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Question 1
Correct
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According to NICE guidance on lipid modification (CG181), in which of the following elderly patients would you use a QRISK2 risk assessment tool to decide whether or not to initiate treatment with a lipid-lowering agent?
Your Answer: A 48-year-old man with established CVD
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Lipid Modification
The NICE guidance on lipid modification (CG181) provides advice on assessing cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk for primary prevention. The guidance recommends using the QRISK2 risk assessment tool to assess CVD risk in individuals up to and including age 84 years. However, the tool should not be used for people with type 1 diabetes or those with an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) less than 60 ml/min/1.73 m2 and/or albuminuria, as they are already at increased risk of CVD. For people with type 2 diabetes, the QRISK2 tool should be used to assess CVD risk. It is also important to note that a risk assessment tool should not be used for individuals who are at high risk of developing CVD due to familial hypercholesterolaemia or other inherited disorders of lipid metabolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old male presents at your clinic with symptoms resembling the flu. He has recently been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and seeks guidance on managing his diabetes during illness. What is one of the 'sick-day rules' that insulin-dependent diabetics should follow when they are sick?
Your Answer: Check urinary ketones at the start of the illness
Correct Answer: Aim to drink at least 3L of fluid
Explanation:It is recommended that patients consume a minimum of 3 liters of fluids within a 24-hour period. Patients should maintain their regular insulin routine but monitor their blood glucose levels more frequently, making options 1 and 2 incorrect. It is not advisable to replace main meals with sugary foods, but if a patient is having difficulty eating, they may consume sugary beverages. Additionally, ketone levels should be checked more frequently, every 3-4 hours or more frequently based on the results.
Managing Diabetes Mellitus during Illness: Sick Day Rules
When a patient with diabetes mellitus becomes unwell, it is important to provide them with key messages to manage their condition. Increasing the frequency of blood glucose monitoring to at least four hourly is crucial, as well as encouraging fluid intake of at least 3 litres in 24 hours. If the patient is struggling to eat, sugary drinks may be necessary to maintain carbohydrate intake. Educating patients to have a box of sick day supplies can also be helpful. Access to a mobile phone has been shown to reduce the progression of ketosis to diabetic ketoacidosis.
Patients taking oral hypoglycemic medication should continue taking their medication even if they are not eating much. However, metformin should be stopped if the patient is becoming dehydrated due to its potential impact on renal function. Patients on insulin must not stop taking it, as this can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis. They should continue their normal insulin regime and check their blood sugars frequently. If ketone levels are raised and blood sugars are also raised, corrective doses of insulin may be necessary. The corrective dose varies by patient, but a rule of thumb is the total daily insulin dose divided by 6 (maximum 15 units).
Possible indications for hospital admission include suspicion of underlying illness requiring hospital treatment, inability to keep fluids down for more than a few hours, persistent diarrhea, significant ketosis in an insulin-dependent diabetic despite additional insulin, blood glucose persistently >20 mmol/l despite additional insulin, patient unable to manage adjustments to usual diabetes management, and lack of support at home (e.g., a patient who lives alone and is at risk of becoming unconscious). By following these sick day rules, patients with diabetes mellitus can better manage their condition during illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You encounter a 50-year-old woman during your afternoon clinic. She reports experiencing sudden episodes where the room spins uncontrollably, accompanied by nausea and occasional vomiting. Additionally, she feels as though her hearing is impaired on the right side and experiences a ringing sound and a feeling of fullness on that side. Based on these symptoms, you suspect that she may have Meniere's disease. What is a true statement about this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sensorineural hearing loss is a symptom of Meniere's disease
Explanation:Meniere’s disease is characterized by sensorineural hearing loss, which can worsen over time and eventually result in profound bilateral hearing loss.
Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.
The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the General Practice Surgery with multiple skin lesions that she has noticed over the past few weeks. She is a single mother and works as a waitress, and has a long history of smoking and poor engagement with health and social services.
On examination, she is overweight with a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m2 (normal range: 20-25 kg/m2), with obvious cigarette burns on her arms. She has multiple small (ranging from 2-12 mm in diameter), flat, purple bruise-like lesions across her chest, back and arms.
What causative agent is associated with the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8)
Explanation:The patient in this case has Kaposi’s sarcoma, a common tumor found in individuals with HIV infection. The tumor presents as dark purple/brown intradermal lesions that resemble bruises and can appear anywhere on the skin or oropharynx. Since HIV often goes undiagnosed, it is important to consider this diagnosis in patients with risk factors. This patient has a history of IV drug use and poor engagement with services, making it possible that they have never been tested for HIV. The patient is underweight with a low BMI, which could be a sign of HIV infection. Kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by the human herpesvirus-8 (HHV-8), also known as Kaposi’s Sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV).
