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  • Question 1 - A patient who suffered from head trauma at a young age has difficulty...

    Correct

    • A patient who suffered from head trauma at a young age has difficulty with eating and occasionally chokes on her food. The doctor explains that this may be due to the trauma affecting her reflexes.

      Which cranial nerve is responsible for transmitting the afferent signal for this reflex?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal

      Explanation:

      The loss of the gag reflex is due to a problem with the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), which is responsible for providing sensation to the pharynx and initiating the reflex. This reflex is important for preventing choking when eating large food substances or eating too quickly.

      The facial nerve (CN VII) is not responsible for the gag reflex, but rather for motor innervation of facial expression muscles and some salivary glands. It is involved in the corneal reflex, which closes the eyelids when blinking.

      The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) is responsible for motor innervation of the tongue, which is important for eating, but it does not provide afferent signals for reflexes.

      The ophthalmic nerve (CN V1) is not involved in the gag reflex, but it is responsible for providing sensation to the eye and is involved in the corneal reflex.

      The vagus nerve (CN X) is involved in the gag reflex, but it is responsible for the efferent response, innervating the muscles of the pharynx, rather than the afferent sensation that initiates the reflex.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      20
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  • Question 2 - A young man presents with loss of fine-touch and vibration sensation on the...

    Correct

    • A young man presents with loss of fine-touch and vibration sensation on the right side of his body. He also shows a loss of proprioception on the same side. What anatomical structure is likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Right dorsal column

      Explanation:

      Spinal cord lesions can affect different tracts and result in various clinical symptoms. Motor lesions, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and poliomyelitis, affect either upper or lower motor neurons, resulting in spastic paresis or lower motor neuron signs. Combined motor and sensory lesions, such as Brown-Sequard syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, Friedrich’s ataxia, anterior spinal artery occlusion, and syringomyelia, affect multiple tracts and result in a combination of spastic paresis, loss of proprioception and vibration sensation, limb ataxia, and loss of pain and temperature sensation. Multiple sclerosis can involve asymmetrical and varying spinal tracts and result in a combination of motor, sensory, and ataxia symptoms. Sensory lesions, such as neurosyphilis, affect the dorsal columns and result in loss of proprioception and vibration sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are on placement in the intensive care unit. An elderly patient has...

    Incorrect

    • You are on placement in the intensive care unit. An elderly patient has been brought in following a fall. However, the patient has not recovered and the consultant is now performing brain stem testing before considering organ donation.

      As part of this, the consultant rubs a cotton bud against the cornea and assesses to see if the patient blinks.

      What is the sensory innervation to the reflex being tested?

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve III - oculomotor nerve

      Correct Answer: Cranial nerve V - trigeminal nerve

      Explanation:

      The afferent limb of the corneal reflex is the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V). When the cornea is stimulated, signals are sent via the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve to the trigeminal sensory nucleus. This activates the facial motor nucleus, causing motor signals to be sent via the facial nerve to contract the orbicularis oculi muscle and produce a blink response. The optic nerve (cranial nerve II) provides sensory innervation to the pupillary reflex, while the oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III) provides motor innervation to the sphincter pupillae muscle for pupillary constriction. The glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) provides sensory innervation to the gag reflex, with motor innervation coming from the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X).

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old patient has undergone surgery for thyroid cancer and his family has...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old patient has undergone surgery for thyroid cancer and his family has noticed a change in his voice, becoming more hoarse a week after the surgery. Which nerve is likely to have been damaged during the surgery to cause this change in his voice?

      Your Answer: Recurrent laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      During surgeries of the thyroid and parathyroid glands, the recurrent laryngeal nerve is at risk due to its close proximity to the inferior thyroid artery. This nerve is responsible for supplying all intrinsic muscles of the larynx (excluding the cricothyroid muscle) that control the opening and closing of the vocal folds, as well as providing sensory innervation below the vocal folds. If damaged, it can result in hoarseness of voice or, in severe cases, aphonia.

      The glossopharyngeal nerve, on the other hand, does not play a role in voice production. Its primary areas of innervation include the posterior part of the tongue, the middle ear, part of the pharynx, the carotid body and carotid sinus, and the parotid gland. It also provides motor supply to the stylopharyngeus muscle. Damage to this nerve typically presents with impaired swallowing and changes in taste.

      The ansa cervicalis is located in the carotid triangle and is unlikely to be damaged during thyroid surgery. However, it may be used to re-innervate the vocal folds in the event of damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve post-thyroidectomy. The ansa cervicalis primarily innervates the majority of infrahyoid muscles, with the exception of the stylohyoid and thyrohyoid. Damage to these muscles would primarily result in difficulty swallowing.

      Finally, the superior laryngeal nerve is responsible for innervating the cricothyroid muscle. If this nerve is paralyzed, it can cause an inability to produce high-pitched voice, which may go unnoticed in many patients for an extended period of time.

      The Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve: Anatomy and Function

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a branch of the vagus nerve that plays a crucial role in the innervation of the larynx. It has a complex path that differs slightly between the left and right sides of the body. On the right side, it arises anterior to the subclavian artery and ascends obliquely next to the trachea, behind the common carotid artery. It may be located either anterior or posterior to the inferior thyroid artery. On the left side, it arises left to the arch of the aorta, winds below the aorta, and ascends along the side of the trachea.

      Both branches pass in a groove between the trachea and oesophagus before entering the larynx behind the articulation between the thyroid cartilage and cricoid. Once inside the larynx, the recurrent laryngeal nerve is distributed to the intrinsic larynx muscles (excluding cricothyroid). It also branches to the cardiac plexus and the mucous membrane and muscular coat of the oesophagus and trachea.

      Damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, such as during thyroid surgery, can result in hoarseness. Therefore, understanding the anatomy and function of this nerve is crucial for medical professionals who perform procedures in the neck and throat area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 5 - A 75-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt onset of weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt onset of weakness on his right side. He reports no pain or injury. The primary suspicion is that he has experienced a stroke. What is the most frequent pathological mechanism that leads to a stroke?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Embolic events

      Explanation:

      Stroke: A Brief Overview

      Stroke is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality, with over 150,000 strokes occurring annually in the UK alone. It is the fourth leading cause of death in the UK, killing twice as many women as breast cancer each year. However, the prevention and treatment of strokes have undergone significant changes over the past decade. What was once considered an untreatable condition is now viewed as a ‘brain attack’ that requires emergency assessment to determine if patients may benefit from new treatments such as thrombolysis.

      A stroke, also known as a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), is a sudden interruption in the vascular supply of the brain. There are two main types of strokes: ischaemic and haemorrhagic. Ischaemic strokes occur when there is a blockage in the blood vessel that stops blood flow, while haemorrhagic strokes occur when a blood vessel bursts, leading to a reduction in blood flow. Symptoms of a stroke may include motor weakness, speech problems, swallowing problems, visual field defects, and balance problems.

      Patients with suspected stroke need to have emergency neuroimaging to determine if they are suitable for thrombolytic therapy to treat early ischaemic strokes. The two types of neuroimaging used in this setting are CT and MRI. If the stroke is ischaemic, and certain criteria are met, the patient should be offered thrombolysis. Once haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded, patients should be given aspirin 300mg as soon as possible, and antiplatelet therapy should be continued. If imaging confirms a haemorrhagic stroke, neurosurgical consultation should be considered for advice on further management. The vast majority of patients, however, are not suitable for surgical intervention. Management is therefore supportive as per haemorrhagic stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      5.3
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department after experiencing a sudden, severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department after experiencing a sudden, severe headache that started one hour ago. He describes it as feeling like he was hit in the head with a hammer while he was in the shower.

      During the examination, the patient has a dilated left pupil with an eye that is fixed to the lower lateral quadrant. Although he feels nauseous, there is no change in his Glasgow Coma Scale score (GCS).

      Which of the following dural folds is responsible for the compression of the oculomotor nerve, resulting in the eye signs observed in this case?

      Your Answer: Pia mater

      Correct Answer: Tentorium cerebelli

      Explanation:

      The tentorium cerebelli, which is a fold of the dura mater on both sides, separates the cerebellum from the occipital lobes. When there are expanding mass lesions, the brain can be pushed down past this fold, resulting in the compression of local structures such as the oculomotor nerve. This compression can cause abnormal eye positioning and a dilated pupil in the patient.

      It is important to note that the corpus callosum is not a fold of the meninges. Instead, it is a bundle of neuronal fibers that connect the two hemispheres of the brain.

      The falx cerebri, on the other hand, is a fold of the dura mater that extends inferiorly between the two hemispheres of the brain.

      The arachnoid and pia mater are the middle and innermost layers of the meninges, respectively. They are not involved in the fold of the dura mater that separates the occipital lobe from the cerebellum.

      The Three Layers of Meninges

      The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

      The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

      The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old man with Alzheimer's disease visits his doctor for a medication review,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with Alzheimer's disease visits his doctor for a medication review, accompanied by his son. The son reports that his father is struggling to perform daily tasks and requests an increase in his care package.

      During the examination, the patient appears disoriented to time and place. A mini-mental state examination is conducted, revealing a score of 14/30, indicating moderate dementia.

      Which histological finding would be the most specific for this patient's diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Extraneuronal Lewy bodies, intraneuronal amyloid plaques

      Correct Answer: Extraneuronal amyloid plaques, intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles

      Explanation:

      In Alzheimer’s disease, the pathology involves extraneuronal amyloid plaques and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles. Amyloid plaques are clumps of beta-amyloid that are found in the extracellular matrix, while neurofibrillary tangles are made up of hyperphosphorylated tau and are located within the neurons. The exact role of beta-amyloid and tau in the development of Alzheimer’s disease is still not fully understood.

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.

      The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.

      Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      14.6
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  • Question 8 - A 2-year-old girl is brought to the paediatric community clinic due to concerns...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old girl is brought to the paediatric community clinic due to concerns about delayed walking. The mother reports that the child had meningitis at 4 weeks old but has been healthy otherwise. During the examination, the girl displays a spastic gait with uncoordinated and involuntary movements. Based on these symptoms, which area of the brain is likely affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Basal ganglia and substantia nigra

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is basal ganglia and substantia nigra. The patient in this case has a motor disorder that is characterized by delayed motor milestones, which is likely due to cerebral palsy resulting from severe episodes of meningitis postnatally. There are three types of cerebral palsy, including spastic, dyskinetic, and ataxic. Dyskinetic cerebral palsy is characterized by athetoid movement and oromotor signs, which result from damage to the basal ganglia and substantia nigra. Therefore, in this case, it is the basal ganglia and substantia nigra that are affected. The cerebellum is not involved in this case, as the patient does not display a broad-based gait or unsteadiness. The hippocampus and amygdala are not relevant to the motor pathway, as they are primarily involved in memory and consciousness. The pons is also not involved in this case, as damage to the pons would cause locked-in syndrome, which is characterized by the loss of all motor movement except for eye movement.

      Understanding Cerebral Palsy

      Cerebral palsy is a condition that affects movement and posture due to damage to the motor pathways in the developing brain. It is the most common cause of major motor impairment and affects 2 in 1,000 live births. The causes of cerebral palsy can be antenatal, intrapartum, or postnatal. Antenatal causes include cerebral malformation and congenital infections such as rubella, toxoplasmosis, and CMV. Intrapartum causes include birth asphyxia or trauma, while postnatal causes include intraventricular hemorrhage, meningitis, and head trauma.

      Children with cerebral palsy may exhibit abnormal tone in early infancy, delayed motor milestones, abnormal gait, and feeding difficulties. They may also have associated non-motor problems such as learning difficulties, epilepsy, squints, and hearing impairment. Cerebral palsy can be classified into spastic, dyskinetic, ataxic, or mixed types.

