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Question 1
Correct
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Whilst discussing common causes of respiratory infections with a group of medical students, a question was raised about the age at which croup is typically diagnosed. Specifically, the student asked at what age croup is most commonly diagnosed.
Your Answer: 6 months - 3 years
Explanation:Croup affects 6 months to 3 years old and is caused by parainfluenza virus, while bronchiolitis affects 1-9 month olds and is caused by respiratory syncytial virus. Neonatal respiratory distress can occur due to prematurity.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You are counseling a patient regarding malaria chemoprophylaxis for their upcoming trip to the coast of Kenya. The patient is a 60-year-old with fair skin and a history of psychiatric illness. The area is known for malaria with widespread chloroquine resistance, and the species of malaria found in the area include P. falciparum, P. Vivix, and P. Ovale. Based on this information, which anti-malarial medication would you suggest for this patient?
Your Answer: Chloroquine
Correct Answer: Atovaquone/Proguanil
Explanation:Malaria Chemoprophylaxis: Choosing the Right Medication
Malaria is a potentially fatal disease that requires chemoprophylaxis for individuals entering known malaria areas. Atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone) is a well-tolerated, once-daily medication that is effective in both preventing and treating malaria. It should be taken 24 hours before entering a malaria zone and continued for seven days after leaving. However, advice on bite avoidance is also crucial in preventing malaria.
Doxycycline is a cheaper alternative to atovaquone/proguanil, but it may cause nausea and photosensitivity, which can be problematic for fair-skinned individuals. Chloroquine is an inferior choice due to widespread resistance, while mefloquine (Larium) may cause psychosis, making it unsuitable for patients with a psychiatric history.
It is important to note that advising against chemoprophylaxis is not appropriate, as malaria poses a serious risk to all individuals, regardless of their previous exposure to malaria areas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with a range of symptoms that have been progressively worsening over the past 6 months. Despite no changes in her diet, she has gained over 3 stone of weight, with a concentration on her face and neck. She has also noticed stretch marks on her abdomen and excessive hair growth on her body and face. Upon referral to an endocrinologist, she is diagnosed with a pituitary adenoma causing an increased secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone.
What is the best description of this condition?Your Answer: Cushing's disease
Explanation:The patient is experiencing Cushing’s disease, which is caused by excessive secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the anterior pituitary gland, often due to a pituitary adenoma. Addison’s disease and acromegaly can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms. It is important to differentiate between Cushing’s triad, which includes irregular breathing, bradycardia, and systolic hypertension caused by increased intracranial pressure, and Cushing’s syndrome, a collection of symptoms resulting from prolonged exposure to cortisol. Cushing’s disease is a specific type of Cushing’s syndrome characterized by increased ACTH production due to a pituitary adenoma or excess production of hypothalamus CRH.
Understanding the Causes of Cushing’s Syndrome
Cushing’s syndrome is a condition that occurs when the body is exposed to high levels of cortisol for an extended period. While exogenous causes of Cushing’s syndrome, such as glucocorticoid therapy, are more common, endogenous causes can also occur. The causes of Cushing’s syndrome can be divided into two categories: ACTH dependent and ACTH independent.
ACTH dependent causes of Cushing’s syndrome include Cushing’s disease, which is caused by a pituitary tumor secreting ACTH and producing adrenal hyperplasia. Ectopic ACTH production, which is caused by small cell lung cancer, is another ACTH dependent cause. On the other hand, ACTH independent causes of Cushing’s syndrome include iatrogenic causes such as steroid use, adrenal adenoma, adrenal carcinoma, Carney complex, and micronodular adrenal dysplasia.
In addition to these causes, there is also a condition called Pseudo-Cushing’s, which mimics Cushing’s syndrome. This condition is often caused by alcohol excess or severe depression and can cause false positive dexamethasone suppression tests or 24-hour urinary free cortisol tests. To differentiate between Cushing’s syndrome and Pseudo-Cushing’s, an insulin stress test may be used. Understanding the causes of Cushing’s syndrome is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 4
Correct
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A 56-year-old male with no previous medical history presents with a sprained ankle and is incidentally found to be in atrial fibrillation. He denies any symptoms of palpitations or shortness of breath. Despite discussing treatment options, he declines cardioversion. Cardiovascular examination is otherwise normal, with a blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg. As per the most recent NICE guidelines, what is the recommended treatment for this patient if he remains in chronic atrial fibrillation?
Your Answer: No treatment
Explanation:NICE recommends using the CHA2DS2-VASc score to determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with any history of AF. The ORBIT scoring system should be used to assess bleeding risk, but anticoagulation should not be withheld solely on the grounds of age or risk of falls. DOACs are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF, with warfarin used second-line if a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 5
Correct
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You assess a 28-year-old female patient in the ED who has been admitted due to an acute exacerbation of her asthma. What is the most indicative feature of a life-threatening attack in this case?
Your Answer: Peak flow of 30% best or predicted
Explanation:Management of Acute Asthma
Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.
Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting betaâ‚‚-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 6
Correct
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During a routine General Practitioner (GP) clinic, a mother attends with her 8-year-old daughter who has worsening dry, itchy skin, mainly affecting the flexor surfaces, particularly on the legs. She has tried regular liberal use emollient cream with limited success.
What would be the most appropriate next step in the management of the child’s eczema?Your Answer: Prescribe hydrocortisone cream 1%
Explanation:Managing Eczema in Children: Treatment Options and Considerations
Eczema is a common condition in children that can be effectively managed with the right treatment approach. When a child presents with eczema symptoms, the first step is often to use emollient cream to moisturize the affected area. However, if the symptoms persist or worsen, a topical corticosteroid cream may be prescribed to help manage the flare-up. It is important to use this medication sparingly and in conjunction with emollients.
If the eczema symptoms continue to be troublesome despite these measures, it may be appropriate to refer the child to a dermatology clinic. However, it is important to note that oral corticosteroids should be used with caution in children and only under the direction of a dermatologist.
While emollient creams are often effective, in some cases, an emollient ointment may be more moisturizing and helpful. However, if the eczema flare-up is not resolving with emollients alone, a short course of topical corticosteroid is likely necessary.
Watchful waiting is not appropriate in this situation, as the child has already presented to the GP and symptoms are worsening despite reasonable management by the mother. By understanding the various treatment options and considerations for managing eczema in children, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 55-year-old man is referred to the Haematology Clinic under the 2-week-wait rule with significant fatigue and frequent infections over the past six months. His blood results confirm a diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) with a 17p chromosome deletion.
Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment?Your Answer: Acalabrutinib
Explanation:Treatment Options for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia (CLL)
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released new guidelines for managing newly diagnosed CLL in adults. Acalabrutinib is recommended as a monotherapy option if the patient has a 17p deletion or TP53 mutation, or if fludarabine plus cyclophosphamide and rituximab (FCR) or bendamustine plus rituximab (BR) are unsuitable. Prednisolone, a glucocorticoid commonly used in treating lymphoma, has no role in managing CLL. If there is no 17p deletion or TP53 mutation, FCR or BR would be the most appropriate first-line treatment. Conservative management is not recommended as the patient has developed signs of bone marrow dysfunction. Imatinib, the first-line treatment for CML, would not be useful for CLL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 8
Correct
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You are scheduled to evaluate a 56-year-old patient in clinic who was initiated on cholesterol treatment with ezetimibe during his last clinic visit.
