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  • Question 1 - A 57-year-old patient presented to her doctor with a complaint of feeling down...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old patient presented to her doctor with a complaint of feeling down for the past month. She works as a teacher and has had to take time off as she felt she was not able to perform well in her job. She reports feeling fatigued all the time and has no motivation to engage in her usual activities. She has also noticed some weight gain despite a decreased appetite since she last weighed herself and she observed that her face has become more round. During examination, the doctor finds a pulse of 59 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 12 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 105/63 mmHg. The doctor also notes that the neck region overlying the thyroid gland is symmetrically enlarged but the patient denies any pain or tenderness when the doctor palpated her neck. What is the most likely pathological feature in this patient?

      Your Answer: Lymphocytic infiltration of the thyroid gland and the formation of germinal centers

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and history suggest a diagnosis of hypothyroidism, which is commonly caused by Hashimoto’s thyroiditis in developed countries. This autoimmune condition is more prevalent in women and certain populations, such as the elderly and those with HLA-DR3, 4, and 5 polymorphisms. Other thyroid conditions, such as subacute thyroiditis, Riedel’s thyroiditis, multinodular goitres, and papillary carcinoma, have different characteristic features.

      Understanding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis

      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is more common in women and is typically associated with hypothyroidism, although there may be a temporary period of thyrotoxicosis during the acute phase. The condition is characterized by a firm, non-tender goitre and the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) antibodies.

      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is often associated with other autoimmune conditions such as coeliac disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and vitiligo. Additionally, there is an increased risk of developing MALT lymphoma with this condition. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in the Venn diagram. Understanding the features and associations of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can aid in its diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      5.3
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  • Question 2 - A 33-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of increased thirst...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of increased thirst and frequent urination. He had suffered a head injury a few days ago and had previously been discharged after investigations. Upon examination, he appears dehydrated and is admitted to a medical ward. The urine osmolality test results show a low level of 250 mosmol/kg after water deprivation and a high level of 655 mosmol/kg after desmopressin administration. Based on this information, where is the deficient substance typically active?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamus

      Correct Answer: Collecting duct

      Explanation:

      The site of action for antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is the collecting ducts in the kidneys. A diagnosis of cranial diabetes insipidus, which can occur after head trauma, is confirmed by low urine osmolalities. In this condition, there is a deficiency of ADH, which is synthesized in the hypothalamus but acts on the collecting ducts to promote water reabsorption. Therefore, the hypothalamus is not the site of action for ADH, despite being where it is synthesized. The Loop of Henle and proximal convoluted tubule are also not the primary sites of action for ADH. ADH is released from the posterior pituitary gland, but its action occurs in the collecting ducts.

      Understanding Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is produced in the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to conserve body water by promoting water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys through the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.

      ADH secretion is regulated by various factors. An increase in extracellular fluid osmolality, a decrease in volume or pressure, and the presence of angiotensin II can all increase ADH secretion. Conversely, a decrease in extracellular fluid osmolality, an increase in volume, a decrease in temperature, or the absence of ADH can decrease its secretion.

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition that occurs when there is either a deficiency of ADH (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be treated with desmopressin, which is an analog of ADH.

      Overall, understanding the role of ADH in regulating water balance in the body is crucial for maintaining proper hydration and preventing conditions like DI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      8.9
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  • Question 3 - A young male with a history of diabetes mellitus type 1 is admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A young male with a history of diabetes mellitus type 1 is admitted to the emergency department. He was previously found to be confused by his roommates in his room. As well as this, he complains of nausea and abdominal pain.

      An ECG is performed and shows tall tented T waves.

      A simple blood test reveals marked hyperglycemia. A urinalysis shows the presence of ketones ++.

      His bloods show the following:

      Hb 136 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Platelets 210 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 9.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Na+ 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 7.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 31 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 8.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 155 ”mol/L (55 - 120)

      He is given insulin, calcium gluconate and IV saline.

      What is the main mechanism as to why the patient's potassium level will decrease?

      Your Answer: Insulin signals increase of voltage-gated potassium channels

      Correct Answer: Insulin increases sodium potassium pump

      Explanation:

      Insulin stimulates the Na+/K+ ATPase pump, leading to a decrease in serum potassium levels. This is primarily achieved through increased activity of the sodium-potassium pump, which is triggered by phosphorylation of the transmembrane subunits in response to insulin. While calcium gluconate is used to protect the heart during hyperkalaemia-induced arrhythmias, it does not affect potassium levels. Although IV fluids can improve renal function and potassium clearance, they are not the primary method for reducing potassium levels. Calcium-activated potassium channels are present throughout the body and are activated by an increase in intracellular calcium levels during action potentials.

      Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating the metabolism of carbohydrates and fats in the body. It works by causing cells in the liver, muscles, and fat tissue to absorb glucose from the bloodstream, which is then stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles or as triglycerides in fat cells. The human insulin protein is made up of 51 amino acids and is a dimer of an A-chain and a B-chain linked together by disulfide bonds. Pro-insulin is first formed in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of pancreatic beta cells and then cleaved to form insulin and C-peptide. Insulin is stored in secretory granules and released in response to high levels of glucose in the blood. In addition to its role in glucose metabolism, insulin also inhibits lipolysis, reduces muscle protein loss, and increases cellular uptake of potassium through stimulation of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 4 - A 42-year-old woman comes in with a pathological fracture of her left femur....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in with a pathological fracture of her left femur. She had a renal transplant in the past due to end stage renal failure. Her blood tests show:

      - Serum Ca2+ 2.80
      - PTH 88 pg/ml
      - Phosphate 0.30

      The surgeon decides to perform a parathyroidectomy based on these results. What is the most likely appearance to be identified when the glands are assessed histologically?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophy of the gland

      Correct Answer: Hyperplasia of the gland

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this is a case of tertiary hyperparathyroidism, characterized by elevated levels of Calcium and PTH, and decreased levels of phosphate. As a result, the glands are likely to be hyperplastic. It is important to note that hypertrophy is an incorrect term to use in this context, as it suggests an increase in size without an increase in the number of cells.

      Parathyroid Glands and Disorders of Calcium Metabolism

      The parathyroid glands play a crucial role in regulating calcium levels in the body. Hyperparathyroidism is a disorder that occurs when these glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to abnormal calcium metabolism. Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common form and is usually caused by a solitary adenoma. Secondary hyperparathyroidism occurs as a result of low calcium levels, often in the setting of chronic renal failure. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism is a rare condition that occurs when hyperplasia of the parathyroid glands persists after correction of underlying renal disorder.

      Diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism is based on hormone profiles and clinical features. Treatment options vary depending on the type and severity of the disorder. Surgery is usually indicated for primary hyperparathyroidism if certain criteria are met, such as elevated serum calcium levels, hypercalciuria, and nephrolithiasis. Secondary hyperparathyroidism is typically managed with medical therapy, while surgery may be necessary for persistent symptoms such as bone pain and soft tissue calcifications. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism may resolve on its own within a year after transplant, but surgery may be required if an autonomously functioning parathyroid gland is present. It is important to consider differential diagnoses, such as benign familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia, which is a rare but relatively benign condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      99.9
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  • Question 5 - A 20-year-old man was admitted to hospital with a 5 day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man was admitted to hospital with a 5 day history of vomiting, fever and chills. He developed a purpuric rash on his lower limbs and abdomen. During examination, the patient was found to have a pulse rate of 100 beats per minute and a systolic blood pressure of 70mmHg. A spinal tap was performed for CSF microscopy and a CT scan revealed adrenal haemorrhage. Based on the CT scan, the doctor suspected Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome. What is the most common bacterial cause of this syndrome?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Correct Answer: Neisseria meningitidis

      Explanation:

      The most frequent cause of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is Neisseria meningitidis. This syndrome is characterized by adrenal gland failure caused by bleeding into the adrenal gland. Although any organism that can induce disseminated intravascular coagulation can lead to adrenal haemorrhage, neisseria meningitidis is the most common cause and therefore the answer.

      Understanding Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome

      Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is a condition that occurs when the adrenal glands fail due to a previous adrenal haemorrhage caused by a severe bacterial infection. The most common cause of this condition is Neisseria meningitidis, but it can also be caused by other bacteria such as Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Escherichia coli, and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

      The symptoms of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome are similar to those of hypoadrenalism, including lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, and weight loss. Other symptoms may include hyperpigmentation, especially in the palmar creases, vitiligo, and loss of pubic hair in women. In severe cases, a crisis may occur, which can lead to collapse, shock, and pyrexia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old male with a diagnosis of lung cancer presents with fatigue and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male with a diagnosis of lung cancer presents with fatigue and lightheadedness. Upon examination, the following results are obtained:

      Plasma sodium concentration 115 mmol/L (137-144)
      Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Urea 3.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Creatinine 67 ”mol/L (60-110)

      What is the probable reason for his symptoms based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Addison's disease

      Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion

      Explanation:

      Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH Secretion

      Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. This is caused by the overproduction of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by the posterior pituitary gland. Tumors such as bronchial carcinoma can cause the ectopic elaboration of ADH, leading to dilutional hyponatremia. The diagnosis of SIADH is one of exclusion, but it can be supported by a high urine sodium concentration with high urine osmolality.

      Hypoadrenalism is less likely to cause hyponatremia, as it is usually associated with hyperkalemia and mild hyperuricemia. On the other hand, diabetes insipidus is a condition where the kidneys are unable to reabsorb water, leading to excessive thirst and urination.

      It is important to diagnose and treat SIADH promptly to prevent complications such as seizures, coma, and even death. Treatment options include fluid restriction, medications to block the effects of ADH, and addressing the underlying cause of the condition.

      In conclusion, SIADH is a condition that can cause low levels of sodium in the blood due to the overproduction of ADH. It is important to differentiate it from other conditions that can cause hyponatremia and to treat it promptly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 7 - A 33-year-old woman with a history of asthma, gout, rheumatoid arthritis, and type...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman with a history of asthma, gout, rheumatoid arthritis, and type II diabetes mellitus has been admitted to the respiratory ward due to breathlessness after contracting SARS-CoV-2. Despite receiving 60% oxygen via a venturi mask, her oxygen saturation remains at 91%. The doctor decides to prescribe dexamethasone. What is the expected effect of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased blood glucose levels

      Explanation:

      The use of corticosteroids, such as dexamethasone, can worsen diabetic control due to their anti-insulin effects. Dexamethasone, which is commonly used to manage severe SARS-CoV-2 infection, has a high glucocorticoid activity that can lead to insulin resistance and increased blood glucose levels. However, it is unlikely to cause an asthma exacerbation or a flare-up of rheumatoid arthritis or gout. While psychosis is a known side effect of dexamethasone, it is less common than an increase in blood glucose levels.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 8 - An 8-year-old girl has been brought to the GP by her mother who...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl has been brought to the GP by her mother who is worried that her daughter may be starting puberty too early. The mother reports an enlargement in nipple size, some breast development, and the appearance of light hairs on the edge of the labia majora.

      At what Tanner stage is the girl currently?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: II

      Explanation:

      Puberty: Normal Changes in Males and Females

      Puberty is a natural process that marks the transition from childhood to adolescence. In males, the first sign of puberty is testicular growth, which typically occurs around the age of 12. Testicular volume greater than 4 ml indicates the onset of puberty. The maximum height spurt for boys occurs at the age of 14. On the other hand, in females, the first sign of puberty is breast development, which usually occurs around the age of 11.5. The height spurt for girls reaches its maximum early in puberty, at the age of 12, before menarche. Menarche, or the first menstrual period, typically occurs at the age of 13, with a range of 11-15 years. Following menarche, there is only a slight increase of about 4% in height.

      During puberty, it is normal for boys to experience gynaecomastia, or the development of breast tissue. Girls may also experience asymmetrical breast growth. Additionally, diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland may be seen in both males and females. These changes are all part of the normal process of puberty and should not be a cause for concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 9 - A patient on the geriatrics ward has symptoms consistent with hypoparathyroidism. A blood...

    Incorrect

    • A patient on the geriatrics ward has symptoms consistent with hypoparathyroidism. A blood test is requested to check PTH levels, serum calcium, phosphate and vitamin D.

      Which of the following levels also need to be specifically checked?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnesium

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is magnesium, as it is necessary for the secretion and function of parathyroid hormone. Adequate magnesium levels are required for the hormone to have its desired effects. CRP, urea, and platelets are not relevant to this situation and do not need to be tested.

      Understanding Parathyroid Hormone and Its Effects

      Parathyroid hormone is a hormone produced by the chief cells of the parathyroid glands. Its main function is to increase the concentration of calcium in the blood by stimulating the PTH receptors in the kidney and bone. This hormone has a short half-life of only 4 minutes.

      The effects of parathyroid hormone are mainly seen in the bone, kidney, and intestine. In the bone, PTH binds to osteoblasts, which then signal to osteoclasts to resorb bone and release calcium. In the kidney, PTH promotes the active reabsorption of calcium and magnesium from the distal convoluted tubule, while decreasing the reabsorption of phosphate. In the intestine, PTH indirectly increases calcium absorption by increasing the activation of vitamin D, which in turn increases calcium absorption.

      Overall, understanding the role of parathyroid hormone is important in maintaining proper calcium levels in the body. Any imbalances in PTH secretion can lead to various disorders such as hyperparathyroidism or hypoparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 10 - A patient currently being treated for bipolar disorder with lithium is referred to...

    Incorrect

    • A patient currently being treated for bipolar disorder with lithium is referred to hospital after developing severe polyuria. She denies polydipsia.

      Blood tests reveal the following:

      Na+ 154 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 110 ”mol/L (55 - 120)
      Blood glucose 7mmol/L (4 - 11)

      Based on the results, a decision is made to carry out a water deprivation test. The patient is considered to have capacity and agrees to this. As part of this test, desmopressin is given.

      Considering the most likely diagnosis, which of the following results would be most likely to be seen in a 45-year-old patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low urine osmolality after fluid deprivation and low urine osmolality after desmopressin provision

      Explanation:

      The water deprivation test is a diagnostic tool used to assess patients with polydipsia, or excessive thirst. During the test, the patient is instructed to refrain from drinking water, and their bladder is emptied. Hourly measurements of urine and plasma osmolalities are taken to monitor changes in the body’s fluid balance. The results of the test can help identify the underlying cause of the patient’s polydipsia. Normal results show a high urine osmolality after the administration of DDAVP, while psychogenic polydipsia is characterized by a low urine osmolality. Cranial DI and nephrogenic DI are both associated with high plasma osmolalities and low urine osmolalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 11 - The medical team at a pediatric unit faces difficulty in determining the sex...

    Incorrect

    • The medical team at a pediatric unit faces difficulty in determining the sex of a newborn baby as the external genitalia appear ambiguous. The suspected condition is linked to an excess of androgen and a deficiency of mineralocorticoid. Can you explain the underlying pathophysiology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deficiency of 21-alphahydroxylase

      Explanation:

      The clinical scenario described in the question is indicative of congenital adrenal hyperplasia, which is caused by a deficiency of the enzyme 21-alphahydroxylase. This leads to an increase in androgen production, resulting in virilization of genitalia in XX females, making them appear as males at birth.

      On the other hand, a deficiency of 5-alpha reductase causes the opposite situation, where genetically XY males have external female genitalia.

      Type 1 diabetes mellitus may be associated with the presence of autoantibodies against glutamic acid decarboxylase.

      A defect in the AIRE gene can lead to APECED, which is characterized by hypoparathyroidism, adrenal failure, and candidiasis.

      Similarly, a defect in the FOXP3 gene can cause IPEX, which presents with immune dysregulation, polyendocrinopathy, and enteropathy.

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a genetic condition that affects the adrenal glands and can result in various symptoms depending on the specific enzyme deficiency. One common form is 21-hydroxylase deficiency, which can cause virilization of female genitalia, precocious puberty in males, and a salt-losing crisis in 60-70% of patients during the first few weeks of life. Another form is 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency, which can also cause virilization and precocious puberty, as well as hypertension and hypokalemia. A third form is 17-hydroxylase deficiency, which typically does not cause virilization in females but can result in intersex characteristics in boys and hypertension.

      Overall, congenital adrenal hyperplasia can have significant impacts on a person’s physical development and health, and early diagnosis and treatment are important for managing symptoms and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP with concerns about the appearance...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP with concerns about the appearance of lumps in her lower abdomen. She has been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and has been using insulin for more than a decade. The lumps have developed in the areas where she administers her insulin injections.

      What is the probable cause of the lumps?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lipodystrophy

      Explanation:

      Small subcutaneous lumps at injection sites, known as lipodystrophy, can be caused by insulin.

      The type and location of the lump suggest that lipodystrophy is the most probable cause.

      Deposits of insulin and glucose are not responsible for the formation of these lumps.

      While a lipoma could also cause similar lumps, it is less likely than lipodystrophy, which is a known complication of insulin injections, especially at the injection site. These lumps can occur in multiple locations.

      Insulin therapy can have side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is hypoglycaemia, which can cause sweating, anxiety, blurred vision, confusion, and aggression. Patients should be taught to recognize these symptoms and take 10-20g of a short-acting carbohydrate, such as a glass of Lucozade or non-diet drink, three or more glucose tablets, or glucose gel. It is also important for every person treated with insulin to have a glucagon kit for emergencies where the patient is not able to orally ingest a short-acting carbohydrate. Patients who have frequent hypoglycaemic episodes may develop reduced awareness, and beta-blockers can further reduce hypoglycaemic awareness.

      Another potential side-effect of insulin therapy is lipodystrophy, which typically presents as atrophy or lumps of subcutaneous fat. This can be prevented by rotating the injection site, as using the same site repeatedly can cause erratic insulin absorption. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. By monitoring their blood sugar levels and following their treatment plan, patients can manage the risks associated with insulin therapy and maintain good health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 13 - A 14-year-old girl is referred to the endocrine clinic by her GP due...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl is referred to the endocrine clinic by her GP due to bed wetting episodes. She experiences constant thirst and frequent urination. A dipstick test reveals diluted urine with low osmolality, and her blood tests show hypernatremia with high serum osmolality. Her family has a history of diabetes insipidus. What is the most suitable follow-up examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Water deprivation test

      Explanation:

      A water deprivation test is the most appropriate method for diagnosing diabetes insipidus. This test involves withholding water from the patient for a period of time to stimulate the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and monitor changes in serum and urine osmolality. Other methods such as urinary sodium or bladder ultrasound scan are not as effective in diagnosing this condition.