      Managing cerebral palsy requires a multidisciplinary approach. Treatments for spasticity include oral diazepam, oral and intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin type A, orthopedic surgery, and selective dorsal rhizotomy. Anticonvulsants and analgesia may also be required. Understanding cerebral palsy and its management is crucial in providing appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      17.3
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  • Question 9 - A 54-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of a gradual increase in...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of a gradual increase in numbness and tingling in her right hand's ring and little fingers. She works as a librarian and denies any physical strain or injury. There is no significant medical history or family history of similar symptoms.

      The woman reports that her symptoms are causing her to take frequent breaks from work and is worried about losing her job.

      What is the primary pathology most commonly associated with her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Dorsal sensation of the thumb is also reduced

      Correct Answer: Nerve entrapment of the medial epicondyle

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is nerve entrapment of the medial epicondyle. The ulnar nerve provides sensory innervation to the palmar and dorsal aspects of the 4th and 5th digits, and it travels posterior to the medial epicondyle through the ulnar tunnel. Medial epicondylitis, an over-use injury of the flexor-pronator muscles, can cause ulnar nerve damage.

      The other answer choices are incorrect. The radial nerve supplies dorsal sensation to the thumb and wrist extension, while the ulnar nerve arises from C8-T1 of the brachial plexus. Fracture of the humeral shaft is associated with radial nerve damage, not ulnar nerve damage.

      The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.

      The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      2.8
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  • Question 10 - A pair of adolescents are fooling around with an airgun when one mistakenly...

    Incorrect

    • A pair of adolescents are fooling around with an airgun when one mistakenly shoots his buddy in the stomach. The injured friend is rushed to the ER where he is examined. The bullet has entered just to the right of the rectus sheath at the level of the 2nd lumbar vertebrae. Which of the following structures is the most probable to have been harmed by the bullet?

      Your Answer: Right adrenal gland

      Correct Answer: Fundus of the gallbladder

      Explanation:

      The most superficially located structure is the fundus of the gallbladder, which is found at this level.

      Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body

      The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.

      In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      46.4
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  • Question 11 - Sarah is a 31-year-old woman presenting with diplopia. She has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 31-year-old woman presenting with diplopia. She has a history of type 1 diabetes and multiple sclerosis. Over the past 3 days, she has been experiencing double vision, particularly when looking to the right.

      Sarah denies any associated double vision when looking vertically. She has not noticed any difficulty in moving her eyelids, increased sensitivity to light, or redness in her eye.

      During examination, both eyelids display normal strength. With the left eye closed, the right eye displays a full range of movement. However, with the right eye closed, the left eye fails to adduct when looking towards the right. Nystagmus on the right eye is noted when the patient is asked to look to the right with both eyes. On convergence, both eyes can adduct towards the midline. The pupillary exam is normal with both pupils reacting appropriately to light.

      What is the underlying pathology responsible for Sarah's diplopia?

      Your Answer: Lesion of the left abducens nerve

      Correct Answer: Lesion on the left paramedian area of the midbrain and pons

      Explanation:

      The medial longitudinal fasciculus is located in the midbrain and pons and is responsible for conjugate gaze. Lesions in this area can cause internuclear ophthalmoplegia, which affects adduction but not convergence. A 3rd nerve palsy affects multiple muscles and can involve the pupil, while abducens nerve lesions affect abduction. Lesions in the midbrain and superior pons contain the centres of vision.

      Understanding Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia

      Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is a condition that affects the horizontal movement of the eyes. It is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF), which is responsible for interconnecting the IIIrd, IVth, and VIth cranial nuclei. This area is located in the paramedian region of the midbrain and pons. The main feature of this condition is impaired adduction of the eye on the same side as the lesion, along with horizontal nystagmus of the abducting eye on the opposite side.

      The most common causes of internuclear ophthalmoplegia are multiple sclerosis and vascular disease. It is important to note that this condition can also be a sign of other underlying neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      3.9
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  • Question 12 - A 75-year-old man visits his GP complaining of trouble eating and a lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man visits his GP complaining of trouble eating and a lump on the right side of his mandible. His blood work reveals elevated alkaline phosphatase levels and nothing else. Upon examination, doctors diagnose him with Paget's disease of the bone, which is causing his symptoms. The patient is experiencing numbness in his chin, a missing jaw jerk reflex, and muscle wasting in his mastication muscles. Through which part of the skull does the affected cranial nerve pass?

      Your Answer: Jugular foramen

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      The mandibular nerve travels through the foramen ovale in the skull.

      This is because the foramen ovale is the exit point for CN V3 (mandibular nerve) from the trigeminal nerve, which provides sensation to the lower face. The mandibular branch also serves the muscles of mastication, the tensor veli palatini, and tensor veli tympani.

      The cribriform plate is not correct as it is where the olfactory nerve innervates for the sense of smell.

      The foramen rotundum is also incorrect as it is where the sensory afferents of CN V1 and V2 (ophthalmic and maxillary nerves) exit the skull.

      The jugular foramen is not the answer as it is where the accessory (CN XI) nerve passes through to innervate the motor supply of the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 32-year-old man suffers an injury from farm machinery resulting in a laceration...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man suffers an injury from farm machinery resulting in a laceration at the superolateral aspect of the popliteal fossa and a laceration of the medial aspect of the biceps femoris. What is the most vulnerable underlying structure to injury in this case?

      Your Answer: Gracilis

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The greatest risk of injury lies with the common peroneal nerve, which is located beneath the medial aspect of the biceps femoris. Although not mentioned, the tibial nerve may also be affected by this type of injury. The sural nerve branches off at a lower point.

      The common peroneal nerve originates from the dorsal divisions of the sacral plexus, specifically from L4, L5, S1, and S2. This nerve provides sensation to the skin and fascia of the anterolateral surface of the leg and dorsum of the foot, as well as innervating the muscles of the anterior and peroneal compartments of the leg, extensor digitorum brevis, and the knee, ankle, and foot joints. It is located laterally within the sciatic nerve and passes through the lateral and proximal part of the popliteal fossa, under the cover of biceps femoris and its tendon, to reach the posterior aspect of the fibular head. The common peroneal nerve divides into the deep and superficial peroneal nerves at the point where it winds around the lateral surface of the neck of the fibula in the body of peroneus longus, approximately 2 cm distal to the apex of the head of the fibula. It is palpable posterior to the head of the fibula. The nerve has several branches, including the nerve to the short head of biceps, articular branch (knee), lateral cutaneous nerve of the calf, and superficial and deep peroneal nerves at the neck of the fibula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      30
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  • Question 14 - You are reviewing a patient's notes in the clinic and see that they...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient's notes in the clinic and see that they have recently been seen by an ophthalmologist. On ocular examination, they have been noted to have myopia (nearsightedness), with no other obvious pathological change. The specialist recommends spectacles for the treatment of this condition. Your patient mentioned that they do not fully understand why they require glasses. You draw them a diagram to explain the cause of their short-sightedness.

      Where is the approximate point that light rays converge in this individual?

      Your Answer: Posterior to the retina

      Correct Answer: In the vitreous body, anterior to the retina

      Explanation:

      Myopia is a condition where the visual axis of the eye is too long, causing the image to be focused in front of the retina. This is typically caused by an imbalance between the length of the eye and the power of the cornea and lens system.

      In a healthy eye, light is first focused by the cornea and then by the crystalline lens, resulting in a clear image on the retina. If the light converges anterior to the crystalline lens, it may indicate severe corneal disruption, which can occur in conditions such as ocular trauma and keratoconus.

      Myopia is a common refractive error where the light rays converge posterior to the crystalline lens and anterior to the retina. This occurs when the cornea and lens system are too powerful for the length of the eye. Corrective lenses can be used to refract the light before it enters the eye, with a concave lens being required to correct the refractive error in a myopic eye.

      If the light rays converge on the crystalline lens, it may also indicate severe corneal disruption. Conversely, if the light rays converge posterior to the retina, it may indicate hyperopia (hypermetropia).

      In an emmetropic eye (no refractive error), the light rays converge on the fovea, resulting in a clear image on the retina.

      A gradual decline in vision is a prevalent issue among the elderly population, leading them to seek guidance from healthcare providers. This condition can be attributed to various causes, including cataracts and age-related macular degeneration. Both of these conditions can cause a gradual loss of vision over time, making it difficult for individuals to perform daily activities such as reading, driving, and recognizing faces. As a result, it is essential for individuals experiencing a decline in vision to seek medical attention promptly to receive appropriate treatment and prevent further deterioration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 15 - Sarah is a 63-year-old woman who has been experiencing gradual visual changes for...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 63-year-old woman who has been experiencing gradual visual changes for the past 2 years. Recently, she has noticed a decline in her peripheral vision and has been running into objects.

      During the examination, her eyes do not appear red. Ophthalmoscopy reveals bilateral cupping with a cup to disc ratio of 0.8. Tonometry shows a pressure of 26mmHg in her left eye and 28mmHg in her right eye.

      After trying brinzolamide, latanoprost, and brimonidine, which were not well tolerated due to side effects, what is the mechanism of action of the best alternative medication?

      Your Answer: Decrease aqueous humour production

      Explanation:

      Timolol, a beta blocker, is an effective treatment for primary open-angle glaucoma as it reduces the production of aqueous humor in the eye. This condition is caused by a gradual increase in intraocular pressure due to poor drainage within the trabecular meshwork, resulting in gradual vision loss. The first-line treatments for primary open-angle glaucoma include beta blockers, prostaglandin analogues, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, and alpha-2-agonists. However, if a patient is unable to tolerate carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, prostaglandin analogues, or alpha-2-agonists, beta blockers like timolol are the remaining option. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors reduce aqueous humor production, prostaglandin analogues increase uveoscleral outflow, and alpha-2-agonists have a dual action of reducing humor production and increasing outflow. It is important to note that increasing aqueous humor production and reducing uveoscleral outflow are not effective treatments for glaucoma.

      Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type of optic neuropathy that is associated with increased intraocular pressure (IOP). It is classified based on whether the peripheral iris is covering the trabecular meshwork, which is important in the drainage of aqueous humour from the anterior chamber of the eye. In open-angle glaucoma, the iris is clear of the meshwork, but the trabecular network offers increased resistance to aqueous outflow, causing increased IOP. This condition affects 0.5% of people over the age of 40 and its prevalence increases with age up to 10% over the age of 80 years. Both males and females are equally affected. The main causes of primary open-angle glaucoma are increasing age and genetics, with first-degree relatives of an open-angle glaucoma patient having a 16% chance of developing the disease.

      Primary open-angle glaucoma is characterised by a slow rise in intraocular pressure, which is symptomless for a long period. It is typically detected following an ocular pressure measurement during a routine examination by an optometrist. Signs of the condition include increased intraocular pressure, visual field defect, and pathological cupping of the optic disc. Case finding and provisional diagnosis are done by an optometrist, and referral to an ophthalmologist is done via the GP. Final diagnosis is made through investigations such as automated perimetry to assess visual field, slit lamp examination with pupil dilatation to assess optic nerve and fundus for a baseline, applanation tonometry to measure IOP, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy to assess peripheral anterior chamber configuration and depth. The risk of future visual impairment is assessed using risk factors such as IOP, central corneal thickness (CCT), family history, and life expectancy.

      The majority of patients with primary open-angle glaucoma are managed with eye drops that aim to lower intraocular pressure and prevent progressive loss of visual field. According to NICE guidelines, the first line of treatment is a prostaglandin analogue (PGA) eyedrop, followed by a beta-blocker, carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, or sympathomimetic eyedrop as a second line of treatment. Surgery or laser treatment can be tried in more advanced cases. Reassessment is important to exclude progression and visual field loss and needs to be done more frequently if IOP is uncontrolled, the patient is high risk, or there

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 16 - In the proximal third of the upper arm, where is the musculocutaneous nerve...