Shingles, caused by the varicella-zoster virus, is not related to Kaposi’s sarcoma. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a herpesvirus that can cause serious infections in immunocompromised individuals, but it is not associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma. Human papillomavirus (HPV) is linked to cervical cancer and is not a herpesvirus. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) causes oral and genital herpes, but it is not responsible for Kaposi’s sarcoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman presents with a red left eye. She reports experiencing an itchy, gritty sensation in the left eye for the past 24 hours. She notes some grey-green discharge at the lid margins and mentions using an eye bath she purchased from the pharmacy to clear it this morning. Her visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and both pupils are equal and reactive with no other abnormalities detected. Fluorescein staining shows no focal lesion. She has no history of eye problems and doesn't wear contact lenses. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe a regular ocular lubricant
Explanation:Antibiotic Stewardship in the Management of Acute Infective Conjunctivitis
In the management of acute infective conjunctivitis, it is important to consider good antibiotic stewardship and follow national guidance from NICE. While it can be difficult to differentiate between bacterial and viral conjunctivitis, most cases are self-limiting and resolve within 1-2 weeks without the need for antibiotics. Lubricant eye drops can help reduce discomfort, and patients should clean away infected secretions with a cotton wool ball soaked in water. Additionally, up to 10% of patients may experience adverse reactions to topical antibiotics.
According to the NICE Clinical Knowledge summary, treatment with topical antibiotics should be reserved for severe cases where other serious causes have been ruled out, for schools and childcare organizations requiring treatment before allowing a child to return, and for patients who understand the limitations of treatment but still prefer it. If patients prefer early treatment with antibiotics, they should consider delaying treatment to see if the condition resolves spontaneously within 7 days.
If a patient presents with an acute red eye and normal visual acuity without any red flag features, immediate eye casualty referral is not necessary. Management in primary care is the most appropriate approach at this stage. However, if the patient experiences reduced visual acuity, immediate referral for further specialist assessment is warranted. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure appropriate management of acute infective conjunctivitis while promoting antibiotic stewardship.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man has suddenly developed left-sided facial weakness and comes to the clinic on the same day. He is experiencing difficulty in closing his left eye, has lost taste on the front of the tongue, and is sensitive to loud noise. The entire left side of his face is affected, and he cannot wrinkle his forehead on the left side.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone 25 mg twice a day
Explanation:Facial Nerve Palsy: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Facial nerve palsy is a condition that affects the facial nerve, resulting in the inability to wrinkle the forehead. This indicates a lower motor neurone (LMN) lesion, which is often caused by a viral infection such as herpes simplex type 1 or varicella zoster. In the past, the majority of cases were labelled idiopathic or Bell’s palsy, but recent research has shed light on the underlying causes.
Other symptoms of facial nerve palsy may include hyperacusis, inability to produce tears, and loss of taste. In an upper motor neurone lesion, the upper facial muscles are partially spared due to alternative pathways in the brain stem.
Treatment for facial nerve palsy typically involves prednisolone, which should be given within 72 hours of onset and continued for 10 days. Aciclovir is no longer recommended, and there is no evidence supporting the use of steroids in children. Referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary if the cornea is exposed despite attempts to close the eyelid.
While most patients recover fully from facial nerve palsy, some may experience permanent nerve damage or severe sequelae. It is important to seek medical attention promptly to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Grave's disease and is now seeking a review 3 months after commencing a 'block and replace' regimen with carbimazole and thyroxine. She is worried about the possibility of developing thyroid eye disease. What measures can be taken to minimize her risk of developing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop smoking
Explanation:Smoking is the primary controllable risk factor for thyroid eye disease.
Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.
Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.
Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner by his mother. She reports that 1-2 hours after he has gone to sleep, she frequently finds him sat up in bed screaming and with his eyes open. He doesn't seem to recognise her, is confused and unable to communicate. After about five minutes he settles down to sleep. He is unable to remember anything about this the next day. On the day after it has happened he is more tired than usual.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Night terror
Explanation:Understanding Sleep Disorders in Children
Sleep disorders in children can be distressing for both the child and their parents. It is important to identify the specific type of sleep disorder in order to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some common sleep disorders in children:
Night Terrors: These are different from nightmares and can affect children between the ages of 4 and 12 years. Symptoms include sudden arousal from non-REM sleep, fear-related behavior, confusion upon waking, and amnesia regarding the event.
Sleepwalking: Similar to night terrors, sleepwalking involves getting up and moving around while asleep. It is important to ensure the child’s safety during these episodes.
Nocturnal Epilepsy: Seizures occur only during sleep in this type of epilepsy. It may be difficult to diagnose, but symptoms include involuntary movements during sleep and changes upon awakening.
