      Explanation:

      This patient is likely experiencing an acute coronary syndrome, possibly a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) or unstable angina. The troponin test will help confirm the diagnosis. The patient’s ECG showed ST depression in the inferior leads, but this normalized after treatment with GTN and morphine, ruling out a ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).

      Immediate pain relief should be provided. GTN (sublingual or buccal) can be used, but intravenous opioids like morphine should be considered, especially if a heart attack is suspected.

      Aspirin should be given to all patients with unstable angina or NSTEMI as soon as possible and continued indefinitely, unless there are contraindications like bleeding risk or aspirin hypersensitivity. A loading dose of 300 mg should be administered right after presentation.

      Fondaparinux should be given to patients without a high bleeding risk, unless coronary angiography is planned within 24 hours of admission. Unfractionated heparin can be an alternative to fondaparinux for patients who will undergo coronary angiography within 24 hours. For patients with significant renal impairment, unfractionated heparin can also be considered, with dose adjustment based on clotting function monitoring.

      Routine administration of oxygen is no longer recommended, but oxygen saturation should be monitored using pulse oximetry as soon as possible, preferably before hospital admission. Supplemental oxygen should only be offered to individuals with oxygen saturation (SpO2) below 94% who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, aiming for a SpO2 of 94-98%. For individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, a target SpO2 of 88-92% should be achieved until blood gas analysis is available.

      Bivalirudin, a specific and reversible direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI), is recommended by NICE as a possible treatment for adults with STEMI undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.

      For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and diagnosis of chest pain of recent onset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      16.6
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  • Question 173 - A 45 year old woman is brought into the emergency department after intentionally...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old woman is brought into the emergency department after intentionally overdosing on a significant amount of amitriptyline following the end of a relationship. You order an ECG. What ECG changes are commonly seen in cases of amitriptyline overdose?

      Your Answer: Prolongation of QRS

      Explanation:

      TCA toxicity can be identified through specific changes seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG). Sinus tachycardia, which is a faster than normal heart rate, and widening of the QRS complex are key features of TCA toxicity. These ECG changes occur due to the blocking of sodium channels and muscarinic receptors (M1) by the medication. In the case of an amitriptyline overdose, additional ECG changes may include prolongation of the QT interval, an R/S ratio greater than 0.7 in lead aVR, and the presence of ventricular arrhythmias such as torsades de pointes. The severity of the QRS prolongation on the ECG is associated with the likelihood of adverse events. A QRS duration greater than 100 ms is predictive of seizures, while a QRS duration greater than 160 ms is predictive of ventricular arrhythmias like ventricular tachycardia or torsades de pointes.

      Further Reading:

      Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.

      TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.

      Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.

      Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.

      There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization. Amiodarone should

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 174 - A 4-year-old child is brought in by ambulance. He has been experiencing seizures...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old child is brought in by ambulance. He has been experiencing seizures for the past 35 minutes. So far, he has received two doses of IV lorazepam. His bowel movement is normal. He has a history of epilepsy and is on phenytoin as maintenance therapy.

      According to the current APLS guidelines, what would be the most suitable next step in managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Set up phenobarbitone infusion

      Explanation:

      The current algorithm for the treatment of a convulsing child, known as APLS, is as follows:

      Step 1 (5 minutes after the start of convulsion):
      If a child has been convulsing for 5 minutes or more, the initial dose of benzodiazepine should be administered. This can be done by giving Lorazepam at a dose of 0.1 mg/kg intravenously (IV) or intraosseously (IO) if vascular access is available. Alternatively, buccal midazolam at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg or rectal diazepam at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg can be given if vascular access is not available.

      Step 2 (10 minutes after the start of Step 1):
      If the convulsion continues for a further 10 minutes, a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given. It is also important to summon senior help at this point.

      Step 3 (10 minutes after the start of Step 2):
      At this stage, it is necessary to involve senior help to reassess the child and provide guidance on further management. The recommended approach is as follows:
      – If the child is not already on phenytoin, a phenytoin infusion should be initiated. This involves administering 20 mg/kg of phenytoin intravenously over a period of 20 minutes.
      – If the child is already taking phenytoin, phenobarbitone can be used as an alternative. The recommended dose is 20 mg/kg administered intravenously over 20 minutes.
      – In the meantime, rectal paraldehyde can be considered at a dose of 0.8 ml/kg of the 50:50 mixture while preparing the infusion.

      Step 4 (20 minutes after the start of Step 3):
      If the child is still experiencing convulsions at this stage, it is crucial to have an anaesthetist present. A rapid sequence induction with thiopental is recommended for further management.

      Please note that this algorithm is subject to change based on individual patient circumstances and the guidance of medical professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.5
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  • Question 175 - A 3-year-old girl is hit by a car while crossing the street. She...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl is hit by a car while crossing the street. She is brought to the resus area of your Emergency Department by a blue light ambulance. A trauma call is initiated, and a primary survey is conducted. She is stable hemodynamically, and the only abnormality found is a severely swollen and deformed left thigh area. An X-ray is taken, which shows a fracture in the proximal femoral shaft. The child is experiencing significant pain, and you decide to apply skin traction to immobilize the fracture. You also plan to administer a dose of intranasal diamorphine.
      The child weighs 15 kg. What is the appropriate dose of intranasal diamorphine to administer?

      Your Answer: 2 mg

      Explanation:

      Femoral shaft fractures are quite common among children and have a significant impact on both the child and their family. It is important to carefully examine children with these fractures for any associated injuries, such as soft-tissue injury, head trauma, or additional fractures. In fact, up to 40% of children who experience a femoral shaft fracture due to high-energy trauma may have these associated injuries. Additionally, a thorough neurovascular examination should be conducted.

      Rapidly immobilizing the limb is crucial for managing pain and limiting further blood loss from the fracture. For distal femoral shaft fractures, well-padded long leg splints with split plaster casts can be applied. However, for more proximal shaft fractures, long leg splints alone may not provide adequate control. In these cases, skin traction is a better option. Skin traction involves attaching a large foam pad to the patient’s lower leg using spray adhesive. A weight, approximately 10% of the child’s body weight, is then applied to the foam pad and allowed to hang over the foot of the bed. This constant longitudinal traction helps keep the bone fragments aligned.

      When children experience severe pain, it is important to manage it aggressively yet safely. Immobilizing the fracture can provide significant relief. The Royal College of Emergency Medicine recommends other pain control measures for children, such as intranasal diamorphine (0.1 mg/kg in 0.2 ml sterile water), intravenous morphine (0.1-0.2 mg/kg), and oral analgesia (e.g., paracetamol 20 mg/kg, max 1 g, and ibuprofen 10 mg/kg, max 400 mg).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
      30.9
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  • Question 176 - A 60-year-old man receives a blood transfusion due to ongoing rectal bleeding and...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man receives a blood transfusion due to ongoing rectal bleeding and a hemoglobin level of 6 mg/dL. Shortly after starting the transfusion, he experiences discomfort and a burning sensation at the site of his IV, along with complaints of nausea, intense lower back pain, and a sense of impending catastrophe. His temperature is measured and found to be 39.2°C.
      Which of the following transfusion reactions is most probable in this case?