    Incorrect

    • In the proximal third of the upper arm, where is the musculocutaneous nerve situated?

      Your Answer: Between the brachialis and triceps muscles

      Correct Answer: Between the biceps brachii and brachialis muscles

      Explanation:

      The biceps and brachialis muscles are located on either side of the musculocutaneous nerve.

      The Musculocutaneous Nerve: Function and Pathway

      The musculocutaneous nerve is a nerve branch that originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. Its pathway involves penetrating the coracobrachialis muscle and passing obliquely between the biceps brachii and the brachialis to the lateral side of the arm. Above the elbow, it pierces the deep fascia lateral to the tendon of the biceps brachii and continues into the forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm.

      The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis muscles. Injury to this nerve can cause weakness in flexion at the shoulder and elbow. Understanding the function and pathway of the musculocutaneous nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      8.2
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  • Question 17 - A 78-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of frequent forgetfulness. She expresses concern...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of frequent forgetfulness. She expresses concern about her ability to care for her husband at home. After undergoing a cognitive evaluation and ruling out reversible causes, the doctor refers her to a memory clinic where she is diagnosed with early-stage Alzheimer's disease.

      What is the pathophysiological explanation for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Amyloid aggregation results in the deposition of neurofibrillary tangles

      Correct Answer: Amyloid plaques are extra-neuronal while neurofibrillary tangles are intra-neuronal

      Explanation:

      The correct statement is that amyloid plaques are extraneuronal while neurofibrillary tangles are intraneuronal in Alzheimer’s disease pathology. The formation of neurofibrillary tangles is due to hyperphosphorylation of Tau, not amyloid aggregation. Deposition of amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles occurs diffusely throughout the brain, particularly affecting the hippocampus, and not primarily in the frontal lobe. Neurofibrillary tangles do not enhance acetylcholine signalling within the brain, as Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by reduced acetylcholine signalling and impaired cognitive function. Amyloid protein aggregation leads to the formation of plaques, while Tau causes a build-up of neurofibrillary tangles.

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.

      The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.

      Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      8.8
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  • Question 18 - A 15-year-old boy comes to see his GP accompanied by his mother who...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy comes to see his GP accompanied by his mother who is worried about his facial expressions. The boy has been experiencing difficulty using the muscles in his face for the past month. He also reports weakness in his arms, but no pain.

      During the examination, the GP observes that the boy's facial muscles are weak, he struggles to puff out his cheeks, and has difficulty raising his arms in the classroom. Additionally, the boy has abnormally large gastrocnemius muscles and his scapulae are 'winged'.

      Which nerve is responsible for innervating the muscle that prevents the scapulae from forming a 'winged' position?

      Your Answer: Upper subscapular nerve

      Correct Answer: Long thoracic nerve

      Explanation:

      The Serratus Anterior Muscle and its Innervation

      The serratus anterior muscle is a muscle that originates from the first to eighth ribs and inserts along the entire medial border of the scapulae. Its main function is to protract the scapula, allowing for anteversion of the upper limb. This muscle is innervated by the long thoracic nerve, which receives innervation from roots C5-C7 of the brachial plexus.

      Based on the patient’s clinical history, it is likely that they are suffering from muscular dystrophy, specifically facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy. The long thoracic nerve is solely responsible for innervating the serratus anterior muscle, making it a key factor in the diagnosis of this condition.

      Other nerves of the brachial plexus include the axillary nerve, which mainly innervates the deltoid muscles and provides sensory innervation to the skin covering the deltoid muscle. The upper and lower subscapular nerves are branches of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and provide motor innervation to the subscapularis muscle. The thoracodorsal nerve is also a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and provides motor innervation to the latissimus dorsi.

      the innervation of the serratus anterior muscle and its relationship to other nerves of the brachial plexus is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      11.4
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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department after experiencing a seizure. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department after experiencing a seizure. He reports a severe headache for the past several hours and feeling nauseous. Upon urgent MRI, oedema is observed in the temporal lobe. Antivirals are immediately initiated. What cells in the central nervous system act as phagocytes?

      Your Answer: Oligodendrocytes

      Correct Answer: Microglia

      Explanation:

      The central nervous system has a limited number of immune cells, but microglia are specialized phagocytes that play a crucial role in clearing extracellular debris and responding to bacterial or viral infections. The patient in the scenario likely had herpes simplex virus encephalitis, as indicated by the classic sign of temporal lobe edema. Oligodendrocytes are responsible for myelinating axons in the central nervous system, while Schwann cells perform this function in the peripheral nervous system. Astrocytes provide structural support and help regulate extracellular potassium levels.

      The nervous system is composed of various types of cells, each with their own unique functions. Oligodendroglia cells are responsible for producing myelin in the central nervous system (CNS) and are affected in multiple sclerosis. Schwann cells, on the other hand, produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and are affected in Guillain-Barre syndrome. Astrocytes provide physical support, remove excess potassium ions, help form the blood-brain barrier, and aid in physical repair. Microglia are specialised CNS phagocytes, while ependymal cells provide the inner lining of the ventricles.

      In summary, the nervous system is made up of different types of cells, each with their own specific roles. Oligodendroglia and Schwann cells produce myelin in the CNS and PNS, respectively, and are affected in certain diseases. Astrocytes provide physical support and aid in repair, while microglia are specialised phagocytes in the CNS. Ependymal cells line the ventricles. Understanding the functions of these cells is crucial in understanding the complex workings of the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a stab wound to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a stab wound to her forearm following a robbery. Upon examination, there is numbness observed in the thenar eminence and weakness in finger and wrist flexion. Which nerve is the most probable to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      The median nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the thenar eminence and controlling finger and wrist flexion. Its palmar cutaneous branch supplies sensation to the skin on the lateral side of the palm, including the thenar eminence. The median nerve directly innervates the flexor carpi radialis and palmaris longus muscles, which are responsible for wrist flexion, as well as the flexor digitorum superficialis and lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles via the anterior interosseous nerve, which control finger flexion. Damage to the median nerve can result in weakness in these movements.

      Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve

      The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.

      The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.

      Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      58.3
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  • Question 21 - A 27-year-old male patient has a pelvic chondrosarcoma excision surgery, resulting in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male patient has a pelvic chondrosarcoma excision surgery, resulting in the sacrifice of the obturator nerve. Which muscle is the least likely to be affected by this procedure?

      Your Answer: Pectineus

      Correct Answer: Sartorius

      Explanation:

      The accessory obturator nerve supplies the pectineus muscle in the population.

      Anatomy of the Obturator Nerve

      The obturator nerve is formed by branches from the ventral divisions of L2, L3, and L4 nerve roots, with L3 being the main contributor. It descends vertically in the posterior part of the psoas major muscle and emerges from its medial border at the lateral margin of the sacrum. After crossing the sacroiliac joint, it enters the lesser pelvis and descends on the obturator internus muscle to enter the obturator groove. The nerve lies lateral to the internal iliac vessels and ureter in the lesser pelvis and is joined by the obturator vessels lateral to the ovary or ductus deferens.

      The obturator nerve supplies the muscles of the medial compartment of the thigh, including the external obturator, adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus (except for the lower part supplied by the sciatic nerve), and gracilis. The cutaneous branch, which is often absent, supplies the skin and fascia of the distal two-thirds of the medial aspect of the thigh when present.

      The obturator canal connects the pelvis and thigh and contains the obturator artery, vein, and nerve, which divides into anterior and posterior branches. Understanding the anatomy of the obturator nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the medial thigh and pelvic region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      3.6
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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old woman with a BMI of 32 kg/m² visits her general practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a BMI of 32 kg/m² visits her general practitioner complaining of sudden onset diplopia. She reports that she experiences double vision mainly when reading. Apart from a chronic headache that worsens with Valsalva manoeuvres, she has no significant medical history.

      During the examination, there is no anisocoria observed. However, her left eye has a slight medial deviation, and there is a defect in abduction on the same side.

      Which cranial nerve is most likely affected in this patient?

      Your Answer: Optic nerve

      Correct Answer: Abducens nerve

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that she may be suffering from idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH), which can cause compression of the cranial nerves that supply the eyes. Based on her presentation of horizontal diplopia and difficulty with eye abduction, it is likely that she has a palsy of the abducens nerve (CN VI), which innervates the lateral rectus muscle responsible for eye abduction. This palsy is likely due to the raised intracranial pressure associated with IIH. The other cranial nerves mentioned (CN III, CN I, and CN II) are not involved in the patient’s symptoms.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      12.8
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  • Question 23 - Where does the spinal cord terminate in infants? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where does the spinal cord terminate in infants?

      Your Answer: L1

      Correct Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      During the third month of development, the spinal cord of the foetus extends throughout the entire vertebral canal. However, as the vertebral column continues to grow, it surpasses the growth rate of the spinal cord. As a result, at birth, the spinal cord is located at the level of L3, but by adulthood, it shifts up to L1-2.

      The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.

      One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      9.1
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  • Question 24 - A 9-month-old baby is presented to the emergency department by their mother with...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old baby is presented to the emergency department by their mother with recurrent seizures and an increasing head circumference. The infant has been experiencing excessive sleeping, vomiting, and irritability. An MRI scan of the brain reveals an enlarged posterior fossa and an absent cerebellar vermis. Which structure is anticipated to be in a raised position in this infant?

      Your Answer: Pituitary gland

      Correct Answer: Tentorium cerebelli

      Explanation:

      The Dandy-Walker malformation causes an enlargement of the posterior fossa, resulting in an accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid that pushes the tentorium cerebelli upwards. This can lead to symptoms due to the mass effect. The falx cerebri, pituitary gland, sphenoid sinus, and superior cerebellar peduncle are unlikely to be significantly affected by this condition.

      The Three Layers of Meninges

      The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

      The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

      The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      4.9
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  • Question 25 - You are evaluating an 80-year-old woman who was admitted last night with symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating an 80-year-old woman who was admitted last night with symptoms suggestive of a stroke. She is suspected to have lateral medullary syndrome.

      During the examination, you observe that she has lost her sense of taste in the posterior third of her tongue and has an absent gag reflex.

      Through which structure does the affected cranial nerve most likely pass?

      Your Answer: Foramen rotundum

      Correct Answer: Jugular foramen

      Explanation:

      The jugular foramen is the pathway through which the glossopharyngeal nerve travels.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by paramedics following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by paramedics following a gunshot wound sustained during a violent altercation. Despite being conscious, he is experiencing severe pain and is unable to respond to any inquiries.

      Upon initial evaluation, his airway is unobstructed, he is breathing normally, and there are no indications of cardiovascular distress.

      During an examination of his lower extremities, a bullet wound is discovered 2 cm below his popliteal fossa. The emergency physician suspects that the tibial nerve, which runs just beneath the popliteal fossa, has been damaged.

      Which of the following clinical findings is most likely to be observed in this patient?

      Your Answer: Loss of plantar flexion, weakened inversion and normal toe flexion

      Correct Answer: Loss of plantar flexion, loss of flexion of toes and weakened inversion

      Explanation:

      When the tibial nerve is damaged, it can cause a variety of symptoms such as the loss of plantar flexion, weakened inversion, and the inability to flex the toes. This type of injury is uncommon and can occur due to direct trauma, entrapment in a narrow space, or prolonged compression. It’s important to note that while the tibialis anterior muscle can still invert the foot, the overall strength of foot inversion is reduced. Other options that do not accurately describe the clinical signs of tibial nerve damage are incorrect.

      The Tibial Nerve: Muscles Innervated and Termination

      The tibial nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve that begins at the upper border of the popliteal fossa. It has root values of L4, L5, S1, S2, and S3. This nerve innervates several muscles, including the popliteus, gastrocnemius, soleus, plantaris, tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, and flexor digitorum brevis. These muscles are responsible for various movements in the lower leg and foot, such as plantar flexion, inversion, and flexion of the toes.