Which of the following statements is accurate regarding ezetimibe?Your Answer: Its principal action is to reduce intestinal cholesterol absorption
Explanation:Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Ezetimibe: Effects on Cholesterol Absorption, Cytochrome P450 Enzyme System, and Drug Interactions
Ezetimibe is a medication commonly used to lower cholesterol levels in patients with primary cholesterolaemia. Its principal action is to reduce intestinal cholesterol absorption by selectively inhibiting the uptake of cholesterol through the Niemann-Pick C1-like 1 (NPC1L1) protein mediator on small intestine epithelial cells. This mechanism of action also reduces intracellular hepatic cholesterol levels, leading to an upregulation of hepatic low-density lipoprotein receptors (LDLRs) and ultimately lowering plasma cholesterol levels.
Unlike ion-exchange resins, ezetimibe does not decrease the absorption of anionic drugs or fat-soluble vitamins. Additionally, ezetimibe lacks inhibitor or inducer effects on cytochrome P450 isoenzymes, which explains its limited number of drug interactions. However, it is important to note that if used in combination with a statin, there is an increased risk of rhabdomyolysis, which is not seen in ezetimibe monotherapy.
Overall, while ezetimibe has a modest effect on lowering low-density lipoprotein (LDL)-cholesterol, it is most commonly used as an adjunct to dietary measures and statin treatment in primary cholesterolaemia. Understanding its mechanism of action and potential effects on drug interactions and vitamin absorption is crucial for safe and effective use in clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy presents to you with complaints of excessive sweating in his hands. He reports feeling embarrassed in social situations, particularly when he has to shake hands with someone. He is also concerned about how this may impact his upcoming A-level exams.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management approach for this condition?Your Answer: Aluminium chloride
Explanation:Hyperhidrosis is not treated with beta blockers like propranolol or calcium channel blockers like nifedipine.
Hyperhidrosis is a condition characterized by the excessive production of sweat. To manage this condition, there are several options available. The first-line treatment is the use of topical aluminium chloride preparations, although it may cause skin irritation as a side effect. Iontophoresis is another option that is particularly useful for patients with palmar, plantar, and axillary hyperhidrosis. Botulinum toxin is also licensed for axillary symptoms. Surgery, such as Endoscopic transthoracic sympathectomy, is another option, but patients should be informed of the risk of compensatory sweating. Overall, there are various management options available for hyperhidrosis, and patients should discuss with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old overweight man presents with worsening shortness of breath and leg swelling due to advanced heart failure. His kidney function is normal and his potassium level is 4.2 mmol/l. Which combination of medications would provide the greatest mortality benefit for him?
Your Answer: Ramipril, furosemide, bendroflumethiazide and atenolol
Correct Answer: Ramipril and bisoprolol
Explanation:There are several medications used to treat heart failure, including ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers, which have been shown to provide a mortality benefit. However, ACE inhibitors can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored closely when starting. If ACE inhibitors are not tolerated, angiotensin II receptor antagonists can be used instead. Atenolol is not recommended for use in heart failure, and agents typically used are bisoprolol, carvedilol, or metoprolol. Diuretics like furosemide and bendroflumethiazide provide symptom relief but do not improve mortality. When used together, they have a potent diuretic effect that may be required when patients accumulate fluid despite an adequate furosemide dose. However, this combination provides no long-term mortality benefit. It is important to note that decisions regarding medication management should be made by a specialist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 11
Correct
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A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a sharp, stabbing pain in his right cheekbone that has been ongoing for two weeks. He describes the pain as 'very severe' and 'coming in spasms', lasting for about a minute before subsiding. The pain is triggered by activities such as shaving and eating. Upon examination, there are no abnormalities found in his eyes, cranial nerves, or mouth. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia
Explanation:The pain experienced by this patient is indicative of trigeminal neuralgia, displaying typical characteristics.
Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia
Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.
Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.
The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of a pulsating headache and tenderness on palpation of the same area. He complains of pain in his jaw while eating.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Start oral steroids
Explanation:Management of Suspected Giant-Cell Arteritis
Giant-cell arteritis (GCA) is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible loss of vision. The following are the appropriate steps in managing a patient with suspected GCA:
Prompt Management of Suspected Giant-Cell Arteritis
1. Start oral steroids immediately: Delaying treatment can lead to vision loss. Steroids should be initiated even before the diagnosis is confirmed by temporal artery biopsy.
2. Admit and start on methotrexate if necessary: Patients on steroids are at high risk of side effects. Methotrexate or tocilizumab can be used in those who have steroid toxicity, along with tapering doses of steroids.
3. Arrange an urgent temporal artery biopsy: This is the gold-standard investigation for GCA. However, treatment should not be delayed till after the biopsy.
4. Do not refer to a rheumatologist on an outpatient basis: A rheumatologist will eventually be involved in the management of GCA, but immediate treatment is necessary.
5. Do not arrange an MRI scan of the brain: This is not indicated in the usual evaluation of GCA. It is used in specific cases of extracranial GCA or when there is strong clinical suspicion but a negative temporal artery biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of experiencing electric shock-like pains on the right side of her face for the past two months. She reports having 10-20 episodes per day, each lasting for 30-60 seconds. She recently had a dental check-up, which was normal. Upon neurological examination, no abnormalities were found. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Carbamazepine is the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia.
Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia
Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.
Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.
The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms of tingling and irritation in his mouth and throat on two or three occasions in the past year. Most recently, he suffered from swelling of his throat and difficulty breathing after receiving a local anaesthetic for tooth extraction at the dentist. He reports that his father died of a suspected allergic reaction when he was 42 years old.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 129 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.8 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 341 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 5 mm/hour 1–20 mm/hour
Patch testing Mild reaction to grass pollens
C4 Low
C3 Normal
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Acute allergic reaction to lidocaine
Correct Answer: Hereditary angio-oedema
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for this patient is hereditary angio-oedema, also known as hereditary angioneurotic oedema. This is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a congenital deficiency of the C1 inhibitor protein, which is mapped to chromosome 11. In some cases, C1 inhibitor levels are normal but have reduced function. Symptoms typically appear during adolescence and include recurrent attacks of pain, tingling, or itching, particularly around the mouth and pharynx, which may be triggered by increased circulating sex steroids or dental anaesthesia using lidocaine. Diagnosis is made by measuring complement levels, with C4 always low during attacks and often low in between, while C3 and C1q are always normal. Treatment involves using C1 inhibitor concentrate during acute attacks and danazol to increase C4 levels and reduce the frequency and severity of attacks. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated due to the risk of bradykinin accumulation. Acquired angio-oedema, which is caused by an acquired C1 inhibitor deficiency and is associated with lymphoproliferative disorders, is a different condition. Protein C deficiency is a genetic prothrombotic condition that does not explain this patient’s symptoms, and somatisation disorder is unlikely given the clear test abnormalities related to the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man is scheduled for a follow-up after a positive faecal occult blood test as part of the national screening programme. While discussing colonoscopy, he inquires about the percentage of patients with a positive faecal occult blood test who have colorectal cancer. What is the most precise response?
Your Answer: 30 - 50%
Correct Answer: 5 - 15%
Explanation:The likelihood of having an adenoma increases with a positive result on a faecal occult blood test.
Colorectal Cancer Screening: Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this type of cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS offers a home-based screening programme called Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) to older adults. A one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England for people aged 55 years, but it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. The trial, partly funded by Cancer Research UK, showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used as part of a future bowel screening programme.
Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS now has a national screening programme that offers screening every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests because it only detects human haemoglobin, as opposed to animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. While a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy. At colonoscopy, approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 16
Correct
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A woman in her early 50s with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with right foot drop and numbness in her right hand, with thenar eminence wasting and sensory loss over the radial half of her hand.
Which of the following is the most likely cause for her symptoms?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate cause from the list below.Your Answer: Mononeuritis multiplex
Explanation:Neuropathies: Causes and Symptoms
Neuropathies are a group of disorders that affect the peripheral nervous system. Here are some common causes and symptoms of different types of neuropathies:
Mononeuritis Multiplex:
This neuropathy affects two or more non-anatomically related peripheral nerves. It is caused by vasculopathy of the vasa nervorum or infiltration of the nerves. Common causes include diabetes mellitus, leprosy, polyarteritis nodosa, and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms include multiple concurrent peripheral nerve lesions without pain or paraesthesiae.Peripheral Sensory Neuropathy:
This neuropathy is most commonly caused by diabetes mellitus (types 1 and 2) in the United Kingdom. It affects the sensory nerves and does not involve motor functions. Symptoms include aching pain, paraesthesiae, sensory loss, and muscle wasting.Entrapment Neuropathy:
This neuropathy is caused by compression of peripheral nerves due to hypertrophied synovium or joint subluxation. It usually affects only one part of the body. The most common nerve compressions are cubital tunnel and carpal tunnel syndromes. Symptoms include aching pain, paraesthesiae, sensory loss, and muscle wasting.Myasthenia Gravis (MG):
This autoimmune disorder affects the neuromuscular junction and causes fatigability of the muscle. It commonly affects the extraocular, bulbar, face, and neck muscles. Symptoms do not include pain or sensory loss, and wasting is only seen very late in the disease.Multiple Sclerosis:
This autoimmune disorder affects the central nervous system and causes spasticity, ataxia, and paraesthesiae in the affected limbs. It commonly affects the optic nerve, causing optic neuritis. Peripheral nerve involvement is not seen. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl has been found to be regularly skipping school, frequently arguing with other students and has been caught smoking on several occasions. Her general practitioner suspects a diagnosis of conduct disorder. She has already been diagnosed with anxiety disorder. She is not currently on any medications.
Given the new suspected diagnosis of conduct disorder, what is the most appropriate initial management option for this patient?Your Answer: Refer for cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Management of Conduct Disorder: Interventions and Referrals
Conduct disorder is a psychiatric condition characterized by persistent patterns of aggressive and antisocial behavior. The management of conduct disorder involves a combination of pharmacological and psychosocial interventions. Here are some of the key interventions and referrals for managing conduct disorder:
Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT): CBT techniques are used as part of the psychosocial interventions for conduct disorder. These techniques are considered as part of the first-line management of conduct disorder.
Methylphenidate: Methylphenidate is a medication that is used in the treatment of ADHD, which is often a coexisting condition with conduct disorder. This medication should only be initiated and coordinated by a specialist in secondary care (such as CAMHS).
Antidepressant Medications: Antidepressant medications should not be the first line in the management of conduct disorder, particularly with no coexisting health conditions. If there were depressive symptoms, these medications could be considered but are generally avoided in this age group.
Psychosocial Interventions: Psychosocial interventions are important in the management of conduct disorder. These include child-focussed programmes, multimodal interventions and parent training programmes. These interventions would be considered first-line management for conduct disorder if there was not the co-existing complicating factor of ADHD.
Referral to Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS): Patients presenting with symptoms of conduct disorder with a significant complicating factor should be referred to CAMHS for specialist assessment. These factors include mental health problems, neurodevelopmental disorder, learning disability or difficulty, and substance misuse. However, if the patient has already been referred to CAMHS, re-referral would not be necessary.
Managing Conduct Disorder: Interventions and Referrals
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 70 year-old male patient complains of leg weakness and exhibits purple plaques on the dorsum of the hands. You suspect dermatomyositis. What underlying condition should be considered, as it is associated with dermatomyositis?
Your Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis
Correct Answer: Internal malignancy
Explanation:Dermatomyositis primarily results from an autoimmune disorder and is prevalent among women aged 50-70. Nevertheless, it can also be a paraneoplastic ailment, with ovarian, breast, and lung cancers being the most frequent underlying malignancies. It is crucial to contemplate the likelihood of an underlying tumor, particularly in elderly patients.
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.
The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilatation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.
Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 19
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman with a 4-month-old baby expresses concern that her friend's baby had a hip ultrasound but her own child has not. You inform her that hip ultrasounds are only offered to babies with certain risk factors for hip dysplasia.
What is one of the risk factors for hip dysplasia?Your Answer: Breech presentation
Explanation:Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is more likely to occur in newborns who were in a breech presentation during pregnancy, as well as those with a family history of hip problems in early life. To screen for DDH, ultrasound is performed at 6 weeks of age for infants with these risk factors. Additionally, infants who test positive for the Barlow or Ortolani test are also sent for a hip ultrasound to check for DDH.
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 67-year-old man with worsening dyspnea is suspected to have idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. What is the preferred diagnostic test to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: High-resolution CT scan
Explanation:Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.
The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.
Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.
The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 21
Correct
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A 3-year-old boy is taken to his pediatrician by his father due to constant scratching of his bottom at night. The father reports observing some unusual white particles when cleaning his son's bottom after a bowel movement. What would be the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Prescribe a single dose of mebendazole for the whole household and issue hygiene advice.
Explanation:Threadworm Infestation in Children
Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.
The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Correct
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A 30-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle collision where he was the driver. A lorry in front lost control and caused significant damage to his car, resulting in the dashboard and footwell being pushed forward. The patient is currently stable but complains of severe pain in his right leg. Upon examination, his right leg is internally rotated, slightly flexed, adducted, and shortened compared to the left. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Posterior hip dislocation
Explanation:When a person has a posterior hip dislocation, their leg will appear shortened and internally rotated. This type of injury often occurs during car accidents, especially when the driver slams on the brakes to avoid a collision. The impact from the front of the car is then transferred through the leg to the hip joint, causing the femoral head to move behind the acetabulum. Pelvic fractures, on the other hand, typically cause pain when walking or touching the area, as well as instability, nerve or blood vessel damage in the leg, and signs of injury to pelvic organs such as bleeding from the rectum or blood in the urine. Anterior hip dislocations are less common than posterior ones, but they can cause the leg to appear abducted and externally rotated, with a noticeable bulge in the femoral head. These types of dislocations are often associated with hip prostheses. Finally, femoral shaft fractures can cause swelling, deformity, and shortening of the leg. Because such fractures require a significant amount of force to occur, there is usually also damage to the surrounding soft tissues and bleeding.
Understanding Hip Dislocation: Types, Management, and Complications
Hip dislocation is a painful condition that occurs when the ball and socket joint of the hip are separated. This is usually caused by direct trauma, such as road traffic accidents or falls from a significant height. The force required to cause hip dislocation can also result in other fractures and life-threatening injuries. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to reduce morbidity.
There are three types of hip dislocation: posterior, anterior, and central. Posterior dislocation is the most common, accounting for 90% of cases. It causes the affected leg to be shortened, adducted, and internally rotated. On the other hand, anterior dislocation results in abduction and external rotation of the affected leg, with no leg shortening. Central dislocation is rare and occurs when the femoral head is displaced in all directions.
The management of hip dislocation follows the ABCDE approach, which includes ensuring airway, breathing, circulation, disability, and exposure. Analgesia is also given to manage the pain. A reduction under general anaesthetic is performed within four hours to reduce the risk of avascular necrosis. Long-term management involves physiotherapy to strengthen the surrounding muscles.