      Your Answer: Allergic reaction

      Correct Answer: Acute haemolytic reaction

      Explanation:

      Blood transfusion is a crucial medical treatment that can save lives, but it also comes with various risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, and immune dilution. While there have been improvements in safety procedures and a reduction in transfusion usage, errors and adverse reactions still occur.

      One serious complication is acute haemolytic transfusion reactions, which happen when incompatible red cells are transfused and react with the patient’s own antibodies. This usually occurs due to human error, such as mislabelling sample tubes or request forms. Symptoms of this reaction include a feeling of impending doom, fever, chills, pain and warmth at the transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, and back, joint, and chest pain. Immediate action should be taken to stop the transfusion, replace the donor blood with normal saline or another suitable crystalloid, and check the blood to confirm the intended recipient. IV diuretics may be administered to increase renal blood flow, and urine output should be maintained.

      Another common complication is febrile transfusion reaction, which presents with a 1-degree rise in temperature from baseline, along with chills and malaise. This reaction is usually caused by cytokines from leukocytes in the transfused blood components. Supportive treatment is typically sufficient, and paracetamol can be helpful.

      Allergic reactions can also occur, usually due to foreign plasma proteins or anti-IgA. These reactions often present with urticaria, pruritus, and hives, and in severe cases, laryngeal edema or bronchospasm may occur. Symptomatic treatment with antihistamines is usually enough, and there is usually no need to stop the transfusion. However, if anaphylaxis occurs, the transfusion should be stopped, and the patient should be administered adrenaline and treated according to the ALS protocol.

      Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is a severe complication characterized by non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema within 6 hours of transfusion. It is associated with antibodies in the donor blood reacting with recipient leukocyte antigens. This is the most common cause of death related to transfusion reactions. Treatment involves stopping the transfusion, administering oxygen, and providing aggressive respiratory support in approximately 75% of patients. Diuretic usage should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      8.4
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  • Question 177 - A 35-year-old man is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with sirens blaring. He has been in a building fire and has sustained severe burns. Upon assessing his airway, you have concerns about potential airway blockage. You decide to proceed with intubation and begin preparing the required equipment.
      What is one reason for performing early intubation in a burn patient?

      Your Answer: Hoarseness of voice

      Explanation:

      Early assessment of the airway is a critical aspect of managing a burned patient. Airway obstruction can occur rapidly due to direct injury or swelling from the burn. If there is a history of trauma, the airway should be evaluated while maintaining cervical spine control.

      There are several risk factors for airway obstruction in burned patients, including inhalation injury, soot in the mouth or nostrils, singed nasal hairs, burns to the head, face, and neck, burns inside the mouth, large burn area and increasing burn depth, associated trauma, and a carboxyhemoglobin level above 10%.

      In cases where significant swelling is anticipated, it may be necessary to urgently secure the airway with an uncut endotracheal tube before the swelling becomes severe. Delaying recognition of impending airway obstruction can make intubation difficult, and a surgical airway may be required.

      The American Burn Life Support (ABLS) guidelines recommend early intubation in certain situations. These include signs of airway obstruction, extensive burns, deep facial burns, burns inside the mouth, significant swelling or risk of swelling, difficulty swallowing, respiratory compromise, decreased level of consciousness, and anticipated transfer of a patient with a large burn and airway issues without qualified personnel to intubate during transport.

      Circumferential burns of the neck can cause tissue swelling around the airway, making early intubation necessary in these cases as well.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      7.8
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  • Question 178 - A 72 year old male patient is brought into the emergency department with...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old male patient is brought into the emergency department with suspected COVID-19 pneumonia and sepsis. It is decided to intubate him pending transfer to ITU. Your consultant requests you prepare propofol and suxamethonium for rapid sequence intubation. What class of drug is suxamethonium?

      Your Answer: Depolarising neuromuscular blocker

      Explanation:

      Suxamethonium, also called succinylcholine, is currently the sole depolarising neuromuscular blocking drug used in clinical settings. It functions by binding to acetylcholine (Ach) receptors as an agonist. Unlike acetylcholine, it is not broken down by acetylcholinesterase, leading to a longer duration of binding and prolonged inhibition of neuromuscular transmission. Eventually, it is metabolized by plasma cholinesterase (pseudocholinesterase).

      Further Reading:

      Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.

      Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.

      Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.

      Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.

      Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      2.9
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  • Question 179 - A 45-year-old man comes in with a 4-day history of sudden pain in...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man comes in with a 4-day history of sudden pain in his left scrotum and a high body temperature. During the examination, the epididymis is swollen and tender, and the skin covering the scrotum is red and warm to the touch. Lifting the scrotum provides relief from the pain.

      What is the most probable organism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Epididymo-orchitis refers to the inflammation of the epididymis and/or testicle. It typically presents with sudden pain, swelling, and inflammation in the affected area. This condition can also occur chronically, which means that the pain and inflammation last for more than six months.

      The causes of epididymo-orchitis vary depending on the age of the patient. In men under 35 years old, the infection is usually sexually transmitted and caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. In men over 35 years old, the infection is usually non-sexually transmitted and occurs as a result of enteric organisms that cause urinary tract infections, with Escherichia coli being the most common. However, there can be some overlap between these groups, so it is important to obtain a thorough sexual history in all age groups.

      Mumps should also be considered as a potential cause of epididymo-orchitis in the 15 to 30 age group, as mumps orchitis occurs in around 40% of post-pubertal boys with mumps.

      While most cases of epididymo-orchitis are infective, non-infectious causes can also occur. These include genito-urinary surgery, vasectomy, urinary catheterization, Behcet’s disease, sarcoidosis, and drug-induced cases such as those caused by amiodarone.

      Patients with epididymo-orchitis typically present with unilateral scrotal pain and swelling that develops relatively quickly. The affected testis will be tender to touch, and there is usually a palpable swelling of the epididymis that starts at the lower pole of the testis and spreads towards the upper pole. The testis itself may also be involved, and there may be redness and/or swelling of the scrotum on the affected side. Patients may experience fever and urethral discharge as well.

      The most important differential diagnosis to consider is testicular torsion, which requires immediate medical attention within 6 hours of onset to save the testicle. Testicular torsion is more likely in men under the age of 20, especially if the pain is very severe and sudden. It typically presents around four hours after onset. In this case, the patient’s age, longer history of symptoms, and the presence of fever are more indicative of epididymo-orchitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      7.2
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  • Question 180 - A 62 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Correct

    • A 62 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her husband who is concerned that the patient has been experiencing abdominal pain and also appears slightly confused. He informs you that the patient is a heavy drinker and you observe that the patient was diagnosed with liver cirrhosis 8 months ago. The patient has difficulty focusing during the Abbreviated Mental Test Score (AMTS) but scores 7/10. Upon examination, you notice mild ascites. You suspect the patient has moderate (grade 2) hepatic encephalopathy secondary to liver cirrhosis. The patient's initial blood tests are as follows:

      Bilirubin 45 µmol/l
      ALP 210 u/l
      ALT 300 u/l
      γGT 160 u/l
      Albumin 27 g/l
      INR 1.9

      What is this patient's Child Pugh score?