      The tibial nerve terminates by dividing into the medial and lateral plantar nerves. These nerves continue to innervate muscles in the foot, such as the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, and quadratus plantae. The tibial nerve plays a crucial role in the movement and function of the lower leg and foot, and any damage or injury to this nerve can result in significant impairments in mobility and sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      14.2
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  • Question 27 - A young woman comes in with a sudden and severe headache at the...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman comes in with a sudden and severe headache at the back of her head, which quickly leads to seizures. Upon examination, doctors discover an aneurysm. During the assessment, they observe that her right eye is displaced downwards and to the side. What could be the probable reason for this?

      Your Answer: Inferior oblique damage

      Correct Answer: Oculomotor nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      When someone has oculomotor nerve palsy, their medial rectus muscle is disabled, which causes the lateral rectus muscle to move the eye uncontrollably to the side. Additionally, the superior rectus, inferior rectus, and inferior oblique muscles are also affected, causing the eye to move downwards due to the unopposed action of the superior oblique muscle. This condition also results in ptosis, or drooping of the eyelid, due to paralysis of the levator palpebrae superioris muscle, and mydriasis, or dilation of the pupil, due to damage to the parasympathetic fibers.

      Disorders of the Oculomotor System: Nerve Path and Palsy Features

      The oculomotor system is responsible for controlling eye movements and pupil size. Disorders of this system can result in various nerve path and palsy features. The oculomotor nerve has a large nucleus at the midbrain and its fibers pass through the red nucleus and the pyramidal tract, as well as through the cavernous sinus into the orbit. When this nerve is affected, patients may experience ptosis, eye down and out, and an inability to move the eye superiorly, inferiorly, or medially. The pupil may also become fixed and dilated.

      The trochlear nerve has the longest intracranial course and is the only nerve to exit the dorsal aspect of the brainstem. Its nucleus is located at the midbrain and it passes between the posterior cerebral and superior cerebellar arteries, as well as through the cavernous sinus into the orbit. When this nerve is affected, patients may experience vertical diplopia (diplopia on descending the stairs) and an inability to look down and in.

      The abducens nerve has its nucleus in the mid pons and is responsible for the convergence of eyes in primary position. When this nerve is affected, patients may experience lateral diplopia towards the side of the lesion and the eye may deviate medially. Understanding the nerve path and palsy features of the oculomotor system can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of disorders affecting this important system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      10.3
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old man is scheduled for an open appendicectomy via a lanz incision....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man is scheduled for an open appendicectomy via a lanz incision. The surgeon plans to place the incision at the level of the anterior superior iliac spine to improve cosmesis. However, during the procedure, the appendix is found to be retrocaecal, and the incision is extended laterally. What is the nerve that is at the highest risk of injury during this surgery?

      Your Answer: Ilioinguinal

      Explanation:

      The Ilioinguinal Nerve: Anatomy and Function

      The ilioinguinal nerve is a nerve that arises from the first lumbar ventral ramus along with the iliohypogastric nerve. It passes through the psoas major and quadratus lumborum muscles before piercing the internal oblique muscle and passing deep to the aponeurosis of the external oblique muscle. The nerve then enters the inguinal canal and passes through the superficial inguinal ring to reach the skin.

      The ilioinguinal nerve supplies the muscles of the abdominal wall through which it passes. It also provides sensory innervation to the skin and fascia over the pubic symphysis, the superomedial part of the femoral triangle, the surface of the scrotum, and the root and dorsum of the penis or labia majora in females.

      Understanding the anatomy and function of the ilioinguinal nerve is important for medical professionals, as damage to this nerve can result in pain and sensory deficits in the areas it innervates. Additionally, knowledge of the ilioinguinal nerve is relevant in surgical procedures involving the inguinal region.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 29 - A 45-year-old female presents to the neurology clinic with diplopia and headache. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female presents to the neurology clinic with diplopia and headache. Upon examination, her visual acuity is 6/6, and there is pupillary dilatation. An MRI of her head reveals a post-communicating artery aneurysm. What cranial nerve palsy is probable in this patient?

      Your Answer: Fourth nerve palsy

      Correct Answer: Third nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      A third nerve palsy may be caused by an aneurysm in the posterior communicating artery.

      Understanding Third Nerve Palsy: Causes and Features

      Third nerve palsy is a neurological condition that affects the third cranial nerve, which controls the movement of the eye and eyelid. The condition is characterized by the eye being deviated ‘down and out’, ptosis, and a dilated pupil. In some cases, it may be referred to as a ‘surgical’ third nerve palsy due to the dilation of the pupil.

      There are several possible causes of third nerve palsy, including diabetes mellitus, vasculitis (such as temporal arteritis or SLE), uncal herniation through tentorium if raised ICP, posterior communicating artery aneurysm, and cavernous sinus thrombosis. In some cases, it may also be a false localizing sign. Weber’s syndrome, which is characterized by an ipsilateral third nerve palsy with contralateral hemiplegia, is caused by midbrain strokes. Other possible causes include amyloid and multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 30 - A 60-year-old carpenter comes to your clinic complaining of back pain. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old carpenter comes to your clinic complaining of back pain. He reports that this started a few weeks ago after lifting heavy wood. He experiences a sharp pain that travels from his lower back down the lateral aspect of his left thigh. Despite resting his leg, the pain persists. You suspect that he may have a herniated disc that is compressing his sciatic nerve and want to perform an examination to confirm the presence of sciatic nerve lesion features.

      What is the most probable feature that you will discover during the examination?

      Your Answer: Right sided foot drop

      Explanation:

      Foot drop is a possible consequence of sciatic nerve damage. The patient in question may have a herniated disc caused by heavy lifting, which is compressing their sciatic nerve and leading to weakness in the foot dorsiflexors.

      If a person experiences pain when they abduct their hip, it could be due to damage to the superior gluteal nerve.

      Damage to the femoral nerve can cause pain when extending the knee, as well as pain when flexing the thigh.

      Femoral nerve damage can also result in loss of sensation over the medial aspect of the thigh, as well as the anterior aspect of the thigh and lower leg.

      Damage to the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh can cause loss of sensation over the posterior surface of the thigh, as well as the lateral surface of the thigh.

      Understanding Foot Drop: Causes and Examination

      Foot drop is a condition that occurs when the foot dorsiflexors become weak. This can be caused by various factors, including a common peroneal nerve lesion, L5 radiculopathy, sciatic nerve lesion, superficial or deep peroneal nerve lesion, or central nerve lesions. However, the most common cause is a common peroneal nerve lesion, which is often due to compression at the neck of the fibula. This can be triggered by certain positions, prolonged confinement, recent weight loss, Baker’s cysts, or plaster casts to the lower leg.

      To diagnose foot drop, a thorough examination is necessary. If the patient has an isolated peroneal neuropathy, there will be weakness of foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and reflexes will be normal. Weakness of hip abduction is suggestive of an L5 radiculopathy. Bilateral symptoms, fasciculations, or other abnormal neurological findings are indications for specialist referral.

      If foot drop is diagnosed, conservative management is appropriate. Patients should avoid leg crossing, squatting, and kneeling. Symptoms typically improve over 2-3 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 31 - A 32-year-old overweight woman comes to you complaining of a severe headache that...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old overweight woman comes to you complaining of a severe headache that is affecting both sides of her head. She also reports blurred vision in her left eye. Upon examination, you notice papilloedema and a CNVI palsy in her left eye. Her blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg, and she is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycystic kidney disease

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is: Headache, blurred vision, papilloedema, and CNVI palsy in a young, obese female on COCP are highly indicative of idiopathic intracranial hypertension. PKD may lead to hypertension and rupture of a berry aneurysm, but it would present with stroke-like symptoms. The presence of a berry aneurysm on its own would not cause any symptoms. Acute-angle closure glaucoma would present with a painful acute red eye and vomiting.

      Understanding Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as pseudotumour cerebri, is a medical condition that is commonly observed in young, overweight females. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including headache, blurred vision, and papilloedema, which is usually present. Other symptoms may include an enlarged blind spot and sixth nerve palsy.

      There are several risk factors associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension, including obesity, female sex, pregnancy, and certain drugs such as the combined oral contraceptive pill, steroids, tetracyclines, vitamin A, and lithium.

      Management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension may involve weight loss, diuretics such as acetazolamide, and topiramate, which can also cause weight loss in most patients. Repeated lumbar puncture may also be necessary, and surgery may be required to prevent damage to the optic nerve. This may involve optic nerve sheath decompression and fenestration, or a lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt to reduce intracranial pressure.

      It is important to note that if intracranial hypertension is thought to occur secondary to a known cause, such as medication, it is not considered idiopathic. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 32 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with facial drooping and slurred...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with facial drooping and slurred speech. You perform a cranial nerves examination and find that her oculomotor nerve has been affected. What sign would you anticipate observing in this patient?

      Your Answer: Horizontal diplopia

      Correct Answer: Ptosis

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is ptosis. Issues with the oculomotor nerve can cause ptosis, a drooping of the eyelid, as well as a dilated, fixed pupil and a down and out eye. The oculomotor nerve is responsible for various functions, including eye movements (such as those controlled by the MR, IO, SR, and IR muscles), pupil constriction, accommodation, and eyelid opening. Arcuate scotoma is an incorrect answer. This condition is caused by damage to the optic nerve, resulting in a blind spot that appears as an arc shape in the visual field. It does not affect extraocular movements. Bitemporal hemianopia is also an incorrect answer. This visual field defect affects the outer halves of both eyes and is caused by lesions of the optic chiasm, such as those resulting from a pituitary adenoma. Horizontal diplopia is another incorrect answer. This condition is caused by problems with the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral rectus muscle responsible for eye abduction. Defective abduction leads to horizontal diplopia, or double vision.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 33 - An 80-year-old woman comes in with sudden blurring of vision in one eye....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman comes in with sudden blurring of vision in one eye. She has a family history of age-related macular degeneration and a smoking history of 50 pack-years. The affected eye has a vision of 20/80, and metamorphopsia is detected during Amsler grid testing. Fundoscopy reveals well-defined red patches. As a result, she is given regular injections of bevacizumab.

      What is the target of this monoclonal antibody, and what does it inhibit?

      Your Answer: Tumour necrosis factor (TNF)

      Correct Answer: Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

      Explanation:

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 34 - A 32-year-old woman who is a primigravida at 15 weeks gestation presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is a primigravida at 15 weeks gestation presents to the emergency department with drooped features on the left side of her face and a runny nose. She noticed this in the morning when washing her face. There is no limb weakness, visual disturbance, or dysphagia noted.

      What other symptoms would be indicative of this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loss of taste sensation

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with Bell’s palsy, which is an acute, unilateral, and idiopathic facial nerve paralysis. It is believed to be linked to the herpes simplex virus and is most commonly seen in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The patient’s facial droop is unilateral with lower motor neuron involvement and hyperacusis in the ear on the affected side. Loss of taste sensation in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue on the same side may also be present.

      Hyperlacrimation is not typically associated with Bell’s palsy, and patients may experience dry eyes due to reduced blinking on the affected side. Loss of smell sensation is not usually seen in Bell’s palsy and may indicate an alternative diagnosis, such as a neurodegenerative syndrome. Pins and needles in the limbs are not typically associated with Bell’s palsy, and if present, alternative diagnoses should be considered.

      The presence of a vesicular rash around the ear strongly suggests Ramsay Hunt syndrome, which is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. It presents with auricular pain, facial nerve palsy, a vesicular rash around the ear, and vertigo/tinnitus.

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience postauricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 35 - A patient experiencing a loss of taste in the front two-thirds of their...