Nightmares: These are vivid and frightening dreams that most children experience occasionally. Comforting the child can help them get back to sleep.
Panic Attacks: Unlike other sleep disorders, panic attacks occur while the child is awake and can be very distressing.
Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder: Bad dreams about a traumatic event and sleep disturbance are features of PTSD and can be similar to nightmares.
Understanding these sleep disorders can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support for children experiencing sleep disturbances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with intermittent cramp-like pain in the buttock, thigh and calf. The symptoms are worse on walking and relieved by rest. She had a stent placed in her coronary artery three years ago. On examination, both legs are of normal colour, but the pedal pulses are difficult to palpate. Sensation is mildly reduced in the right foot.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Measure ankle : brachial systolic pressure index
Explanation:Understanding Intermittent Claudication: Diagnosis and Management
Intermittent claudication is a common symptom of peripheral arterial disease. Patients typically experience pain or cramping in their legs during physical activity, which subsides with rest. An ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) of less than 0.9 supports the diagnosis, indicating reduced blood flow to the affected limb.
The severity of arterial disease can be assessed using the ABPI, with values under 0.5 indicating severe disease. Exercise can improve walking distance, and patients should be encouraged to continue walking beyond the point of pain. Addressing any risk factors for cardiovascular disease is also important.
Referral to a vascular surgeon may be necessary if symptoms are lifestyle limiting. Magnetic resonance angiography can be used to assess the extent of arterial disease prior to any revascularization procedure. Ultrasonography can help determine the site of disease in peripheral arterial disease.
Bilateral symptoms may indicate neurogenic claudication due to spinal stenosis, which can be confirmed with an MRI scan. Sciatica is also a possible differential diagnosis, particularly if there are sensory changes in the foot. An MRI scan may be useful in such cases.
Overall, understanding the diagnosis and management of intermittent claudication is crucial for effective treatment and improved quality of life for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) that she has been experiencing for several years and can no longer manage. She reveals several life events that she believes may have contributed, including work and relationship stress. She also mentions the recent passing of a dear friend and the fact that her brother died in military service five years ago.
What is the most probable cause for the onset of PTSD?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Learning the circumstances of the death of her brother in military service
Explanation:Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) and Its Triggers
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a type of anxiety disorder that can occur after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event. Traumatic events can include accidents, natural disasters, terrorist attacks, and violent assaults. PTSD can also occur when someone learns that a close family member or friend has experienced a traumatic event. However, it is important to note that not all stressful life events can lead to PTSD. For example, losing a friend to a long-term illness, being made redundant, experiencing significant work stress, or undergoing an acrimonious divorce are not triggers for PTSD unless they involve traumatic experiences such as domestic violence or sexual abuse. Understanding the triggers of PTSD can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old female seeks guidance as she has missed taking her Microgynon 30 pills during a weekend trip. She usually remembers to take her pill but has missed days 10, 11, and 12 of her packet, and it is now day 13. Despite taking the day 13 pill this morning, she is worried about the possibility of pregnancy as she had unprotected sex while away. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No action needed but use condoms for next 7 days
Explanation:The patient is protected for the next 7 days as she had taken the pill for 7 days in a row previously. According to the FSRH guidelines, emergency contraception is not required after taking seven consecutive pills. However, the guidelines suggest using condoms for the next 7 days in this scenario. Please refer to the provided link for more information.
The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman in the third trimester of her first pregnancy presents with pruritus and a few blisters on her abdomen, including around her umbilicus and upper thighs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pemphigoid gestationis
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions During Pregnancy
Pregnancy can bring about various changes in a woman’s body, including changes in the skin. Here are some common skin conditions that may occur during pregnancy:
1. Pemphigoid Gestationis (Herpes Gestationis)
This rare bullous disorder is caused by circulating immunoglobulin G (IgG) autoantibodies similar to those found in bullous pemphigoid. It usually appears in the second trimester but can occur at any stage and may even worsen postpartum. Symptoms include extremely itchy urticarial papules and blisters on the abdomen and trunk, which may become generalized.2. Polymorphic Eruption of Pregnancy (Pruritic Urticarial Papules and Plaques of Pregnancy)
This benign dermatosis typically arises late in the third trimester of a first pregnancy or in multiple pregnancies. Itchy erythematous papules and plaques first appear on abdominal striae and then spread to the trunk and proximal limbs. The umbilicus is usually spared.3. Pregnancy Prurigo
Prurigo of pregnancy presents as scattered, itchy/scratched papules at any stage of pregnancy. It is often mistaken for scabies but doesn’t respond to antiscabetic agents. Emollients and topical corticosteroids may help.4. Pruritus (Cholestatic) of Pregnancy
Cholestatic pruritis appears as unexplained pruritus during the second and third trimesters, with raised blood levels of bile acids and/or liver enzymes. It typically starts in the soles of the feet and palms of the hands and progresses to the trunk and face.5. Scabies
Although rare, bullous lesions have been reported in scabies. However, this is not the most common cause of this presentation.It is important to consult a healthcare provider if any skin changes or symptoms occur during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You are contemplating prescribing sildenafil to a patient who is experiencing erectile dysfunction. He suffered a heart attack earlier this year but is not presently taking nitrates or nicorandil. What is the duration of time that NICE suggests we wait after a heart attack before prescribing a phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the secondary prevention of MI. Patients who have had an MI should be offered dual antiplatelet therapy, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins. Lifestyle changes such as following a Mediterranean-style diet and engaging in regular exercise are also recommended. Sexual activity may resume after four weeks, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used after six months, but caution should be exercised in patients taking nitrates or nicorandil.