      Your Answer: 13

      Explanation:

      This patient’s Child Pugh score is 9. The Child Pugh score is a scoring system used to assess the severity of liver disease and the prognosis of patients with cirrhosis. It takes into account five variables: bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR (international normalized ratio), ascites, and hepatic encephalopathy. Each variable is assigned a score from 1 to 3, with 3 indicating the most severe impairment.

      In this case, the patient’s bilirubin level is 45 µmol/l, which corresponds to a score of 2. The albumin level is 27 g/l, which also corresponds to a score of 3. The INR is 1.9, which corresponds to a score of 2. The presence of moderate ascites indicates a score of 3. Finally, the patient has moderate hepatic encephalopathy, which corresponds to a score of 3.

      Adding up the scores for each variable, we get a total score of 13. This indicates that the patient has moderate to severe liver disease and a poorer prognosis.

      Further Reading:
      Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.

      Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.

      The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.

      Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.

      Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.

      Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.

      Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      8.8
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  • Question 181 - A 32 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden shortness of breath. During the initial assessment, the patient mentions that he is currently 28 weeks into his partner's pregnancy. While the nurse is still conducting the assessment, the patient suddenly collapses and the nurse urgently calls for your assistance. The patient has no detectable pulse and is not making any effort to breathe. You decide to initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

      What adjustments should be made to the management of cardiac arrest when performing CPR on a pregnant patient?

      Your Answer: 40-45 degree left lateral tilt

      Correct Answer: Hand position for chest compressions 2-3 cm higher

      Explanation:

      When administering CPR to a pregnant patient, it is important to make certain modifications. Firstly, the hand position for chest compressions should be adjusted to be 2-3 cm higher than usual. Additionally, the uterus should be manually displaced to the left in order to minimize compression on the inferior vena cava. If possible, a 15-30 degree left lateral tilt should be implemented. If resuscitation efforts do not result in the return of spontaneous circulation, it is advisable to seek urgent obstetric input for potential consideration of a C-section delivery. Lastly, when inserting an ET tube, it may be necessary to use a size that is 0.5-1.0mm smaller due to potential narrowing of the trachea caused by edema.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      7.3
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  • Question 182 - A 32 year old individual presents to the emergency department with swollen and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old individual presents to the emergency department with swollen and numb fingertips after spending the night outdoors in freezing temperatures due to excessive alcohol consumption during a New Year's celebration. You suspect that the patient is experiencing second degree frostbite. What is the most accurate description of second degree frostbite?

      Your Answer: Skin necrosis extending from the epidermis into subcutaneous fat

      Correct Answer: Skin necrosis affecting the epidermis and a variable depth of the dermis

      Explanation:

      Second degree frostbite is characterized by tissue necrosis that affects both the epidermis and a variable depth of the dermis. However, there is still some healthy dermis present, which allows for regeneration and recovery of the skin. This type of frostbite is often referred to as partial thickness. Clinically, it is observed as the formation of blisters filled with clear or milky fluid on the surface of the skin, accompanied by redness and swelling.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in decreased myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.

      In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.

      Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.

      Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 183 - You examine the X-ray of a 55-year-old male who has fallen onto his...

    Correct

    • You examine the X-ray of a 55-year-old male who has fallen onto his extended right hand. The X-ray confirms a fracture of the distal radius with dorsal displacement. Your plan is to perform a reduction of the fracture using intravenous regional anesthesia (Bier's block). While conducting the procedure, you take note of the duration of cuff inflation. What is the maximum duration the cuff should remain inflated?

      Your Answer: 45 minutes

      Explanation:

      According to the RCEM, the minimum time for cuff inflation during Bier’s block is 20 minutes, while the maximum time is 45 minutes.

      Further Reading:

      Bier’s block is a regional intravenous anesthesia technique commonly used for minor surgical procedures of the forearm or for reducing distal radius fractures in the emergency department (ED). It is recommended by NICE as the preferred anesthesia block for adults requiring manipulation of distal forearm fractures in the ED.

      Before performing the procedure, a pre-procedure checklist should be completed, including obtaining consent, recording the patient’s weight, ensuring the resuscitative equipment is available, and monitoring the patient’s vital signs throughout the procedure. The air cylinder should be checked if not using an electronic machine, and the cuff should be checked for leaks.

      During the procedure, a double cuff tourniquet is placed on the upper arm, and the arm is elevated to exsanguinate the limb. The proximal cuff is inflated to a pressure 100 mmHg above the systolic blood pressure, up to a maximum of 300 mmHg. The time of inflation and pressure should be recorded, and the absence of the radial pulse should be confirmed. 0.5% plain prilocaine is then injected slowly, and the time of injection is recorded. The patient should be warned about the potential cold/hot sensation and mottled appearance of the arm. After injection, the cannula is removed and pressure is applied to the venipuncture site to prevent bleeding. After approximately 10 minutes, the patient should have anesthesia and should not feel pain during manipulation. If anesthesia is successful, the manipulation can be performed, and a plaster can be applied by a second staff member. A check x-ray should be obtained with the arm lowered onto a pillow. The tourniquet should be monitored at all times, and the cuff should be inflated for a minimum of 20 minutes and a maximum of 45 minutes. If rotation of the cuff is required, it should be done after the manipulation and plaster application. After the post-reduction x-ray is satisfactory, the cuff can be deflated while observing the patient and monitors. Limb circulation should be checked prior to discharge, and appropriate follow-up and analgesia should be arranged.

      There are several contraindications to performing Bier’s block, including allergy to local anesthetic, hypertension over 200 mm Hg, infection in the limb, lymphedema, methemoglobinemia, morbid obesity, peripheral vascular disease, procedures needed in both arms, Raynaud’s phenomenon, scleroderma, severe hypertension and sickle cell disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      3
      Seconds
  • Question 184 - A 45-year-old man presents with fatigue, unintentional weight loss, and a tongue that...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with fatigue, unintentional weight loss, and a tongue that appears beefy red.
      His blood test results are as follows:
      Hemoglobin (Hb): 7.4 g/dl (normal range: 11.5-15.5 g/dl)
      Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): 115 fl (normal range: 80-100 fl)
      Platelets: 73 x 109/l (normal range: 150-400 x 109/l)
      Intrinsic factor antibodies: positive
      Blood film: shows anisocytosis
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition that affects the stomach and is characterized by the loss of gastric parietal cells and impaired secretion of intrinsic factor (IF). IF is crucial for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the ileum, and as a result, megaloblastic anaemia occurs. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who have undergone gastrectomy.

      The clinical manifestations of pernicious anaemia include weight loss, loss of appetite, fatigue, diarrhoea, and a distinct lemon-yellow skin color, which is caused by a combination of haemolytic jaundice and the paleness associated with anaemia. Other symptoms may include glossitis (inflammation of the tongue) and oral ulceration. Neurological symptoms can also occur, such as subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord and peripheral neuropathy. The earliest sign of central nervous system involvement is often the loss of position and vibratory sense in the extremities.