    Incorrect

    • A patient experiencing a loss of taste in the front two-thirds of their tongue may have incurred damage to which nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The anterior 2/3 of the tongue receives taste sensation from the facial nerve, while general sensation, which pertains to touch, is provided by the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve. The glossopharyngeal nerve is responsible for providing both taste and general sensation to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue.

      The facial nerve is responsible for supplying the muscles of facial expression, the digastric muscle, and various glandular structures. It also contains a few afferent fibers that originate in the genicular ganglion and are involved in taste. Bilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by conditions such as sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, and bilateral acoustic neuromas. Unilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by these conditions as well as lower motor neuron issues like Bell’s palsy and upper motor neuron issues like stroke.

      The upper motor neuron lesion typically spares the upper face, specifically the forehead, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. The facial nerve’s path includes the subarachnoid path, where it originates in the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. The stylomastoid foramen is where the nerve passes through the tympanic cavity anteriorly and the mastoid antrum posteriorly, and it also includes the posterior auricular nerve and branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 36 - A 65-year-old man with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis visits his primary care physician complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis visits his primary care physician complaining of difficulty swallowing and regurgitation. During the examination, the patient's uvula is observed to deviate to the left side of the mouth. The tongue remains unaffected, and taste perception is normal. No other abnormalities are detected upon examination of the oral cavity. Based on these findings, where is the lesion most likely located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left vagus nerve

      Explanation:

      The uvula deviating away from the side of the lesion indicates a problem with the left vagus nerve, as this nerve controls the muscles of the soft palate and can cause uvula deviation when damaged. In cases of vagus nerve lesions, the uvula deviates in the opposite direction of the lesion. As the patient’s uvula deviates towards the right, the underlying issue must be with the left vagus nerve.

      The left hypoglossal nerve cannot be the cause of the uvula deviation, as this nerve only provides motor innervation to the tongue muscles and cannot affect the uvula.

      Similarly, the right hypoglossal nerve and right trigeminal nerve cannot cause uvula deviation, as they do not have any control over the uvula. Trigeminal nerve lesions may cause different clinical signs depending on the location of the lesion, such as masseteric wasting in the case of mandibular nerve damage.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 37 - A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic after experiencing a seizure. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male comes to the clinic after experiencing a seizure. During the history-taking, he reports that he first noticed shaking in his hand about an hour ago. The shaking continued for a few seconds before he lost consciousness and bit his tongue. He also experienced urinary incontinence. How would you describe this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Partial seizure with secondary generalisation

      Explanation:

      Epilepsy is a neurological condition that causes recurrent seizures. In the UK, around 500,000 people have epilepsy, and two-thirds of them can control their seizures with antiepileptic medication. While epilepsy usually occurs in isolation, certain conditions like cerebral palsy, tuberous sclerosis, and mitochondrial diseases have an association with epilepsy. It’s important to note that seizures can also occur due to other reasons like infection, trauma, or metabolic disturbance.

      Seizures can be classified into focal seizures, which start in a specific area of the brain, and generalised seizures, which involve networks on both sides of the brain. Patients who have had generalised seizures may experience biting their tongue or incontinence of urine. Following a seizure, patients typically have a postictal phase where they feel drowsy and tired for around 15 minutes.

      Patients who have had their first seizure generally undergo an electroencephalogram (EEG) and neuroimaging (usually a MRI). Most neurologists start antiepileptics following a second epileptic seizure. Antiepileptics are one of the few drugs where it is recommended that we prescribe by brand, rather than generically, due to the risk of slightly different bioavailability resulting in a lowered seizure threshold.

      Patients who drive, take other medications, wish to get pregnant, or take contraception need to consider the possible interactions of the antiepileptic medication. Some commonly used antiepileptics include sodium valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, and phenytoin. In case of a seizure that doesn’t terminate after 5-10 minutes, medication like benzodiazepines may be administered to terminate the seizure. If a patient continues to fit despite such measures, they are said to have status epilepticus, which is a medical emergency requiring hospital treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 38 - A 20-year-old man is rushed to the emergency department following his ejection from...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man is rushed to the emergency department following his ejection from a car during a road accident.

      During the examination, the patient responds to simple questions with incomprehensible sounds and opens his eyes in response to pain. There is also an abnormal wrist flexion when a sternal rub is applied, and a positive Battle's sign is observed.

      A CT scan of the head is ordered, which reveals a fracture of the petrous temporal bone.

      Which nerve is most likely to be affected by the patient's injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve passes through the internal acoustic meatus, which is correct. This nerve provides motor innervation to the muscles of facial expression, parasympathetic innervation to salivary and lacrimal glands, and special sensory innervation of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue via the chorda tympani. The patient in question has a Glasgow Coma Score of 7, indicating nonspecific neurotrauma from a recent road traffic accident. It is unlikely that damage to the internal acoustic meatus would affect the glossopharyngeal or hypoglossal nerves, which pass through different structures. Damage to the oculomotor nerve, which passes through the superior orbital fissure, may cause ptosis and a dilated ‘down-and-out’ pupil.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 39 - A young physician encounters two patients with ulnar nerve palsy in rapid succession....

    Incorrect

    • A young physician encounters two patients with ulnar nerve palsy in rapid succession. The initial patient has a wrist injury and displays a severe hand deformity resembling a claw. The subsequent patient has an elbow injury and exhibits a similar, albeit less severe, deformity. What is the reason for the counterintuitive observation that the presentation is milder at the site of injury closer to the body?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Denervation of flexor digitorum profundus muscle

      Explanation:

      Injuries to the proximal ulnar nerve result in the loss of function of the flexor digitorum profundus muscle, leading to a decrease in finger flexion and a reduction in the claw-like appearance seen in more distal injuries. This process does not involve the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle or any protective action from surrounding muscles.

      The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.

      The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 40 - A 50-year-old man comes to your clinic with complaints of chronic fatigue. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to your clinic with complaints of chronic fatigue. He also reports experiencing decreased sensation and pins and needles in his arms and legs. During the physical examination, you notice that he appears very pale. The patient has difficulty sensing vibrations from a tuning fork and has reduced proprioception in his joints. Upon further inquiry, he reveals a history of coeliac disease but admits to poor adherence to the gluten-free diet.

      What is the location of the spinal cord lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dorsal cord lesion

      Explanation:

      Lesions in the dorsal cord result in sensory deficits because the dorsal (posterior) horns contain the sensory input. The dorsal columns, responsible for fine touch sensation, proprioception, and vibration, are located in the dorsal/posterior horns. Therefore, a dorsal cord lesion would cause a pattern of sensory deficits. In this case, the patient’s B12 deficiency is due to malabsorption caused by poor adherence to a gluten-free diet. Long-term B12 deficiency leads to subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, which affects the dorsal columns and eventually the lateral columns, resulting in distal paraesthesia and upper motor neuron signs in the legs.

      In contrast, an anterior cord lesion affects the anterolateral pathways (spinothalamic tract, spinoreticular tract, and spinomesencephalic tract), resulting in a loss of pain and temperature below the lesion, but vibration and proprioception are maintained. If the lesion is large, the corticospinal tracts are also affected, resulting in upper motor neuron signs below the lesion.

      A central cord lesion involves damage to the spinothalamic tracts and the cervical cord, resulting in sensory and motor deficits that affect the upper limbs more than the lower limbs. A hemisection of the cord typically presents as Brown-Sequard syndrome.

      A transverse cord lesion damages all motor and sensory pathways in the spinal cord, resulting in ipsilateral and contralateral sensory and motor deficits below the lesion.

      The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.

      One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 41 - A 43-year-old female comes to the ENT clinic with a history of constant...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old female comes to the ENT clinic with a history of constant vertigo and right-sided deafness for the past year. She has no significant medical history. Upon conducting an audiogram, it is discovered that her right ear has reduced hearing to both bone and air conduction. During a cranial nerve exam, an absent corneal reflex is observed on the right side, and she has poor balance. Otoscopy of both ears is normal. What is the probable underlying pathology responsible for this patient's symptoms and signs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vestibular schwannoma (acoustic neuroma)

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with loss of the corneal reflex, the likely diagnosis is vestibular schwannoma (acoustic neuroma). This is a noncancerous tumor that affects the vestibular portion of the 8th cranial nerve, leading to sensorineural deafness, tinnitus, and vertigo. As the tumor grows, it can also press on other cranial nerves. Loss of the corneal reflex is a classic sign of early trigeminal (cranial nerve 5) involvement, which is unlikely in any of the other listed conditions.

      Meniere’s disease is not the correct answer. This is a disorder of the middle ear that causes episodic vertigo, sensorineural hearing loss, and a sensation of aural fullness or pressure.

      Otosclerosis is also incorrect. This is an inherited condition that causes conductive deafness and tinnitus, typically presenting in patients aged 20-40 years.

      Vestibular mononeuritis is not the correct answer either. This condition is caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve following a recent viral infection and presents with vertigo, but hearing is not affected.

      Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.

      If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 42 - A 45-year-old patient visits his GP with complaints of fatigue and weight loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient visits his GP with complaints of fatigue and weight loss. He reports pain in his right shoulder area and tingling sensations in his fourth and fifth fingers on the right hand. Upon diagnosis, it is revealed that he has an apical lung tumor that is pressing on the C8-T1 nerve roots of the brachial plexus. Which nerve in the upper limb is primarily affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      The pressure applied by the tumour on the inferior roots of the brachial plexus (C8-T1) explains the pain in the shoulder region, as the ulnar nerve, which innervates the palmar surface of the fifth digit and medial part of the fourth digit, originates from these roots.

      The axillary nerve’s cutaneous branches supply the skin surrounding the inferior part of the deltoid muscle around the shoulder joint.

      The lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm is the only sensory branch of the musculoskeletal nerve and innervates the lateral aspect of the forearm.

      Although the radial nerve has the most extensive cutaneous innervation of the nerves in the upper limb, it does not supply the palmar surface of the hand but rather its dorsal side.

      The median nerve supplies the lateral part of the palm and the palmar surface of the three most lateral fingers, and is partially comprised of the C8-T1 roots of the brachial plexus. Therefore, altered sensations of the thumb or index finger would be more typical of median nerve impairment than the fourth or fifth digits.

      The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.

      The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 43 - A client comes to the medical facility after a surgical operation. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A client comes to the medical facility after a surgical operation. She reports an inability to shrug her shoulder. What is the probable nerve injury causing this issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accessory nerve

      Explanation:

      Operations in the posterior triangle can result in injury to the accessory nerve, which can impact the functioning of the trapezius muscle.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 44 - A 20-year-old male visits his doctor after injuring himself while doing 'hammer curls',...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male visits his doctor after injuring himself while doing 'hammer curls', a workout that requires flexing the elbow joint in pronation. He reports experiencing elbow pain.

      During the examination, the doctor observes weakness in elbow flexion and detects local tenderness upon palpating the elbow. The doctor suspects that there may be an underlying injury to the nerve supply of the brachialis muscle.

      What accurately describes the nerves that provide innervation to the brachialis muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous and radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The brachialis muscle receives innervation from both the musculocutaneous nerve and radial nerve. Other muscles in the forearm and hand are innervated by different nerves, such as the median nerve which controls most of the flexor muscles in the forearm and the ulnar nerve which innervates the muscles of the hand (excluding the thenar muscles and two lateral lumbricals). The axillary nerve is responsible for innervating the teres minor and deltoid muscles.

      Understanding the Brachial Plexus and Cutaneous Sensation of the Upper Limb

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originates from the anterior rami of C5 to T1. It is divided into five sections: roots, trunks, divisions, cords, and branches. To remember these sections, a common mnemonic used is Real Teenagers Drink Cold Beer.