Complications of hip dislocation include nerve injury, avascular necrosis, osteoarthritis, and recurrent dislocation due to damage to supporting ligaments. The prognosis is best when the hip is reduced less than 12 hours post-injury and when there is less damage to the joint. It takes about two to three months for the hip to heal after a traumatic dislocation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 23
Correct
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At the 4-month check, you observe bilateral hydroceles in a male infant. The swelling is limited to the scrotum and the testis can be felt in the scrotal sac. The infant is otherwise healthy and thriving. The mother expresses concern about the potential impact of the swelling on her son's fertility.
What is the best course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer: Reassure mum that hydroceles are common in infants and often self resolve
Explanation:It is common for newborn males to have communicating hydroceles, which usually resolve on their own. This is due to the processus vaginalis remaining open. Parents should be reassured that the hydroceles typically disappear within a few months. However, if the hydrocele persists beyond one year, it is recommended to refer the child to a urologist for possible repair. Ultrasound is not necessary to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that hydroceles do not impact fertility, but undescended testes can affect fertility if not treated.
Common Scrotal Problems and Their Features
Epididymal cysts, hydroceles, and varicoceles are the most common scrotal problems seen in primary care. Epididymal cysts are usually found posterior to the testicle and are separate from the body of the testicle. They may be associated with conditions such as polycystic kidney disease, cystic fibrosis, and von Hippel-Lindau syndrome. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound, and management is usually supportive, although surgical removal or sclerotherapy may be attempted for larger or symptomatic cysts.
Hydroceles, on the other hand, describe the accumulation of fluid within the tunica vaginalis. They may be communicating or non-communicating, and may develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors. Hydroceles are usually soft, non-tender swellings of the hemi-scrotum that transilluminate with a pen torch. Diagnosis may be clinical, but ultrasound is required if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated. Management depends on the severity of the presentation, with infantile hydroceles generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years.
Varicoceles, on the other hand, are abnormal enlargements of the testicular veins that are usually asymptomatic but may be associated with subfertility. They are much more common on the left side and are classically described as a bag of worms. Diagnosis is confirmed by ultrasound with Doppler studies, and management is usually conservative, although surgery may be required if the patient is troubled by pain. There is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery to treat infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe chest pain that radiates to his left arm, accompanied by nausea and sweating. His ECG reveals widespread ST depression with T wave inversion, and his blood tests show a haemoglobin level of 75g/L. What is the appropriate treatment for his anaemia?
Your Answer: Transfusion of packed red cells
Explanation:For patients with ACS, the recommended transfusion threshold is a haemoglobin level of 80 g/L. In this case, the patient is presenting with symptoms of ACS and his ECG confirms this. However, his haemoglobin level is below the threshold, indicating severe anaemia. Therefore, an immediate transfusion is necessary to alleviate the anaemia. Anaemia can exacerbate ischaemia in ACS, leading to increased strain on the heart and reduced oxygen supply. The guidelines suggest aiming for a haemoglobin concentration of 80-100 g/L after transfusion. Oral or IV iron would not provide immediate relief, and IV Hartmann’s solution is not a suitable treatment for anaemia and would not address the underlying issue. This highlights the importance of prompt and appropriate treatment for patients with ACS. This information is based on the NICE guideline [NG24].
Guidelines for Red Blood Cell Transfusion
In 2015, NICE released guidelines for the use of blood products, specifically red blood cells. These guidelines recommend different transfusion thresholds for patients with and without acute coronary syndrome (ACS). For patients without ACS, the transfusion threshold is 70 g/L, while for those with ACS, it is 80 g/L. The target hemoglobin level after transfusion is 70-90 g/L for patients without ACS and 80-100 g/L for those with ACS. It is important to note that these thresholds should not be used for patients with ongoing major hemorrhage or those who require regular blood transfusions for chronic anemia.
When administering red blood cells, it is crucial to store them at 4°C prior to infusion. In non-urgent scenarios, a unit of RBC is typically transfused over a period of 90-120 minutes. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that red blood cell transfusions are administered safely and effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a cat bite on her hand while house-sitting for her neighbor. She complains of mild pain and swelling around the bite but denies having a fever. Upon examination, there is a small puncture wound on the palm of her left hand with mild erythema around it, but no visible purulent discharge. What is the best course of treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Metronidazole
Correct Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Explanation:When a patient suffers an animal bite, it is likely that the wound will be infected with multiple types of bacteria. The most frequently identified bacteria in cultures from animal bites is Pasteurella multocida. To prevent infection, it is important to clean the wound thoroughly and provide the patient with tetanus and antibiotics. According to NICE guidelines, co-amoxiclav is the preferred antibiotic as it effectively targets the bacteria commonly found in animal bites.
Animal and Human Bites: Causes and Management
Animal and human bites are common injuries that can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Dogs and cats are the most common animals involved in bites, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria, including Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella.
To manage animal and human bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured closed unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation for treatment is co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended. It is also important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C in human bites.
In summary, animal and human bites can lead to infections caused by various microorganisms. Proper wound cleansing and appropriate antibiotic treatment are essential in managing these injuries. Additionally, healthcare providers should consider the risk of viral infections in human bites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 26
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of weight gain and irregular menstrual cycles. She reports feeling weak and depressed. During the examination, the doctor notices multiple purplish striae on her abdomen and bruises on her lower extremities. Laboratory tests show normal thyroid hormone levels and TSH, but elevated cortisol secretion. If the patient has adrenal hyperfunction, what other symptom may also be present?
Your Answer: Hirsutism
Explanation:Effects of Cortisol on the Body: Misconceptions and Clarifications
Cortisol, a hormone produced by the adrenal glands, plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions. However, there are some misconceptions about the effects of cortisol on the body. Here are some clarifications:
Hirsutism: Elevated cortisol levels can cause a condition called Cushingoid, which may result in hirsutism in women. This is characterized by excessive hair growth in areas such as the face, chest, and back.
Hypoglycemia: Contrary to popular belief, cortisol does not cause hypoglycemia. Instead, it increases gluconeogenesis (the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources) and reduces glucose uptake in peripheral tissues, resulting in hyperglycemia.
Enhanced glucose uptake: Cortisol actually has the opposite effect on glucose uptake. It reduces the uptake of glucose into peripheral tissues and accelerates gluconeogenesis.
Hypotension: Patients with adrenal hyperfunction (excessive cortisol production) often suffer from hypertension (high blood pressure), not hypotension (low blood pressure). This is because excessive mineralocorticoids are released, which can cause fluid retention and increase blood pressure.
Hypocalciuria: Cortisol can lead to osteopenia and osteoporosis by increasing bone breakdown. This may result in hypercalcemia (high levels of calcium in the blood), which can cause hypercalciuria (excessive calcium in the urine), not hypocalciuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 27
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman has been referred by her doctor for thyrotoxicosis treatment. After discussing the available options, she chooses to undergo radioiodine therapy. What is the most probable side effect of this treatment?
Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Thyroid eye disease can be triggered by radioiodine therapy, as has been extensively recorded, but most patients will ultimately need to undergo thyroxine replacement.
Management of Graves’ Disease
Despite numerous attempts, there is no clear consensus on the best way to manage Graves’ disease. The available treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients who have significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those who are at a high risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.
To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If a patient’s symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.
ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, known as block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.
Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. However, it is contraindicated in pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and in patients under the age of 16. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 28
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of persistent fatigue that has been ongoing for years. She reports that her fatigue has worsened in the past month and has prevented her from going to work. Despite conducting a thorough tiredness screen, all results have come back negative. The patient has been researching online and asks if you think she may have fibromyalgia or chronic fatigue syndrome. What is the minimum duration of symptoms required for a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome?
Your Answer: 4 months
Explanation:Before diagnosing chronic fatigue syndrome, other potential causes of fatigue must be ruled out through a comprehensive tiredness screen. This should include blood tests such as FBC, ESR/CRP, U&E, Cr, and eGFR, LFTs and Ca2+, TFTs, random blood glucose, anti-endomysial antibody test (to exclude coeliac disease), CK, and ferritin.
Understanding Chronic Fatigue Syndrome
Chronic fatigue syndrome is a condition that is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue that affects mental and physical function more than 50% of the time, in the absence of other diseases that may explain the symptoms. It is more common in females, and past psychiatric history has not been shown to be a risk factor. The central feature of chronic fatigue syndrome is fatigue, but other recognized features include sleep problems, muscle and joint pains, headaches, painful lymph nodes without enlargement, sore throat, cognitive dysfunction, physical or mental exertion that makes symptoms worse, general malaise or ‘flu-like’ symptoms, dizziness, nausea, and palpitations.
To diagnose chronic fatigue syndrome, a large number of screening blood tests are carried out to exclude other pathology, such as FBC, U&E, LFT, glucose, TFT, ESR, CRP, calcium, CK, ferritin, coeliac screening, and urinalysis. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, graded exercise therapy, pacing, low-dose amitriptyline for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic if pain is a predominant feature. Cognitive behavior therapy is very effective, with a number needed to treat of 2. Graded exercise therapy is a formal supervised program, not advice to go to the gym. Pacing involves organizing activities to avoid tiring. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.
In summary, chronic fatigue syndrome is a debilitating condition that affects both mental and physical function. It is more common in females and is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, graded exercise therapy, pacing, low-dose amitriptyline for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic if pain is a predominant feature. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 29
Correct
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A 48-year-old man comes back to the clinic for a blood pressure check following an increase in his ramipril dosage. During the check, his blood pressure is recorded as 152/96 mmHg, and he reports getting similar readings on his home monitor. Which medication would be the most suitable to initiate for this patient?
Your Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:If a patient in this age group has poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor (or angiotensin II receptor blocker), the next step is to consider adding a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this case, adding a calcium channel blocker would be the appropriate choice. Beta blockers are not recommended in the NICE guidelines for hypertension management. While a thiazide-like diuretic could also be an option, furosemide, a loop diuretic, is not suitable. It is important to note that adding another ACE inhibitor is not recommended since the patient is already taking one.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 30
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman presents to the Memory Clinic with a 9-month history of cognitive decline. Her daughter mentions that she has difficulty remembering basic tasks and is becoming more confused and forgetful than usual. Her daughter noticed a change in her personality and has caught her leaving the stove on and wandering outside alone on multiple occasions.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in this patient’s management?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
Your Answer: Stop drugs that may be exacerbating memory problems or confusion (anticholinergics, central nervous system drugs)
Explanation:Managing Frontotemporal Dementia: Treatment Options and Referrals
Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects behavior, language, and executive function. While there is no cure for FTD, management strategies can help alleviate symptoms and provide support for patients and their families.
One important step in managing FTD is to stop any drugs that may be exacerbating memory problems or confusion, such as anticholinergics or central nervous system drugs. Multidisciplinary health and social care is also crucial, involving referrals to geriatric medicine, psychiatry, psychology, social work, occupational therapy, speech and language therapy, physiotherapy, and community nursing.
However, certain treatment options should be avoided or used with caution in FTD patients. Benzodiazepines, for example, are associated with cognitive worsening and fall-related injuries. Anticholinesterase inhibitors, typically used in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease, have shown disappointing results in FTD patients who do not have cholinergic loss. Memantine, used in moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease, has not been shown to be effective in FTD and may even have a detrimental effect on cognition in some individuals.
Antipsychotics should only be used cautiously and when other options have failed, as FTD patients are at higher risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Overall, a personalized and coordinated approach to FTD management is essential for optimizing patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 31
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman with age-related macular degeneration (AMD) presented to the emergency department with a painless bloodshot right eye. She was very worried about her condition. The previous day, she had received an intravitreal injection for the treatment of AMD. Upon examination, her visual acuity had not decreased further, but there was bleeding under the conjunctiva around the injection site. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Subconjunctival haemorrhage
Explanation:It is important to inform patients about the possibility of developing subconjunctival haemorrhage after receiving intravitreal injections, as it is a common iatrogenic complication. This condition causes a red eye but is not painful and typically resolves within a couple of weeks.
Understanding Subconjunctival Haemorrhage
Subconjunctival haemorrhage occurs when blood vessels bleed into the subconjunctival space, usually those that supply the conjunctiva or episclera. Trauma is the most common cause, followed by spontaneous idiopathic cases, Valsalva manoeuvres, and several systemic diseases. Although subconjunctival haemorrhages can look alarming, they are rarely an indicator of anything sinister.
Subconjunctival haemorrhages are more common in women than in men when there has been no history of trauma. The annual incidence of non-traumatic subconjunctival haemorrhages is 0.6%, and the risk increases with age as the risk factors are more common in elderly patients. Newborns are also more susceptible. The incidence of both traumatic and non-traumatic subconjunctival haemorrhages is 2.6%.
The most common causes of subconjunctival haemorrhages are trauma and contact lens usage, which are often the sole risk factor in younger patients. Other risk factors include idiopathic causes, Valsalva manoeuvre, hypertension, bleeding disorders, drugs such as aspirin, NSAIDs and anticoagulants, diabetes, arterial disease, and hyperlipidaemia.
Subconjunctival haemorrhages are mostly asymptomatic, but patients may experience mild irritation. The main sign is a flat, red patch on the conjunctiva with well-defined edges and normal conjunctiva surrounding it. Traumatic haemorrhages are most common in the temporal region, with the inferior conjunctiva as the next most commonly affected area. Vision should be normal, including acuity, visual fields, and range of eye movements. On examination, the fundus should be normal.
The diagnosis of a subconjunctival haemorrhage is a clinical one. If there is no obvious traumatic cause, check the patient’s blood pressure. If raised, refer the patient appropriately. If the patient is taking warfarin, check the INR. If raised, refer for appropriate adjustments to the dose to bring the INR back into the target range. Recurrent or spontaneous, bilateral subconjunctival haemorrhages warrant investigations for bleeding disorders or other pathology.
Reassure the patient that subconjunctival haemorrhage is a benign condition that will resolve on its own in 2 to
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a history of worsening painless muscle weakness of six months’ duration. She reports difficulty rising from a chair, climbing stairs, and combing her hair. On examination, mild tenderness is noted in her upper arms and thighs. Her thyroid function tests, full blood count, and glycosylated haemoglobin are normal. Serum antinuclear antibodies (ANAs) and rheumatoid factor (RF) are positive, and her creatine kinase (CK) is markedly raised. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Correct Answer: Polymyositis
Explanation:Autoimmune Conditions: Differentiating Polymyositis from Other Disorders
Polymyositis is an inflammatory myopathy that causes gradual, symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, which is rarely painful. However, other autoimmune conditions can present with similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate between them. Here are some key differences:
Systemic sclerosis: This condition causes abnormal growth of connective tissue, leading to vascular damage and fibrosis. Proximal muscle weakness is not a feature of systemic sclerosis, but patients may experience calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia.