      When investigating pernicious anaemia, certain findings may be observed. These include macrocytic anaemia, neutropaenia, thrombocytopaenia, anisocytosis and poikilocytosis on a blood film, low serum B12 levels, elevated serum bilirubin levels (indicating haemolysis), the presence of intrinsic factor antibodies, and a positive Schilling test.

      The treatment for pernicious anaemia involves lifelong supplementation of vitamin B12, typically administered through intramuscular injections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      6.9
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  • Question 185 - A 62 year old female presents to the emergency department with a three...

    Correct

    • A 62 year old female presents to the emergency department with a three day history of nausea and upper abdominal pain. The patient is concerned as the nausea became severe enough to cause her to vomit today and she noticed dark blood in the vomitus. The patient takes simvastatin daily for high cholesterol and has recently been taking ibuprofen to treat knee pain. You are able to schedule her for an endoscopy today.

      Upon returning to the ED, you decide to conduct a risk assessment for upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Which of the following tools would be the most appropriate to use?

      Your Answer: Full Rockall score

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, when evaluating patients with acute upper GI bleeding, it is recommended to use the Blatchford score during the initial assessment and the full Rockall score after endoscopy. The Rockall score is specifically designed to assess the risk of re-bleeding or death in these patients. If a patient’s post-endoscopic Rockall score is less than 3, they are considered to have a low risk of re-bleeding or death and may be eligible for early discharge.

      Further Reading:

      Upper gastrointestinal bleeding (UGIB) refers to the loss of blood from the gastrointestinal tract, occurring in the upper part of the digestive system. It can present as haematemesis (vomiting blood), coffee-ground emesis, bright red blood in the nasogastric tube, or melaena (black, tarry stools). UGIB can lead to significant hemodynamic compromise and is a major health burden, accounting for approximately 70,000 hospital admissions each year in the UK with a mortality rate of 10%.

      The causes of UGIB vary, with peptic ulcer disease being the most common cause, followed by gastritis/erosions, esophagitis, and other less common causes such as varices, Mallory Weiss tears, and malignancy. Swift assessment, hemodynamic resuscitation, and appropriate interventions are essential for the management of UGIB.

      Assessment of patients with UGIB should follow an ABCDE approach, and scoring systems such as the Glasgow-Blatchford bleeding score (GBS) and the Rockall score are recommended to risk stratify patients and determine the urgency of endoscopy. Transfusion may be necessary for patients with massive hemorrhage, and platelet transfusion, fresh frozen plasma (FFP), and prothrombin complex concentrate may be offered based on specific criteria.

      Endoscopy plays a crucial role in the management of UGIB. Unstable patients with severe acute UGIB should undergo endoscopy immediately after resuscitation, while all other patients should undergo endoscopy within 24 hours of admission. Endoscopic treatment of non-variceal bleeding may involve mechanical methods of hemostasis, thermal coagulation, or the use of fibrin or thrombin with adrenaline. Proton pump inhibitors should only be used after endoscopy.

      Variceal bleeding requires specific management, including the use of terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics. Oesophageal varices can be treated with band ligation or transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS), while gastric varices may be treated with endoscopic injection of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate or TIPS if bleeding is not controlled.

      For patients taking NSAIDs, aspirin, or clopidogrel, low-dose aspirin can be continued once hemostasis is achieved, NSAIDs should be stopped in patients presenting with UGIB.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 186 - A 28-year-old patient has arrived at the emergency department following an accident at...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old patient has arrived at the emergency department following an accident at a construction site. The skin has been lacerated by a dropped piece of stainless steel sheeting with a sharp edge. The plan is to suture the wound after infiltrating the area with local anesthesia. In the suture room, you find Lidocaine 1% with Adrenaline (Epinephrine) 1:200,000 and Bupivacaine 0.5% available. What is a contraindication to using local anesthesia combined with adrenaline?

      Your Answer: Area to be infiltrated is in periphery

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline is known to cause vasoconstriction, which is the narrowing of blood vessels. As a result, it is not recommended to use adrenaline in areas such as the peripheries, end arteries, and flap lacerations because it can increase the risk of ischemia, which is a lack of blood supply to tissues. Additionally, there are certain contraindications to using adrenaline locally, including conditions like pheochromocytoma, hypertension, and arteriosclerosis. It is important to be cautious of these factors as adrenaline’s vasoconstrictive effects can also lead to an elevation in blood pressure.

      Further Reading:

      Local anaesthetics, such as lidocaine, bupivacaine, and prilocaine, are commonly used in the emergency department for topical or local infiltration to establish a field block. Lidocaine is often the first choice for field block prior to central line insertion. These anaesthetics work by blocking sodium channels, preventing the propagation of action potentials.

      However, local anaesthetics can enter the systemic circulation and cause toxic side effects if administered in high doses. Clinicians must be aware of the signs and symptoms of local anaesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) and know how to respond. Early signs of LAST include numbness around the mouth or tongue, metallic taste, dizziness, visual and auditory disturbances, disorientation, and drowsiness. If not addressed, LAST can progress to more severe symptoms such as seizures, coma, respiratory depression, and cardiovascular dysfunction.

      The management of LAST is largely supportive. Immediate steps include stopping the administration of local anaesthetic, calling for help, providing 100% oxygen and securing the airway, establishing IV access, and controlling seizures with benzodiazepines or other medications. Cardiovascular status should be continuously assessed, and conventional therapies may be used to treat hypotension or arrhythmias. Intravenous lipid emulsion (intralipid) may also be considered as a treatment option.

      If the patient goes into cardiac arrest, CPR should be initiated following ALS arrest algorithms, but lidocaine should not be used as an anti-arrhythmic therapy. Prolonged resuscitation may be necessary, and intravenous lipid emulsion should be administered. After the acute episode, the patient should be transferred to a clinical area with appropriate equipment and staff for further monitoring and care.

      It is important to report cases of local anaesthetic toxicity to the appropriate authorities, such as the National Patient Safety Agency in the UK or the Irish Medicines Board in the Republic of Ireland. Additionally, regular clinical review should be conducted to exclude pancreatitis, as intravenous lipid emulsion can interfere with amylase or lipase assays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      9.3
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  • Question 187 - A 72-year-old woman comes in with a reddish-brown discharge from her vagina. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman comes in with a reddish-brown discharge from her vagina. She has been on hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for the past ten years and had regular withdrawal bleeds until three years ago.

      What is the MOST suitable initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Endometrial biopsy

      Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      postmenopausal bleeding should always be treated as a potential malignancy until proven otherwise. The first step in investigating postmenopausal bleeding is a transvaginal ultrasound (TVUS). This method effectively assesses the risk of endometrial cancer by measuring the thickness of the endometrium.

      In postmenopausal women, the average endometrial thickness is much thinner compared to premenopausal women. A thicker endometrium indicates a higher likelihood of endometrial cancer. Currently, in the UK, an endometrial thickness threshold of 5 mm is used. If the thickness exceeds this threshold, there is a 7.3% chance of endometrial cancer being present.

      For women with postmenopausal bleeding, if the endometrial thickness is uniformly less than 5 mm, the likelihood of endometrial cancer is less than 1%. However, in cases deemed clinically high-risk, additional investigations such as hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy should be performed.