      The roots of the brachial plexus are located in the posterior triangle and pass between the scalenus anterior and medius muscles. The trunks are located posterior to the middle third of the clavicle, with the upper and middle trunks related superiorly to the subclavian artery. The lower trunk passes over the first rib posterior to the subclavian artery. The divisions of the brachial plexus are located at the apex of the axilla, while the cords are related to the axillary artery.

      The branches of the brachial plexus provide cutaneous sensation to the upper limb. This includes the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the posterior arm, forearm, and hand; the median nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar aspect of the thumb, index, middle, and half of the ring finger; and the ulnar nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar and dorsal aspects of the fifth finger and half of the ring finger.

      Understanding the brachial plexus and its branches is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the upper limb, such as nerve injuries and neuropathies. It also helps in understanding the cutaneous sensation of the upper limb and how it relates to the different nerves of the brachial plexus.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 45 - A 30-year-old man presents to you with complaints of numbness and pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to you with complaints of numbness and pain in his hands and feet since this morning. He had visited for gastroenteritis 3 weeks ago. On examination, he has a bilateral reduction in power of 3/5 in his upper and lower limbs. His speech is normal, and he has no other medical conditions. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition where the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, leading to demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection and presents with rapidly advancing ascending motor neuropathy. Proximal muscles are more affected than distal muscles.

      A stroke or transient ischaemic attack usually has a sudden onset and causes unilateral symptoms such as facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech.

      Raynaud’s disease causes numbness and pain in the fingers and toes, typically in response to cold weather or stress.

      Guillain-Barre Syndrome: A Breakdown of its Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that occurs when the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, resulting in demyelination. This is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. In the initial stages of the illness, around 65% of patients experience back or leg pain. However, the characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is progressive, symmetrical weakness of all limbs, with the legs being affected first in an ascending pattern. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild. Other features may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement, which can lead to urinary retention and diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption. To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency.

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  • Question 46 - A 15-year-old boy fell from a height of 2 meters while climbing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy fell from a height of 2 meters while climbing a tree and caught himself with his right arm on a branch just before hitting the ground. He immediately felt pain in his hand and lower neck. Despite the pain, he managed to lower himself to the ground and make his way to the hospital.

      Upon examination, there are no visible wounds or fractures, but there is a noticeable reduction in movement and power of the intrinsic hand muscles. All other joints in the upper limb appear to be normal.

      What nerve root injury pattern did the boy sustain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T1

      Explanation:

      Brachial Plexus Injuries: Erb-Duchenne and Klumpke’s Paralysis

      Erb-Duchenne paralysis is a type of brachial plexus injury that results from damage to the C5 and C6 roots. This can occur during a breech presentation, where the baby’s head and neck are pulled to the side during delivery. Symptoms of Erb-Duchenne paralysis include weakness or paralysis of the arm, shoulder, and hand, as well as a winged scapula.

      On the other hand, Klumpke’s paralysis is caused by damage to the T1 root of the brachial plexus. This type of injury typically occurs due to traction, such as when a baby’s arm is pulled during delivery. Klumpke’s paralysis can result in a loss of intrinsic hand muscles, which can affect fine motor skills and grip strength.

      It is important to note that brachial plexus injuries can have long-term effects on a person’s mobility and quality of life. Treatment options may include physical therapy, surgery, or a combination of both. Early intervention is key to improving outcomes and minimizing the impact of these injuries.

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  • Question 47 - A 62-year-old male is brought to the emergency room by the police. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male is brought to the emergency room by the police. He has a two-day history of increasing confusion, sweats, and aggression. He resides in a homeless hostel and has a history of alcohol abuse. However, he claims to have stopped drinking since being at the hostel in the last week.

      Upon examination, he appears markedly agitated, sweaty, and confused. He reports seeing things on the wall. Additionally, he exhibits slightly hyperreflexia and flexor plantar responses. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delirium tremens

      Explanation:

      The causes of septic shock are important to understand in order to provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes. Septic shock can cause fever, hypotension, and renal failure, as well as tachypnea due to metabolic acidosis. However, it is crucial to rule out other conditions such as hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state or diabetic ketoacidosis, which have different symptoms and diagnostic criteria.

      While metformin can contribute to acidosis, it is unlikely to be the primary cause in this case. Diabetic patients may be prone to renal tubular acidosis, but this is not likely to be the cause of an acute presentation. Instead, a type IV renal tubular acidosis, characterized by hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism, may be a more likely association.

      Overall, it is crucial to carefully evaluate patients with septic shock and consider all possible causes of their symptoms. By ruling out other conditions and identifying the underlying cause of the acidosis, healthcare providers can provide targeted treatment and improve patient outcomes. Further research and education on septic shock and its causes can also help to improve diagnosis and treatment in the future.

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  • Question 48 - Which of the following nerves passes through the greater sciatic foramen and provides...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves passes through the greater sciatic foramen and provides innervation to the perineum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pudendal

      Explanation:

      The pudendal nerve is divided into three branches: the rectal nerve, perineal nerve, and dorsal nerve of the penis/clitoris. All three branches pass through the greater sciatic foramen. The pudendal nerve provides innervation to the perineum and travels between the piriformis and coccygeus muscles, medial to the sciatic nerve.

      The gluteal region is composed of various muscles and nerves that play a crucial role in hip movement and stability. The gluteal muscles, including the gluteus maximus, medius, and minimis, extend and abduct the hip joint. Meanwhile, the deep lateral hip rotators, such as the piriformis, gemelli, obturator internus, and quadratus femoris, rotate the hip joint externally.

      The nerves that innervate the gluteal muscles are the superior and inferior gluteal nerves. The superior gluteal nerve controls the gluteus medius, gluteus minimis, and tensor fascia lata muscles, while the inferior gluteal nerve controls the gluteus maximus muscle.

      If the superior gluteal nerve is damaged, it can result in a Trendelenburg gait, where the patient is unable to abduct the thigh at the hip joint. This weakness causes the pelvis to tilt down on the opposite side during the stance phase, leading to compensatory movements such as trunk lurching to maintain a level pelvis throughout the gait cycle. As a result, the pelvis sags on the opposite side of the lesioned superior gluteal nerve.

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  • Question 49 - A 29-year-old man attempts suicide by cutting the posterolateral aspect of his wrist...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man attempts suicide by cutting the posterolateral aspect of his wrist with a knife. Upon arrival at the emergency department, examination reveals a wound situated over the lateral aspect of the extensor retinaculum, which remains intact. What structure is most vulnerable to injury in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superficial branch of the radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The extensor retinaculum laceration site poses the highest risk of injury to the superficial branch of the radial nerve, which runs above it. Meanwhile, the dorsal branch of the ulnar nerve and artery are situated medially but also pass above the extensor retinaculum.

      The Extensor Retinaculum and its Related Structures

      The extensor retinaculum is a thick layer of deep fascia that runs across the back of the wrist, holding the long extensor tendons in place. It attaches to the pisiform and triquetral bones medially and the end of the radius laterally. The retinaculum has six compartments that contain the extensor muscle tendons, each with its own synovial sheath.

      Several structures are related to the extensor retinaculum. Superficial to the retinaculum are the basilic and cephalic veins, the dorsal cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve, and the superficial branch of the radial nerve. Deep to the retinaculum are the tendons of the extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digiti minimi, extensor digitorum, extensor indicis, extensor pollicis longus, extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, abductor pollicis longus, and extensor pollicis brevis.

      The radial artery also passes between the lateral collateral ligament of the wrist joint and the tendons of the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis. Understanding the topography of these structures is important for diagnosing and treating wrist injuries and conditions.

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  • Question 50 - A 41-year-old man is attacked with a knife outside a club. He experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man is attacked with a knife outside a club. He experiences a severing of his median nerve as it exits the brachial plexus. Which of the following outcomes is the least probable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Complete loss of wrist flexion

      Explanation:

      The flexor muscles will no longer function if the median nerve is lost. Nevertheless, the flexor carpi ulnaris will remain functional and cause ulnar deviation and some remaining wrist flexion. Total loss of flexion at the thumb joint occurs with high median nerve lesions.

      Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve

      The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.

      The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.

      Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

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  • Question 51 - A 40-year-old man visits his GP with his wife who is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man visits his GP with his wife who is worried about his behavior. Upon further inquiry, the wife reveals that her husband has been displaying erratic and impulsive behavior for the past 4 months. She also discloses that he inappropriately touched a family friend, which is out of character for him. When asked about his medical history, the patient mentions that he used to be an avid motorcyclist but had a severe accident 6 months ago, resulting in a month-long hospital stay. He denies experiencing flashbacks and reports generally good mood. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe injury

      Explanation:

      Disinhibition can be a result of frontal lobe lesions.

      Based on his recent accident, it is probable that the man has suffered from a frontal lobe injury. Such injuries can cause changes in behavior, including impulsiveness and a lack of inhibition.

      If the injury were to the occipital lobe, it would likely result in vision loss.

      The patient’s denial of flashbacks and positive mood make it unlikely that he has PTSD.

      Injuries to the parietal and temporal lobes can lead to communication difficulties and sensory perception problems.

      Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.

      In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 52 - A 59-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sudden onset of visual disturbance. He has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and is currently taking atorvastatin. Additionally, he smokes 15 cigarettes daily, drinks half a bottle of wine each night, and works as a bond-trader.

      Upon examination of his eyes, a field defect is observed in the right upper quadrant of both his right and left eye. Other than that, the examination is unremarkable.

      What is the anatomical location of the lesion that is affecting his vision?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left inferior optic radiation

      Explanation:

      A right superior homonymous quadrantanopia in the patient is caused by a lesion in the left inferior optic radiation located in the temporal lobe. The sudden onset indicates a possible stroke or vascular event. A superior homonymous quadrantanopia occurs when the contralateral inferior optic radiation is affected.

      A lesion in the left superior optic radiation would result in a right inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, which is not the case here. Similarly, a lesion in the left optic tract would cause contralateral hemianopia, which is also not the diagnosis in this patient.

      Understanding Visual Field Defects

      Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.

      When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.

      Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.

      Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.

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  • Question 53 - A 68-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of double vision. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of double vision. He has a history of diabetes. During the examination, it is observed that his left eye is pointing downwards and outwards, and he is unable to move it. What is the probable cause of this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oculomotor nerve palsy

      Explanation:

      The eye can move in three different planes – vertical, horizontal, and torsional. Torsion can be further divided into intorsion and extorsion. The six extraocular muscles are responsible for these movements. The medial rectus adducts, while the lateral rectus abducts. The superior rectus primarily elevates and controls intorsion, while the inferior rectus primarily depresses and controls extorsion.

      The superior and inferior oblique muscles are responsible for torsion movements. The superior oblique controls intorsion and depression, while the inferior oblique controls extorsion.

      Most of the extraocular muscles are innervated by the oculomotor nerve, except for the superior oblique (innervated by the trochlear nerve) and the lateral rectus (innervated by the abducens nerve).

      When considering the options for a question, we can exclude the optic nerve and long ciliary nerve as they are not involved in eye movement. Trochlear nerve palsy would result in impaired intorsion, while abducens nerve palsy would result in impaired abduction. However, a down and out eye is typically associated with oculomotor nerve palsy.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

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  • Question 54 - A 30-year-old man suffers a severe middle cranial fossa basal skull fracture. After...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man suffers a severe middle cranial fossa basal skull fracture. After his recovery, it is observed that he has reduced tear secretion. What is the most probable cause of this, resulting from which of the following damages?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Greater petrosal nerve

      Explanation:

      The Lacrimation Reflex

      The lacrimation reflex is a response to conjunctival irritation or emotional events. When the conjunctiva is irritated, it sends signals via the ophthalmic nerve to the superior salivary center. From there, efferent signals pass via the greater petrosal nerve (parasympathetic preganglionic fibers) and the deep petrosal nerve (postganglionic sympathetic fibers) to the lacrimal apparatus. The parasympathetic fibers relay in the pterygopalatine ganglion, while the sympathetic fibers do not synapse.