      The water deprivation test is a diagnostic tool used to assess patients with polydipsia, or excessive thirst. During the test, the patient is instructed to refrain from drinking water, and their bladder is emptied. Hourly measurements of urine and plasma osmolalities are taken to monitor changes in the body’s fluid balance. The results of the test can help identify the underlying cause of the patient’s polydipsia. Normal results show a high urine osmolality after the administration of DDAVP, while psychogenic polydipsia is characterized by a low urine osmolality. Cranial DI and nephrogenic DI are both associated with high plasma osmolalities and low urine osmolalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 14 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the doctor by his father with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the doctor by his father with a complaint of frequent urination and excessive thirst. Upon conducting a fasting blood glucose test, the results are found to be abnormally high. The doctor suspects type 1 diabetes and initiates first-line injectable therapy.

      What characteristic of this medication should be noted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreases serum potassium

      Explanation:

      Insulin stimulates the Na+/K+ ATPase pump, which leads to a decrease in serum potassium levels. This is the primary treatment for type 1 diabetes, where the pancreas no longer produces insulin, causing high blood sugar levels. Injectable insulin allows glucose to enter cells, and insulin also increases cellular uptake of potassium while decreasing serum potassium levels. Insulin also stimulates muscle protein synthesis, reducing muscle protein loss. Insulin is secreted in response to hyperglycaemia, where high blood sugar levels trigger the beta cells of the pancreas to release insulin in healthy individuals.

      Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating the metabolism of carbohydrates and fats in the body. It works by causing cells in the liver, muscles, and fat tissue to absorb glucose from the bloodstream, which is then stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles or as triglycerides in fat cells. The human insulin protein is made up of 51 amino acids and is a dimer of an A-chain and a B-chain linked together by disulfide bonds. Pro-insulin is first formed in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of pancreatic beta cells and then cleaved to form insulin and C-peptide. Insulin is stored in secretory granules and released in response to high levels of glucose in the blood. In addition to its role in glucose metabolism, insulin also inhibits lipolysis, reduces muscle protein loss, and increases cellular uptake of potassium through stimulation of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 15 - A man in his early 50s comes to the hospital with a fever...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early 50s comes to the hospital with a fever and cough. An X-ray shows pneumonia in his left lower lobe. Upon arrival at the emergency department, his blood pressure is 83/60mmHg and his heart rate is 112/min. The doctor prescribes antibiotics and IV fluids.

      What is the primary way the body reacts to a drop in blood pressure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insertion of AQP-2 channels in collecting ducts

      Explanation:

      When blood pressure drops, the body initiates several physiological responses, one of which is the activation of the renin-angiotensin aldosterone system (RAAS). This system breaks down bradykinin, a potent vasodilator, through the action of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE).

      RAAS activation results in increased aldosterone levels, which in turn increases the number of epithelial sodium channels (ENAC) to enhance sodium reabsorption.

      Another response to low blood pressure is the release of antidiuretic hormone, which promotes the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels in the collecting duct. This mechanism increases water reabsorption to help maintain fluid balance in the body.

      Understanding Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is produced in the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to conserve body water by promoting water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys through the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.

      ADH secretion is regulated by various factors. An increase in extracellular fluid osmolality, a decrease in volume or pressure, and the presence of angiotensin II can all increase ADH secretion. Conversely, a decrease in extracellular fluid osmolality, an increase in volume, a decrease in temperature, or the absence of ADH can decrease its secretion.

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition that occurs when there is either a deficiency of ADH (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be treated with desmopressin, which is an analog of ADH.

      Overall, understanding the role of ADH in regulating water balance in the body is crucial for maintaining proper hydration and preventing conditions like DI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 16 - You have been requested to evaluate a patient in your general practice, who...

    Incorrect

    • You have been requested to evaluate a patient in your general practice, who has come in after discovering a new lump in her neck. The patient is in her mid-40s, has no significant medical history, and does not take any regular medications.

      Upon examination, you observe a small mass in the front of the neck that moves upwards when the patient swallows. There is no associated lymphadenopathy. You refer the patient for an ultrasound and biopsy, which reveals the presence of 'Orphan Annie eyes with psammoma bodies.'

      Based on this finding, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Papillary thyroid cancer

      Explanation:

      The patient has a painless lump in the thyroid gland that moves on swallowing, indicating thyroid pathology. The biopsy result of Orphan Annie eyes with psammoma bodies is a characteristic finding in papillary thyroid cancer, which is a slow-growing malignancy with less likelihood of lymphadenopathy. Graves’ disease is an incorrect diagnosis as it would not present with this appearance on biopsy and would likely exhibit signs of thyrotoxicosis. A multinodular goitre also does not have this appearance and may cause a thyrotoxic state. Anaplastic carcinoma is a more aggressive thyroid malignancy that readily invades nearby tissues and has a different histological appearance with spindle cells and giant cells.

      Thyroid cancer rarely causes hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism as it does not usually secrete thyroid hormones. The most common type of thyroid cancer is papillary carcinoma, which is often found in young females and has an excellent prognosis. Follicular carcinoma is less common, while medullary carcinoma is a cancer of the parafollicular cells that secrete calcitonin and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2. Anaplastic carcinoma is rare and not responsive to treatment, causing pressure symptoms. Lymphoma is also rare and associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

      Management of papillary and follicular cancer involves a total thyroidectomy followed by radioiodine to kill residual cells. Yearly thyroglobulin levels are monitored to detect early recurrent disease. Papillary carcinoma usually contains a mixture of papillary and colloidal filled follicles, while follicular adenoma presents as a solitary thyroid nodule and malignancy can only be excluded on formal histological assessment. Follicular carcinoma may appear macroscopically encapsulated, but microscopically capsular invasion is seen. Medullary carcinoma is associated with raised serum calcitonin levels and familial genetic disease in up to 20% of cases. Anaplastic carcinoma is most common in elderly females and is treated by resection where possible, with palliation achieved through isthmusectomy and radiotherapy. Chemotherapy is ineffective.

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  • Question 17 - Mr. Smith is a 54-year-old man who visits your GP clinic for his...

    Incorrect

    • Mr. Smith is a 54-year-old man who visits your GP clinic for his annual review of his type 2 diabetes. He informs you that he has been managing it through diet for a few years, but lately, he has gained some weight. His latest HbA1C reading is 9.8% (normal range 3.7-5.0%). You suggest continuous dietary advice and prescribe metformin to regulate his blood glucose levels. Which of the following statements about metformin is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis

      Explanation:

      While some diabetic treatments such as insulin and sulfonylureas can lead to weight gain, metformin is not associated with this side effect. Metformin functions by enhancing insulin sensitivity and reducing hepatic gluconeogenesis, without directly impacting insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells, thus it does not cause significant hypoglycemia. Ghrelin, a hormone that controls appetite, is not influenced by any diabetic medications.

      Understanding Diabetes Mellitus: A Basic Overview

      Diabetes mellitus is a chronic condition characterized by abnormally raised levels of blood glucose. It is one of the most common conditions encountered in clinical practice and represents a significant burden on the health systems of the developed world. The management of diabetes mellitus is crucial as untreated type 1 diabetes would usually result in death. Poorly treated type 1 diabetes mellitus can still result in significant morbidity and mortality. The main focus of diabetes management now is reducing the incidence of macrovascular and microvascular complications.

      There are different types of diabetes mellitus, including type 1 diabetes mellitus, type 2 diabetes mellitus, prediabetes, gestational diabetes, maturity onset diabetes of the young, latent autoimmune diabetes of adults, and other types. The presentation of diabetes mellitus depends on the type, with type 1 diabetes mellitus often presenting with weight loss, polydipsia, polyuria, and diabetic ketoacidosis. On the other hand, type 2 diabetes mellitus is often picked up incidentally on routine blood tests and presents with polydipsia and polyuria.

      There are four main ways to check blood glucose, including a finger-prick bedside glucose monitor, a one-off blood glucose, a HbA1c, and a glucose tolerance test. The diagnostic criteria are determined by WHO, with a fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l and random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l being diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. Management of diabetes mellitus involves drug therapy to normalize blood glucose levels, monitoring for and treating any complications related to diabetes, and modifying any other risk factors for other conditions such as cardiovascular disease. The first-line drug for the vast majority of patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus is metformin, with second-line drugs including sulfonylureas, gliptins, and pioglitazone. Insulin is used if oral medication is not controlling the blood glucose to a sufficient degree.

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  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old man comes in for his regular check-up with his GP. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes in for his regular check-up with his GP. He has a medical history of chronic pancreatitis and diabetes mellitus and is currently taking the maximum doses of metformin and gliclazide. During a random plasma glucose test, his levels show 18.0 mmol/l and his urinalysis reveals glycosuria with minimal ketones. The GP suspects that his body is not producing enough insulin and decides to initiate insulin therapy. Can you identify the location in the body where insulin is produced?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic beta cells

      Explanation:

      Diabetes mellitus in this patient is most likely caused by chronic pancreatitis, which has resulted in the destruction of the pancreatic endocrine cells responsible for producing endogenous insulin. These cells are located in the Islets of Langerhans and are known as pancreatic beta cells (ÎČ-cells). Other cells in the pancreas, such as alpha cells (which secrete glucagon) and delta cells (which secrete somatostatin), do not produce insulin. Similarly, gastric G cells secrete gastrin and are not involved in insulin production.

      Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating the metabolism of carbohydrates and fats in the body. It works by causing cells in the liver, muscles, and fat tissue to absorb glucose from the bloodstream, which is then stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles or as triglycerides in fat cells. The human insulin protein is made up of 51 amino acids and is a dimer of an A-chain and a B-chain linked together by disulfide bonds. Pro-insulin is first formed in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of pancreatic beta cells and then cleaved to form insulin and C-peptide. Insulin is stored in secretory granules and released in response to high levels of glucose in the blood. In addition to its role in glucose metabolism, insulin also inhibits lipolysis, reduces muscle protein loss, and increases cellular uptake of potassium through stimulation of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

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  • Question 19 - A 12-year-old girl is being informed about the typical changes that occur during...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl is being informed about the typical changes that occur during puberty by her doctor. The doctor explains that there are three main changes that usually happen before menarche. What is the order in which these changes occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast buds, growth of pubic hair, growth of axillary hair

      Explanation:

      The onset of menarche is preceded by three sequential physical changes: the development of breast buds, growth of pubic hair, and growth of axillary hair. These changes are brought about by the hormone estrogen, which is crucial for the process of puberty.

      Puberty: Normal Changes in Males and Females

      Puberty is a natural process that marks the transition from childhood to adolescence. In males, the first sign of puberty is testicular growth, which typically occurs around the age of 12. Testicular volume greater than 4 ml indicates the onset of puberty. The maximum height spurt for boys occurs at the age of 14. On the other hand, in females, the first sign of puberty is breast development, which usually occurs around the age of 11.5. The height spurt for girls reaches its maximum early in puberty, at the age of 12, before menarche. Menarche, or the first menstrual period, typically occurs at the age of 13, with a range of 11-15 years. Following menarche, there is only a slight increase of about 4% in height.

      During puberty, it is normal for boys to experience gynaecomastia, or the development of breast tissue. Girls may also experience asymmetrical breast growth. Additionally, diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland may be seen in both males and females. These changes are all part of the normal process of puberty and should not be a cause for concern.

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  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old male is recovering from trans-sphenoidal surgery for a non-functioning pituitary adenoma....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male is recovering from trans-sphenoidal surgery for a non-functioning pituitary adenoma. He reports excessive thirst and increased water intake to the doctors during the ward round, four days after the surgery. The patient's fluid chart shows a urine output of 7 litres in the past 24 hours, and his blood glucose level is 5.2mmol/L. To confirm the diagnosis, the doctors plan to conduct a water-deprivation test and a vasopressin test.

      What are the expected results of the urine osmolality investigations, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After fluid deprivation, low; after desmopressin, high

      Explanation:

      The patient has developed cranial diabetes insipidus after pituitary surgery. Water deprivation testing showed low urine osmolality after fluid deprivation and high urine osmolality after desmopressin administration. This condition can also be caused by head trauma or occur idiopathically. Water deprivation testing can also be useful for investigating psychogenic polydipsia. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is the other main cause, where the kidneys cannot properly respond to vasopressin.

      The water deprivation test is a diagnostic tool used to assess patients with polydipsia, or excessive thirst. During the test, the patient is instructed to refrain from drinking water, and their bladder is emptied. Hourly measurements of urine and plasma osmolalities are taken to monitor changes in the body’s fluid balance. The results of the test can help identify the underlying cause of the patient’s polydipsia. Normal results show a high urine osmolality after the administration of DDAVP, while psychogenic polydipsia is characterized by a low urine osmolality. Cranial DI and nephrogenic DI are both associated with high plasma osmolalities and low urine osmolalities.

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  • Question 21 - A 23-year-old female patient visits her GP clinic due to her struggle with...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female patient visits her GP clinic due to her struggle with weight loss. Her BMI is almost 40 kg/mÂČ, which is severely impacting her mental and physical well-being. Despite following a strict diet and exercise routine, she has not seen any significant improvement. The GP decides to prescribe orlistat as an anti-obesity medication.

      What is the mechanism of action of orlistat in promoting weight loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduces fat digestion by inhibiting lipase

      Explanation:

      Orlistat functions by inhibiting gastric and pancreatic lipase, which reduces the digestion of fat.

      2,4-Dinitrophenol (DNP) induces mitochondrial uncoupling and can result in weight loss without calorie reduction. However, it is hazardous when used improperly and is not prescribed outside of the US.

      Weight gain can be caused by increased insulin secretion.

      Orlistat reduces fat digestion by inhibiting lipase, which decreases the amount of fat that can be absorbed. This can result in light-colored, floating stools due to the high fat content.

      Liraglutide is a medication that slows gastric emptying to increase satiety and is primarily prescribed as an adjunct in type 2 diabetics.

      Serotonin reuptake inhibitors are not utilized for weight loss.

      Obesity can be managed through a step-wise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.

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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus has been taking metformin 1g...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus has been taking metformin 1g twice daily for the past 6 months. Despite this, his HbA1c has remained above target at 64 mmol/mol (8.0%).

      He has a history of left ventricular failure following a myocardial infarction 2 years ago. He has been trying to lose weight since but still has a body mass index of 33 kg/mÂČ. He is also prone to recurrent urinary tract infections.

      You intend to intensify treatment by adding a second medication.

      What is the mechanism of action of the most appropriate anti-diabetic drug for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) to increase incretin levels

      Explanation:

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

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  • Question 23 - A 55-year-old man with a smoking history of over 30 years presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a smoking history of over 30 years presented to the emergency department with acute confusion and disorientation. He was unable to recognize his family members and relatives. He had been experiencing unexplained weight loss, loss of appetite, and occasional episodes of haemoptysis for the past few months. Urgent blood tests were performed, revealing abnormal levels of electrolytes and renal function.

      Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the mechanism of action of the hormone that is being secreted excessively in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insertion of aquaporin-2 channels

      Explanation:

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) plays a crucial role in promoting water reabsorption by inserting aquaporin-2 channels in principal cells. In small-cell lung cancer patients, decreased serum sodium levels are commonly caused by the paraneoplastic syndrome of inadequate ADH secretion (SIADH) or ADH released during the initial lysis of tumour cells after chemotherapy. It is important to note that arteriolar vasodilation, promoting water excretion, decreased urine osmolarity, and increased portal blood flow are not functions of ADH.

      Understanding Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is produced in the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to conserve body water by promoting water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys through the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.

      ADH secretion is regulated by various factors. An increase in extracellular fluid osmolality, a decrease in volume or pressure, and the presence of angiotensin II can all increase ADH secretion. Conversely, a decrease in extracellular fluid osmolality, an increase in volume, a decrease in temperature, or the absence of ADH can decrease its secretion.

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition that occurs when there is either a deficiency of ADH (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be treated with desmopressin, which is an analog of ADH.

      Overall, understanding the role of ADH in regulating water balance in the body is crucial for maintaining proper hydration and preventing conditions like DI.

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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old man with a medical history of obesity, hypertension, type 2 diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a medical history of obesity, hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and ischaemic heart disease is hospitalized for SARS-CoV-2 infection. He is started on oxygen therapy and a 10-day course of oral dexamethasone. What is the most crucial monitoring strategy following the initiation of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Four times daily capillary blood glucose

      Explanation:

      Regular monitoring of capillary blood glucose is recommended when using corticosteroids as they can worsen diabetic control due to their anti-insulin effects. Dexamethasone, a corticosteroid with a high glucocorticoid effect, carries a high risk of hyperglycaemia in patients with or without diabetes. Monitoring blood sugars is essential for patients with diabetes who are started on glucocorticoids. Monitoring cardiac function, daily amylase levels, daily lying and standing blood pressure, and daily urea and electrolytes are not routinely recommended while on corticosteroids. However, these tests may be necessary if suggestive symptoms develop.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

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  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old woman with hypocalcaemia has elevated parathyroid hormone levels. Is it a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with hypocalcaemia has elevated parathyroid hormone levels. Is it a typical physiological response to increase calcium levels? In the kidney, where does parathyroid hormone act to enhance calcium reabsorption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Understanding Parathyroid Hormone and Its Effects

      Parathyroid hormone is a hormone produced by the chief cells of the parathyroid glands. Its main function is to increase the concentration of calcium in the blood by stimulating the PTH receptors in the kidney and bone. This hormone has a short half-life of only 4 minutes.

      The effects of parathyroid hormone are mainly seen in the bone, kidney, and intestine. In the bone, PTH binds to osteoblasts, which then signal to osteoclasts to resorb bone and release calcium. In the kidney, PTH promotes the active reabsorption of calcium and magnesium from the distal convoluted tubule, while decreasing the reabsorption of phosphate. In the intestine, PTH indirectly increases calcium absorption by increasing the activation of vitamin D, which in turn increases calcium absorption.

      Overall, understanding the role of parathyroid hormone is important in maintaining proper calcium levels in the body. Any imbalances in PTH secretion can lead to various disorders such as hyperparathyroidism or hypoparathyroidism.

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  • Question 26 - A 31-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department feeling lethargic. Her Glasgow coma...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department feeling lethargic. Her Glasgow coma scale score is 12/15 upon examination.

      Her capillary blood glucose level is 1.9 mmol/L.

      What is the initial hormone released naturally in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucagon

      Explanation:

      When blood glucose levels drop, the first hormone to be secreted is glucagon. This can happen due to various reasons, such as insulin or alcohol consumption. The initial response to hypoglycaemia is a decrease in insulin secretion, followed by the release of glucagon from the pancreas’ alpha cells. This prompts the liver to convert stored glycogen into glucose, thereby increasing blood glucose levels.

      Later on, growth hormone and cortisol are also released in response to hypoglycaemia. If cortisol production is reduced, as in Addison’s disease, it can lead to low blood glucose levels. This concept is used in the insulin tolerance test, where cortisol levels are measured after inducing hypoglycaemia with insulin.

      Incretins, on the other hand, are hormones that lower blood glucose levels, especially after meals. One such incretin is glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1), which is used to treat type 2 diabetes. Exenatide is an example of an injectable GLP-1 analogue medication.