      The definitive diagnosis of endometrial cancer is made through histological examination. If the endometrial thickness exceeds 5 mm, an endometrial biopsy is recommended to confirm the presence of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      11.8
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  • Question 188 - You assess a 60-year-old individual who has arrived at the emergency department with...

    Correct

    • You assess a 60-year-old individual who has arrived at the emergency department with a progressive increase in difficulty breathing. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, you discover that they underwent an echocardiogram a year ago, which revealed moderate tricuspid regurgitation. Which of the following physical indications is linked to tricuspid regurgitation?

      Your Answer: Positive Carvallo's sign

      Explanation:

      Carvallo’s sign is a term used to describe the phenomenon where the systolic murmur of tricuspid regurgitation becomes louder when taking a deep breath in. Tricuspid regurgitation is characterized by a continuous murmur that starts in systole and continues throughout the entire cardiac cycle. This murmur is best heard at the lower left sternal edge and has a low frequency. In addition to Carvallo’s sign, other features of tricuspid regurgitation include the presence of an S3 heart sound, the possibility of atrial arrhythmias such as flutter or fibrillation, the presence of giant C-V waves in the jugular pulse, hepatomegaly (often with a pulsatile nature), and the development of edema, which may be accompanied by lung crepitations or pleural effusions.

      Further Reading:

      Tricuspid regurgitation (TR) is a condition where blood flows backwards through the tricuspid valve in the heart. It is classified as either primary or secondary, with primary TR being caused by abnormalities in the tricuspid valve itself and secondary TR being the result of other conditions outside of the valve. Mild TR is common, especially in young adults, and often does not cause symptoms. However, severe TR can lead to right-sided heart failure and the development of symptoms such as ascites, peripheral edema, and hepatomegaly.

      The causes of TR can vary. Primary TR can be caused by conditions such as rheumatic heart disease, myxomatous valve disease, or Ebstein anomaly. Secondary TR is often the result of right ventricular dilatation due to left heart failure or pulmonary hypertension. Other causes include endocarditis, traumatic chest injury, left ventricular systolic dysfunction, chronic lung disease, pulmonary thromboembolism, myocardial disease, left to right shunts, and carcinoid heart disease. In some cases, TR can occur as a result of infective endocarditis in IV drug abusers.

      Clinical features of TR can include a pansystolic murmur that is best heard at the lower left sternal edge, Carvallo’s sign (murmur increases with inspiration and decreases with expiration), an S3 heart sound, and the presence of atrial arrhythmias such as flutter or fibrillation. Other signs can include giant C-V waves in the jugular pulse, hepatomegaly (often pulsatile), and edema with lung crepitations or pleural effusions.

      The management of TR depends on the underlying cause and the severity of the condition. In severe cases, valve repair or replacement surgery may be necessary. Treatment may also involve addressing the underlying conditions contributing to TR, such as managing left heart failure or pulmonary hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      3.5
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  • Question 189 - You are treating a 68 year old male who has been brought into...

    Correct

    • You are treating a 68 year old male who has been brought into the resuscitation bay by the ambulance crew. The patient was at home when he suddenly experienced dizziness and difficulty breathing. The ambulance crew presents the patient's ECG to you. You plan on administering atropine to address the patient's bradyarrhythmia.

      According to the resuscitation council, what is the maximum recommended total dose of atropine that should be administered?

      Your Answer: 3mg

      Explanation:

      When treating adults with bradycardia, a maximum of 6 doses of atropine 500 mcg can be administered. Each dose is given intravenously every 3-5 minutes. The total dose should not exceed 3mg.

      Further Reading:

      Causes of Bradycardia:
      – Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
      – Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
      – Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
      – Hypothermia
      – Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
      – Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
      – Head injury: Cushing’s response
      – Infections: Endocarditis
      – Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis

      Presenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
      – Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
      – Syncope
      – Breathlessness
      – Weakness
      – Chest pain
      – Nausea

      Management of Bradycardia:
      – Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
      – Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
      – Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
      – Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
      – Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate

      Bradycardia Algorithm:
      – Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
      https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      5.6
      Seconds
  • Question 190 - You are requested to evaluate a toddler with a skin rash who has...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a toddler with a skin rash who has been examined by one of the medical students. The medical student provides a tentative diagnosis of roseola. What is the infectious agent responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Parvovirus B19

      Correct Answer: Human herpesvirus 6B

      Explanation:

      The primary cause of roseola is the human herpesvirus 6B (HHV6B), with the human herpesvirus 7 (HHV7) being a less common cause.

      Further Reading:

      Roseola infantum, also known as roseola, exanthem subitum, or sixth disease, is a common disease that affects infants. It is primarily caused by the human herpesvirus 6B (HHV6B) and less commonly by human herpesvirus 7 (HHV7). Many cases of roseola are asymptomatic, and the disease is typically spread through saliva from an asymptomatic infected individual. The incubation period for roseola is around 10 days.

      Roseola is most commonly seen in children between 6 months and 3 years of age, and studies have shown that as many as 85% of children will have had roseola by the age of 1 year. The clinical features of roseola include a high fever lasting for 2-5 days, accompanied by upper respiratory tract infection (URTI) signs such as rhinorrhea, sinus congestion, sore throat, and cough. After the fever subsides, a maculopapular rash appears, characterized by rose-pink papules on the trunk that may spread to the extremities. The rash is non-itchy and painless and can last from a few hours to a few days. Around 2/3 of patients may also have erythematous papules, known as Nagayama spots, on the soft palate and uvula. Febrile convulsions occur in approximately 10-15% of cases, and diarrhea is commonly seen.

      Management of roseola is usually conservative, with rest, maintaining adequate fluid intake, and taking paracetamol for fever being the main recommendations. The disease is typically mild and self-limiting. However, complications can arise from HHV6 infection, including febrile convulsions, aseptic meningitis, and hepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      12.5
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  • Question 191 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of difficulty swallowing that has...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with a complaint of difficulty swallowing that has been ongoing for the past year. Her dysphagia affects both solids and has been gradually getting worse. Additionally, she has experienced multiple instances of her fingers turning purple when exposed to cold temperatures. Upon examination, her fingers appear swollen and the skin over them is thickened. Telangiectasias are also present.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Scleroderma disorders are a group of connective tissue disorders that affect multiple systems in the body. These disorders are characterized by damage to endothelial cells, oxidative stress, inflammation around blood vessels, and the activation of fibroblasts leading to fibrosis. Autoantibodies also play a significant role in the development of these disorders.

      Scleroderma, which refers to thickened skin, can also involve internal organs, leading to a condition called systemic sclerosis. Systemic sclerosis can be classified into two types: limited cutaneous involvement and diffuse involvement. An example of limited cutaneous involvement is CREST syndrome.

      CREST syndrome is characterized by several key features. These include the presence of subcutaneous calcifications known as calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon which can cause reduced blood flow to the fingers and other organs, oesophageal dysmotility resulting in difficulty swallowing or painful swallowing, sclerodactyly which is the thickening and tightening of the skin on the fingers and toes, and telangiectasia which is the abnormal dilation of small blood vessels.