Dual antiplatelet therapy is now the standard treatment for most patients who have had an acute coronary syndrome. Ticagrelor and prasugrel are now more commonly used as ADP-receptor inhibitors. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend adding ticagrelor to aspirin for medically managed patients and prasugrel or ticagrelor for those who have undergone percutaneous coronary intervention. The second antiplatelet should be stopped after 12 months, but this may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events.
For patients who have had an acute MI and have symptoms and/or signs of heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction, treatment with an aldosterone antagonist such as eplerenone should be initiated within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy. Proper management and adherence to these guidelines can significantly reduce the risk of further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents with a four month history of right-sided hip pain. The pain has developed spontaneously without any apparent cause. She reports that the pain is more severe on the outer side of the hip and is particularly bothersome at night when she lies on her right side.
Upon examination, there is a complete range of motion in the hip joint, including internal and external rotation. However, deep palpation of the lateral aspect of the right hip joint reproduces the pain.
An x-ray of the right hip reveals the following findings:
Right hip: Slight narrowing of the joint space, but otherwise normal appearance.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Greater trochanteric pain syndrome
Explanation:Trochanteric bursitis is now referred to as greater trochanteric pain syndrome. Although joint space narrowing is visible in the x-ray, it is a common occurrence and doesn’t necessarily indicate osteoarthritis. Additionally, the pain is palpable and the symptoms have not been present for a long period, making osteoarthritis less likely.
Hip pain in adults can be caused by a variety of conditions. Osteoarthritis is a common cause, with pain that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. Reduced internal rotation is often the first sign, and risk factors include age, obesity, and previous joint problems. Inflammatory arthritis can cause pain in the morning, systemic symptoms, and elevated inflammatory markers. Referred lumbar spine pain may be caused by femoral nerve compression, which can be tested with a positive femoral nerve stretch test. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, or trochanteric bursitis, is often seen in women aged 50-70 and is caused by repeated movement of the iliotibial band. Meralgia paraesthetica is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh and results in a burning sensation over the antero-lateral aspect of the thigh. Avascular necrosis can have gradual or sudden onset and may follow high dose steroid therapy or previous hip fracture or dislocation. Pubic symphysis dysfunction is common in pregnancy and causes pain over the pubic symphysis with radiation to the groins and medial aspects of the thighs. Transient idiopathic osteoporosis is an uncommon condition sometimes seen in the third trimester of pregnancy, causing groin pain and limited range of movement in the hip, with elevated ESR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic after slipping on ice and falling backwards, hitting his head on the curb and landing on his right arm. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and takes bisoprolol and warfarin, with a recent INR of 2.2. There are no visible injuries to his arm or scalp. What is the best course of action for his head injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer the patient to hospital for a CT head scan to be performed within 8 hours
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for investigating head injuries in adults. These guidelines help healthcare professionals determine which patients need further CT head imaging and which patients can be safely discharged.
The guidelines divide patients into two groups: those who require an immediate CT head scan and those who require a CT head scan within 8 hours of the injury. Patients who require an immediate CT head scan include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, a suspected open or depressed skull fracture, or any sign of basal skull fracture. Other indications for an immediate CT head scan include post-traumatic seizure, focal neurological deficit, and more than one episode of vomiting.
Patients who require a CT head scan within 8 hours of the injury include those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, or have experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury. Patients with more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury also require a CT head scan within 8 hours.
It is important to note that patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a CT head scan within 8 hours of the injury. These guidelines help healthcare professionals determine the appropriate course of action for investigating head injuries in adults, ensuring that patients receive the necessary care and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a study that is comparing a new flu vaccine against a regular vaccine currently prescribed. The study aims to determine if the new vaccine reduces the number of people getting the flu over a year. The results show 100 people got the flu out of 500 people on the regular vaccine and 50 people got the flu out of 500 people on the new vaccine.