Polymyalgia rheumatica: This inflammatory condition causes bilateral pain and stiffness of proximal muscles, particularly the shoulders and pelvic girdle. However, painless proximal muscle weakness is not typical of polymyalgia rheumatica, and positive RF or ANA are not seen in this condition.
Sjögren syndrome: This autoimmune condition is characterized by lymphocytic infiltration of exocrine glands, leading to dry eyes and dry mouth. While ANAs and RF may be positive in this condition, proximal myopathy is not a feature.
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE): This multi-system autoimmune condition usually presents in women of childbearing age with remitting and relapsing symptoms. While ANA antibodies are often positive in SLE, CK is not usually raised, and painless proximal muscle weakness is not typical. The presence of anti-double-stranded deoxyribonucleic acid antibodies or low complement levels are more specific markers of SLE.
In summary, while these autoimmune conditions may share some symptoms, careful evaluation can help differentiate between them and lead to appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 33
Correct
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A 67-year-old man with a history of primary open-angle glaucoma presents with sudden painless loss of vision in his left eye. Upon examination of the left eye, there are multiple flame-shaped and blot haemorrhages with a swollen optic disc. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Occlusion of central retinal vein
Explanation:Sudden painless vision loss and severe retinal hemorrhages observed on fundoscopy are indicative of central retinal vein occlusion.
Understanding Central Retinal Vein Occlusion
Central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) is a possible cause of sudden, painless loss of vision. It is more common in older individuals and those with hypertension, cardiovascular disease, glaucoma, or polycythemia. The condition is characterized by a sudden reduction or loss of visual acuity, usually affecting only one eye. Fundoscopy reveals widespread hyperemia and severe retinal hemorrhages, which are often described as a stormy sunset.
Branch retinal vein occlusion (BRVO) is a similar condition that affects a smaller area of the fundus. It occurs when a vein in the distal retinal venous system is blocked, usually at arteriovenous crossings.
Most patients with CRVO are managed conservatively, but treatment may be necessary in some cases. For instance, intravitreal anti-vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) agents may be used to manage macular edema, while laser photocoagulation may be necessary to treat retinal neovascularization.
Overall, understanding the risk factors, features, and management options for CRVO is essential for prompt diagnosis and appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent further vision loss and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old para 2, gravida 3 is in labour in the delivery ward. The labour is progressing normally until the midwife calls the obstetrician to assess the patient. The cervix is dilated to 6 cm, and the baby's position is 2 cm above the ischial spine. The cardiotocography shows a slow but steady heartbeat. The obstetrician decides to perform an emergency category 2 caesarian section. What is the maximum time allowed between this decision and the delivery of the baby, given the indication?
Your Answer: 30 minutes
Correct Answer: 75 minutes
Explanation:Category 2 caesarean sections should be performed within 75 minutes of the decision being made. This is because these cases involve maternal or fetal compromise that is not immediately life-threatening, allowing the medical team to manage the emergency and plan the surgery to minimize risks to both the mother and the baby. A timeframe of 2 hours is incorrect as it would delay the necessary intervention. On the other hand, a timeframe of 30 minutes is only applicable to category 1 caesarean sections, where there is an immediate threat to the life of the mother or baby. A timeframe of 5 minutes is too short and may increase the risk of errors during the procedure.
Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks
Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.
C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.
It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.
Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 35
Correct
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A 29-year-old man who has recently arrived in the UK from Uganda visits the clinic with complaints of exhaustion and purple skin lesions all over his body. During the examination, you observe multiple raised purple lesions on his trunk and arms. Additionally, you notice some smaller purple lesions in his mouth. He has recently initiated acyclovir treatment for herpes zoster infection. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma
Explanation:The presence of raised purple lesions is a typical indication of Kaposi’s sarcoma, which may suggest that the patient has an underlying HIV infection. Given the high prevalence of HIV in Uganda and the recent occurrence of herpes zoster, it is possible that the patient’s immune system is compromised. Dermatofibromas, which are typically small and firm, would not be found in the mouth, while psoriasis is characterized by red, scaly lesions that do not appear on mucosal surfaces. A drug reaction is an unlikely explanation for the patient’s symptoms. Although a haemangioma can present as a purple raised lesion, it is uncommon to find them in the mouth, and Kaposi’s sarcoma is a more likely diagnosis in this case.
Kaposi’s Sarcoma in HIV Patients
Kaposi’s sarcoma is a type of cancer that is commonly seen in patients with HIV. It is caused by the human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8) and is characterized by the appearance of purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa. These lesions may later ulcerate, causing discomfort and pain. In some cases, respiratory involvement may occur, leading to massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion.
Treatment for Kaposi’s sarcoma typically involves a combination of radiotherapy and resection. This can help to reduce the size of the lesions and prevent further spread of the cancer. However, it is important to note that Kaposi’s sarcoma can be a serious and potentially life-threatening condition, particularly in patients with HIV. As such, it is important for individuals with HIV to be regularly screened for this condition and to seek prompt medical attention if any symptoms are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 36
Correct
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A floppy four-week-old neonate presents with vomiting, weight loss and circulatory collapse. Blood tests demonstrate hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. Further tests confirm metabolic acidosis and hypoglycaemia. The paediatrician notices that the penis was enlarged and the scrotum pigmented. The child was treated with both a glucocorticoid and a mineralocorticoid.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Endocrine Disorders: Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, Conn Syndrome, Addisonian Crisis, Cushing Syndrome, and Thyrotoxic Crisis
Endocrine disorders are conditions that affect the production and regulation of hormones in the body. Here are five different endocrine disorders and their characteristics:
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH) is a group of autosomal recessive conditions caused by mutations in the enzymes involved in the production of steroids and hormones from the adrenal glands. It can affect both men and women equally, and symptoms include ambiguous genitalia at birth for women and hyperpigmentation and penile enlargement for men. Treatment involves hormone replacement therapy.
Conn Syndrome is a condition associated with primary hyperaldosteronism, which presents with hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia. It is more commonly seen in adult patients, but there are cases reported in childhood.
Addisonian Crisis occurs due to glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid deficiency, usually occurring in adulthood. It is a potentially fatal episode that presents with hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, hypoglycaemia, and hypercalcaemia. Urgent intravenous administration of glucocorticoids is necessary for management.
Cushing Syndrome is due to cortisol excess, either exogenous or endogenous, and is usually diagnosed in adulthood. Symptoms include weight gain, hypertension, oedema, hyperglycaemia, hypokalaemia, and pigmentation of the skin in the axillae and neck.
Thyrotoxic Crisis, also known as a thyroid storm, is a life-threatening condition associated with excessive production of thyroid hormones. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed hyperthyroidism in neonates and children. Symptoms include tachycardia, hypertension, fever, poor feeding, weight loss, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, seizures, and coma. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent acute congestive heart failure, shock, and death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 37
Correct
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You are conducting a medication review on an 80-year-old man who is taking aspirin, verapamil, allopurinol, and co-codamol. Which medication should be avoided if prescribed concurrently with the current medications?
Your Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:The combination of beta-blockers and verapamil has the potential to cause severe bradycardia and asystole.
Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence. Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed and is lipid soluble, allowing it to cross the blood-brain barrier.
Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects, including bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. They are contraindicated in uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which may precipitate severe bradycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 38
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents with complaints of hot flashes that occur randomly and are affecting her work as a lawyer, especially during court sessions. She is hesitant to try hormone replacement therapy due to its side effects and is seeking alternative options. What medication can be prescribed to alleviate her symptoms?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, women experiencing vasomotor symptoms during menopause can be prescribed fluoxetine, a selective serotonin uptake inhibitor (SSRI). While clonidine is also approved for treating these symptoms, its effectiveness is not well-established and it can cause side effects such as dry mouth, sedation, depression, and fluid retention. Gabapentin is being studied for its potential to reduce hot flushes, but more research is needed.
Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, Hormone Replacement Therapy, and Non-Hormone Replacement Therapy
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 consecutive months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for up to 7 years, with varying degrees of severity and duration. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.
Lifestyle modifications can help manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended. For women who cannot or do not want to take HRT, non-hormonal treatments such as fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturizers for vaginal dryness, and cognitive behavior therapy or antidepressants for psychological symptoms can be prescribed.
HRT is a treatment option for women with moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. However, it is contraindicated in women with current or past breast cancer, any estrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia. HRT brings certain risks, including venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. Women should be advised of these risks and the fact that symptoms typically last for 2-5 years.
When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence of symptoms in the short term. However, in the long term, there is no difference in symptom control. Women who experience ineffective treatment, ongoing side effects, or unexplained bleeding should be referred to secondary care. Overall, managing menopause requires a personalized approach that takes into account a woman’s medical history, preferences, and individual symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 39
Correct
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A 26-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a firm, round swelling over the angle of his jaw that has been growing for two years. The patient is having difficulty shaving his beard due to the size of the swelling. The GP suspects a sebaceous cyst and the patient is eager for treatment to alleviate his symptoms. What is the best course of action to prevent further discomfort?
Your Answer: Surgical excision
Explanation:To prevent the sebaceous cyst from recurring, it is necessary to surgically remove the entire structure. This can be done by a general practitioner or a surgical team, but funding for the procedure may be limited due to its lower clinical priority. Patients may opt to have the surgery done privately. Incision and drainage or fine needle aspiration may provide temporary relief, but the cyst is likely to return. Intralesional steroids are not recommended in this case, as there is no infection present. Oral antibiotics are also unnecessary. Complete surgical excision offers the best chance for long-term resolution of the patient’s symptoms.
Understanding Sebaceous Cysts
Sebaceous cysts refer to a group of cysts that include both epidermoid and pilar cysts. However, the term is not entirely accurate and should be avoided if possible. Epidermoid cysts occur when there is an overgrowth of epidermal cells in the dermis, while pilar cysts, also known as trichilemmal cysts or wen, originate from the outer root sheath of the hair follicle. These cysts can appear anywhere on the body, but are most commonly found on the scalp, ears, back, face, and upper arm, and will typically have a punctum.
To prevent recurrence, it is essential to remove the entire cyst wall during excision. While sebaceous cysts are generally harmless, they can become infected and cause discomfort or pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male presents to his GP with a 6-month history of progressive shortness of breath. He is now needing to stop a few times on the way to the grocery store to catch his breath, which is not normal for him. He smokes 20 cigarettes a day and has done so for the past 45 years, and drinks no alcohol. His only medication is atorvastatin.
On examination, there is a bilateral wheeze and coarse crackles at the lung bases. A chest x-ray is ordered by the GP which shows flattening of the diaphragm bilaterally, but is otherwise normal. Spirometry is carried out, with the following results:
Result Reference Range
FEV1 (of predicted) 72% >80%
FEV1:FVC 0.62 >0.7
What is the most appropriate management for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Salmeterol
Correct Answer: Ipratropium
Explanation:The patient’s history, examination, and obstructive spirometry results suggest that he has COPD, likely due to his smoking history. Malignancy has been ruled out by the chest x-ray. As per NICE guidelines, the first-line pharmacological treatment for COPD is either a SABA or SAMA to alleviate breathlessness and improve exercise tolerance. Ipratropium, a SAMA, is the most suitable option for this patient. Beclomethasone, an inhaled corticosteroid, is used as a second-line treatment with a LABA for those with asthmatic features or steroid responsiveness. Montelukast, a LTRA, is used as a third-line treatment in asthmatic patients, while Salmeterol, a LABA, is used as a second-line treatment in COPD patients.
NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 41
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents to you with a complaint of unintentional urine leakage when she coughs for the past year. She denies any urgency to urinate. Despite trying various measures such as reducing caffeine intake, performing pelvic floor exercises, and achieving a BMI of 23 kg/m² from 29kg/m², she has only experienced minimal relief. She is hesitant to undergo surgery and is interested in exploring medication or other options. What medication is approved for treating stress incontinence?
Your Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:Stress incontinence is characterized by the involuntary release of urine during physical activity, coughing, or sneezing. Diagnosis is based on symptoms, and keeping a bladder diary can aid in evaluating the severity of the condition. Lifestyle changes, such as reducing caffeine intake, losing weight, and limiting fluid consumption, are recommended. Pelvic floor exercises should also be suggested. If symptoms persist despite these measures, surgery may be an option. If surgery is not feasible or desired, duloxetine, a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), may be prescribed. A ring pessary is not an effective treatment for stress incontinence, as it is used to address vaginal prolapse.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 42
Correct
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A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. He has a medical history of COPD and is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day. Upon arrival, his vital signs are as follows: temperature of 37ºC, heart rate of 128/min, respiratory rate of 27/min, blood pressure of 80/43 mmHg, and GCS of 15. Physical examination reveals tenderness and bruising on the right side of his chest, but chest movements are equal. His neck veins are distended but do not change with breathing, and his trachea is central with distant and quiet heart sounds. Additionally, he has cuts and grazes on his hands and legs.
What is the appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Pericardial needle aspiration
Explanation:If a patient with chest wall trauma presents with elevated JVP, persistent hypotension, and tachycardia despite fluid resuscitation, cardiac tamponade should be considered. In such cases, pericardial needle aspiration is the correct course of action. Beck’s triad, which includes hypotension, muffled (distant) heart sounds, and elevated JVP, is a characteristic feature of cardiac tamponade. Urgent aspiration of the pericardium is necessary to prevent further haemodynamic compromise and save the patient’s life. Although the patient may have associated rib fractures, managing the cardiac tamponade should take priority as it poses the greatest threat in this scenario. CT scan of the chest, chest drain insertion into the triangle of safety, and needle decompression 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line are not appropriate management options in this case.
Cardiac tamponade is a condition where there is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac, which puts pressure on the heart. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including hypotension, raised JVP, muffled heart sounds, dyspnoea, tachycardia, and pulsus paradoxus. One of the key features of cardiac tamponade is the absence of a Y descent on the JVP, which is due to limited right ventricular filling. Other diagnostic criteria include Kussmaul’s sign and electrical alternans on an ECG. Constrictive pericarditis is a similar condition, but it can be distinguished from cardiac tamponade by the presence of an X and Y descent on the JVP, the absence of pulsus paradoxus, and the presence of pericardial calcification on a chest X-ray. The management of cardiac tamponade involves urgent pericardiocentesis to relieve the pressure on the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of difficulty with fine movements in her hands. She reports that her hands become pale and numb when exposed to cold temperatures. Upon examination, the GP observes thickening and tightening of the skin over the patient's hands. What other symptom would indicate a possible diagnosis of limited systemic sclerosis?