      Understanding Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Features, and Management

      Hypoglycaemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are several possible causes of hypoglycaemia, including insulinoma, liver failure, Addison’s disease, and alcohol consumption. The physiological response to hypoglycaemia involves hormonal and sympathoadrenal responses, which can result in autonomic and neuroglycopenic symptoms. While blood glucose levels and symptom severity are not always correlated, common symptoms of hypoglycaemia include sweating, shaking, hunger, anxiety, nausea, weakness, vision changes, confusion, and dizziness. In severe cases, hypoglycaemia can lead to convulsions or coma.

      Managing hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the symptoms and the setting in which it occurs. In the community, individuals with diabetes who inject insulin may be advised to consume oral glucose or a quick-acting carbohydrate such as GlucoGel or Dextrogel. A ‘HypoKit’ containing glucagon may also be prescribed for home use. In a hospital setting, treatment may involve administering a quick-acting carbohydrate or subcutaneous/intramuscular injection of glucagon for unconscious or unable to swallow patients. Alternatively, intravenous glucose solution may be given through a large vein.

      Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of hypoglycaemia is crucial for individuals with diabetes or other conditions that increase the risk of low blood sugar levels. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.

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  • Question 27 - A young man presents with polyuria, polydipsia and weight loss. He is subsequently...

    Incorrect

    • A young man presents with polyuria, polydipsia and weight loss. He is subsequently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. What is he at an increased risk of developing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addison's disease, Grave's disease, coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Type 1 diabetes is linked to other autoimmune disorders like Addison’s disease, Grave’s disease, and coeliac disease, due to its own autoimmune nature. The other choices are incorrect as they contain a non-autoimmune disorder.

      Understanding Diabetes Mellitus: A Basic Overview

      Diabetes mellitus is a chronic condition characterized by abnormally raised levels of blood glucose. It is one of the most common conditions encountered in clinical practice and represents a significant burden on the health systems of the developed world. The management of diabetes mellitus is crucial as untreated type 1 diabetes would usually result in death. Poorly treated type 1 diabetes mellitus can still result in significant morbidity and mortality. The main focus of diabetes management now is reducing the incidence of macrovascular and microvascular complications.

      There are different types of diabetes mellitus, including type 1 diabetes mellitus, type 2 diabetes mellitus, prediabetes, gestational diabetes, maturity onset diabetes of the young, latent autoimmune diabetes of adults, and other types. The presentation of diabetes mellitus depends on the type, with type 1 diabetes mellitus often presenting with weight loss, polydipsia, polyuria, and diabetic ketoacidosis. On the other hand, type 2 diabetes mellitus is often picked up incidentally on routine blood tests and presents with polydipsia and polyuria.

      There are four main ways to check blood glucose, including a finger-prick bedside glucose monitor, a one-off blood glucose, a HbA1c, and a glucose tolerance test. The diagnostic criteria are determined by WHO, with a fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l and random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l being diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. Management of diabetes mellitus involves drug therapy to normalize blood glucose levels, monitoring for and treating any complications related to diabetes, and modifying any other risk factors for other conditions such as cardiovascular disease. The first-line drug for the vast majority of patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus is metformin, with second-line drugs including sulfonylureas, gliptins, and pioglitazone. Insulin is used if oral medication is not controlling the blood glucose to a sufficient degree.

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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old male presents to his GP with a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male presents to his GP with a diagnosis of hyperthyroidism. He states that he has lost 1 stone in weight over the past 3 months, despite having an increased appetite. What could be the probable reason for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased basal metabolic rate

      Explanation:

      Thyroid hormones play a crucial role in regulating metabolism by increasing the basal metabolic rate and influencing protein synthesis. They are essential for growth and development, including neural development in fetuses and growth in young children. Additionally, they enhance the body’s sensitivity to catecholamines.

      Thyroid hormones stimulate the sodium-potassium pump in the membrane, leading to increased uptake and breakdown of glucose and amino acids. This results in calorigenesis and ATP formation in the mitochondria for the pump. They also have lipolytic effects on fat, promoting cholesterol breakdown and LDL receptor activity.

      Other metabolic effects of thyroid hormones include increased gut motility and glucose absorption, hepatic glycogenolysis, and potentiation of insulin’s effects on glucose uptake in the liver and muscles. They also break down insulin to prevent glucose storage and enhance the glycogenolysis effects of adrenaline.

      Thyroid hormones increase oxygen consumption, leading to increased erythropoiesis for better oxygen transport, enhanced cardiac contractility, and maintenance of the hypoxic and hypercapnic drive in the respiratory center. They also increase protein turnover, metabolic turnover of drugs and hormones, and bone turnover.

      Understanding Thyrotoxicosis: Causes and Investigations

      Thyrotoxicosis is a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland, resulting in an excess of thyroid hormones in the body. Graves’ disease is the most common cause, accounting for 50-60% of cases. Other causes include toxic nodular goitre, subacute thyroiditis, postpartum thyroiditis, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, amiodarone therapy, and contrast administration. Elderly patients with pre-existing thyroid disease are also at risk.

      To diagnose thyrotoxicosis, doctors typically look for a decrease in thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels and an increase in T4 and T3 levels. Thyroid autoantibodies may also be present. Isotope scanning may be used to investigate further. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, highlighting the complexity of thyroid dysfunction. Patients with existing thyrotoxicosis should avoid iodinated contrast medium, as it can result in hyperthyroidism developing over several weeks.

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  • Question 29 - A 10-year-old girl with no previous medical history presents to the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl with no previous medical history presents to the emergency department with vomiting and diarrhea. She also complains of abdominal pain. A venous blood gas test is performed and shows the following results:

      Normal range
      pH: 7.14 (7.35 - 7.45)
      pO2: 11.6 (10 - 14)kPa
      pCO2: 3.3 (4.5 - 6.0)kPa
      HCO3: 10 (22 - 26)mmol/l
      BE: -16 (-2 to +2)mmol/l
      Lactate: 4.1 0.6-1.8mmol/l
      Potassium: 5.4 3.5-5 mmol/l

      A blood glucose finger-prick test is also performed, which reads Glucose = 24. Based on the information provided, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis

      Explanation:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis is depicted in this image. It is a critical condition that requires urgent attention, with a focus on administering insulin, fluid resuscitation, and closely monitoring potassium levels.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.

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  • Question 30 - A 42-year-old man with schizophrenia undergoes his yearly physical examination. He is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with schizophrenia undergoes his yearly physical examination. He is currently taking risperidone as part of his medication regimen.

      What is the most common issue that can be linked to the use of risperidone in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Galactorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, has the potential to increase prolactin levels. This is because it inhibits dopamine, which reduces dopamine-mediated inhibition of prolactin. Although elevated prolactin may not cause any symptoms, it can have adverse effects if persistently elevated. One of the major roles of prolactin is to stimulate milk production in the mammary glands. Therefore, any cause of raised prolactin can result in milk production, which is known as galactorrhoea. This can occur in both males and females due to raised prolactin levels. Galactorrhoea is the most likely side effect caused by risperidone.

      Raised prolactin levels can also lead to reduced libido and infertility in both sexes. However, it is unlikely to result in increased libido. Prolactin can interfere with other hormones, such as oestrogen and progesterone, which can cause irregular periods, but it does not specifically cause painful periods. Elevated levels of prolactin would not result in seizures. Risperidone is more likely to be associated with weight gain rather than weight loss, as it acts on the histamine receptor.

      Understanding Prolactin and Its Functions

      Prolactin is a hormone that is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to stimulate breast development and milk production in females. During pregnancy, prolactin levels increase to support the growth and development of the mammary glands. It also plays a role in reducing the pulsatility of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) at the hypothalamic level, which can block the action of luteinizing hormone (LH) on the ovaries or testes.

      The secretion of prolactin is regulated by dopamine, which constantly inhibits its release. However, certain factors can increase or decrease prolactin secretion. For example, prolactin levels increase during pregnancy, in response to estrogen, and during breastfeeding. Additionally, stress, sleep, and certain drugs like metoclopramide and antipsychotics can also increase prolactin secretion. On the other hand, dopamine and dopaminergic agonists can decrease prolactin secretion.

      Overall, understanding the functions and regulation of prolactin is important for reproductive health and lactation.

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  • Question 31 - A 43-year-old woman with a history of severe ulcerative colitis (UC) presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman with a history of severe ulcerative colitis (UC) presents to the emergency department with her fourth acute flare in the past 6 months. She has a past medical history of recreational drug use and depression. The patient is given IV hydrocortisone and appears to be responding well. She is discharged after a day of observation with a 7-day course of prednisolone, but the consultant is considering long-term steroid therapy due to the severity of her condition. Which of the following is associated with long-term steroid use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of mania

      Explanation:

      Long-term use of steroids can lead to a higher risk of psychiatric disorders such as depression, mania, psychosis, and insomnia. This risk is even greater if the patient has a history of recreational drug use or mental disorders. While proximal myopathy is a known adverse effect of long-term steroid use, distal myopathy is not commonly observed. However, some studies have reported it as a rare and uncommon adverse effect. Steroids are also known to increase appetite, leading to weight gain, making the last two options incorrect.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 32 - What is the primary constituent of the colloid found in the thyroid gland?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary constituent of the colloid found in the thyroid gland?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroglobulin

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Hormones and LATS in Graves Disease

      Thyroid hormones are produced by the thyroid gland and include triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4), with T3 being the major hormone active in target cells. The synthesis and secretion of these hormones involves the active concentration of iodide by the thyroid, which is then oxidized and iodinated by peroxidase in the follicular cells. This process is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), which is released by the pituitary gland. The normal thyroid has approximately three months’ worth of reserves of thyroid hormones.

      In Graves disease, patients develop IgG antibodies to the TSH receptors on the thyroid gland. This results in chronic and long-term stimulation of the gland with the release of thyroid hormones. As a result, individuals with Graves disease typically have raised thyroid hormones and low TSH levels. It is important to check for thyroid receptor autoantibodies in individuals presenting with hyperthyroidism, as they are present in up to 85% of cases. This condition is known as LATS (long-acting thyroid stimulator) and can lead to a range of symptoms and complications if left untreated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 33 - A 10-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes arrives at the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl with type 1 diabetes arrives at the emergency department with vomiting. After a brief history, you discover she had a recent bout of strep throat. Upon examination, you detect ketones in her urine and elevated blood sugar levels, indicating a likely case of diabetic ketoacidosis. What is the primary ketone body implicated in diabetic ketoacidosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetoacetate

      Explanation:

      The liver produces water-soluble molecules called ketone bodies from fatty acids, with acetoacetate being the primary ketone body involved in diabetic ketoacidosis, along with beta-hydroxybutyrate and acetone. Ketone bodies are generated during fasting/starvation, intense exercise, or untreated type 1 diabetes mellitus. These molecules are taken up by extra-hepatic tissues and transformed into acetyl-CoA, which enters the citric acid cycle and is oxidized in the mitochondria to produce energy.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.

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      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 34 - A 15-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father who is worried that his daughter has not yet had a menstrual period. The girl reports that she has been unable to smell for as long as she can remember but is otherwise in good health. During the examination, the girl is found to have underdeveloped breasts and no pubic hair. Her vital signs and body mass index are within normal limits.

      What is the probable reason for the girl's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kallman syndrome

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this girl is Kallmann syndrome, which is characterized by a combination of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and anosmia. This genetic disorder occurs due to a failure in neuron migration, resulting in deficient hypothalamic gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) and a lack of secondary sexual characteristics. Anosmia is a distinguishing feature of Kallmann syndrome compared to other causes of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Congenital adrenal hypoplasia, which results in insufficient cortisol production due to adrenal cortex enzyme deficiency, can also cause hypogonadotropic hypogonadism but is less likely in this case due to the presence of anosmia. Imperforate hymen, which presents with lower abdominal/pelvic pain without vaginal bleeding, is not consistent with this patient’s symptoms. Malnutrition is not indicated as a possible diagnosis.

      Kallmann’s syndrome is a condition that can cause delayed puberty due to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. It is often inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is believed to be caused by a failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. One of the key indicators of Kallmann’s syndrome is anosmia, or a lack of smell, in boys with delayed puberty. Other features may include hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, low sex hormone levels, and normal or above-average height. Some patients may also have cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.

      Management of Kallmann’s syndrome typically involves testosterone supplementation. Gonadotrophin supplementation may also be used to stimulate sperm production if fertility is desired later in life. It is important for individuals with Kallmann’s syndrome to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and ensure optimal health outcomes.

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      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 35 - A father is concerned about his 14-month-old child who has been having up...

    Incorrect

    • A father is concerned about his 14-month-old child who has been having up to 10 wet nappies a day. He recalls that his cousin had a kidney condition and wonders if it could be affecting his child. After being referred to a paediatrician, the doctor mentions the possibility of Bartter's syndrome.

      What is the root cause of Bartter's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mutated NKCC2 channel in the ascending loop of Henle

      Explanation:

      The cause of Bartter’s syndrome is a faulty NKCC2 channel located in the ascending loop of Henle.

      Polydipsia, polyuria, and dehydration are common symptoms of Bartter’s syndrome, which is an inherited disorder resulting from mutated NKCC2 channels.

      Gitelman syndrome is a related condition caused by a mutated NCl symporter.

      Nephrogenic and central diabetes insipidus are characterized by mutated ADH receptors and a lack of ADH production, respectively.

      Bartter’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that causes severe hypokalaemia due to a defect in the absorption of chloride at the Na+ K+ 2Cl- cotransporter in the ascending loop of Henle. This disorder is usually inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. Unlike other endocrine causes of hypokalaemia, such as Conn’s, Cushing’s, and Liddle’s syndrome, Bartter’s syndrome is associated with normotension. Loop diuretics work by inhibiting NKCC2, which is similar to the effects of Bartter’s syndrome. The symptoms of Bartter’s syndrome usually appear in childhood and include failure to thrive, polyuria, polydipsia, hypokalaemia, normotension, and weakness.

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      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 36 - A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated by her diabetic nurse. Despite taking metformin for the past 6 months, her glycaemic control remains poor. To improve management, the decision is made to add sitagliptin (a dipeptidyl-peptidase 4 (DPP-4) inhibitor) to her current metformin regimen.

      What is the mechanism of action of the newly prescribed medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased levels of glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1)

      Explanation:

      DPP-4 inhibitors, like sitagliptin, work by inhibiting the breakdown of incretins such as GLP-1 and GIP. This leads to higher levels of insulin being released, as incretins increase insulin release. These inhibitors are often weight-neutral, but can occasionally cause weight loss.

      The answer Increases cell sensitivity to insulin is incorrect, as this is the mechanism of action of metformin, not DPP-4 inhibitors. Metformin increases cell sensitivity to insulin, but the exact mechanism is not fully understood.

      Similarly, Inhibition of sodium-glucose co-transporter (SGLT2) is incorrect, as this is the mechanism of action of SGLT2 inhibitors, not DPP-4 inhibitors. SGLT2 inhibitors prevent glucose absorption in the kidneys, leading to higher levels of glucose in the urine and an increased risk of urinary tract infections.

      Lastly, Increases adipogenesis is incorrect, as this is the mechanism of action of thiazolidinediones, not DPP-4 inhibitors. Thiazolidinediones stimulate adipogenesis, causing cells to become more dependent on glucose for energy.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

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      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 37 - A 70-year-old man with chronic back pain and renal failure presents with the...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with chronic back pain and renal failure presents with the following blood test results:

      Reference range
      Ca2+ 2.10 2.15-2.55 mmol/l
      Parathyroid hormone 9.8 1-6.5 pmol/l
      Phosphate 0.75 0.6-1.25 mmol/l

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Secondary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by elevated levels of PTH, while calcium levels are either normal or low. This condition occurs due to the parathyroid glands’ hyperplasia in response to chronic hypocalcemia or hyperphosphatemia, which is a natural physiological reaction. The body releases calcium from the kidneys, gastrointestinal system, and bones.

      Parathyroid Glands and Disorders of Calcium Metabolism

      The parathyroid glands play a crucial role in regulating calcium levels in the body. Hyperparathyroidism is a disorder that occurs when these glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to abnormal calcium metabolism. Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common form and is usually caused by a solitary adenoma. Secondary hyperparathyroidism occurs as a result of low calcium levels, often in the setting of chronic renal failure. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism is a rare condition that occurs when hyperplasia of the parathyroid glands persists after correction of underlying renal disorder.

      Diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism is based on hormone profiles and clinical features. Treatment options vary depending on the type and severity of the disorder. Surgery is usually indicated for primary hyperparathyroidism if certain criteria are met, such as elevated serum calcium levels, hypercalciuria, and nephrolithiasis. Secondary hyperparathyroidism is typically managed with medical therapy, while surgery may be necessary for persistent symptoms such as bone pain and soft tissue calcifications. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism may resolve on its own within a year after transplant, but surgery may be required if an autonomously functioning parathyroid gland is present. It is important to consider differential diagnoses, such as benign familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia, which is a rare but relatively benign condition.

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      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 38 - A 29-year-old female has been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. She is experiencing heat intolerance...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female has been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. She is experiencing heat intolerance and is very frightened by her palpitations. The GP prescribes Carbimazole and a second medication to manage the palpitations. Which receptors are being overstimulated by the increased catecholamine effects in this patient, leading to her palpitations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ÎČ1 receptors

      Explanation:

      The sensitivity of the body to catecholamines is heightened by thyroid hormones. When catecholamines activate the ÎČ1 receptors in the heart, it leads to an elevation in heart rate.

      Thyroid disorders are commonly encountered in clinical practice, with hypothyroidism and thyrotoxicosis being the most prevalent. Women are ten times more likely to develop these conditions than men. The thyroid gland is a bi-lobed structure located in the anterior neck and is part of a hypothalamus-pituitary-end organ system that regulates the production of thyroxine and triiodothyronine hormones. These hormones help regulate energy sources, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. Hypothyroidism can be primary or secondary, while thyrotoxicosis is mostly primary. Autoimmunity is the leading cause of thyroid problems in the developed world.

      Thyroid disorders can present in various ways, with symptoms often being the opposite depending on whether the thyroid gland is under or overactive. For example, hypothyroidism may result in weight gain, while thyrotoxicosis leads to weight loss. Thyroid function tests are the primary investigation for diagnosing thyroid disorders. These tests primarily look at serum TSH and T4 levels, with T3 being measured in specific cases. TSH levels are more sensitive than T4 levels for monitoring patients with existing thyroid problems.

      Treatment for thyroid disorders depends on the cause. Patients with hypothyroidism are given levothyroxine to replace the underlying deficiency. Patients with thyrotoxicosis may be treated with propranolol to control symptoms such as tremors, carbimazole to reduce thyroid hormone production, or radioiodine treatment.