What is the relative risk reduction in this study?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.6
Explanation:The formula for relative risk reduction is (EER – CER) / CER, where EER is the experimental event rate and CER is the control event rate. To calculate the relative risk reduction, subtract the control event rate from the experimental event rate, then divide the result by the control event rate.
For example, if the experimental event rate is 20 out of 100 and the control event rate is 50 out of 100, the relative risk reduction would be (20/100 – 50/100) / 50/100 = 0.6.
Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials
Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.
To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a key principle of the 2010 Mental Capacity Act?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A person's ability to make decisions must be reviewed on an annual basis
Explanation:The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.
To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.
When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man presents for his yearly asthma check-up. He uses inhaled beclomethasone propionate at a dosage of 100 micrograms, 2 puffs twice daily, and has a salbutamol inhaler for symptom relief. His Asthma Control Test (ACT) score is 25 out of 25. What is the most suitable approach to managing his inhalers?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduce beclomethasone dipropionate dose by 25-50%
Explanation:Adding an inhaled long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) would not be the appropriate course of action at this time. It should only be considered as an add-on therapy if the patient’s asthma remains uncontrolled despite regular use of inhaled corticosteroids.
Similarly, adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) would not be recommended at this stage. It should only be considered if the patient’s asthma remains uncontrolled despite using a combination of LABA and ICS, or if low-dose ICS is insufficient.
Doubling the dose of beclomethasone dipropionate would also not be the correct approach. This would result in a medium dose of ICS, which is only recommended if the patient remains symptomatic despite a combination of low-dose ICS and LABA. Alternatively, an LTRA may be added.
Stopping beclomethasone dipropionate and relying solely on salbutamol as needed would not be advisable. Any reduction in ICS should be done gradually to minimize the risk of worsening symptoms.
Stepping Down Asthma Treatment: BTS Guidelines
The British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommends that asthma treatment should be reviewed every three months to consider stepping down treatment. However, the guidelines do not suggest a strict move from one step to another but rather advise taking into account the duration of treatment, side-effects, and patient preference. When reducing the dose of inhaled steroids, the BTS suggests doing so by 25-50% at a time.
Patients with stable asthma may only require a formal review once a year. However, if a patient has recently had an escalation of asthma treatment, they are likely to be reviewed more frequently. It is important to follow the BTS guidelines to ensure that patients receive the appropriate level of treatment for their asthma and to avoid unnecessary side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner in her 28th week of pregnancy. After an uneventful first and second trimester to date, she has developed widespread itching over the last three weeks and she now has mild jaundice. Her bilirubin is 80 μmol/l (normal <21 μmol/l), alanine aminotransferase (ALT) at 82 IU/l (normal <40 IU/l), and the alkaline phosphatase is markedly raised.
Which of the following is the diagnosis that fits best with this clinical picture?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
Explanation:Liver Disorders in Pregnancy: Differential Diagnosis
During pregnancy, various liver disorders can occur, leading to abnormal liver function tests. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy is the most common pregnancy-related liver disorder, affecting 0.1-1.5% of pregnancies. It typically presents in the late second or early third trimester with generalized itching, starting on the palms and soles. An elevated alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is a more sensitive marker than aspartate aminotransferase (AST), and a fasting serum bile acid concentration of greater than 10 mmol/l is the key diagnostic test. Primary biliary cholangitis and acute fatty liver of pregnancy are less likely diagnoses, while cholelithiasis and hyperemesis gravidarum have different clinical presentations. Early diagnosis and management of liver disorders in pregnancy are crucial to prevent adverse outcomes such as prematurity and stillbirth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a recurrent itchy rash on his hands and feet. He travels frequently to the Middle East for business purposes and has engaged in unprotected sexual activity during one of his trips. Upon examination, the palms and soles show an itchy vesicular rash with erythema and excoriation. What is the probable cause of this rash, considering the patient's exposure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Humidity
Explanation:Pompholyx eczema can be triggered by high humidity levels, such as sweating, and hot temperatures. This is evidenced by the recurrent vesicles that appear on the palms and soles, accompanied by erythema. The patient’s frequent travels to the Middle East, which is known for its high humidity levels, may have contributed to the development of this condition.
Chlamydia is not a factor in the development of pompholyx eczema. While chlamydia can cause keratoderma blennorrhagica, which affects the soles of the feet and palms, it has a different appearance and is not typically itchy or erythematous.
Cold temperatures are not a trigger for pompholyx eczema, although they may cause Raynaud’s phenomenon.
Sunlight exposure is not a trigger for pompholyx eczema, although it may cause other skin conditions such as lupus and polymorphic light eruption.