      This reflex is important for maintaining the health of the eye by keeping it moist and protecting it from foreign particles. It is also responsible for the tears that are shed during emotional events, such as crying. The lacrimal gland, which produces tears, is innervated by the secretomotor parasympathetic fibers from the pterygopalatine ganglion. The nasolacrimal duct, which carries tears from the eye to the nose, opens anteriorly in the inferior meatus of the nose. Overall, the lacrimal system plays a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of the eye.

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  • Question 55 - A 55-year-old male with a history of cirrhosis presents to the neurology clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male with a history of cirrhosis presents to the neurology clinic with his spouse. The spouse reports observing rapid, involuntary jerky movements in the patient's body, which you suspect to be chorea. What is the most probable cause of this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wilson's disease

      Explanation:

      Wilson’s disease can cause chorea, which is characterised by involuntary, rapid, jerky movements that move from one area of the body to the next. Parkinson’s disease, hypothyroidism, and cerebellar syndrome have different symptoms and are not associated with chorea.

      Chorea: Involuntary Jerky Movements

      Chorea is a medical condition characterized by involuntary, rapid, and jerky movements that can occur in any part of the body. Athetosis, on the other hand, refers to slower and sinuous movements of the limbs. Both conditions are caused by damage to the basal ganglia, particularly the caudate nucleus.

      There are various underlying causes of chorea, including genetic disorders such as Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease, autoimmune diseases like systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and anti-phospholipid syndrome, and rheumatic fever, which can lead to Sydenham’s chorea. Certain medications like oral contraceptive pills, L-dopa, and antipsychotics can also trigger chorea. Other possible causes include neuroacanthocytosis, pregnancy-related chorea gravidarum, thyrotoxicosis, polycythemia rubra vera, and carbon monoxide poisoning.

      In summary, chorea is a medical condition that causes involuntary, jerky movements in the body. It can be caused by various factors, including genetic disorders, autoimmune diseases, medications, and other medical conditions.

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  • Question 56 - At what level does the inferior vena cava exit the abdominal cavity? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what level does the inferior vena cava exit the abdominal cavity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T8

      Explanation:

      Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body

      The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.

      In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.

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  • Question 57 - You are reviewing a child's notes in the clinic and see that they...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a child's notes in the clinic and see that they have recently been seen by an ophthalmologist. Their ocular examination was normal, although they were noted to have significant hyperopia (farsightedness) and would benefit from spectacles. The child's parent mentioned that they do not fully understand why their child requires glasses. You draw them a diagram to explain the cause of their long-sightedness.

      Where is the point that light rays converge in this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Behind the retina

      Explanation:

      Hyperopia, also known as hypermetropia, is a condition where the eye’s visual axis is too short, causing the image to be focused behind the retina. This is typically caused by an imbalance between the length of the eye and the power of the cornea and lens system.

      In a healthy eye, light is first focused by the cornea and then by the crystalline lens, resulting in a clear image on the retina. However, in hyperopia, the light is refracted to a point of focus behind the retina, leading to blurred vision.

      Myopia, on the other hand, is a common refractive error where light rays converge in front of the retina due to the cornea and lens system being too powerful for the length of the eye.

      In cases where light rays converge on the crystalline lens capsule, it may indicate severe corneal disruption, such as ocular trauma or keratoconus. This would not be considered a refractive error.

      To correct hyperopia, corrective lenses are needed to refract the light before it enters the eye. A convex lens is typically used to correct the refractive error in a hyperopic eye.

      A gradual decline in vision is a prevalent issue among the elderly population, leading them to seek guidance from healthcare providers. This condition can be attributed to various causes, including cataracts and age-related macular degeneration. Both of these conditions can cause a gradual loss of vision over time, making it difficult for individuals to perform daily activities such as reading, driving, and recognizing faces. As a result, it is essential for individuals experiencing a decline in vision to seek medical attention promptly to receive appropriate treatment and prevent further deterioration.

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  • Question 58 - A 58-year-old male comes to the GP with a complaint of changed sensation...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male comes to the GP with a complaint of changed sensation in his legs. Upon examination, you observe brisk knee reflexes and a positive Babinski sign, but no ankle jerks. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord

      Explanation:

      Subacute Combined Degeneration of Spinal Cord

      Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin B12. The dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts are affected, leading to the loss of joint position and vibration sense. The first symptoms are usually distal paraesthesia, followed by the development of upper motor neuron signs in the legs, such as extensor plantars, brisk knee reflexes, and absent ankle jerks. If left untreated, stiffness and weakness may persist.

      This condition is a serious concern and requires prompt medical attention. It is important to maintain a healthy diet that includes sufficient amounts of vitamin B12 to prevent the development of subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord.

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  • Question 59 - A 29-year-old Caucasian female presented to her primary care physician complaining of left...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old Caucasian female presented to her primary care physician complaining of left eye pain that has been bothering her for the past week. She also reported experiencing tingling sensations in her upper limbs and two episodes of weakness in her right arm that lasted for a few days before resolving. She noted that the weakness and tingling were exacerbated after taking a hot bath. What is the origin of the cells primarily impacted in this woman's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neural tube neuroepithelia

      Explanation:

      Multiple sclerosis is a neurodegenerative disorder caused by the loss of oligodendrocytes, which produce myelin in the central nervous system. These cells are derived from the neural tube neuroepithelial cells, not from mesenchymal cells, which develop into other tissue cells such as bone marrow, adipose tissue, and muscle cells. The neural crest cells give rise to the neurons of the peripheral nervous system and myelin-producing Schwann cells, while the mesoderm only gives rise to microglia during nervous system development. The notochord plays a role in inducing the overlying ectoderm to develop into the neuroectoderm and neural plate, and gives rise to the nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral disc. Ultimately, the oligodendrocytes are embryological derivatives of the neural tube neuroepithelia, which develop from the ectoderm overlying the notochord.

      Embryonic Development of the Nervous System

      The nervous system develops from the embryonic neural tube, which gives rise to the brain and spinal cord. The neural tube is divided into five regions, each of which gives rise to specific structures in the nervous system. The telencephalon gives rise to the cerebral cortex, lateral ventricles, and basal ganglia. The diencephalon gives rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus, optic nerves, and third ventricle. The mesencephalon gives rise to the midbrain and cerebral aqueduct. The metencephalon gives rise to the pons, cerebellum, and superior part of the fourth ventricle. The myelencephalon gives rise to the medulla and inferior part of the fourth ventricle.

      The neural tube is also divided into two plates: the alar plate and the basal plate. The alar plate gives rise to sensory neurons, while the basal plate gives rise to motor neurons. This division of the neural tube into different regions and plates is crucial for the proper development and function of the nervous system. Understanding the embryonic development of the nervous system is important for understanding the origins of neurological disorders and for developing new treatments for these disorders.

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  • Question 60 - A 45-year-old female comes to see you with concerns about her vision. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female comes to see you with concerns about her vision. She reports experiencing blurred vision for the past few weeks, which she first noticed while descending stairs. She now sees two images when looking at one object, with one image appearing below and tilted away from the other. She denies any changes in her taste or hearing. Upon examination, her pupils are equal and reactive to light, and there is no evidence of nystagmus. Based on these findings, which cranial nerve is most likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trochlea

      Explanation:

      Torsional diplopia is a symptom that is commonly associated with a fourth nerve palsy, also known as a trochlear nerve palsy. This condition is characterized by the perception of tilted objects, as the affected individual sees one object as two images, with one image appearing slightly tilted in relation to the other. Fourth nerve palsy can also cause vertical diplopia, where two images of one object are seen, with one image appearing above the other. The affected eye may be deviated upwards and rotated outwards.

      Lesions in the eighth cranial nerve, also known as the vestibulocochlear nerve, can lead to symptoms such as hearing loss, vertigo, and nystagmus.

      Sixth nerve palsy, or abducens nerve palsy, can cause horizontal diplopia, where two images of one object are seen side by side. This is due to defective abduction, which prevents the eye from moving laterally.

      Third nerve palsy, or oculomotor nerve palsy, can result in diplopia, as well as a down and out eye with a fixed, dilated pupil.

      Seventh nerve palsy, or facial nerve palsy, can cause flaccid paralysis of the upper and lower face, loss of corneal reflex, loss of taste, and hyperacusis.

      Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy

      Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is double vision that occurs when looking straight ahead. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding the symptoms of fourth nerve palsy can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.

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  • Question 61 - A 31-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after collapsing at home,...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after collapsing at home, witnessed by her partner while walking in the garden. She has a medical history of vascular Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. On examination, she is unresponsive with a Glasgow Coma Score of 3. A non-contrast CT head shows no pathology, but an MRI brain reveals a basilar artery dissection. What is the probable outcome of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Locked-in syndrome

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is locked-in syndrome, which is characterized by the paralysis of all voluntary muscles except for those controlling eye movements, while cognitive function remains preserved. Lesions in the basilar artery can cause quadriplegia and bulbar palsies as it supplies the pons, which transmits the corticospinal tracts.

      While brainstem lesions can cause Horner’s syndrome, it is typically caused by involvement of the hypothalamus, which is supplied by the circle of Willis. Therefore, Horner’s syndrome is not typically caused by basilar artery lesions.

      Medial medullary syndrome can be caused by lesions of the anterior spinal artery and is characterized by contralateral hemiplegia, altered sensorium, and deviation of the tongue toward the affected side.

      Wallenberg syndrome can be caused by lesions of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA) and presents with dysphagia, ataxia, vertigo, and contralateral deficits in temperature and pain sensation.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

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  • Question 62 - A 10-year-old boy is rushed to the emergency department following a seizure. According...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is rushed to the emergency department following a seizure. According to his mother, the twitching started in his right hand while he was having breakfast, then spread to his arm and face, and eventually affected his entire body. The seizure lasted for a few minutes, and afterward, he felt groggy and had no recollection of what happened.

      Which part of the boy's brain was impacted by the seizure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      The correct location for a seizure with progressive clonic movements travelling from a distal site (fingers) proximally, known as a Jacksonian march, is the frontal lobe. Seizures in the occipital lobe present with visual disturbances, while seizures in the parietal lobe result in sensory changes and seizures in the temporal lobe present with hallucinations and automatisms. Absence seizures are associated with the thalamus and are characterized by brief losses of consciousness without postictal fatigue or grogginess.

      Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy

      Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.

      On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.

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  • Question 63 - A 50-year-old cyclist comes to the GP complaining of pain and altered sensation...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old cyclist comes to the GP complaining of pain and altered sensation in his testicles. The symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past two months and are exacerbated when he sits down. During the examination, he experiences pain when light touch is applied to the scrotum. There is no swelling or redness of the testes. The GP suspects that the nerves innervating the scrotum may have been damaged.

      Which nerve is most likely to be affected in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      The scrotum receives innervation from both the ilioinguinal nerve and the pudendal nerve.

      Along with the ilioinguinal nerve, the pudendal nerve also provides innervation to the scrotum.

      The gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fascia latae muscles are innervated by the superior gluteal nerve.

      The sciatic nerve is responsible for providing cutaneous sensation to the leg and foot skin, as well as innervating the muscles of the posterior thigh, lower leg, and foot.

      Erection is facilitated by the cavernous nerves, which are parasympathetic nerves.

      The gluteus maximus muscle is innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve.

      Scrotal Sensation and Nerve Innervation

      The scrotum is a sensitive area of the male body that is innervated by two main nerves: the ilioinguinal nerve and the pudendal nerve. The ilioinguinal nerve originates from the first lumbar vertebrae and passes through the internal oblique muscle before reaching the superficial inguinal ring. From there, it provides sensation to the anterior skin of the scrotum.