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      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 39 - A 63-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of double vision that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of double vision that has been ongoing for eight hours. He has a medical history of hypertension, which is managed with amlodipine and atenolol, and type 2 diabetes that is controlled through diet. Upon examination, the patient displays watering of the right eye, a slight droop of the eyelid, and displacement of the eye to the right. The left eye appears to have a full range of movements, and the pupil size is the same as on the left. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetes

      Explanation:

      Causes of Painless Partial Third Nerve Palsy

      A painless partial third nerve palsy with pupil sparing is most likely caused by diabetes mononeuropathy. This condition is thought to be due to a microangiopathy that leads to the occlusion of the vasa nervorum. On the other hand, an aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery is associated with a painful third nerve palsy, and pupillary dilatation is typical. Cerebral infarction, on the other hand, does not usually cause pain. Hypertension, which is a common condition, would normally cause signs of CVA or TIA. Lastly, cerebral vasculitis can cause symptoms of CVA/TIA, but they usually cause more global neurological symptoms.

      In summary, a painless partial third nerve palsy with pupil sparing is most likely caused by diabetes mononeuropathy. Other conditions such as aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery, cerebral infarction, hypertension, and cerebral vasculitis can also cause similar symptoms, but they have different characteristics and causes. It is important to identify the underlying cause of the condition to provide appropriate treatment and management.

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      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 40 - As a third year medical student working in a GP surgery, you come...

    Incorrect

    • As a third year medical student working in a GP surgery, you come across a worried 54-year-old male patient who is experiencing chest discomfort. He has recently begun taking a new tablet for his high blood pressure and suspects it may be the cause of his symptoms. During your examination, you notice bilateral non-tender glandular swellings around the areolae. There are no signs of lymphadenopathy in the axillary region, and testicular examination is normal. Which medication is most likely responsible for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone-Induced Gynaecomastia

      Spironolactone is a type of diuretic that helps to increase urine production by blocking aldosterone receptors in the kidneys. However, it also has anti-androgenic properties that can lead to the development of gynaecomastia, a condition where men develop breast tissue. This is because spironolactone inhibits the production of testosterone and increases the level of free oestrogen in the blood, causing the proliferation of glandular tissue in the mammary glands.

      While gynaecomastia is not commonly associated with other medications, they all have their own side effects. Aspirin, for example, can cause gastrointestinal ulceration by inhibiting COX enzymes and prostaglandin synthesis. Thiazide diuretics work by blocking the sodium chloride co-transporter in the distal convoluted tubule, which can lead to a decrease in blood volume. Loop diuretics, on the other hand, can cause severe hyponatraemia but do not affect testosterone production. Statins, which are used to lower cholesterol levels, can cause rhabdomyolysis, a serious condition where muscle tissue breaks down and releases harmful substances into the bloodstream.

      In summary, while spironolactone can be an effective diuretic, it is important to be aware of its potential side effects, including gynaecomastia. Patients should always consult with their healthcare provider before starting any new medication and report any unusual symptoms or side effects.

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      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 41 - What is the crucial step in the production of all steroid hormones? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the crucial step in the production of all steroid hormones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone

      Explanation:

      The Role of Pregnenolone in Steroid Hormone Synthesis

      In the production of steroid hormones in the human body, the conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone is a crucial step. Pregnenolone serves as the precursor for all steroid hormones, and its formation is the limiting factor in the synthesis of these hormones. This conversion process occurs within the mitochondria of steroid-producing tissues. Essentially, the body needs to convert cholesterol to pregnenolone before it can produce any other steroid hormones. This highlights the importance of pregnenolone in the body’s endocrine system and its role in regulating various physiological processes.

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      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 42 - A 54-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus visits the Endocrinology clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus visits the Endocrinology clinic for evaluation. He is currently on maximum doses of metformin and glibenclamide, but his HbA1c levels have increased from 58 mmol/mol to 67 mmol/mol over the past six months. The consultant recommends adding sitagliptin as a third antidiabetic medication. What is the mechanism of action of this new medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibit the peripheral breakdown of incretins, enhancing their ability to stimulate insulin release

      Explanation:

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

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      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 43 - A 56-year-old woman visits her primary care physician with concerns about recent weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her primary care physician with concerns about recent weight gain. She reports maintaining her usual diet and exercise routine, but has noticed her face appearing rounder and the development of purplish stretch marks on her abdomen. During the exam, her heart rate is 89 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 157/84 mmHg. Her waist circumference measures 41 inches and her body mass index is 28 kg/m2. What is one effect of the primary hormone involved in this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Upregulation of alpha-1-adrenoceptors on arterioles

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with a state of elevated cortisol levels, known as Cushing syndrome. These symptoms include recent weight gain, a round face (moon face), abdominal striae, high blood pressure, and truncal obesity. Cushing syndrome can have various causes, including the use of glucocorticoids or an ectopic ACTH secretion.

      Elevated cortisol levels can lead to an increase in blood glucose levels, putting individuals at risk for hyperglycemia and diabetes. Cortisol can also suppress the immune system, inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and interleukin-2, and decreasing the adhesion of white blood cells. Additionally, cortisol can up-regulate alpha-1-adrenoceptors on arterioles, resulting in high blood pressure. High cortisol levels can also decrease osteoblast activity, leading to weakened bones, and reduce fibroblast activity and collagen synthesis, resulting in delayed wound healing. The abdominal striae seen in patients with high cortisol levels are typically due to decreased collagen synthesis.

      Causes of Cushing’s Syndrome

      Cushing’s syndrome is a condition that can be caused by both endogenous and exogenous factors. However, it is important to note that exogenous causes, such as the use of glucocorticoid therapy, are more common than endogenous ones. The condition can be classified into two categories: ACTH dependent and ACTH independent causes.

      ACTH dependent causes of Cushing’s syndrome include Cushing’s disease, which is caused by a pituitary tumor secreting ACTH and producing adrenal hyperplasia. Ectopic ACTH production, which is caused by small cell lung cancer, is another ACTH dependent cause. On the other hand, ACTH independent causes include iatrogenic factors such as steroid use, adrenal adenoma, adrenal carcinoma, Carney complex, and micronodular adrenal dysplasia.

      In some cases, a condition called Pseudo-Cushing’s can mimic Cushing’s syndrome. This is often caused by alcohol excess or severe depression and can cause false positive results in dexamethasone suppression tests or 24-hour urinary free cortisol tests. To differentiate between Cushing’s syndrome and Pseudo-Cushing’s, an insulin stress test may be used.

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      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 44 - A 33-year-old woman with a history of coeliac disease presents to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old woman with a history of coeliac disease presents to the emergency department with palpitations, diaphoresis, and tremors. Upon examination, her vital signs reveal a heart rate of 110 bpm and respiratory rate of 24 per min. She displays hand tremors, bulging eyeballs, and diffuse swelling in her neck. Her blood tests show:

      TSH 0.1 mU/l
      Free T4 32.5 pmol/l
      Free T3 12.5 pmol/l

      What is the most probable underlying pathophysiology in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antibodies to TSH receptors

      Explanation:

      Graves’ disease is the most probable cause of thyrotoxicosis in a middle-aged woman, particularly if she exhibits exophthalmos. This autoimmune disorder is characterised by the presence of antibodies to the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) receptors.

      Graves’ Disease: Common Features and Unique Signs

      Graves’ disease is the most frequent cause of thyrotoxicosis, which is commonly observed in women aged 30-50 years. The condition presents typical features of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. However, Graves’ disease also displays specific signs that are not present in other causes of thyrotoxicosis. These include eye signs, such as exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia, as well as pretibial myxoedema and thyroid acropachy. The latter is a triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation.

      Graves’ disease is characterized by the presence of autoantibodies, including TSH receptor stimulating antibodies in 90% of patients and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 75% of patients. Thyroid scintigraphy reveals a diffuse, homogenous, and increased uptake of radioactive iodine. These features help distinguish Graves’ disease from other causes of thyrotoxicosis and aid in its diagnosis.

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      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 45 - Which of the following most accurately explains how glucocorticoids work? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following most accurately explains how glucocorticoids work?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Binding of intracellular receptors that migrate to the nucleus to then affect gene transcription

      Explanation:

      The effects of glucocorticoids are mediated by intracellular receptors that bind to them and are subsequently transported to the nucleus, where they modulate gene transcription.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

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      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 46 - A 49-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of muscle cramps and constipation...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man visits the clinic with complaints of muscle cramps and constipation that have been present for a week. He appears to be in good health otherwise. Upon conducting a serum potassium test, you discover that his levels are below the normal range. Your next step is to determine the underlying cause of his hypokalaemia. Which of the following medical conditions is commonly linked to low potassium levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cushing's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cushing’s syndrome is the correct answer as it causes excess cortisol which can exhibit mineralocorticoid activity and lead to hypokalaemia. The kidneys play a major role in maintaining potassium balance, but other factors such as insulin, catecholamines, and aldosterone also influence potassium levels. The other options listed (congenital adrenal hypoplasia, Addison’s, rhabdomyolysis, metabolic acidosis) all cause hyperkalaemia. Addison’s disease and adrenal hypoplasia result in mineralocorticoid deficiency, leading to hyperkalaemia. Acidosis and rhabdomyolysis also cause hyperkalaemia. Symptoms of hypokalaemia include fatigue, muscle weakness, myalgia, muscle cramps, constipation, hyporeflexia, and rarely paralysis.

      Causes of Cushing’s Syndrome

      Cushing’s syndrome is a condition that can be caused by both endogenous and exogenous factors. However, it is important to note that exogenous causes, such as the use of glucocorticoid therapy, are more common than endogenous ones. The condition can be classified into two categories: ACTH dependent and ACTH independent causes.

      ACTH dependent causes of Cushing’s syndrome include Cushing’s disease, which is caused by a pituitary tumor secreting ACTH and producing adrenal hyperplasia. Ectopic ACTH production, which is caused by small cell lung cancer, is another ACTH dependent cause. On the other hand, ACTH independent causes include iatrogenic factors such as steroid use, adrenal adenoma, adrenal carcinoma, Carney complex, and micronodular adrenal dysplasia.

      In some cases, a condition called Pseudo-Cushing’s can mimic Cushing’s syndrome. This is often caused by alcohol excess or severe depression and can cause false positive results in dexamethasone suppression tests or 24-hour urinary free cortisol tests. To differentiate between Cushing’s syndrome and Pseudo-Cushing’s, an insulin stress test may be used.

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      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 47 - A 47-year-old woman comes in for her yearly diabetic check-up. Despite being on...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman comes in for her yearly diabetic check-up. Despite being on metformin and gliclazide for a year, her HbA1c level remains at 57 mmol/mol. She mentions difficulty losing weight, and her BMI is recorded as 36 kg/mÂČ. The doctor decides to prescribe sitagliptin. How does this medication lower blood sugar levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reducing the peripheral breakdown of incretin

      Explanation:

      DPP-4 inhibitors, also known as gliptins, function by decreasing the breakdown of incretins like GLP-1 in the periphery. This leads to an increase in incretin levels, which in turn lowers blood glucose levels.

      It is important to note that increasing the peripheral breakdown of incretin would have the opposite effect and worsen glycaemic control.

      Metformin, on the other hand, works by enhancing the uptake of insulin in the periphery.

      Reducing the secretion of insulin from the pancreas would not be an effective mechanism and would actually raise glucose levels in the blood.

      SGLT2 inhibitors, such as dapagliflozin, function by reducing the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

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  • Question 48 - A 35-year-old man, with a history of type 1 diabetes, was discovered disoriented...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man, with a history of type 1 diabetes, was discovered disoriented on the road. He was taken to the ER and diagnosed with hypoglycemia. As IV access was not feasible, IM glucagon was administered. What accurately explains the medication's mechanism of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increases secretion of somatostatin

      Explanation:

      Somatostatin, a hormone that inhibits the secretion of insulin and glucagon, is produced in the pancreas. Glucagon can increase the secretion of somatostatin through a feedback mechanism, while insulin can decrease it. Somatostatin also plays a role in controlling the emptying of the stomach and bowel.

      Glucagon is a treatment option for hypoglycemia, along with IV dextrose if the patient is confused and IV access is available.

      Cortisol is produced in the adrenal gland’s zona fasciculate and is triggered by ACTH, which is released from the anterior pituitary gland. Glucagon can stimulate ACTH-induced cortisol release.

      Desmopressin is an analogue of vasopressin and is used to replace vasopressin/ADH in the treatment of central diabetes insipidus, where there is a lack of ADH due to decreased or non-existent secretion or production by the hypothalamus or posterior pituitary.

      Prolactin, produced in the anterior pituitary, is responsible for milk production in the breasts.

      Somatostatin: The Inhibitor Hormone

      Somatostatin, also known as growth hormone inhibiting hormone (GHIH), is a hormone produced by delta cells found in the pancreas, pylorus, and duodenum. Its main function is to inhibit the secretion of growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon. It also decreases acid and pepsin secretion, as well as pancreatic enzyme secretion. Additionally, somatostatin inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      Somatostatin analogs are commonly used in the management of acromegaly, a condition characterized by excessive growth hormone secretion. These analogs work by inhibiting growth hormone secretion, thereby reducing the symptoms associated with acromegaly.

      The secretion of somatostatin is regulated by various factors. Its secretion increases in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen, as well as glucagon. On the other hand, insulin decreases the secretion of somatostatin.

      In summary, somatostatin plays a crucial role in regulating the secretion of various hormones and enzymes in the body. Its inhibitory effects on growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon make it an important hormone in the management of certain medical conditions.

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  • Question 49 - For individuals with multiple endocrine neoplasia type IIb, what is the most probable...

    Incorrect

    • For individuals with multiple endocrine neoplasia type IIb, what is the most probable clinical presentation they will exhibit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Marfanoid features

      Explanation:

      Understanding Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia

      Multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) is an autosomal dominant disorder that affects the endocrine system. There are three main types of MEN, each with its own set of associated features. MEN type I is characterized by the 3 P’s: parathyroid hyperplasia leading to hyperparathyroidism, pituitary tumors, and pancreatic tumors such as insulinomas and gastrinomas. MEN type IIa is associated with the 2 P’s: parathyroid hyperplasia leading to hyperparathyroidism and phaeochromocytoma, as well as medullary thyroid cancer. MEN type IIb is characterized by phaeochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, and a marfanoid body habitus.

      The most common presentation of MEN is hypercalcaemia, which is often seen in MEN type I due to parathyroid hyperplasia. MEN type IIa and IIb are both associated with medullary thyroid cancer, which is caused by mutations in the RET oncogene. MEN type I is caused by mutations in the MEN1 gene. Understanding the different types of MEN and their associated features is important for early diagnosis and management of this rare but potentially serious condition.

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  • Question 50 - A 47-year-old female has been diagnosed with Grave's disease, experiencing weight loss, heat...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old female has been diagnosed with Grave's disease, experiencing weight loss, heat intolerance, and a tremor that is affecting her job as a waitress. Despite being prescribed carbimazole, she is unhappy with the results after 3 days. What other medication options are available for symptom management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beta blockers

      Explanation:

      To alleviate symptoms, beta blockers like propranolol can be used to block the sympathetic effects on the heart. Guanethidine can also be administered to reduce catecholamine release. Statins and calcium channel blockers are not effective in treating the patient’s symptoms. Although benzodiazepines have anxiolytic and sedative properties, they may not be the most suitable option in this case.

      Graves’ Disease: Common Features and Unique Signs

      Graves’ disease is the most frequent cause of thyrotoxicosis, which is commonly observed in women aged 30-50 years. The condition presents typical features of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. However, Graves’ disease also displays specific signs that are not present in other causes of thyrotoxicosis. These include eye signs, such as exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia, as well as pretibial myxoedema and thyroid acropachy. The latter is a triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation.

      Graves’ disease is characterized by the presence of autoantibodies, including TSH receptor stimulating antibodies in 90% of patients and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 75% of patients. Thyroid scintigraphy reveals a diffuse, homogenous, and increased uptake of radioactive iodine. These features help distinguish Graves’ disease from other causes of thyrotoxicosis and aid in its diagnosis.

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  • Question 51 - A patient with a recent diagnosis of schizophrenia at the age of 40...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a recent diagnosis of schizophrenia at the age of 40 is prescribed risperidone. During their consultation with the doctor, they are informed that some of the potential side effects are caused by elevated levels of prolactin.

      What is the mechanism behind this occurrence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of dopamine activity

      Explanation:

      Dopamine plays a crucial role in inhibiting the release of prolactin. As atypical antipsychotics like risperidone block dopamine activity, they can lead to increased levels of prolactin. While these drugs may also inhibit histamine and serotonin to varying degrees, it is the inhibition of dopamine that is directly linked to prolactin release. Stimulation of dopamine or serotonin activity would not interfere with prolactin release in the same way that dopamine inhibition does.

      Understanding Prolactin and Its Functions

      Prolactin is a hormone that is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to stimulate breast development and milk production in females. During pregnancy, prolactin levels increase to support the growth and development of the mammary glands. It also plays a role in reducing the pulsatility of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) at the hypothalamic level, which can block the action of luteinizing hormone (LH) on the ovaries or testes.

      The secretion of prolactin is regulated by dopamine, which constantly inhibits its release. However, certain factors can increase or decrease prolactin secretion. For example, prolactin levels increase during pregnancy, in response to estrogen, and during breastfeeding. Additionally, stress, sleep, and certain drugs like metoclopramide and antipsychotics can also increase prolactin secretion. On the other hand, dopamine and dopaminergic agonists can decrease prolactin secretion.

      Overall, understanding the functions and regulation of prolactin is important for reproductive health and lactation.

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  • Question 52 - Which of the following is not secreted by the islets of Langerhans? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not secreted by the islets of Langerhans?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secretin

      Explanation:

      Mucosal cells in the duodenum and jejunum release secretin.

      Hormones Released from the Islets of Langerhans

      The islets of Langerhans in the pancreas are responsible for the production and secretion of several hormones that play a crucial role in regulating blood glucose levels. The beta cells in the islets of Langerhans are responsible for producing insulin, which accounts for 70% of the total secretions. Insulin helps to lower blood glucose levels by promoting the uptake of glucose by cells and tissues throughout the body.

      The alpha cells in the islets of Langerhans produce glucagon, which has the opposite effect of insulin. Glucagon raises blood glucose levels by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream. The delta cells in the islets of Langerhans produce somatostatin, which helps to regulate the release of insulin and glucagon.

      Finally, the F cells in the islets of Langerhans produce pancreatic polypeptide, which plays a role in regulating pancreatic exocrine function and appetite. Together, these hormones work to maintain a delicate balance of blood glucose levels in the body.