Understanding Pompholyx Eczema
Pompholyx eczema, also known as dyshidrotic eczema, is a type of skin condition that affects both the hands and feet. It is often triggered by humidity and high temperatures, such as sweating. The main symptom of pompholyx eczema is the appearance of small blisters on the palms and soles, which can be intensely itchy and sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Once the blisters burst, the skin may become dry and crack.
To manage pompholyx eczema, cool compresses and emollients can be used to soothe the affected areas. Topical steroids may also be prescribed to reduce inflammation and itching. It is important to avoid further irritation of the skin by avoiding triggers such as excessive sweating and using gentle, fragrance-free products. With proper management, the symptoms of pompholyx eczema can be controlled and minimized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman has been experiencing a shift in her eyesight in recent weeks. She is unable to read small text, even with her regular reading glasses. There is a constant slight blurriness in the center, and lines always appear distorted instead of straight.
Which retinal indication is most likely linked to this condition? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Drusen
Explanation:Common Retinal Abnormalities and Their Characteristics
Retinal abnormalities can cause vision problems and may be indicative of underlying health conditions. Here are some common retinal abnormalities and their characteristics:
Drusen: These are yellow or white accumulations of extracellular material that accumulate in the retina. Large numbers of drusen are a sign of age-related macular degeneration.
Disc swelling: Unilateral swelling may be due to demyelinating optic neuritis, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy, retinal vein occlusion, or diabetic papillopathy. Bilateral swelling may be due to papilloedema, toxic optic neuropathy, or malignant hypertension.
Cotton-wool spots: These appear as fluffy white patches on the retina and are caused by poor axonal metabolism due to ischaemia. Diabetes and hypertension are the two most common diseases that cause these spots.
Flame haemorrhages: These are intraretinal haemorrhages that may be ‘dot’ or ‘blot’ shaped or flame-shaped, depending on their depth within the retina. They are most commonly due to hypertension, retinal vein occlusion, and diabetes.
Vitreous haemorrhage: This occurs when blood is seen as a cloud in the vitreous. It may be an early sign of retinal tears and detachment but is most commonly seen in patients with proliferative diabetic retinopathy.
Understanding these common retinal abnormalities and their characteristics can help with early detection and treatment of underlying health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 65-year-old man who recently began taking simvastatin 40 mg at bedtime for hyperlipidemia. He presented last week with mild, nonspecific myalgia that appeared to have developed since starting the medication. Laboratory tests were performed to assess creatine kinase, liver function, renal function, and thyroid function. Today, he reports experiencing vague muscular symptoms that are not severe but have caused him some concern since they began after starting the new medication. The blood work indicates that his renal, liver, and thyroid function are normal, but his creatine kinase is twice the upper limit of normal. Despite the mild symptoms, he expresses a willingness to continue taking the statin. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding his statin therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise the patient to reduce the dose of simvastatin to 20 mg nocte and if he remains symptomatic after a further one to two weeks to reduce it further to 10 mg ON
Explanation:Management of Statin-Induced Muscle Injury
When a patient taking statins presents with elevated creatine kinase levels, it is important to consider other potential causes such as underlying muscle disorders or hypothyroidism. If the creatine kinase level is more than five times the upper limit of normal, the statin should be stopped immediately and renal function should be checked. Creatine kinase levels should be monitored every two weeks.
If symptoms resolve and creatine kinase levels return to normal, the statin may be reintroduced at the lowest dose with close monitoring. If creatine kinase levels are less than five times the upper limit of normal and the patient experiences muscular symptoms, the statin may be continued but closely monitored. If symptoms are severe or creatine kinase levels increase, the statin should be stopped.
In cases of mildly elevated creatine kinase levels with no symptoms, the statin may be continued with the patient advised to report any muscular symptoms immediately. Regular monitoring of creatine kinase levels is also recommended to ensure values do not increase. Overall, careful management and monitoring can help prevent and manage statin-induced muscle injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You encounter a 24-year-old woman at your family planning clinic who wishes to initiate the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has no significant medical history, but she does smoke 5-10 cigarettes per day. Her BMI and blood pressure are both within normal ranges. Her aunt was diagnosed with endometrial cancer at the age of 55.
Which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: COCP is associated with a reduced risk of ovarian cancer
Explanation:The use of combined hormonal contraceptive pills can lead to a decreased risk of ovarian and endometrial cancer that can last for many years even after discontinuation. However, for women under 35 years of age who smoke, the UKMEC category is 2, indicating that the benefits of using the method generally outweigh the potential risks. For women over 35 years of age who smoke, the UKMEC category is 3 if they smoke less than 15 cigarettes a day and 4 if they smoke more than 15 cigarettes a day.