      In the case of the patient mentioned in this question, they present with progressive dysphagia and Raynaud’s phenomenon. Physical examination reveals sclerodactyly and telangiectasia. These findings strongly suggest a diagnosis of systemic sclerosis with limited cutaneous involvement. The most specific autoantibody associated with this condition is anti-centromere.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      32.8
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  • Question 192 - A 45-year-old executive presents with a painful, swollen right calf after a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old executive presents with a painful, swollen right calf after a recent flight from New York. You evaluate him for a potential deep vein thrombosis (DVT). As part of your evaluation, you compute a two-level Wells score, which is two points.

      What would be the most suitable next course of action in his treatment?

      Your Answer: D-dimer test

      Correct Answer: Proximal leg vein ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines for suspected DVT state that if a person scores two points or more on the DVT Wells score, they are likely to have DVT. On the other hand, if a person scores one point or less, it is unlikely that they have DVT.

      For individuals who are likely to have DVT, it is recommended to offer a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan with the results available within 4 hours if possible. However, if the ultrasound scan cannot be done within 4 hours, the following steps should be taken: a D-dimer test should be offered, followed by interim therapeutic anticoagulation. It is preferable to choose an anticoagulant that can be continued if DVT is confirmed. Additionally, a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be conducted with the results available within 24 hours.

      For individuals who are unlikely to have DVT, it is advised to offer a D-dimer test with the results available within 4 hours. If obtaining the results within 4 hours is not possible, interim therapeutic anticoagulation should be provided while awaiting the result. If feasible, an anticoagulant that can be continued if DVT is confirmed should be chosen.

      For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on deep vein thrombosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      7.9
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  • Question 193 - You receive a needlestick injury after drawing blood from a 45-year-old patient. The...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a needlestick injury after drawing blood from a 45-year-old patient. The patient is visiting due to experiencing frequent heart palpitations. Her only significant medical history is hypothyroidism, for which she is prescribed thyroxine.

      What should be your initial course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Obtain consent from the patient to test for blood borne viruses

      Correct Answer: Wash the wound with soap and water and gently encourage bleeding

      Explanation:

      First and foremost, the immediate concern is providing first aid for the wound. It is important to wash the wound with soap (or chlorhexidine) and water, while gently encouraging bleeding. It is crucial not to scrub or suck the wound. Additionally, if there are any splashes or body fluid that come into contact with the eyes or mouth, they should be thoroughly washed.

      For all healthcare workers who experience a needlestick injury, it is necessary to have a baseline serum sample taken and stored. This should be arranged through occupational health. The subsequent management of the injury depends on the risk of blood-borne virus transmission. This risk is determined by factors such as the source patient’s history (e.g. IV drug use), the circumstances of the injury (e.g. visible blood on the device, use of personal protection equipment), and the healthcare worker’s own characteristics (e.g. response to hepatitis B vaccination).

      If the patient consents after appropriate counseling, blood may be taken from the source patient for blood-borne virus testing. However, it is important to note that the injured healthcare worker should not be responsible for counseling and obtaining consent from the patient. Lastly, all needlestick injuries should be reported to the Health Protection Agency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      13.3
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  • Question 194 - A 62-year-old man presents sweaty and distressed, complaining of abdominal pain and nausea....

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old man presents sweaty and distressed, complaining of abdominal pain and nausea. On examination, he has marked abdominal tenderness that is maximal in the epigastric area. Following his blood results, you make a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. He is a non-drinker.

      His venous bloods are shown below:

      Hb: 13.5 g/dL
      White cell count: 14.2 x 109/L
      Blood glucose 7.9 mmol/L
      AST 275 IU/L
      LDH 290 IU/L
      Amylase: 980 IU/L

      What is his Ranson score at admission?

      Your Answer: Three

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis is a common and serious cause of acute abdominal pain. It occurs when the pancreas becomes inflamed, leading to the release of enzymes that cause the organ to digest itself. The symptoms of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain, nausea, vomiting, and pain that may radiate to the T6-T10 dermatomes or shoulder tip due to irritation of the phrenic nerve. Other signs include fever, tenderness in the epigastric area, jaundice, and the presence of Gray-Turner and Cullen signs, which are ecchymosis of the flank and peri-umbilical area, respectively.

      To determine the severity of acute pancreatitis, the Ranson criteria are used as a clinical prediction rule. A score greater than three indicates severe pancreatitis with a mortality rate of over 15%. The criteria assessed upon admission include age over 55 years, white cell count above 16 x 109/L, blood glucose level higher than 11 mmol/L, serum AST level exceeding 250 IU/L, and serum LDH level surpassing 350 IU/L.

      In this particular case, the patient’s Ranson score is three. This is based on the fact that she is 56 years old, her white cell count is 16.7 x 109/L, and her AST level is 358 IU/L.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      3.8
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  • Question 195 - You are evaluating a 25-year-old patient who has arrived at the emergency department...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 25-year-old patient who has arrived at the emergency department by ambulance following a fall from a second-floor balcony. The patient reports experiencing upper abdominal discomfort, which raises concerns about potential hepatic and splenic injuries. In the trauma setting, which imaging modality would be considered the gold standard for assessing these organs?

      Your Answer: Computerised tomography

      Explanation:

      CT scan is considered the most reliable imaging technique for diagnosing intra-abdominal conditions. It is also considered the gold standard for evaluating organ damage. However, it is crucial to carefully consider the specific circumstances before using CT scan, as it may not be suitable for unstable patients or those who clearly require immediate surgical intervention. In such cases, other methods like FAST can be used to detect fluid in the abdominal cavity, although it is not as accurate in assessing injuries to solid organs or hollow structures within the abdomen.

      Further Reading:

      Abdominal trauma can be classified into two categories: blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma occurs when compressive or deceleration forces are applied to the abdomen, often resulting from road traffic accidents or direct blows during sports. The spleen and liver are the organs most commonly injured in blunt abdominal trauma. On the other hand, penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and enter the abdominal cavity, such as stabbings, gunshot wounds, or industrial accidents. The bowel and liver are the organs most commonly affected in penetrating injuries.

      When it comes to imaging in blunt abdominal trauma, there are three main modalities that are commonly used: focused assessment with sonography in trauma (FAST), diagnostic peritoneal lavage (DPL), and computed tomography (CT). FAST is a non-invasive and quick method used to detect free intraperitoneal fluid, aiding in the decision on whether a laparotomy is needed. DPL is also used to detect intraperitoneal blood and can be used in both unstable blunt abdominal trauma and penetrating abdominal trauma. However, it is more invasive and time-consuming compared to FAST and has largely been replaced by it. CT, on the other hand, is the gold standard for diagnosing intra-abdominal pathology and is used in stable abdominal trauma patients. It offers high sensitivity and specificity but requires a stable and cooperative patient. It also involves radiation and may have delays in availability.

      In the case of penetrating trauma, it is important to assess these injuries with the help of a surgical team. Penetrating objects should not be removed in the emergency department as they may be tamponading underlying vessels. Ideally, these injuries should be explored in the operating theater.