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  • Question 53 - Sarah, a 25-year-old type 1 diabetic, is interested in joining a local running...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 25-year-old type 1 diabetic, is interested in joining a local running group. As her physician, it is important to inform her of the potential impact this increase in physical activity may have on her blood sugar levels. What advice do you give her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She is at risk of an early and a late drop, hours later, in her blood glucose due muscle uptake and replacement of glycogen

      Explanation:

      Glucose levels are impacted by exercise in various ways. Firstly, there is an initial decrease due to the increased uptake of glucose in the muscles through GLUT-2, which does not require insulin. Secondly, during high-intensity sports, the release of adrenaline and cortisol can cause a temporary increase in blood glucose levels, especially during competitive events. Finally, there is a delayed decrease as the muscles and liver glycogen are utilized during exercise and then replenished over the following hours.

      Glycogenesis – the process of storing glucose as glycogen

      Glycogenesis is the process of converting glucose into glycogen for storage in the liver and muscles. This process is important for maintaining blood glucose levels and providing energy during times of fasting or exercise. The key enzyme involved in glycogenesis is glycogen synthase, which catalyzes the formation of α-1,4-glycosidic bonds between glucose molecules to form glycogen. Branching enzyme then creates α-1,6-glycosidic bonds to form branches in the glycogen molecule. Glycogenin, a protein that acts as a primer for glycogen synthesis, is also involved in the process. Glycogenesis is regulated by hormones such as insulin and glucagon, which stimulate and inhibit glycogen synthesis, respectively. Understanding the process of glycogenesis is important for understanding how the body stores and utilizes glucose for energy.

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  • Question 54 - A 60-year-old male presents with increasing fatigue.

    Three months ago, he was diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male presents with increasing fatigue.

      Three months ago, he was diagnosed with bronchial carcinoma and has undergone chemotherapy. Upon admission, his electrolyte levels were measured as follows:

      - Sodium: 118 mmol/L (137-144)
      - Potassium: 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Urea: 3.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine: 65 ”mol/L (60-110)

      What would be the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urine osmolality and sodium concentration

      Explanation:

      Hyponatraemia in Bronchial Carcinoma Patients

      Hyponatraemia is a common condition in patients with bronchial carcinoma. It is characterized by a marked decrease in sodium levels, which appears to be dilutional based on other test results that fall within the lower end of the normal range. The most likely cause of this condition is the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH), which occurs when the tumour produces ADH in an ectopic manner. However, the diagnosis of SIADH is one of exclusion, and other possibilities such as hypoadrenalism due to metastatic disease to the adrenals should also be considered.

      To determine the cause of hyponatraemia, initial tests such as urine sodium and osmolality are recommended. These tests can help rule out other possible causes and confirm the diagnosis of SIADH. Treatment for this condition typically involves fluid restriction. It is important to note that measuring ADH concentrations is not a reliable diagnostic tool as it is not widely available and does not provide any useful information.

      In summary, hyponatraemia is a common condition in bronchial carcinoma patients, and SIADH is the most likely cause. Initial tests such as urine sodium and osmolality can help confirm the diagnosis, and treatment involves fluid restriction.

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  • Question 55 - A 14-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his mother due to concerns about his height compared to other boys his age. The boy also shares that he often receives comments about his appearance, with some likening him to a toy doll. What can be inferred about the pattern of hormone release that he may be lacking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is released in a pulsatile manner

      Explanation:

      The doll-like appearance of the boy in his presentation suggests that he may be suffering from growth hormone deficiency, which can cause short stature, forehead prominence, and maxillary hypoplasia. The hypothalamus controls the release of growth hormone through the pulsatile release of growth hormone releasing hormone. Therefore, measuring GHRH levels is not a useful method for investigating growth hormone deficiency.

      Understanding Growth Hormone and Its Functions

      Growth hormone (GH) is a hormone produced by the somatotroph cells in the anterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in postnatal growth and development, as well as in regulating protein, lipid, and carbohydrate metabolism. GH acts on a transmembrane receptor for growth factor, leading to receptor dimerization and direct or indirect effects on tissues via insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), which is primarily secreted by the liver.

      GH secretion is regulated by various factors, including growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH), fasting, exercise, and sleep. Conversely, glucose and somatostatin can decrease GH secretion. Disorders associated with GH include acromegaly, which results from excess GH, and GH deficiency, which can lead to short stature.

      In summary, GH is a vital hormone that plays a significant role in growth and metabolism. Understanding its functions and regulation can help in the diagnosis and treatment of GH-related disorders.

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  • Question 56 - A 25-year-old regular gym attendee has been using growth hormone injections to enhance...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old regular gym attendee has been using growth hormone injections to enhance his muscle mass. What potential risks is he now more susceptible to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus type II

      Explanation:

      Excessive growth hormone can elevate the likelihood of developing type II diabetes mellitus. This is due to the hormone’s ability to release glucose from fat reserves, which raises its concentration in the bloodstream. As a result, the pancreas must produce more insulin to counteract the heightened glucose levels.

      Additional indications of surplus growth hormone may involve thickened skin, enlarged extremities, a protruding jaw, carpal tunnel syndrome, fatigue, muscle frailty, and high blood pressure.

      Understanding Growth Hormone and Its Functions

      Growth hormone (GH) is a hormone produced by the somatotroph cells in the anterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in postnatal growth and development, as well as in regulating protein, lipid, and carbohydrate metabolism. GH acts on a transmembrane receptor for growth factor, leading to receptor dimerization and direct or indirect effects on tissues via insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), which is primarily secreted by the liver.

      GH secretion is regulated by various factors, including growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH), fasting, exercise, and sleep. Conversely, glucose and somatostatin can decrease GH secretion. Disorders associated with GH include acromegaly, which results from excess GH, and GH deficiency, which can lead to short stature.

      In summary, GH is a vital hormone that plays a significant role in growth and metabolism. Understanding its functions and regulation can help in the diagnosis and treatment of GH-related disorders.

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  • Question 57 - A 32-year-old male is referred to the endocrine clinic due to a change...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male is referred to the endocrine clinic due to a change in his shoe size and numbness in his hand. He reports increased sweating and oily skin. The endocrinologist suspects pituitary gland pathology and orders an MRI. What is the most abundant secretory cell type in the anterior pituitary gland?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Somatotrophs

      Explanation:

      Understanding Growth Hormone and Its Functions

      Growth hormone (GH) is a hormone produced by the somatotroph cells in the anterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in postnatal growth and development, as well as in regulating protein, lipid, and carbohydrate metabolism. GH acts on a transmembrane receptor for growth factor, leading to receptor dimerization and direct or indirect effects on tissues via insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1), which is primarily secreted by the liver.

      GH secretion is regulated by various factors, including growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH), fasting, exercise, and sleep. Conversely, glucose and somatostatin can decrease GH secretion. Disorders associated with GH include acromegaly, which results from excess GH, and GH deficiency, which can lead to short stature.

      In summary, GH is a vital hormone that plays a significant role in growth and metabolism. Understanding its functions and regulation can help in the diagnosis and treatment of GH-related disorders.

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  • Question 58 - A 65-year-old man with a history of poorly-controlled type 2 diabetes presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of poorly-controlled type 2 diabetes presents to the emergency department with altered mental status. His daughter reports that he has been complaining of increased thirst and urination over the past few days and has been skipping his insulin injections. On examination, he is dehydrated with a GCS of 3. His vital signs are recorded, and he is intubated and given ventilatory support. An arterial blood gas shows mild metabolic acidosis and his capillary blood glucose is undetectable. What is the next most appropriate step in his treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.9% sodium chloride

      Explanation:

      In the ABCDE approach, the patient should be promptly given sodium chloride to restore their intravascular volume and maintain circulatory function. However, insulin is not recommended as an initial treatment for HHS. This is because glucose in the intravascular space helps maintain circulating volume, which is crucial for dehydrated patients. Administering insulin before fluid resuscitation can cause a reduction in intravascular volume and worsen hypotension. It may also worsen pre-existing hypokalaemia by driving potassium into the intracellular space. Potassium chloride should be administered only after fluid resuscitation and guided by potassium levels obtained from an arterial blood gas. Thiamine supplementation is not indicated at the moment as urgent resuscitation should be the priority.

      Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS) is a serious medical emergency that can be challenging to manage and has a high mortality rate of up to 20%. It is typically seen in elderly patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) and is caused by hyperglycaemia leading to osmotic diuresis, severe dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. HHS develops gradually over several days, resulting in extreme dehydration and metabolic disturbances. Symptoms include polyuria, polydipsia, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, altered consciousness, and focal neurological deficits. Diagnosis is based on hypovolaemia, marked hyperglycaemia, significantly raised serum osmolarity, and no significant hyperketonaemia or acidosis.

      Management of HHS involves fluid replacement with IV 0.9% sodium chloride solution at a rate of 0.5-1 L/hour, depending on clinical assessment. Potassium levels should be monitored and added to fluids as needed. Insulin should not be given unless blood glucose stops falling while giving IV fluids. Patients are at risk of thrombosis due to hyperviscosity, so venous thromboembolism prophylaxis is recommended. Complications of HHS include vascular complications such as myocardial infarction and stroke.

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  • Question 59 - A 54-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of chronic thirst, polyuria, and nocturia...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of chronic thirst, polyuria, and nocturia that have persisted for 2 months. She has a medical history of polycystic kidney disease that has led to chronic kidney disease (CKD). Her most recent eGFR result was 28 mL/min/1.73mÂČ. Following a series of tests, she is diagnosed with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. What would the water deprivation test likely reveal in this patient's case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is low urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin. This is indicative of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, a condition where the kidneys are insensitive to antidiuretic hormone (ADH), resulting in an inability to concentrate urine. This leads to low urine osmolality even during water deprivation and no response to desmopressin. High urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin would be seen in a healthy individual or primary polydipsia, while low urine osmolality after desmopressin but high after fluid deprivation is not commonly seen in any pathological state. Similarly, low urine osmolality after fluid deprivation but high after desmopressin is typically seen in cranial DI, which is not the best answer as the patient has no risk factors for this condition.

      The water deprivation test is a diagnostic tool used to assess patients with polydipsia, or excessive thirst. During the test, the patient is instructed to refrain from drinking water, and their bladder is emptied. Hourly measurements of urine and plasma osmolalities are taken to monitor changes in the body’s fluid balance. The results of the test can help identify the underlying cause of the patient’s polydipsia. Normal results show a high urine osmolality after the administration of DDAVP, while psychogenic polydipsia is characterized by a low urine osmolality. Cranial DI and nephrogenic DI are both associated with high plasma osmolalities and low urine osmolalities.

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  • Question 60 - A 62-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is urgently referred by his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is urgently referred by his GP due to poor glycaemic control for the past three days, with home blood glucose readings around 25 mmol/L. He is currently being treated with metformin and lisinopril. Yesterday, his GP checked his U+E and found that his serum sodium was 138 mmol/L (137-144), serum potassium was 5.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), serum urea was 20 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and serum creatinine was 350 ”mol/L (60-110). On examination, he has a temperature of 39°C, a pulse of 108 bpm, a blood pressure of 96/60 mmHg, a respiratory rate of 32/min, and oxygen saturations of 99% on air. His cardiovascular, respiratory, and abdominal examination are otherwise normal. Further investigations reveal a plasma glucose level of 17 mmol/L (3.0-6.0) and urine analysis showing blood ++ and protein ++, but ketones are negative. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sepsis

      Explanation:

      The causes of septic shock are important to understand in order to provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes. Septic shock can cause fever, hypotension, and renal failure, as well as tachypnea due to metabolic acidosis. However, it is crucial to rule out other conditions such as hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state or diabetic ketoacidosis, which have different symptoms and diagnostic criteria.

      While metformin can contribute to acidosis, it is unlikely to be the primary cause in this case. Diabetic patients may be prone to renal tubular acidosis, but this is not likely to be the cause of an acute presentation. Instead, a type IV renal tubular acidosis, characterized by hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism, may be a more likely association.

      Overall, it is crucial to carefully evaluate patients with septic shock and consider all possible causes of their symptoms. By ruling out other conditions and identifying the underlying cause of the acidosis, healthcare providers can provide targeted treatment and improve patient outcomes. Further research and education on septic shock and its causes can also help to improve diagnosis and treatment in the future.

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  • Question 61 - A 67-year-old male presents to the respiratory clinic for the management of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male presents to the respiratory clinic for the management of his COPD. He has a history of multiple courses of prednisolone, but has recently experienced significant weight gain, facial redness, and elevated blood pressure of 180/96 mmHg. The physician suspects Cushing syndrome due to exogenous steroid use and decides to discontinue the prescription. What is the specific region of the adrenal gland responsible for producing glucocorticoids?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zona fasciculata

      Explanation:

      Cortisol: Functions and Regulation

      Cortisol is a hormone produced in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex. It plays a crucial role in various bodily functions and is essential for life. Cortisol increases blood pressure by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles, allowing for a normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines. However, it inhibits bone formation by decreasing osteoblasts, type 1 collagen, and absorption of calcium from the gut, while increasing osteoclastic activity. Cortisol also increases insulin resistance and metabolism by increasing gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, and proteolysis. It inhibits inflammatory and immune responses, but maintains the function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.

      The regulation of cortisol secretion is controlled by the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. The pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol. The hypothalamus releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to release ACTH. Stress can also increase cortisol secretion.

      Excess cortisol in the body can lead to Cushing’s syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms such as weight gain, muscle weakness, and high blood pressure. Understanding the functions and regulation of cortisol is important for maintaining overall health and preventing hormonal imbalances.

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  • Question 62 - A 10-year-old boy visits his paediatrician with his mother. He is worried that...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy visits his paediatrician with his mother. He is worried that he hasn't started puberty yet while some of his classmates have. The paediatrician explains to the young boy and his mother that the onset of puberty can vary and that it is considered delayed if there are no signs of puberty by the age of 13 years. The paediatrician reassures the boy that there is no need to worry and that he should be patient. What is the first sign of puberty the boy should expect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Testicular enlargement

      Explanation:

      The initial indication of male puberty is the growth of the testicles. This typically happens between the ages of 9.5 and 13.5 years and is the first sign of male puberty. Testicular enlargement is the only pubertal change present in Tanner stage 1.

      During Tanner stage 2, which usually occurs between the ages of 10.5 and 14.5 years, penis growth begins.

      Pubic hair development also starts during Tanner stage 2, between the ages of 9.9 and 14.0 years.

      The height growth spurt occurs at age 14 and reaches a maximum of 10cm/year in Tanner.

      The voice changes during Tanner stage 3, which typically happens around 13.5 years old.

      Puberty: Normal Changes in Males and Females

      Puberty is a natural process that marks the transition from childhood to adolescence. In males, the first sign of puberty is testicular growth, which typically occurs around the age of 12. Testicular volume greater than 4 ml indicates the onset of puberty. The maximum height spurt for boys occurs at the age of 14. On the other hand, in females, the first sign of puberty is breast development, which usually occurs around the age of 11.5. The height spurt for girls reaches its maximum early in puberty, at the age of 12, before menarche. Menarche, or the first menstrual period, typically occurs at the age of 13, with a range of 11-15 years. Following menarche, there is only a slight increase of about 4% in height.

      During puberty, it is normal for boys to experience gynaecomastia, or the development of breast tissue. Girls may also experience asymmetrical breast growth. Additionally, diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland may be seen in both males and females. These changes are all part of the normal process of puberty and should not be a cause for concern.

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  • Question 63 - A 28-year-old female with a three year history of type 1 diabetes complains...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female with a three year history of type 1 diabetes complains of sudden confusion and excessive sweating. Upon examination, her pulse is 105 bpm, respiratory rate is 16/min, and she appears disoriented. What would be the most suitable initial test to perform for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasma glucose concentration

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Hypoglycaemia from Diabetic Ketoacidosis in Critically Ill Patients

      When assessing a critically ill patient, it is important not to forget the E in the ABCDE algorithm. In the case of a woman presenting acutely, with a normal respiratory rate, it is more likely that she is hypoglycaemic rather than experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). To confirm this, it is essential to check her glucose or blood sugar levels and then administer glucose as necessary.

      It is crucial to differentiate between hypoglycaemia and DKA as the treatment for each condition is vastly different. While hypoglycaemia requires immediate administration of glucose, DKA requires insulin therapy and fluid replacement. Therefore, a correct diagnosis is essential to ensure the patient receives the appropriate treatment promptly.

      In conclusion, when assessing a critically ill patient, it is vital to consider all aspects of the ABCDE algorithm, including the often-overlooked E for exposure. In cases where a patient presents acutely, with a normal respiratory rate, it is essential to differentiate between hypoglycaemia and DKA by checking glucose levels and administering glucose or insulin therapy accordingly.

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  • Question 64 - A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of polyuria. Upon further inquiry,...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of polyuria. Upon further inquiry, she reports experiencing polyphagia and polydipsia as well. Her blood test reveals hyperglycaemia and low C-peptide levels.

      What is the underlying mechanism causing her hyperglycaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased GLUT-4 expression

      Explanation:

      The movement of glucose into cells requires insulin. In this case, the patient is likely suffering from type 1 diabetes mellitus or latent autoimmune diabetes in adults (LADA) with low c-peptide levels, indicating a complete lack of insulin. As a result, insulin is unable to stimulate the expression of GLUT-4, which significantly reduces the uptake of glucose into skeletal and adipose cells.

      The patient’s low GLUT-1 expression is unlikely to be the cause of hyperglycemia. GLUT-1 is primarily expressed in fetal tissues and has a higher affinity for oxygen, allowing fetal cells to survive even in hypoglycemic conditions.

      GLUT-2 expression is mainly found in hepatocytes and beta-cells of the pancreas. It allows for the bi-directional movement of glucose, equalizing glucose concentrations inside and outside the cell membrane, and enabling glucose-sensitive cells to measure serum glucose levels and respond accordingly.

      GLUT-3 expression is mainly found in neuronal cells and has a high affinity, similar to GLUT-1. This allows for the survival of brain cells in hypoglycemic conditions.

      Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating the metabolism of carbohydrates and fats in the body. It works by causing cells in the liver, muscles, and fat tissue to absorb glucose from the bloodstream, which is then stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles or as triglycerides in fat cells. The human insulin protein is made up of 51 amino acids and is a dimer of an A-chain and a B-chain linked together by disulfide bonds. Pro-insulin is first formed in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of pancreatic beta cells and then cleaved to form insulin and C-peptide. Insulin is stored in secretory granules and released in response to high levels of glucose in the blood. In addition to its role in glucose metabolism, insulin also inhibits lipolysis, reduces muscle protein loss, and increases cellular uptake of potassium through stimulation of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

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  • Question 65 - A 32-year-old man visits the clinic complaining of weakness and frequent muscle cramps...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man visits the clinic complaining of weakness and frequent muscle cramps that have been ongoing for the past two weeks. Upon examination, you observe widespread hyporeflexia. A blood test reveals hypokalaemia, but the cause has not yet been determined. Which of the following conditions is linked to hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conn's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, can lead to hypertension, hypernatraemia, and hypokalemia. This condition is caused by an excess of aldosterone, which is responsible for maintaining potassium balance by activating Na+/K+ pumps. However, in excess, aldosterone can cause the movement of potassium into cells, resulting in hypokalaemia. The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining potassium balance, along with other factors such as insulin, catecholamines, and aldosterone. On the other hand, congenital adrenal hypoplasia, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and metabolic acidosis are all causes of hyperkalaemia, which is an excess of potassium in the blood. Addison’s disease and adrenal hypoplasia result in mineralocorticoid deficiency, which can lead to hyperkalaemia. Acidosis can also cause hyperkalaemia by causing positively charged hydrogen ions to enter cells while positively charged potassium ions leave cells and enter the bloodstream.