Your Answer: Skin thickening over the trunk
Correct Answer: Heartburn
Explanation:CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia. If a patient experiences heartburn, it may indicate oesophageal dysmotility, which is a feature of CREST syndrome. However, dry eyes are a symptom of Sjogren’s syndrome, which is a separate condition. Hypertension is a complication of diffuse systemic sclerosis, which affects the proximal limbs and trunk and can lead to renal crisis and respiratory involvement. Oliguria is a symptom of renal crisis, which is a complication of diffuse systemic sclerosis.
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old girl is brought to the morning clinic by her father. Since yesterday she has been taking reduced feeds and has been 'not her usual self'. On examination the baby appears well but has a low-grade temperature of 38.2ºC. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Advise regarding antipyretics, booked appointment for next day
Correct Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:The latest NICE guidelines classify any infant under 3 months old with a temperature exceeding 38ºC as a ‘red’ feature, necessitating immediate referral to a paediatrician. While some seasoned GPs may opt not to adhere to this recommendation, it is crucial to stay informed about recent examination guidelines.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer.
The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 45
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding the typical menstrual cycle is inaccurate?
Your Answer: A surge of FSH causes ovulation
Explanation:Ovulation is caused by the LH surge.
Phases of the Menstrual Cycle
The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium begins to proliferate. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol.
During ovulation, the mature egg is released from the dominant follicle and triggers the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH). This phase occurs on day 14 of the menstrual cycle. Following ovulation, the luteal phase begins, during which the corpus luteum secretes progesterone. This hormone causes the endometrium to change into a secretory lining. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall.
The cervical mucus also changes throughout the menstrual cycle. Following menstruation, the mucus is thick and forms a plug across the external os. Just prior to ovulation, the mucus becomes clear, acellular, and low viscosity. It also becomes ‘stretchy’ – a quality termed spinnbarkeit. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky.
Basal body temperature is another indicator of the menstrual cycle. It falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the different phases of the menstrual cycle can help individuals track their fertility and plan for pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 46
Incorrect
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You assess a 65-year-old man who has recently been discharged from hospital in France following a heart attack. He presents with an echocardiogram report indicating his left ventricular ejection fraction is 38%. Upon examination, his pulse is regular at 76 beats per minute, blood pressure is 126/74 mmHg, and his chest is clear. He is currently taking aspirin, simvastatin, and lisinopril. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding his medication?
Your Answer: Add furosemide
Correct Answer: Add bisoprolol
Explanation:The use of carvedilol and bisoprolol has been proven to decrease mortality in stable heart failure patients, while there is no evidence to support the use of other beta-blockers. NICE guidelines suggest that all individuals with heart failure should be prescribed both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker.
Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines
Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with type 1 diabetes visits his GP for a check-up on his blood sugar levels. He has been monitoring his daily blood glucose readings and the GP calculates an average of 7.8 mmol/L, indicating the need for better control. However, his HbA1c level is 41.5 mmol/mol (5.9%), indicating good glycaemic control. What could be causing this inconsistency?
Your Answer: Splenectomy
Correct Answer: Sickle-cell anaemia
Explanation:Individuals with sickle cell anaemia and other haemoglobinopathies may have inaccurate HbA1c readings due to the shortened lifespan of their red blood cells, resulting in lower than actual levels. Conversely, conditions such as splenectomy, iron-deficiency anaemia, B12 deficiency, and alcoholism can lead to falsely elevated HbA1c levels. The accuracy of HbA1c as a measure of average blood glucose concentration is dependent on the lifespan of red blood cells.
Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus
Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in the blood at a rate proportional to the glucose concentration. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.
HbA1c is believed to reflect the blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous 3 months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose. The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached.
Understanding HbA1c is crucial in managing diabetes mellitus and achieving optimal blood sugar control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 48
Correct
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A 28-year-old newly qualified nurse presents with a bilateral erythematous rash on both hands. She has recently moved from the Philippines and has no significant medical history. The suspected diagnosis is contact dermatitis. What is the most appropriate test to determine the underlying cause?
Your Answer: Skin patch test
Explanation:The skin patch test can be beneficial in this scenario as it has the potential to detect irritants in addition to allergens.
Types of Allergy Tests
Allergy tests are used to determine if a person has an allergic reaction to a particular substance. There are several types of allergy tests available, each with its own advantages and limitations. The most commonly used test is the skin prick test, which is easy to perform and inexpensive. Drops of diluted allergen are placed on the skin, and a needle is used to pierce the skin. A wheal will typically develop if a patient has an allergy. This test is useful for food allergies and pollen.
Another type of allergy test is the radioallergosorbent test (RAST), which determines the amount of IgE that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. Results are given in grades from 0 (negative) to 6 (strongly positive). This test is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (e.g. pollen), and wasp/bee venom.
Skin patch testing is useful for contact dermatitis. Around 30-40 allergens are placed on the back, and irritants may also be tested for. The patches are removed 48 hours later, and the results are read by a dermatologist after a further 48 hours. Blood tests may be used when skin prick tests are not suitable, for example if there is extensive eczema or if the patient is taking antihistamines. Overall, allergy tests are an important tool in diagnosing and managing allergies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with persistent beliefs that his coworkers are plotting against him and trying to sabotage his work, despite reassurance and evidence to the contrary. He has had multiple heated arguments with his colleagues and after each one, he becomes aggressive and blames them for his outbursts. He sometimes feels like he cannot function without them, but also sometimes feels that they are out to get him. He has a history of a recent suicide attempt and has difficulties trusting his family as he feels they are part of the conspiracy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder
Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder
Explanation:The young man in question is likely suffering from borderline personality disorder (BPD), also known as emotionally unstable personality disorder (EUPD). This condition is characterized by unstable relationships, alternating between idealization and devaluation of others, recurrent self-harm, unstable self-image and self-esteem, suicidal behavior, difficulty controlling anger, and efforts to avoid abandonment. All of these traits are present in this patient, making BPD the most likely diagnosis.
Narcissistic personality disorder is not a likely diagnosis for this patient, as it is characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and a sense of entitlement. These traits are not present in this patient, and his periods of devaluing her partner are temporary and not pervasive.
Dependent personality disorder is also an unlikely diagnosis, as this condition is characterized by a pervasive need for others to make decisions for the patient and constant reassurance. While the patient has felt that he cannot live without his partner in the past, his labile mood and alternating view of his partner make this diagnosis less likely.
Paranoid personality disorder is also an unlikely diagnosis, as patients with this condition tend to be reluctant to confide in others and have an unforgiving attitude when insulted or questioned. The patient in question does not exhibit these traits, and his difficulty with trusting friends is likely due to his belief that he is undeserving of them.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 50
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman at 28 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movements. Upon ultrasound, it is discovered that the fetus is hydropic. Her 5-year-old child had a fever and redness on the cheeks recently. What is the probable infectious agent responsible for this?
Your Answer: Parvovirus B19
Explanation:The symptoms exhibited by the child indicate erythema infectiosum, which is caused by an infection with parvovirus B19. Most pregnant women have immunity to this virus and it typically does not pose a risk. However, in rare cases, infection during the first trimester has been associated with hydrops fetalis, which can lead to miscarriage.
Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations
Parvovirus B19 is a DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to the rest of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but for some months afterwards, a warm bath, sunlight, heat, or fever may trigger a recurrence of the bright red cheeks and rash. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is not infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.
Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease, and hydrops fetalis. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which can lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities (e.g. ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions). This condition is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.
It is important to note that the virus can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy (before 20 weeks), she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, the child need not be excluded from school as they are no longer infectious by the time the rash occurs.
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