      In summary, abdominal trauma can be classified into blunt trauma and penetrating trauma. Blunt trauma is caused by compressive or deceleration forces and commonly affects the spleen and liver. Penetrating trauma involves injuries that pierce the skin and commonly affect the bowel and liver. Imaging modalities such as FAST, DPL, and CT are used to assess and diagnose abdominal trauma, with CT being the gold standard. Penetrating injuries should be assessed by a surgical team and should ideally be explored in the operating theater.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      5.3
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  • Question 196 - You review a 25 year old male who presented to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • You review a 25 year old male who presented to the emergency department after developing a raised red itchy rash to the arms, legs, and abdomen shortly after going for a hike. The patient informs you that he had eaten some trail mix and drank some water during the hike, but he had not had a reaction to these in the past. On examination, the mouth and throat are normal, the patient is speaking without difficulty, and there is no wheezing. The patient's vital signs are as follows:

      Respiratory rate: 16 bpm
      Blood pressure: 120/70 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 75 bpm
      Oxygen saturations: 98% on room air
      Temperature: 37.0ºC

      You diagnose urticaria. What is the most appropriate treatment to administer?

      Your Answer: chlorpheniramine 10 mg PO

      Explanation:

      Most histamine receptors in the skin are of the H1 type. Therefore, when treating urticaria without airway compromise, it is appropriate to use an H1 blocking antihistamine such as chlorpheniramine, fexofenadine, or loratadine. However, if the case is mild and the trigger is easily identifiable and avoidable, NICE advises that no treatment may be necessary. In the given case, the trigger is not obvious. For more severe cases, an oral systemic steroid course like prednisolone 40 mg for 5 days may be used in addition to antihistamines. Topical steroids do not have a role in this treatment.

      Further Reading:

      Angioedema and urticaria are related conditions that involve swelling in different layers of tissue. Angioedema refers to swelling in the deeper layers of tissue, such as the lips and eyelids, while urticaria, also known as hives, refers to swelling in the epidermal skin layers, resulting in raised red areas of skin with itching. These conditions often coexist and may have a common underlying cause.

      Angioedema can be classified into allergic and non-allergic types. Allergic angioedema is the most common type and is usually triggered by an allergic reaction, such as to certain medications like penicillins and NSAIDs. Non-allergic angioedema has multiple subtypes and can be caused by factors such as certain medications, including ACE inhibitors, or underlying conditions like hereditary angioedema (HAE) or acquired angioedema.

      HAE is an autosomal dominant disease characterized by a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. It typically presents in childhood and can be inherited or acquired as a result of certain disorders like lymphoma or systemic lupus erythematosus. Acquired angioedema may have similar clinical features to HAE but is caused by acquired deficiencies of C1 esterase inhibitor due to autoimmune or lymphoproliferative disorders.

      The management of urticaria and allergic angioedema focuses on ensuring the airway remains open and addressing any identifiable triggers. In mild cases without airway compromise, patients may be advised that symptoms will resolve without treatment. Non-sedating antihistamines can be used for up to 6 weeks to relieve symptoms. Severe cases of urticaria may require systemic corticosteroids in addition to antihistamines. In moderate to severe attacks of allergic angioedema, intramuscular epinephrine may be considered.

      The management of HAE involves treating the underlying deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor. This can be done through the administration of C1 esterase inhibitor, bradykinin receptor antagonists, or fresh frozen plasma transfusion, which contains C1 inhibitor.

      In summary, angioedema and urticaria are related conditions involving swelling in different layers of tissue. They can coexist and may have a common underlying cause. Management involves addressing triggers, using antihistamines, and in severe cases, systemic corticosteroids or other specific treatments for HAE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 197 - Your supervisor requests you to arrange a training session for the new medical...

    Correct

    • Your supervisor requests you to arrange a training session for the new medical interns on diabetes mellitus and hypoglycemia. Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Glucose levels should be checked 10-15 minutes after administering glucagon

      Explanation:

      After administering any treatment for hypoglycemia, it is important to re-check glucose levels within 10-15 minutes. This allows for a reassessment of the effectiveness of the treatment and the possibility of administering additional treatment if needed. Obesity is a significant risk factor for developing type 2 diabetes, while most individuals with type 1 diabetes have a body mass index (BMI) below 25 kg/m2. It is crucial to provide carbohydrates promptly after treating hypoglycemia. The correct dose of glucagon for treating hypoglycemia in adults is 1 mg, and the same dose can be used for children aged 9 and above who weigh more than 25kg. HbA1c results between 42 and 47 indicate pre-diabetes.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetes Mellitus:
      – Definition: a group of metabolic disorders characterized by persistent hyperglycemia caused by deficient insulin secretion, resistance to insulin, or both.
      – Types: Type 1 diabetes (absolute insulin deficiency), Type 2 diabetes (insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency), Gestational diabetes (develops during pregnancy), Other specific types (monogenic diabetes, diabetes secondary to pancreatic or endocrine disorders, diabetes secondary to drug treatment).
      – Diagnosis: Type 1 diabetes diagnosed based on clinical grounds in adults presenting with hyperglycemia. Type 2 diabetes diagnosed in patients with persistent hyperglycemia and presence of symptoms or signs of diabetes.
      – Risk factors for type 2 diabetes: obesity, inactivity, family history, ethnicity, history of gestational diabetes, certain drugs, polycystic ovary syndrome, metabolic syndrome, low birth weight.

      Hypoglycemia:
      – Definition: lower than normal blood glucose concentration.
      – Diagnosis: defined by Whipple’s triad (signs and symptoms of low blood glucose, low blood plasma glucose concentration, relief of symptoms after correcting low blood glucose).
      – Blood glucose level for hypoglycemia: NICE defines it as <3.5 mmol/L, but there is inconsistency across the literature.
      – Signs and symptoms: adrenergic or autonomic symptoms (sweating, hunger, tremor), neuroglycopenic symptoms (confusion, coma, convulsions), non-specific symptoms (headache, nausea).
      – Treatment options: oral carbohydrate, buccal glucose gel, glucagon, dextrose. Treatment should be followed by re-checking glucose levels.

      Treatment of neonatal hypoglycemia:
      – Treat with glucose IV infusion 10% given at a rate of 5 mL/kg/hour.
      – Initial stat dose of 2 mL/kg over five minutes may be required for severe hypoglycemia.
      – Mild asymptomatic persistent hypoglycemia may respond to a single dose of glucagon.
      – If hypoglycemia is caused by an oral anti-diabetic drug, the patient should be admitted and ongoing glucose infusion or other therapies may be required.

      Note: Patients who have a hypoglycemic episode with a loss of warning symptoms should not drive and should inform the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      5.6
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  • Question 198 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with a painful red eye accompanied by sensitivity...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with a painful red eye accompanied by sensitivity to light, excessive tearing, and reduced vision. The on-call ophthalmology team is consulted, and they diagnose her with anterior uveitis.
      Which of the following is the SINGLE LEAST probable underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Correct Answer: Lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Anterior uveitis refers to the inflammation of the iris and is characterized by a painful and red eye. It is often accompanied by symptoms such as sensitivity to light, excessive tearing, and a decrease in visual clarity. In less than 10% of cases, the inflammation may extend to the posterior chamber. The condition can also lead to the formation of adhesions between the iris and the lens or cornea, resulting in an irregularly shaped pupil known as synechia. In severe cases, pus may accumulate in the front part of the eye, specifically the anterior chamber, causing a condition called hypopyon.