While some meta-analyses have shown a slightly increased risk of breast cancer among women using COCP, there is no significant risk of breast cancer after 10 years of discontinuation. Additionally, COCP can help reduce menstrual bleeding and pain, as well as alleviate menopausal symptoms.
Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.
However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.
Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You are reviewing some pathology results and come across the renal function results of a 75-year-old man. His estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 59 mL/min/1.73 m2. The rest of his results are as follows:
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 4.0 mmol/l
Urea 5.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 92 µmol/l
You look back through his notes and see that he had blood taken as part of his annual review two weeks ago when his eGFR was at 58 (mL/min/1.73 m2). These current blood tests are a repeat organised by another doctor.
He takes 10 mg of Lisinopril for hypertension but he has no other past medical history.
You plan to have a telephone conversation with him regarding his renal function.
What is the correct information to give this man?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If her eGFR remains below 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 on at least 2 occasions separated by at least 90 days you can then diagnose CKD
Explanation:Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition where there is an abnormality in kidney function or structure that lasts for more than three months and has implications for health. Diagnosis of CKD requires an eGFR of less than 60 on at least two occasions, separated by a minimum of 90 days. CKD can range from mild to end-stage renal disease, with associated protein and/or blood leakage into the urine. Common causes of CKD include diabetes, hypertension, nephrotoxic drugs, obstructive kidney disease, and multi-system diseases. Early diagnosis and treatment of CKD aim to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and progression to end-stage renal disease. Testing for CKD involves measuring creatinine levels in the blood, sending an early morning urine sample for albumin: creatinine ratio (ACR) measurement, and dipping the urine for haematuria. CKD is diagnosed when tests persistently show a reduction in kidney function or the presence of proteinuria (ACR) for at least three months. This requires an eGFR persistently less than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 and/or ACR persistently greater than 3 mg/mmol. To confirm the diagnosis of CKD, a repeat blood test is necessary at least 90 days after the first one. For instance, a lady needs to provide an early morning urine sample for haematuria dipping and ACR measurement, and another blood test after 90 days to confirm CKD diagnosis.
Chronic kidney disease is often without symptoms and is typically identified through abnormal urea and electrolyte levels. However, some individuals with advanced, undetected disease may experience symptoms. These symptoms may include swelling in the ankles, weight gain, increased urination, fatigue, itching due to uraemia, loss of appetite leading to weight loss, difficulty sleeping, nausea and vomiting, and high blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old British man with a history of asthma comes to the clinic with a painless lymph node in his groin that has been enlarged for the past three months. He denies any other symptoms except for a generalised itch which he attributes to a recent change in laundry detergent. He has not observed any rash.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lymphoma
Explanation:If you notice an enlarged lymph node that cannot be explained, it is important to consider the possibility of lymphoma. It is important to ask about other symptoms such as fever, night sweats, shortness of breath, itching, and weight loss. It is rare for alcohol to cause lymph node pain.
There are no significant risk factors or symptoms suggestive of TB in the patient’s history. It is also unlikely that the presentation is due to syphilis, as secondary syphilis typically presents with a non-itchy rash. The rapid deterioration seen in acute lymphocytic leukemia is not consistent with the patient’s presentation.
Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms and Risk Factors
Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life. There are certain risk factors that increase the likelihood of developing Hodgkin’s lymphoma, such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus.
The most common symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is lymphadenopathy, which is the enlargement of lymph nodes. This is usually painless, non-tender, and asymmetrical, and is most commonly seen in the neck, followed by the axillary and inguinal regions. In some cases, alcohol-induced lymph node pain may be present, but this is seen in less than 10% of patients. Other symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever (Pel-Ebstein). A mediastinal mass may also be present, which can cause symptoms such as coughing. In some cases, Hodgkin’s lymphoma may be found incidentally on a chest x-ray.
When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia may be present, which can be caused by factors such as hypersplenism, bone marrow replacement by HL, or Coombs-positive haemolytic anaemia. Eosinophilia may also be present, which is caused by the production of cytokines such as IL-5. LDH levels may also be raised.
In summary, Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in people in their third and seventh decades of life and is associated with risk factors such as HIV and the Epstein-Barr virus. Symptoms of Hodgkin’s lymphoma include lymphadenopathy, weight loss, pruritus, night sweats, and fever. When investigating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, normocytic anaemia, eosinophilia, and raised LDH levels may be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A young female patient in her early twenties comes to see you in surgery and you notice that she is taking the oral contraceptive pill.