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome, was the most common cause of this condition. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is responsible for up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two causes as it determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This test should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone. If the results are positive, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia.

      The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is managed with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage primary hyperaldosteronism to prevent complications such as cardiovascular disease and stroke.

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  • Question 66 - A 23-year-old male visits his GP complaining of polyuria, chronic thirst and pale-coloured...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male visits his GP complaining of polyuria, chronic thirst and pale-coloured urine that have persisted for 3 months. He had a concussion from a car accident a month before the onset of his urinary symptoms. The patient is diagnosed with cranial diabetes insipidus after undergoing several tests.

      What would the water deprivation test likely reveal in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low urine osmolality after fluid deprivation, but high after desmopressin

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is low urine osmolality after fluid deprivation, but high after desmopressin, for a patient with cranial diabetes insipidus (DI). This condition is characterized by polyuria, chronic thirst, and pale-coloured urine, and is caused by insufficient antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion. As a result, the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine, leading to a low urine osmolality even during water deprivation. However, the kidneys will respond to desmopressin (synthetic ADH) to produce concentrated urine.

      High urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin is incorrect, as it would be seen in a healthy individual or a patient with primary polydipsia, a psychogenic disorder characterized by excessive drinking despite being properly hydrated.

      Low urine osmolality after both fluid deprivation and desmopressin is incorrect, as this is typical of nephrogenic DI, a condition in which the kidneys are insensitive to ADH.

      High urine osmolality after fluid deprivation, but normal after desmopressin is incorrect, as this would not be commonly seen with any pathological state.

      Low urine osmolality after desmopressin, but high after fluid deprivation is incorrect, as this would not be commonly seen with any pathological state.

      The water deprivation test is a diagnostic tool used to assess patients with polydipsia, or excessive thirst. During the test, the patient is instructed to refrain from drinking water, and their bladder is emptied. Hourly measurements of urine and plasma osmolalities are taken to monitor changes in the body’s fluid balance. The results of the test can help identify the underlying cause of the patient’s polydipsia. Normal results show a high urine osmolality after the administration of DDAVP, while psychogenic polydipsia is characterized by a low urine osmolality. Cranial DI and nephrogenic DI are both associated with high plasma osmolalities and low urine osmolalities.

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  • Question 67 - A woman in her early 50s complains of headaches, anxiety and weight loss....

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her early 50s complains of headaches, anxiety and weight loss. Upon examination, she displays hypertension, tachycardia and pallor. The diagnosis is phaeochromocytoma. What is the most common location for these tumors to occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      Phaeochromocytoma is a condition characterized by uncommon tumours that secrete catecholamines in the adrenal medulla. Although they are seldom detected outside the adrenal medulla, if they do occur, they are more likely to be malignant.

      Phaeochromocytoma: A Rare Tumor that Secretes Catecholamines

      Phaeochromocytoma is a type of tumor that secretes catecholamines and is considered rare. It is familial in about 10% of cases and may be associated with certain syndromes such as MEN type II, neurofibromatosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. This tumor can be bilateral in 10% of cases and malignant in 10%. It can also occur outside of the adrenal gland, with the most common site being the organ of Zuckerkandl, which is adjacent to the bifurcation of the aorta.

      The symptoms of phaeochromocytoma are typically episodic and include hypertension (which is present in around 90% of cases and may be sustained), headaches, palpitations, sweating, and anxiety. To diagnose this condition, a 24-hour urinary collection of metanephrines is preferred over a 24-hour urinary collection of catecholamines due to its higher sensitivity (97%).

      Surgery is the definitive management for phaeochromocytoma. However, before surgery, the patient must first be stabilized with medical management, which includes an alpha-blocker (such as phenoxybenzamine) given before a beta-blocker (such as propranolol).

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  • Question 68 - Which one of the following is not associated with excessive glucocorticoids? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not associated with excessive glucocorticoids?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyponatraemia

      Explanation:

      Excessive levels of glucocorticoids can lead to various negative consequences such as skin thinning, osteonecrosis, and osteoporosis. Steroids can cause the body to retain sodium and water, while also resulting in potassium loss and potentially leading to hypokalaemic alkalosis.

      Cortisol: Functions and Regulation

      Cortisol is a hormone produced in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex. It plays a crucial role in various bodily functions and is essential for life. Cortisol increases blood pressure by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles, allowing for a normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines. However, it inhibits bone formation by decreasing osteoblasts, type 1 collagen, and absorption of calcium from the gut, while increasing osteoclastic activity. Cortisol also increases insulin resistance and metabolism by increasing gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, and proteolysis. It inhibits inflammatory and immune responses, but maintains the function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.

      The regulation of cortisol secretion is controlled by the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. The pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol. The hypothalamus releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to release ACTH. Stress can also increase cortisol secretion.

      Excess cortisol in the body can lead to Cushing’s syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms such as weight gain, muscle weakness, and high blood pressure. Understanding the functions and regulation of cortisol is important for maintaining overall health and preventing hormonal imbalances.

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  • Question 69 - A 15-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea, and shortness of breath. He has a history of insulin-dependent diabetes and is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis after undergoing tests. During treatment, which electrolyte should you be particularly cautious of, as it may become depleted in the body despite appearing normal in plasma concentrations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Potassium

      Explanation:

      Insulin normally helps to move potassium into cells, but in a state of ketoacidosis, there is a lack of insulin to perform this function. As a result, potassium leaks out of cells. Additionally, high levels of glucose in the blood lead to glycosuria in the urine, causing potassium loss through the kidneys.

      Even though patients in a ketoacidotic state may have normal levels of potassium in their blood, their overall potassium levels in the body are often depleted. When insulin is administered to these patients, it can cause a dangerous drop in potassium levels as the minimal amount of potassium left in the body is driven into cells.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.

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  • Question 70 - A 30-year-old woman complains of menstrual irregularity and galactorrhoea for the past year....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman complains of menstrual irregularity and galactorrhoea for the past year. She also experiences occasional headaches. During examination, she was found to have bitemporal superior quadrantanopia. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactinoma

      Explanation:

      Prolactinomas cause amenorrhoea, infertility, and galactorrhoea. If the tumour extends outside the sella, visual field defects or other mass effects may occur. Other types of tumours will produce different symptoms depending on their location and structure involved. Craniopharyngiomas originate from the pituitary gland and will produce poralhemianopia if large enough, as well as symptoms related to pituitary hormones. Non-functioning pituitary tumours will have similar symptoms without the pituitary hormone side effects. Tumours of the hypothalamus will present with symptoms of euphoria, headache, weight loss, and mass effect if large enough.

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  • Question 71 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue and weight loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue and weight loss that has been going on for 6 weeks. She reports feeling dizzy when she stands up and has noticed a tan all over her body, despite it being early spring in the UK.

      Upon conducting a blood test, it is found that she has hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia, with normal full blood count results. A lying-standing blood pressure reading shows a postural drop of 36 mmHg.

      What is the most likely cause of this woman's presentation in the UK, given her symptoms and test results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune adrenal insufficiency

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms is autoimmune adrenalitis, which is responsible for the majority of cases of hypoadrenalism. In this condition, auto-antibodies attack the adrenal gland, leading to a decrease or complete loss of cortisol and aldosterone production. This results in low blood pressure, electrolyte imbalances, and a significant drop in blood pressure upon standing. The body compensates for the low cortisol levels by producing more adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which can cause the skin to take on a bronze hue.

      While iodine deficiency is a common cause of hypothyroidism worldwide, it is not consistent with this patient’s presentation. A mutation in the HFE gene can lead to haemochromatosis, which can cause reduced libido and skin darkening, but it does not match the electrolyte abnormalities described. Pituitary tumors and tuberculosis can also cause hypoadrenalism, but they are less common in the UK compared to autoimmune causes.

      Addison’s disease is the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, with autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands being the main culprit, accounting for 80% of cases. This results in reduced production of cortisol and aldosterone. Symptoms of Addison’s disease include lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, and salt-craving. Hyperpigmentation, especially in palmar creases, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycemia, and hyponatremia and hyperkalemia may also be observed. In severe cases, a crisis may occur, leading to collapse, shock, and pyrexia.

      Other primary causes of hypoadrenalism include tuberculosis, metastases (such as bronchial carcinoma), meningococcal septicaemia (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome), HIV, and antiphospholipid syndrome. Secondary causes include pituitary disorders, such as tumours, irradiation, and infiltration. Exogenous glucocorticoid therapy can also lead to hypoadrenalism.

      It is important to note that primary Addison’s disease is associated with hyperpigmentation, while secondary adrenal insufficiency is not.

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  • Question 72 - A 56-year-old patient visits his primary care physician for a follow-up on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old patient visits his primary care physician for a follow-up on his diabetes treatment. He is currently taking metformin and expresses concern about adding more medications that may lead to hypoglycemia. The patient has a medical history of bladder cancer, which was treated through surgery. On examination, the only notable finding is an elevated body mass index of 32 kg/mÂČ.

      Based on recent blood test results, with an HbA1c level of 61 mmol/L (<48), the GP wants to prescribe a medication that does not cause weight gain or hypoglycemia. What is the probable mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduction of the peripheral breakdown of incretins such as glucagon-like peptide (GLP-1)

      Explanation:

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

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  • Question 73 - A 32-year-old man has been admitted to the emergency department with severe hypocalcaemia...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has been admitted to the emergency department with severe hypocalcaemia that has not responded to calcium replacement therapy. What other serum electrolytes should be checked urgently?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnesium

      Explanation:

      If a person has hypomagnesaemia, it can lead to hypocalcaemia and make it difficult to treat. Therefore, when dealing with hypocalcaemia, it is important to keep an eye on the levels of calcium, phosphate, and magnesium. The phosphate levels can provide insight into potential causes, as low calcium levels combined with high phosphate levels may indicate hypoparathyroidism.

      The Importance of Magnesium and Calcium in the Body

      Magnesium and calcium are essential minerals in the body. Magnesium plays a crucial role in the secretion and action of parathyroid hormone (PTH) on target tissues. However, a deficiency in magnesium can cause hypocalcaemia and make patients unresponsive to calcium and vitamin D supplementation.

      The body contains 1000 mmol of magnesium, with half stored in bones and the rest in muscle, soft tissues, and extracellular fluid. Unlike calcium, there is no specific hormonal control of magnesium. Hormones such as PTH and aldosterone affect the renal handling of magnesium.

      Magnesium and calcium also interact at a cellular level. A decrease in magnesium levels can affect the permeability of cellular membranes to calcium, leading to hyperexcitability. Therefore, it is essential to maintain adequate levels of both magnesium and calcium in the body for optimal health.

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  • Question 74 - Which of the following will increase the volume of pancreatic exocrine secretions? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following will increase the volume of pancreatic exocrine secretions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Explanation:

      The volume of pancreatic secretions is often increased by cholecystokinin.

      Pancreatic Secretions and their Regulation

      Pancreatic secretions are composed of enzymes and aqueous substances, with a pH of 8 and a volume of 1000-1500ml per day. The acinar cells secrete enzymes such as trypsinogen, procarboxylase, amylase, and elastase, while the ductal and centroacinar cells secrete sodium, bicarbonate, water, potassium, and chloride. The regulation of pancreatic secretions is mainly stimulated by CCK and ACh, which are released in response to digested material in the small bowel. Secretin, released by the S cells of the duodenum, also stimulates ductal cells and increases bicarbonate secretion.

      Trypsinogen is converted to active trypsin in the duodenum via enterokinase, and trypsin then activates the other inactive enzymes. The cephalic and gastric phases have less of an impact on regulating pancreatic secretions. Understanding the composition and regulation of pancreatic secretions is important in the diagnosis and treatment of pancreatic disorders.

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  • Question 75 - A 28-year-old woman comes to her outpatient appointment after being diagnosed with Grave's...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to her outpatient appointment after being diagnosed with Grave's disease. This condition is known for having three distinct signs, in addition to thyroid eye disease. What are the other signs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid acropachy & pretibial myxoedema

      Explanation:

      Grave’s disease is commonly linked to several other conditions, including thyroid eye disease, thyroid acropachy, and pretibial myxoedema.

      This autoimmune disease, known as Grave’s thyroiditis, is caused by antibodies that target the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor, leading to prolonged stimulation.

      One of the most noticeable symptoms of Grave’s disease is exophthalmos, which occurs when TSH receptor antibodies bind to receptors at the back of the eye, causing inflammation and an increase in glycosaminoglycans. This results in swelling of the eye muscles and connective tissue.

      Pretibial myxoedema is a skin condition that often develops in individuals with Grave’s disease. It is characterized by localized lesions on the skin in front of the tibia, which are caused by an increase in glycosaminoglycans in the pretibial dermis.

      Thyroid acropachy is another condition associated with Grave’s disease, which involves swelling of soft tissues, clubbing of the fingers, and periosteal reactions in the extremities.

      Graves’ Disease: Common Features and Unique Signs

      Graves’ disease is the most frequent cause of thyrotoxicosis, which is commonly observed in women aged 30-50 years. The condition presents typical features of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. However, Graves’ disease also displays specific signs that are not present in other causes of thyrotoxicosis. These include eye signs, such as exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia, as well as pretibial myxoedema and thyroid acropachy. The latter is a triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation.

      Graves’ disease is characterized by the presence of autoantibodies, including TSH receptor stimulating antibodies in 90% of patients and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 75% of patients. Thyroid scintigraphy reveals a diffuse, homogenous, and increased uptake of radioactive iodine. These features help distinguish Graves’ disease from other causes of thyrotoxicosis and aid in its diagnosis.

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  • Question 76 - A 38-year-old woman presents with symptoms of irritability and changes in bowel habits....

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents with symptoms of irritability and changes in bowel habits. During examination, a smooth enlargement of the thyroid gland is noted. Thyroid function tests are ordered and the results are as follows:
      TSH 0.1 mug/l
      Free T4 35 pmol/l
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Graves disease

      Explanation:

      When TSH receptor antibodies are present, they stimulate the thyroid to produce T4. This results in a decrease in TSH levels due to negative feedback on the pituitary. However, in cases where hyperthyroidism is caused by pregnancy, the TSH levels are usually elevated.

      Understanding Thyroid Disease and its Management

      Thyroid disease can present with various manifestations, which can be classified based on the presence or absence of clinical signs of thyroid dysfunction and the presence of a mass. To assess thyroid disease, a thorough history and examination, including ultrasound, are necessary. If a nodule is identified, it should be sampled through an image-guided fine needle aspiration. Radionucleotide scanning is not very useful.

      Thyroid tumors can be papillary, follicular, anaplastic, medullary, or lymphoma. Multinodular goitre is a common reason for presentation, and if the patient is asymptomatic and euthyroid, they can be reassured. However, if they have compressive symptoms, surgery is required, and total thyroidectomy is the best option. Patients with endocrine dysfunction are initially managed by physicians, and surgery may be offered alongside radioiodine for those with Graves disease that fails with medical management or in patients who prefer not to be irradiated. Patients with hypothyroidism do not generally get offered a thyroidectomy.

      Complications following surgery include anatomical damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, bleeding, and damage to the parathyroid glands resulting in hypocalcaemia. For further information, the Association of Clinical Biochemistry guidelines for thyroid function tests and the British Association of Endocrine Surgeons website can be consulted.

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  • Question 77 - A 9-year-old girl is being treated by a paediatrician for bedwetting at night....

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl is being treated by a paediatrician for bedwetting at night. Non-invasive methods have not yielded any results and her family is interested in trying medication. The paediatrician has approved a trial of desmopressin.

      What is the site of action of this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The collecting ducts of the kidney

      Explanation:

      Desmopressin is a synthetic version of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) that acts on the collecting ducts in the kidneys. ADH is released by the posterior pituitary gland in response to increased blood osmolality. By increasing the reabsorption of solute-free water in the collecting ducts, ADH reduces blood osmolality and produces small volumes of concentrated urine. This mechanism is effective in reducing the volume of urine produced overnight in cases of nocturnal enuresis (bed-wetting). The distal tubule, glomerulus, and proximal tubule are not sites of ADH action. Although the posterior pituitary gland produces ADH, it exerts its effects on the kidneys.

      Understanding Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is produced in the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to conserve body water by promoting water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys through the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.

      ADH secretion is regulated by various factors. An increase in extracellular fluid osmolality, a decrease in volume or pressure, and the presence of angiotensin II can all increase ADH secretion. Conversely, a decrease in extracellular fluid osmolality, an increase in volume, a decrease in temperature, or the absence of ADH can decrease its secretion.

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition that occurs when there is either a deficiency of ADH (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be treated with desmopressin, which is an analog of ADH.

      Overall, understanding the role of ADH in regulating water balance in the body is crucial for maintaining proper hydration and preventing conditions like DI.

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  • Question 78 - A 23-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of breast tissue enlargement that...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of breast tissue enlargement that has been progressively worsening for the past 3 months. He also reports the presence of a new lump on his left testicle. Upon thorough examination and taking a detailed medical history, the GP suspects that the patient may be suffering from testicular cancer.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HCG secreting seminoma

      Explanation:

      Gynaecomastia can be caused by testicular conditions such as seminoma that secrete hCG.

      Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers

      Gynaecomastia is a condition characterized by the abnormal growth of breast tissue in males, often caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to distinguish the causes of gynaecomastia from those of galactorrhoea, which is caused by the actions of prolactin on breast tissue.

      Physiological changes during puberty can lead to gynaecomastia, but it can also be caused by syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallmann and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure due to mumps, liver disease, testicular cancer, and hyperthyroidism. Additionally, haemodialysis and ectopic tumour secretion can also trigger gynaecomastia.

      Drug-induced gynaecomastia is also a common cause, with spironolactone being the most frequent trigger. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids. However, it is important to note that very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa.

      In summary, understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.

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  • Question 79 - A 36-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of frequent urination. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of frequent urination. She has been waking up several times at night to urinate for the past two weeks and has been feeling more thirsty than usual. Her temperature is 37.3ÂșC. She has a history of bipolar disorder and is currently on lithium medication.