      There are various factors that can cause anterior uveitis, including idiopathic cases where no specific cause can be identified. Other causes include trauma, chronic joint diseases like spondyloarthropathies and juvenile chronic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, inflammatory bowel disease, psoriasis, sarcoidosis, and infections such as Lyme disease, tuberculosis, leptospirosis, herpes simplex virus (HSV), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). It is worth noting that approximately 50% of patients with anterior uveitis have a strong association with the HLA-B27 genotype.

      Complications that can arise from uveitis include the development of cataracts, glaucoma, band keratopathy (a condition where calcium deposits form on the cornea), and even blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 199 - A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male is brought into the emergency department after being found disoriented and lethargic by a family member. The family member informs you that the patient has a history of depression and that there were multiple empty bottles of aspirin at the patient's residence. Initial tests are conducted, including a salicylate level.

      What is the plasma salicylate concentration threshold for initiating urinary alkalinization in adult patients?

      Your Answer: > 750 mg/L

      Correct Answer: > 500 mg/L

      Explanation:

      In adults, urinary alkalinisation is initiated when the salicylate level exceeds 500 mg/L (>3.6 mmol/L). For children, the threshold is set at a salicylate concentration of > 350 mg/L (2.5 mmol/L).

      Further Reading:

      Salicylate poisoning, particularly from aspirin overdose, is a common cause of poisoning in the UK. One important concept to understand is that salicylate overdose leads to a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. Initially, the overdose stimulates the respiratory center, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, as the effects of salicylate on lactic acid production, breakdown into acidic metabolites, and acute renal injury occur, it can result in high anion gap metabolic acidosis.

      The clinical features of salicylate poisoning include hyperventilation, tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia (fever), nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      When investigating salicylate poisoning, it is important to measure salicylate levels in the blood. The sample should be taken at least 2 hours after ingestion for symptomatic patients or 4 hours for asymptomatic patients. The measurement should be repeated every 2-3 hours until the levels start to decrease. Other investigations include arterial blood gas analysis, electrolyte levels (U&Es), complete blood count (FBC), coagulation studies (raised INR/PTR), urinary pH, and blood glucose levels.

      To manage salicylate poisoning, an ABC approach should be followed to ensure a patent airway and adequate ventilation. Activated charcoal can be administered if the patient presents within 1 hour of ingestion. Oral or intravenous fluids should be given to optimize intravascular volume. Hypokalemia and hypoglycemia should be corrected. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can enhance the elimination of aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary.

      Urinary alkalinization involves targeting a urinary pH of 7.5-8.5 and checking it hourly. It is important to monitor for hypokalemia as alkalinization can cause potassium to shift from plasma into cells. Potassium levels should be checked every 1-2 hours.

      In cases where the salicylate concentration is high (above 500 mg/L in adults or 350 mg/L in children), sodium bicarbonate can be administered intravenously. Hemodialysis is the treatment of choice for severe poisoning and may be indicated in cases of high salicylate levels, resistant metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, pulmonary edema, seizures and coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 200 - A 62 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 62 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of fatigue, headache, and muscle spasms. Upon examination, the patient is found to have hypertension with a blood pressure reading of 198/96 mmHg. In order to screen for secondary causes of hypertension, which of the following tests would be the most suitable for detecting Conn's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Aldosterone and renin levels

      Explanation:

      The preferred diagnostic test for hyperaldosteronism is the plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR). Hyperaldosteronism is also known as Conn’s syndrome and can be diagnosed by measuring aldosterone and renin levels. By calculating the aldosterone-to-renin ratio, an abnormal increase (>30 ng/dL per ng/mL/h) can indicate primary hyperaldosteronism. Adrenal insufficiency can be detected using the Synacthen test. To detect phaeochromocytoma, tests such as plasma metanephrines and urine vanillylmandelic acid are used. The dexamethasone suppression test is employed for diagnosing Cushing syndrome.

      Further Reading:

      Hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by excessive production of aldosterone by the adrenal glands. It can be classified into primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism. Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, is typically caused by adrenal hyperplasia or adrenal tumors. Secondary hyperaldosteronism, on the other hand, is a result of high renin levels in response to reduced blood flow across the juxtaglomerular apparatus.

      Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex. It acts on the distal renal tubule and collecting duct of the nephron, promoting the reabsorption of sodium ions and water while secreting potassium ions.

      The causes of hyperaldosteronism vary depending on whether it is primary or secondary. Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by adrenal adenoma, adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma, or familial hyperaldosteronism. Secondary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by renal artery stenosis, reninoma, renal tubular acidosis, nutcracker syndrome, ectopic tumors, massive ascites, left ventricular failure, or cor pulmonale.

      Clinical features of hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypernatremia, polyuria, polydipsia, headaches, lethargy, muscle weakness and spasms, and numbness. It is estimated that hyperaldosteronism is present in 5-10% of patients with hypertension, and hypertension in primary hyperaldosteronism is often resistant to drug treatment.

      Diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism involves various investigations, including U&Es to assess electrolyte disturbances, aldosterone-to-renin plasma ratio (ARR) as the gold standard diagnostic test, ECG to detect arrhythmia, CT/MRI scans to locate adenoma, fludrocortisone suppression test or oral salt testing to confirm primary hyperaldosteronism, genetic testing to identify familial hyperaldosteronism, and adrenal venous sampling to determine lateralization prior to surgery.

      Treatment of primary hyperaldosteronism typically involves surgical adrenalectomy for patients with unilateral primary aldosteronism. Diet modification with sodium restriction and potassium supplementation may also be recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      3.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (11/11) 100%
Resus (4/4) 100%
Sexual Health (1/4) 25%
Urology (2/8) 25%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (12/16) 75%
Basic Anaesthetics (8/9) 89%
Cardiology (9/10) 90%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (14/21) 67%
Allergy (4/5) 80%
Vascular (2/4) 50%
Ophthalmology (2/3) 67%
Respiratory (6/9) 67%
Environmental Emergencies (5/5) 100%
Haematology (3/5) 60%
Palliative & End Of Life Care (3/3) 100%
Dermatology (9/13) 69%
Infectious Diseases (4/6) 67%
Nephrology (2/4) 50%
Surgical Emergencies (5/8) 63%
Paediatric Emergencies (2/3) 67%
Endocrinology (8/8) 100%
Ear, Nose & Throat (4/5) 80%
Trauma (5/8) 63%
Mental Health (2/3) 67%
Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic) (2/3) 67%
Elderly Care / Frailty (3/6) 50%
Major Incident Management & PHEM (1/1) 100%
Neonatal Emergencies (2/3) 67%
Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics & Gynaecology (5/6) 83%
Oncological Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Maxillofacial & Dental (2/2) 100%
Pain & Sedation (1/2) 50%
Passmed