In which one of the following conditions, occurring in isolation, would you consider stopping her pill immediately?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Body mass index of 30 kg/m2
Explanation:Understanding Contraception Cautions and Reasons for Stopping the Pill
Contraception questions are common in the MRCGP exam, but candidates often make mistakes by not carefully reading the question. To answer these questions correctly, it is important to understand the reasons for immediately stopping the pill and paying attention to specific details in the options.
For instance, a blood pressure reading of over 160/100 would be a reason to stop taking the combined oral contraceptive pill. However, age 35, family history of arterial disease, and migraine controlled as above are cautions and would not be a reason alone to stop the pill. It is only necessary to stop the pill if more than one caution applies.
Additionally, a cough would only be relevant if the patient is coughing blood-stained sputum, in which case she should stop taking the pill. By understanding these cautions and reasons for stopping the pill, candidates can improve their chances of answering contraception questions correctly on the MRCGP exam.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Each one of the following is typical of optic neuritis, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sudden onset of visual loss
Explanation:It is rare for optic neuritis to cause sudden visual loss, as the typical progression of visual loss occurs over a period of days rather than hours.
Understanding Optic Neuritis: Causes, Features, Investigation, Management, and Prognosis
Optic neuritis is a condition that causes a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days. It is often associated with multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. Other features of optic neuritis include poor discrimination of colors, pain that worsens with eye movement, relative afferent pupillary defect, and central scotoma.
To diagnose optic neuritis, an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast is usually performed. High-dose steroids are the primary treatment for optic neuritis, and recovery typically takes 4-6 weeks.
The prognosis for optic neuritis is dependent on the number of white-matter lesions found on an MRI. If there are more than three lesions, the five-year risk of developing multiple sclerosis is approximately 50%. Understanding the causes, features, investigation, management, and prognosis of optic neuritis is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a haemarthrosis in his right knee while playing outside. The following blood tests are conducted:
Platelets 220 * 109/l
PT 11 secs
APTT 76 secs
Factor VIIIc activity Normal
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemophilia B
Explanation:An extremely high APTT can result from the use of heparin, as well as from haemophilia or antiphospholipid syndrome. If factor VIIIc activity is normal, the patient may have haemophilia B (which involves a deficiency of factor IX). Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that increases the risk of blood clots.
Haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects blood coagulation and is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It is possible for up to 30% of patients to have no family history of the condition. Haemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of factor VIII, while haemophilia B, also known as Christmas disease, is caused by a lack of factor IX.
The symptoms of haemophilia include haemoarthroses, haematomas, and prolonged bleeding after surgery or trauma. Blood tests can reveal a prolonged APTT, while the bleeding time, thrombin time, and prothrombin time are normal. However, up to 10-15% of patients with haemophilia A may develop antibodies to factor VIII treatment.
Overall, haemophilia is a serious condition that can cause significant bleeding and other complications. It is important for individuals with haemophilia to receive appropriate medical care and treatment to manage their symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are conducting an annual health check on a 65-year-old female patient who has hypertension and type 2 diabetes. She takes ramipril in the morning and metformin twice a day, and has made lifestyle modifications including dietary changes. Her HbA1C level is 53 mmol/mol. When should a second medication be considered in combination with metformin to lower her HbA1c?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If the HbA1c is greater than 58 mmol/mol
Explanation:To intensify the drug treatment for this patient, a second agent should be added if her HbA1c level reaches 58 mmol/mol. It is recommended to advise adults with type 2 diabetes to maintain their HbA1c level below their target if they are not experiencing hypoglycaemia.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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During a 4-week baby check, you observe a flat, pink-colored, vascular skin lesion measuring 30x20mm over the baby's nape. The lesion blanches on pressure and has been present since birth without any significant changes. The baby is developing normally. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Salmon patch
Explanation:Salmon patches are a type of birthmark caused by excess blood vessels, but they typically go away on their own. If a person has a flat birthmark that was present from birth, it could only be a port-wine stain or a salmon patch. Salmon patches are more common and often appear as a pink discoloration on the back of the neck. Atopic dermatitis, a type of eczema, doesn’t appear at birth but may develop later in life, often on the neck and other areas that bend. Strawberry birthmarks, on the other hand, usually appear shortly after birth and are raised above the skin’s surface. They can either disappear, shrink, or remain the same over time.
Understanding Salmon Patches in Newborns
Salmon patches, also known as stork marks or stork bites, are a type of birthmark that can be found in approximately 50% of newborn babies. These marks are characterized by their pink and blotchy appearance and are commonly found on the forehead, eyelids, and nape of the neck. While they may cause concern for new parents, salmon patches typically fade over the course of a few months. However, marks on the neck may persist. These birthmarks are caused by an overgrowth of blood vessels and are completely harmless. It is important for parents to understand that salmon patches are a common occurrence in newborns and do not require any medical treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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