      What could be the possible cause of her polyuria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium reducing ADH-dependent water reabsorption in the collecting duct

      Explanation:

      The site of action for antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is the collecting ducts. Lithium treatment for bipolar disorder can lead to diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by increased thirst (polydipsia) and increased urination (polyuria). Lithium use can cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, where the kidneys are unable to respond adequately to ADH. Normally, ADH induces the expression of aquaporin 2 channels in the collecting duct, which stimulates water reabsorption.

      Central diabetes insipidus occurs when there is damage to the posterior pituitary gland, resulting in insufficient production and release of ADH. However, lithium use causes nephrogenic diabetes insipidus instead of central diabetes insipidus.

      Although insulin resistance and hyperglycemia can also cause polyuria and polydipsia, as seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, the use of lithium suggests that the patient’s symptoms are due to diabetes insipidus rather than diabetes mellitus.

      Lithium inhibits the expression of aquaporin channels in the renal collecting duct, rather than the distal convoluted tubule, which causes diabetes insipidus.

      While a urinary tract infection can also present with polyuria and nocturia, the presence of lithium in the patient’s drug history and the fact that the patient also has polydipsia suggest nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus causes increased thirst due to the excessive volume of urine produced, leading to water loss from the body. In addition, a urinary tract infection would likely cause dysuria (burning or stinging when passing urine) and lower abdominal pain.

      Understanding Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

      Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is a hormone that is produced in the supraoptic nuclei of the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to conserve body water by promoting water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys through the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels.

      ADH secretion is regulated by various factors. An increase in extracellular fluid osmolality, a decrease in volume or pressure, and the presence of angiotensin II can all increase ADH secretion. Conversely, a decrease in extracellular fluid osmolality, an increase in volume, a decrease in temperature, or the absence of ADH can decrease its secretion.

      Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition that occurs when there is either a deficiency of ADH (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be treated with desmopressin, which is an analog of ADH.

      Overall, understanding the role of ADH in regulating water balance in the body is crucial for maintaining proper hydration and preventing conditions like DI.

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  • Question 80 - A young man comes to the clinic with symptoms suggestive of mania. After...

    Incorrect

    • A young man comes to the clinic with symptoms suggestive of mania. After further inquiry and assessment, he is found to have tachycardia, sweaty palms, and a recent bout of diarrhea. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grave's disease

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this patient is Grave’s disease, which is characterized by hyperthyroidism. While mania may be a symptom, it is important to note that tachycardia, sweaty hands, and exophthalmos are specific to Grave’s disease.

      Bipolar disorder may also present with manic episodes, but it does not typically include the other symptoms associated with hyperthyroidism.

      Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is another autoimmune thyroid disorder, but it causes hypothyroidism instead of hyperthyroidism. Symptoms of hypothyroidism may include bradycardia and dry skin.

      Graves’ Disease: Common Features and Unique Signs

      Graves’ disease is the most frequent cause of thyrotoxicosis, which is commonly observed in women aged 30-50 years. The condition presents typical features of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. However, Graves’ disease also displays specific signs that are not present in other causes of thyrotoxicosis. These include eye signs, such as exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia, as well as pretibial myxoedema and thyroid acropachy. The latter is a triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation.

      Graves’ disease is characterized by the presence of autoantibodies, including TSH receptor stimulating antibodies in 90% of patients and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 75% of patients. Thyroid scintigraphy reveals a diffuse, homogenous, and increased uptake of radioactive iodine. These features help distinguish Graves’ disease from other causes of thyrotoxicosis and aid in its diagnosis.

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  • Question 81 - A 27-year-old man who has been morbidly obese for the past six years...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man who has been morbidly obese for the past six years is being evaluated at the surgical bariatric clinic. Which hormone release would lead to an increase in appetite in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ghrelin

      Explanation:

      Leptin is a hormone that reduces appetite, while ghrelin is a hormone that stimulates appetite. Although thyroxine can increase appetite, it is not consistent with the symptoms being described.

      The Physiology of Obesity: Leptin and Ghrelin

      Leptin is a hormone produced by adipose tissue that plays a crucial role in regulating body weight. It acts on the hypothalamus, specifically on the satiety centers, to decrease appetite and induce feelings of fullness. In cases of obesity, where there is an excess of adipose tissue, leptin levels are high. Leptin also stimulates the release of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which further contribute to the regulation of appetite. On the other hand, low levels of leptin stimulate the release of neuropeptide Y (NPY), which increases appetite.

      Ghrelin, on the other hand, is a hormone that stimulates hunger. It is mainly produced by the P/D1 cells lining the fundus of the stomach and epsilon cells of the pancreas. Ghrelin levels increase before meals, signaling the body to prepare for food intake, and decrease after meals, indicating that the body has received enough nutrients.

      In summary, the balance between leptin and ghrelin plays a crucial role in regulating appetite and body weight. In cases of obesity, there is an imbalance in this system, with high levels of leptin and potentially disrupted ghrelin signaling, leading to increased appetite and weight gain.

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  • Question 82 - A 55-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of a milky discharge from his...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of a milky discharge from his nipples. He has a history of schizophrenia and has been taking olanzapine for a while now. No recent changes have been made to his medication.

      Which compound with elevated levels is most likely causing this symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin, released from the anterior pituitary

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing galactorrhea, which is commonly associated with hyperprolactinemia. Prolactin stimulates milk production in the mammary glands, and the patient’s hyperprolactinemia is likely due to his use of olanzapine, which acts as a dopamine antagonist. Dopamine normally inhibits prolactin secretion. The other answer choices are incorrect as they do not accurately explain the mechanism behind the patient’s presentation.

      Understanding Prolactin and Its Functions

      Prolactin is a hormone that is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to stimulate breast development and milk production in females. During pregnancy, prolactin levels increase to support the growth and development of the mammary glands. It also plays a role in reducing the pulsatility of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) at the hypothalamic level, which can block the action of luteinizing hormone (LH) on the ovaries or testes.

      The secretion of prolactin is regulated by dopamine, which constantly inhibits its release. However, certain factors can increase or decrease prolactin secretion. For example, prolactin levels increase during pregnancy, in response to estrogen, and during breastfeeding. Additionally, stress, sleep, and certain drugs like metoclopramide and antipsychotics can also increase prolactin secretion. On the other hand, dopamine and dopaminergic agonists can decrease prolactin secretion.

      Overall, understanding the functions and regulation of prolactin is important for reproductive health and lactation.

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  • Question 83 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a thyroid cancer. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a thyroid cancer. She has no significant family history and is in good health. During the examination, a nodule is found in the left lobe of her thyroid, which appears to be a small, distinct mass separate from the gland. What is the most probable cause of this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Papillary carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The most frequent subtype of thyroid cancer is papillary carcinoma, which can lead to lymph node metastasis. This occurrence is uncommon in follicular tumors. Anaplastic carcinoma is rare in this age group and would result in more localized symptoms.

      Thyroid cancer rarely causes hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism as it does not usually secrete thyroid hormones. The most common type of thyroid cancer is papillary carcinoma, which is often found in young females and has an excellent prognosis. Follicular carcinoma is less common, while medullary carcinoma is a cancer of the parafollicular cells that secrete calcitonin and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2. Anaplastic carcinoma is rare and not responsive to treatment, causing pressure symptoms. Lymphoma is also rare and associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

      Management of papillary and follicular cancer involves a total thyroidectomy followed by radioiodine to kill residual cells. Yearly thyroglobulin levels are monitored to detect early recurrent disease. Papillary carcinoma usually contains a mixture of papillary and colloidal filled follicles, while follicular adenoma presents as a solitary thyroid nodule and malignancy can only be excluded on formal histological assessment. Follicular carcinoma may appear macroscopically encapsulated, but microscopically capsular invasion is seen. Medullary carcinoma is associated with raised serum calcitonin levels and familial genetic disease in up to 20% of cases. Anaplastic carcinoma is most common in elderly females and is treated by resection where possible, with palliation achieved through isthmusectomy and radiotherapy. Chemotherapy is ineffective.

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  • Question 84 - A 57-year-old woman presents to the physician with a recurring blistering rash on...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman presents to the physician with a recurring blistering rash on her hands. The rash has also affected her legs, inguinal creases, and the corners of her mouth at different times. She was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus three months ago and has occasional loose stools. The patient denies experiencing palpitations, abdominal pain, or vomiting, but reports having occasional watery stools.

      During the physical examination, the physician observes coalescing erythematous plaques with crusting and scaling at the borders and central areas of brownish induration over the lower abdomen and in the perioral skin.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glucagonoma

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from a glucagonoma, a rare tumor that originates from the alpha cells of the pancreas. This condition causes the excessive secretion of glucagon, resulting in hyperglycemia or diabetes mellitus. One of the characteristic symptoms of glucagonoma is necrolytic migratory erythema, a painful and itchy rash that appears on the face, groin, and limbs.

      Gastrinoma, on the other hand, does not cause a blistering rash or diabetes mellitus. However, it is often associated with abdominal pain, diarrhea, and ulceration.

      Somatostatinoma typically presents with abdominal pain, constipation, hyperglycemia, and steatorrhea, which are not present in this patient.

      VIPoma is unlikely as it usually causes intractable diarrhea, hypokalemia, and achlorhydria.

      Although zinc deficiency can cause skin lesions that resemble necrolytic migratory erythema, the patient’s recent diabetes mellitus diagnosis and lack of other symptoms make glucagonoma the more likely diagnosis.

      Glucagonoma: A Rare Pancreatic Tumor

      Glucagonoma is a rare type of pancreatic tumor that usually originates from the alpha cells of the pancreas. These tumors are typically small and malignant, and they can cause a range of symptoms, including diabetes mellitus, venous thrombo-embolism, and a distinctive red, blistering rash known as necrolytic migratory erythema. To diagnose glucagonoma, doctors typically look for a serum level of glucagon that is higher than 1000pg/ml, and they may also use CT scanning to visualize the tumor. Treatment options for glucagonoma include surgical resection and octreotide, a medication that can help to control the symptoms of the disease. Overall, glucagonoma is a rare but serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to manage its symptoms and prevent complications.

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  • Question 85 - A 65-year-old male, who is a known type 2 diabetic, visits his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male, who is a known type 2 diabetic, visits his GP for a diabetes check-up. He is currently taking metformin and his GP has prescribed a sulphonylurea to improve his blood sugar management. What is the mode of action of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Closes potassium-ATP channels on the beta cells

      Explanation:

      Sulfonylureas bind to potassium-ATP channels on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, mimicking the role of ATP from the outside. This results in the blocking of these channels, causing membrane depolarisation and the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels. As a result, insulin release is stimulated.

      While acute use of sulfonylureas increases insulin secretion and decreases insulin clearance in the liver, it can also cause hypoglycaemia, which is the main side effect. This can lead to the serious complication of neuroglycopenia, resulting in a lack of glucose supply to the brain, causing confusion and possible coma. Treatment for this should involve oral glucose, intramuscular glucagon, or intravenous glucose.

      Chronic exposure to sulfonylureas does not result in an acute increase in insulin release, but a decrease in plasma glucose concentration does remain. Additionally, chronic exposure to sulfonylureas leads to down-regulation of their receptors.

      Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but only if the beta cells in the pancreas are functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, known as the ATP-dependent K+ channel (KATP).

      While sulfonylureas can be effective in managing diabetes, they can also cause some adverse effects. The most common side effect is hypoglycemia, which is more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Another common side effect is weight gain. However, there are also rarer side effects that can occur, such as hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to inappropriate ADH secretion, bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy.

      It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.

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  • Question 86 - A 57-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes visits his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes visits his GP for a check-up and is prescribed a new medication, a glucagon-like peptide (GLP-1) analogue. Where is this hormone typically secreted from in the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ileum

      Explanation:

      When comparing the effects of oral glucose and IV glucose on insulin release, it was found that oral glucose resulted in a higher insulin release. This suggests that the response of the gut plays a role in insulin release. Incretins are a group of hormones produced in the gastrointestinal tract that stimulate insulin release from ÎČ-cells, even before blood glucose levels become elevated.

      There are two main types of incretins: gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP), which is released from the duodenum and is glucose-dependent, and glucagon-like peptide (GLP-1), which is produced in the distal ileum.

      The glucagon gene is processed differently in the brain and intestines than in the pancreas. In the brain and intestines, GLP1&2 are released, which function as appetite suppressants. In the pancreas, they increase insulin release and ÎČ-cell proliferation.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

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  • Question 87 - A 45-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic with refractory hypertension. She was...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic with refractory hypertension. She was diagnosed with hypertension at the age of 33 and has been on multiple antihypertensive medications without success. She reports experiencing intermittent headaches, flushes, and palpitations.

      During the discussion of further treatment options, the patient reveals that her blood pressure dropped to an average of 100/65 mmHg when she was prescribed an alpha-blocker. This suggests that her hypertension may have a secondary cause.

      What is the most likely anatomical location of the underlying issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenal medulla

      Explanation:

      Although a 1.5cm difference in kidney size or a single occurrence of flash edema may prompt the initiation of an ACE inhibitor, the symptoms described in the patient’s medical history are more indicative of a phaeochromocytoma, which is likely originating from the adrenal medulla.

      The Function of Adrenal Medulla

      The adrenal medulla is responsible for producing almost all of the adrenaline in the body, along with small amounts of noradrenaline. Essentially, it is a specialized and enlarged sympathetic ganglion. This gland plays a crucial role in the body’s response to stress and danger, as adrenaline is a hormone that prepares the body for the fight or flight response. When the body perceives a threat, the adrenal medulla releases adrenaline into the bloodstream, which increases heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration, while also dilating the pupils and increasing blood flow to the muscles. This response helps the body to react quickly and effectively to danger. Overall, the adrenal medulla is an important component of the body’s stress response system.

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  • Question 88 - A 45-year-old Caucasian male visits his doctor complaining of numbness in his extremities...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old Caucasian male visits his doctor complaining of numbness in his extremities and tingling sensations around his mouth and lips. He has undergone a thyroidectomy in the past. During a complete cranial nerve examination, the physician observes facial muscle twitching upon tapping the patient's face.

      What is the reason for the facial muscle twitching observed during the examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased irritability of peripheral nerves due to hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Chvostek’s sign is a facial twitch that occurs when the distribution of the facial nerve in front of the tragus is tapped. This sign is caused by increased irritability of peripheral nerves, which is often seen in cases of hypocalcemia. In fact, Chvostek’s sign is considered the most reliable test for hypocalcemia.

      Calcium homeostasis is the process of regulating the concentration of calcium ions in the extracellular fluid. This is important because calcium ions help stabilize voltage-gated ion channels. When calcium levels are too low, these ion channels become more easily activated, leading to hyperactivity in nerve and muscle cells. This can result in hypocalcemic tetany, which is characterized by involuntary muscle spasms. On the other hand, when calcium levels are too high, voltage-gated ion channels become less responsive, leading to depressed nervous system function.

      Understanding Hypoparathyroidism

      Hypoparathyroidism is a medical condition that occurs when there is a decrease in the secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH). This can be caused by primary hypoparathyroidism, which is often a result of thyroid surgery, leading to low calcium and high phosphate levels. Treatment for this type of hypoparathyroidism involves the use of alfacalcidol. The main symptoms of hypoparathyroidism are due to hypocalcaemia and include muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia. Other symptoms include Trousseau’s sign, which is carpal spasm when the brachial artery is occluded, and Chvostek’s sign, which is facial muscle twitching when the parotid is tapped. Chronic hypoparathyroidism can lead to depression and cataracts, and ECG may show a prolonged QT interval.

      Pseudohypoparathyroidism is another type of hypoparathyroidism that occurs when the target cells are insensitive to PTH due to an abnormality in a G protein. This condition is associated with low IQ, short stature, and shortened 4th and 5th metacarpals. The diagnosis is made by measuring urinary cAMP and phosphate levels following an infusion of PTH. In hypoparathyroidism, this will cause an increase in both cAMP and phosphate levels. In pseudohypoparathyroidism type I, neither cAMP nor phosphate levels are increased, while in pseudohypoparathyroidism type II, only cAMP rises. Pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism is a similar condition to pseudohypoparathyroidism, but with normal biochemistry.

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  • Question 89 - A 38-year-old woman visits her GP after being prescribed carbimazole for Grave's disease....

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman visits her GP after being prescribed carbimazole for Grave's disease. The GP must inform her of crucial side effects that require immediate medical attention if they occur. What is the most significant side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sore throat

      Explanation:

      Carbimazole, although generally safe, can have a rare but severe side effect of bone marrow suppression. This can lead to a weakened immune system due to low white blood cells, specifically neutrophils, resulting in neutropenia and agranulocytosis. The most common symptom of this is a sore throat, and if this occurs, treatment with carbimazole should be discontinued.

      Hair loss and headaches are common side effects but are not considered harmful to the patient’s health. Other reported side effects include nausea, stomach pains, itchy skin, rashes, and muscle and joint pain.

      It is important to note that chest pain and changes in vision are not known side effects of carbimazole.

      Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis, a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone. It is usually given in high doses for six weeks until the patient’s thyroid hormone levels become normal, after which the dosage is reduced. The drug works by blocking thyroid peroxidase, an enzyme that is responsible for coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, which ultimately leads to a reduction in thyroid hormone production. In contrast, propylthiouracil has a dual mechanism of action, inhibiting both thyroid peroxidase and 5′-deiodinase, which reduces the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.

      However, carbimazole is not without its adverse effects. One of the most serious side effects is agranulocytosis, a condition where the body’s white blood cell count drops significantly, making the patient more susceptible to infections. Additionally, carbimazole can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, although it may be used in low doses during pregnancy under close medical supervision. Overall, carbimazole is an effective medication for managing thyrotoxicosis, but its potential side effects should be carefully monitored.

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  • Question 90 - Release of somatostatin from the pancreas will lead to what outcome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Release of somatostatin from the pancreas will lead to what outcome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decrease in pancreatic exocrine secretions

      Explanation:

      Octreotide is utilized to treat high output pancreatic fistulae by reducing exocrine pancreatic secretions, although parenteral feeding is the most effective treatment. It is also used to treat variceal bleeding and acromegaly.

      Octreotide inhibits the release of growth hormone and insulin from the pancreas. Additionally, somatostatin, which is released by the hypothalamus, triggers a negative feedback response on growth hormone.

      Somatostatin: The Inhibitor Hormone

      Somatostatin, also known as growth hormone inhibiting hormone (GHIH), is a hormone produced by delta cells found in the pancreas, pylorus, and duodenum. Its main function is to inhibit the secretion of growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon. It also decreases acid and pepsin secretion, as well as pancreatic enzyme secretion. Additionally, somatostatin inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      Somatostatin analogs are commonly used in the management of acromegaly, a condition characterized by excessive growth hormone secretion. These analogs work by inhibiting growth hormone secretion, thereby reducing the symptoms associated with acromegaly.

      The secretion of somatostatin is regulated by various factors. Its secretion increases in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen, as well as glucagon. On the other hand, insulin decreases the secretion of somatostatin.

      In summary, somatostatin plays a crucial role in regulating the secretion of various hormones and enzymes in the body. Its inhibitory effects on growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon make it an important hormone in the management of certain medical conditions.

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  • Question 91 - A 50-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about weight gain, decreased energy,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about weight gain, decreased energy, low libido, and difficulty maintaining erections. The doctor orders a blood test to check his serum testosterone levels. What is responsible for stimulating testosterone secretion in the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Luteinising Hormone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Androgens and Male Hormones

      Androgens are the primary male sex hormones that play a crucial role in the development and functioning of reproductive organs and secondary sex characteristics. Testosterone is the main androgen, while dihydrotestosterone and androstenedione are other types. These hormones are also essential in maintaining bone density and mass to prevent osteoporosis.

      The regulation of hormone levels in the body relies on negative feedback. Luteinising hormone (LH) stimulates the Leydig cells in the testes to produce testosterone, which is synthesized from cholesterol. When testosterone levels are high, LH is suppressed through negative feedback. A small amount of testosterone is also produced in the adrenal glands.

      Other important male hormones include follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and dihydrotestosterone (DHT). DHT and testosterone bind to the same androgen receptors, contributing to the development of external genitalia in the fetus, secondary sex characteristics during puberty, and sperm production. DHT is a form of endogenous testosterone converted by the enzyme 5 alpha-reductase in the prostate.

      FSH and testosterone work together to stimulate the Sertoli cells in the testes to secrete androgen-binding protein, which binds to testosterone to maintain high levels. Androgen-binding protein is secreted into the lumen of the seminiferous tubules and interstitial fluid around spermatogenic cells. Once the required level of spermatogenesis is achieved, inhibin prevents the release of more FSH.

      In summary, understanding the role of androgens and male hormones is crucial in comprehending male reproductive health and development.

      Disorders of sex hormones can have various effects on the body, as shown in the table below. Primary hypogonadism, also known as Klinefelter’s syndrome, is characterized by high levels of gonadotrophins and low levels of testosterone. Patients with this condition often have small, firm testes, lack secondary sexual characteristics, and are infertile. They may also experience gynaecomastia, which increases their risk of breast cancer. Diagnosis is made through chromosomal analysis.

      Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, or Kallmann syndrome, is a cause of delayed puberty due to low levels of sex hormones. It is usually inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is caused by the failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. Patients with this condition may have hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, anosmia, and low sex hormone levels. However, their LH and FSH levels are inappropriately low or normal. They are typically of normal or above-average height, but may also have cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.

      Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that causes end-organ resistance to testosterone, resulting in genotypically male children (46XY) having a female phenotype. This condition is also known as complete androgen insensitivity syndrome or testicular feminisation syndrome. Patients with this condition may experience primary amenorrhoea, undescended testes causing groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol. Diagnosis is made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal a 46XY genotype. Management involves counselling to raise the child as female, bilateral orchidectomy to reduce the risk of testicular cancer due to undescended testes, and oestrogen therapy.

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  • Question 92 - A 42-year-old woman has been admitted to the renal ward with acute kidney...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman has been admitted to the renal ward with acute kidney injury. Her blood test shows that her potassium levels are above normal limits. While renal failure is a known cause of hyperkalaemia, the patient mentions having an endocrine disorder in the past but cannot recall its name. This information is crucial as certain endocrine disorders can also cause potassium disturbances. Which of the following endocrine disorders is commonly associated with hyperkalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addison's disease

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Addison’s disease, which is a condition of primary adrenal insufficiency. One of the hormones that is deficient in this disease is aldosterone, which plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of potassium in the body. Aldosterone activates Na+/K+ ATPase pumps on the cell wall, causing the movement of potassium into the cell and increasing renal potassium secretion. Therefore, a lack of aldosterone leads to hyperkalaemia.

      Phaeochromocytomas are tumours that produce catecholamines and typically arise in the adrenal medulla. They are associated with hypertension and hyperglycaemia, but not disturbances in potassium balance.

      Hyperthyroidism is a condition of excess thyroid hormone and does not affect potassium balance.

      Conn’s syndrome, on the other hand, is a type of primary hyperaldosteronism where there is excess aldosterone production. Aldosterone activates the Na+/K+ pump on the cell wall, causing the movement of potassium into the cell, which can lead to hypokalaemia.

      Addison’s disease is the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, with autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands being the main culprit, accounting for 80% of cases. This results in reduced production of cortisol and aldosterone. Symptoms of Addison’s disease include lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, and salt-craving. Hyperpigmentation, especially in palmar creases, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycemia, and hyponatremia and hyperkalemia may also be observed. In severe cases, a crisis may occur, leading to collapse, shock, and pyrexia.

      Other primary causes of hypoadrenalism include tuberculosis, metastases (such as bronchial carcinoma), meningococcal septicaemia (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome), HIV, and antiphospholipid syndrome. Secondary causes include pituitary disorders, such as tumours, irradiation, and infiltration. Exogenous glucocorticoid therapy can also lead to hypoadrenalism.

      It is important to note that primary Addison’s disease is associated with hyperpigmentation, while secondary adrenal insufficiency is not.

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  • Question 93 - A 25-year-old male patient presents to the endocrine clinic with delayed-onset puberty. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient presents to the endocrine clinic with delayed-onset puberty. His history revealed a cleft palate as a child which had been repaired successfully. On direct questioning, he revealed he had anosmia but was told this was due to a minor head injury aged 5. On examination, he was 1.80 metres tall, had sparse pubic hair and small volume testes (Tanner staging grade 1).

      Blood results revealed:

      FSH 2 IU/L (1-7)
      LH 2 IU/L (1-8)
      Testosterone 240 ng/dL (280-1100)

      What is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kallmann syndrome

      Explanation:

      The minor head injury is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s anosmia. However, the combination of anosmia and cleft palate, along with the blood test results indicating hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, suggests that the patient may have Kallmann’s syndrome, which is an X-linked inherited disorder. Constitutional developmental delay is less likely due to the patient’s age and abnormal blood test results.

      Empty sella syndrome is a condition where the sella turcica, the area of the brain where the pituitary gland is located, is empty and filled with cerebrospinal fluid. Although this condition can be asymptomatic, it can also present with symptoms of hypopituitarism. However, since the patient also has anosmia and cleft palate, empty sella syndrome is less likely.

      Klinefelter’s syndrome is characterized by tall stature, gynecomastia, and small penis/testes. Blood tests would reveal elevated gonadotropins and low testosterone levels. However, since the patient’s FSH and LH levels are low, Klinefelter’s syndrome can be ruled out.

      Kallmann’s syndrome is a condition that can cause delayed puberty due to hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. It is often inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is believed to be caused by a failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. One of the key indicators of Kallmann’s syndrome is anosmia, or a lack of smell, in boys with delayed puberty. Other features may include hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, low sex hormone levels, and normal or above-average height. Some patients may also have cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects.

      Management of Kallmann’s syndrome typically involves testosterone supplementation. Gonadotrophin supplementation may also be used to stimulate sperm production if fertility is desired later in life. It is important for individuals with Kallmann’s syndrome to receive appropriate medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and ensure optimal health outcomes.

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  • Question 94 - A 45-year-old male has been diagnosed with Cushing's disease due to a pituitary...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male has been diagnosed with Cushing's disease due to a pituitary adenoma, resulting in elevated plasma cortisol levels. Which part of the adrenal gland is responsible for producing cortisol hormone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zona fasciculata

      Explanation:

      The adrenal gland comprises two primary parts: the cortex and medulla.

      The adrenal medulla is accountable for the production of adrenaline and noradrenaline, which are catecholamines.

      The adrenal cortex is divided into three layers: glomerulosa, fasciculata, and reticularis. The glomerulosa primarily produces mineralocorticoids, while the reticularis mainly produces sex steroids. As a result, the Zona fasciculata is the primary source of glucocorticosteroids.

      Cortisol: Functions and Regulation

      Cortisol is a hormone produced in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex. It plays a crucial role in various bodily functions and is essential for life. Cortisol increases blood pressure by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles, allowing for a normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines. However, it inhibits bone formation by decreasing osteoblasts, type 1 collagen, and absorption of calcium from the gut, while increasing osteoclastic activity. Cortisol also increases insulin resistance and metabolism by increasing gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, and proteolysis. It inhibits inflammatory and immune responses, but maintains the function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.

      The regulation of cortisol secretion is controlled by the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. The pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol. The hypothalamus releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to release ACTH. Stress can also increase cortisol secretion.

      Excess cortisol in the body can lead to Cushing’s syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms such as weight gain, muscle weakness, and high blood pressure. Understanding the functions and regulation of cortisol is important for maintaining overall health and preventing hormonal imbalances.

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      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 95 - A 39-year old male visits the GP complaining of nipple discharge. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year old male visits the GP complaining of nipple discharge. Upon examination, it is found that his serum prolactin levels are significantly high. Besides prolactin releasing hormone, which other hypothalamic hormone can stimulate the secretion of prolactin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prolactin and Its Functions

      Prolactin is a hormone that is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to stimulate breast development and milk production in females. During pregnancy, prolactin levels increase to support the growth and development of the mammary glands. It also plays a role in reducing the pulsatility of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) at the hypothalamic level, which can block the action of luteinizing hormone (LH) on the ovaries or testes.

      The secretion of prolactin is regulated by dopamine, which constantly inhibits its release. However, certain factors can increase or decrease prolactin secretion. For example, prolactin levels increase during pregnancy, in response to estrogen, and during breastfeeding. Additionally, stress, sleep, and certain drugs like metoclopramide and antipsychotics can also increase prolactin secretion. On the other hand, dopamine and dopaminergic agonists can decrease prolactin secretion.

      Overall, understanding the functions and regulation of prolactin is important for reproductive health and lactation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 96 - An aged woman with malabsorption and weight loss was diagnosed with small bowel...

    Incorrect

    • An aged woman with malabsorption and weight loss was diagnosed with small bowel amyloidosis. She was initially found to have osteomalacia and hypocalcemia. Despite receiving total parenteral nutrition with sufficient calcium replacement for the past seven days, she remained hypocalcemic. Which electrolyte deficiency is most likely responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnesium

      Explanation:

      Magnesium deficiency may occur in patients with malabsorption, even if they receive magnesium through TPN feeds, as it may not be enough to compensate for their losses. Serum calcium levels are not affected by sodium, phosphate, and potassium.

      The Importance of Magnesium and Calcium in the Body

      Magnesium and calcium are essential minerals in the body. Magnesium plays a crucial role in the secretion and action of parathyroid hormone (PTH) on target tissues. However, a deficiency in magnesium can cause hypocalcaemia and make patients unresponsive to calcium and vitamin D supplementation.

      The body contains 1000 mmol of magnesium, with half stored in bones and the rest in muscle, soft tissues, and extracellular fluid. Unlike calcium, there is no specific hormonal control of magnesium. Hormones such as PTH and aldosterone affect the renal handling of magnesium.

      Magnesium and calcium also interact at a cellular level. A decrease in magnesium levels can affect the permeability of cellular membranes to calcium, leading to hyperexcitability. Therefore, it is essential to maintain adequate levels of both magnesium and calcium in the body for optimal health.

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      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 97 - A 28-year-old female, who is 5 months postpartum, presents with a 4-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female, who is 5 months postpartum, presents with a 4-week history of weight loss, heat intolerance, tremor, palpitation and diarrhoea. Pregnancy and birth were uncomplicated. On further questioning, she admits having taken off-license weight loss medication bought from the internet 2 months ago. Past medical history and family history are insignificant. She does not smoke or drink alcohol.

      On physical examination, she has exophthalmos, brisk reflexes and fine tremor. Her vital signs were heart rate 100/minute, blood pressure 138/78 mmHg, temperature 36.6ÂșC. The thyroid gland was diffusely enlarged.

      Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) 0.01 mU/l
      Free thyroxine (T4) 25 pmol/l
      Total thyroxine (T4) 155 nmol/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Graves' Disease

      Explanation:

      During the postnatal period, Graves’ disease may either present for the first time or worsen. Exophthalmos is a distinctive symptom of Graves’ disease that is not observed in other hyperthyroid conditions. Hypothyroidism is caused by Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. postpartum thyroiditis is characterized by initial hyperthyroidism after childbirth, followed by normal or occasionally reduced thyroid levels.

      During pregnancy, there is an increase in the levels of thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), which causes an increase in the levels of total thyroxine. However, this does not affect the free thyroxine level. If left untreated, thyrotoxicosis can increase the risk of fetal loss, maternal heart failure, and premature labor. Graves’ disease is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy, but transient gestational hyperthyroidism can also occur due to the activation of the TSH receptor by HCG. Propylthiouracil has traditionally been the antithyroid drug of choice, but it is associated with an increased risk of severe hepatic injury. Therefore, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using propylthiouracil in the first trimester and switching to carbimazole in the second trimester. Maternal free thyroxine levels should be kept in the upper third of the normal reference range to avoid fetal hypothyroidism. Thyrotropin receptor stimulating antibodies should be checked at 30-36 weeks gestation to determine the risk of neonatal thyroid problems. Block-and-replace regimes should not be used in pregnancy, and radioiodine therapy is contraindicated.

      On the other hand, thyroxine is safe during pregnancy, and serum thyroid-stimulating hormone should be measured in each trimester and 6-8 weeks postpartum. Women require an increased dose of thyroxine during pregnancy, up to 50% as early as 4-6 weeks of pregnancy. Breastfeeding is safe while on thyroxine. It is important to manage thyroid problems during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

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      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 98 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with symptoms of renal colic. Upon conducting tests,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with symptoms of renal colic. Upon conducting tests, the following results are obtained:
      Corrected Calcium 3.84 mmol/l
      PTH 88 pg/ml (increased)
      Her serum urea and electrolytes are within normal range.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this scenario is primary hyperparathyroidism, as serum urea and electrolytes are normal, making tertiary hyperparathyroidism less likely.

      Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that is commonly seen in elderly females and is characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, or carcinoma. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, the symptomatic features of primary hyperparathyroidism may include polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is associated with hypertension and multiple endocrine neoplasia, such as MEN I and II. To diagnose this condition, doctors may perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan or look for a characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism called the pepperpot skull.

      The definitive management for primary hyperparathyroidism is total parathyroidectomy. However, conservative management may be offered if the calcium level is less than 0.25 mmol/L above the upper limit of normal, the patient is over 50 years old, and there is no evidence of end-organ damage. Patients who are not suitable for surgery may be treated with cinacalcet, a calcimimetic that mimics the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.

      In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can cause various symptoms and is commonly seen in elderly females. It can be diagnosed through various tests and managed through surgery or medication.

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  • Question 99 - A 38-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of left flank pain. She has been recently diagnosed with osteoporosis after a low-energy, femoral neck fracture.

      Her blood results show the following:

      Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Calcium 2.9 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 0.6 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)

      Her urine dip is positive for erythrocytes making a diagnosis of renal calculi likely.

      What is the pathophysiological reason for the low serum phosphate level, given the likely underlying pathology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased renal phosphate reabsorption

      Explanation:

      The decrease in renal phosphate reabsorption is caused by PTH.

      The symptoms presented are indicative of a kidney stone, which can be a sign of hyperparathyroidism. Primary hyperparathyroidism, caused by a functioning parathyroid adenoma, can result in low phosphate and high calcium levels. PTH reduces renal phosphate reabsorption, leading to increased phosphate loss in urine. Pituitary adenomas are associated with osteoporosis due to excessive PTH causing bone resorption.

      PTH activates vitamin D, which increases phosphate absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. However, the renal loss of phosphate is greater than the increase in absorption, resulting in a net loss of phosphate when PTH levels are high.

      PTH also increases renal vitamin D activation, leading to increased intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphate, as well as increased osteoclast activity. This results in elevated levels of serum calcium and phosphate.

      Hypothyroidism does not significantly affect phosphate regulation, so it would not cause low serum phosphate levels.

      Increased osteoclast activity caused by PTH leads to bone resorption and the release of calcium and phosphate into the blood. However, the renal loss of phosphate is greater than the increase in serum phosphate due to osteoclast activity, resulting in an overall decrease in serum phosphate levels.

      Understanding Parathyroid Hormone and Its Effects

      Parathyroid hormone is a hormone produced by the chief cells of the parathyroid glands. Its main function is to increase the concentration of calcium in the blood by stimulating the PTH receptors in the kidney and bone. This hormone has a short half-life of only 4 minutes.

      The effects of parathyroid hormone are mainly seen in the bone, kidney, and intestine. In the bone, PTH binds to osteoblasts, which then signal to osteoclasts to resorb bone and release calcium. In the kidney, PTH promotes the active reabsorption of calcium and magnesium from the distal convoluted tubule, while decreasing the reabsorption of phosphate. In the intestine, PTH indirectly increases calcium absorption by increasing the activation of vitamin D, which in turn increases calcium absorption.

      Overall, understanding the role of parathyroid hormone is important in maintaining proper calcium levels in the body. Any imbalances in PTH secretion can lead to various disorders such as hyperparathyroidism or hypoparathyroidism.

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      • Endocrine System
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  • Question 100 - A 65-year-old man presents with abdominal tenderness, steatorrhoea, and jaundice. Upon investigation, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with abdominal tenderness, steatorrhoea, and jaundice. Upon investigation, a somatostatinoma of the pancreas is discovered. What is the probable cell type from which this neoplasm originated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delta-cells

      Explanation:

      Somatostatin is secreted by the delta cells located in the pancreas. These cells are also present in the stomach, duodenum, and jejunum. In the pancreas, somatostatin plays a role in inhibiting the release of exocrine enzymes, glucagon, and insulin. In rare cases of large somatostatinomas, patients may experience mild diabetes mellitus.

      The answer choices of alpha-cells, beta-cells, and S-cells are incorrect as they secrete glucagon, insulin, and secretin, respectively.

      Somatostatin: The Inhibitor Hormone

      Somatostatin, also known as growth hormone inhibiting hormone (GHIH), is a hormone produced by delta cells found in the pancreas, pylorus, and duodenum. Its main function is to inhibit the secretion of growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon. It also decreases acid and pepsin secretion, as well as pancreatic enzyme secretion. Additionally, somatostatin inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      Somatostatin analogs are commonly used in the management of acromegaly, a condition characterized by excessive growth hormone secretion. These analogs work by inhibiting growth hormone secretion, thereby reducing the symptoms associated with acromegaly.

      The secretion of somatostatin is regulated by various factors. Its secretion increases in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen, as well as glucagon. On the other hand, insulin decreases the secretion of somatostatin.

      In summary, somatostatin plays a crucial role in regulating the secretion of various hormones and enzymes in the body. Its inhibitory effects on growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon make it an important hormone in the management of certain medical conditions.

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      • Endocrine System
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