      The pudendal nerve, on the other hand, is the primary nerve of the perineum. It arises from three nerve roots in the pelvis and passes through the greater and lesser sciatic foramina to enter the perineal region. Its perineal branches then divide into posterior scrotal branches, which supply the skin and fascia of the perineum. The pudendal nerve also communicates with the inferior rectal nerve.

      Overall, the innervation of the scrotum is complex and involves multiple nerves. However, understanding the anatomy and function of these nerves is important for maintaining proper scrotal sensation and overall male health.

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  • Question 64 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP complaining of vision changes, including deteriorating visual...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP complaining of vision changes, including deteriorating visual acuity, colour perception, and distorted images. After conducting tests, the diagnosis of dry age-related macular degeneration (Dry-AMD) is confirmed. What retinal sign is typical of Dry-AMD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drusen

      Explanation:

      Drusen, which are yellow deposits on the retina visible during fundoscopy, can indicate the severity of dry-AMD based on their distribution and quantity. Wet-AMD is more commonly associated with retinal hemorrhages and neovascularization. While painless vision loss can be caused by papilledema, this condition is typically linked to disorders that directly impact the optic disc.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. The risk of ARMD increases with age, smoking, family history, and conditions associated with an increased risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD is classified into dry and wet forms, with the latter carrying the worst prognosis. Clinical features include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual hallucinations. Signs include distortion of line perception, the presence of drusen, and well-demarcated red patches in wet ARMD. Investigations include slit-lamp microscopy, colour fundus photography, fluorescein angiography, indocyanine green angiography, and ocular coherence tomography. Treatment options include a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents for wet ARMD. Laser photocoagulation is also an option, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred.

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  • Question 65 - A 65-year-old patient reports to their physician with a complaint of taste loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient reports to their physician with a complaint of taste loss. After taking a thorough medical history, the doctor notes no recent infections. However, the patient does mention being able to taste normally when only using the tip of their tongue, such as when licking ice cream.

      Which cranial nerve is impacted in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The loss of taste in the posterior third of the tongue is due to a problem with the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX). This is because the patient can taste when licking the ice cream, indicating that the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are functioning normally. The facial nerve also provides taste sensation, but only to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, so it is not responsible for the loss of taste in the posterior third. The hypoglossal nerve is not involved in taste sensation, but rather in motor innervation of the tongue. The olfactory nerve innervates the nose, not the tongue, and there is no indication of a problem with the patient’s sense of smell.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

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  • Question 66 - A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic with persistent speech difficulties. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic with persistent speech difficulties. He is concerned that he might have suffered a stroke. Which scoring system should be used to assess if he has had a stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ROSIER score

      Explanation:

      Stroke Assessment and Investigations

      Whilst diagnosing a stroke may be straightforward in some cases, it can be challenging in others due to vague symptoms. The FAST screening tool, which stands for Face/Arms/Speech/Time, is a well-known tool used by the general public to identify stroke symptoms. However, medical professionals use a validated tool called the ROSIER score, recommended by the Royal College of Physicians. The ROSIER score assesses loss of consciousness or syncope, seizure activity, and new, acute onset of asymmetric facial, arm, or leg weakness, speech disturbance, or visual field defect. A score of more than zero indicates a likely stroke.

      When investigating suspected stroke, a non-contrast CT head scan is the first line radiological investigation. The key question is whether the stroke is ischaemic or haemorrhagic, as this determines the appropriate treatment. Ischaemic strokes may show areas of low density in the grey and white matter of the territory, which may take time to develop. On the other hand, haemorrhagic strokes typically show areas of hyperdense material (blood) surrounded by low density (oedema). It is crucial to determine the type of stroke promptly, given the increasing role of thrombolysis and thrombectomy in acute stroke management. In rare cases, a third pathology such as a tumour may also be detected.

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  • Question 67 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of metastatic breast cancer complains of nausea...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of metastatic breast cancer complains of nausea and vomiting. Despite taking regular metoclopramide, she has vomited five times today. She underwent palliative chemotherapy three days ago. You opt to initiate treatment with ondansetron.

      Can you provide a comprehensive explanation of the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5-HT3 (serotonin) receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Understanding 5-HT3 Antagonists

      5-HT3 antagonists are a type of medication used to treat nausea, particularly in patients undergoing chemotherapy. These drugs work by targeting the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the medulla oblongata, which is responsible for triggering nausea and vomiting. Examples of 5-HT3 antagonists include ondansetron and palonosetron, with the latter being a second-generation drug that has the advantage of having a reduced effect on the QT interval.

      While 5-HT3 antagonists are generally well-tolerated, they can have some adverse effects. One of the most significant concerns is the potential for a prolonged QT interval, which can increase the risk of arrhythmias and other cardiac complications. Additionally, constipation is a common side effect of these medications. Overall, 5-HT3 antagonists are an important tool in the management of chemotherapy-induced nausea, but their use should be carefully monitored to minimize the risk of adverse effects.

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  • Question 68 - A 67-year-old male, John, visits his doctor with complaints of right-sided facial weakness....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male, John, visits his doctor with complaints of right-sided facial weakness. He reports no other symptoms. Upon further examination and imaging, John is diagnosed with a unilateral parotid tumor. What cranial nerve lesion could be responsible for John's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extracranial lesion of right facial nerve

      Explanation:

      Facial nerve palsy can be caused by a tumour in the parotid gland, which is an example of an extracranial lesion of the facial nerve.

      The facial nerve is responsible for controlling the muscles of facial expression, so any damage to the nerve can result in weakness or paralysis of these muscles. Although the trigeminal nerve does not pass through the parotid gland, the facial nerve does.

      When the facial nerve is affected outside of the cranium, it is considered an extracranial lesion. Since the parotid gland is located outside of the cranium, a tumour in this gland that causes facial nerve damage is classified as an extracranial lesion.

      An extracranial palsy on the same side as the lesion is caused by a parotid gland lesion. Therefore, June’s right-sided facial weakness indicates that she has an extracranial lesion of the right facial nerve.

      Cranial nerve palsies can present with diplopia, or double vision, which is most noticeable in the direction of the weakened muscle. Additionally, covering the affected eye will cause the outer image to disappear. False localising signs can indicate a pathology that is not in the expected anatomical location. One common example is sixth nerve palsy, which is often caused by increased intracranial pressure due to conditions such as brain tumours, abscesses, meningitis, or haemorrhages. Papilloedema may also be present in these cases.

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  • Question 69 - A 48-year-old man is referred to a neurology clinic due to experiencing uncontrolled...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is referred to a neurology clinic due to experiencing uncontrolled movements of his limbs. The probable diagnosis is Huntington's disease, which results in the deterioration of the basal ganglia.

      Which neurotransmitters are expected to be primarily impacted, leading to the manifestation of the man's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ACh and GABA

      Explanation:

      The neurons responsible for producing ACh and GABA are primarily affected by the degeneration of the basal ganglia in Huntington’s disease, which plays a crucial role in regulating voluntary movement.

      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that causes progressive and incurable neurodegeneration. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a trinucleotide repeat expansion of CAG in the huntingtin gene on chromosome 4. This can result in the phenomenon of anticipation, where the disease presents at an earlier age in successive generations. The disease leads to the degeneration of cholinergic and GABAergic neurons in the striatum of the basal ganglia, which can cause a range of symptoms.

      Typically, symptoms of Huntington’s disease develop after the age of 35 and can include chorea, personality changes such as irritability, apathy, and depression, intellectual impairment, dystonia, and saccadic eye movements. Unfortunately, there is currently no cure for Huntington’s disease, and it usually results in death around 20 years after the initial symptoms develop.

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  • Question 70 - As it leaves the axilla, which muscle does the radial nerve pass over?...

    Incorrect

    • As it leaves the axilla, which muscle does the radial nerve pass over?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teres major

      Explanation:

      The triangular space serves as a pathway for the radial nerve to exit the axilla. Its upper boundary is defined by the teres major muscle, which has a close association with the radial nerve.

      The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

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  • Question 71 - A teenage boy is undergoing a procedure to remove an abscess on his...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage boy is undergoing a procedure to remove an abscess on his back. While being put under general anesthesia, he is administered fentanyl intravenously for pain relief.

      What characteristics of fentanyl make it a preferable choice in this situation over other opioids such as morphine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fentanyl is more lipophilic and therefore has a faster onset

      Explanation:

      Fentanyl analgesic onset is faster than morphine because of its higher lipophilicity, allowing it to penetrate the CNS more rapidly.

      When inducing anesthesia, it is crucial to have a quick-acting analgesic to minimize the physical response to intubation. Fentanyl’s greater lipophilicity enables it to cross the blood-brain barrier more efficiently, resulting in a faster effect on the CNS.

      Both fentanyl and morphine bind to opioid receptors in the CNS, producing their effects.

      Due to its higher potency, fentanyl requires a smaller dosage than morphine.

      As a synthetic opioid, fentanyl causes less nausea and vomiting.

      Understanding Opioids: Types, Receptors, and Clinical Uses

      Opioids are a class of chemical compounds that act upon opioid receptors located within the central nervous system (CNS). These receptors are G-protein coupled receptors that have numerous actions throughout the body. There are three clinically relevant groups of opioid receptors: mu (µ), kappa (κ), and delta (δ) receptors. Endogenous opioids, such as endorphins, dynorphins, and enkephalins, are produced by specific cells within the CNS and their actions depend on whether µ-receptors or δ-receptors and κ-receptors are their main target.

      Drugs targeted at opioid receptors are the largest group of analgesic drugs and form the second and third steps of the WHO pain ladder of managing analgesia. The choice of which opioid drug to use depends on the patient’s needs and the clinical scenario. The first step of the pain ladder involves non-opioids such as paracetamol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. The second step involves weak opioids such as codeine and tramadol, while the third step involves strong opioids such as morphine, oxycodone, methadone, and fentanyl.

      The strength, routes of administration, common uses, and significant side effects of these opioid drugs vary. Weak opioids have moderate analgesic effects without exposing the patient to as many serious adverse effects associated with strong opioids. Strong opioids have powerful analgesic effects but are also more liable to cause opioid-related side effects such as sedation, respiratory depression, constipation, urinary retention, and addiction. The sedative effects of opioids are also useful in anesthesia with potent drugs used as part of induction of a general anesthetic.

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  • Question 72 - A 60-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of headaches. He reports experiencing scalp...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of headaches. He reports experiencing scalp pain every morning while combing his hair and feeling fatigued while chewing his food. Upon conducting blood tests, the doctor discovers an elevated ESR. What condition is most likely causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giant cell arteritis

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Headaches and Their Characteristics

      Giant cell arteritis is a condition that affects older patients and is characterized by a headache and scalp tenderness, along with jaw claudication. The superficial temporal artery is often affected, and if left untreated, it can lead to visual loss. High doses of steroids are required for treatment, and the dose is gradually reduced based on the patient’s symptoms and the ESR.

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is a neurological disorder that causes increased intracranial pressure without a mass legion. Symptoms include a headache, which is often worse in the morning, and visual disturbances. A CT head is used to diagnose the condition, and it is treated with repeated lumbar punctures.

      Migraine is a recurrent headache that follows a transient prodromal phase. The headache can be accompanied by photophobia and vomiting and can be triggered by various factors such as chocolate and cheese.

      Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) is characterized by the worst headache that patients have ever experienced, along with confusion and vomiting. Early recognition and referral to neurosurgery is essential.

      Tension headache is a feeling of pressure or tightness around the head, without any associated features.

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  • Question 73 - A 21-year-old female is admitted with suspected meningitis. The House Officer is about...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old female is admitted with suspected meningitis. The House Officer is about to perform a lumbar puncture. What is the initial structure that the needle is likely to encounter upon insertion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supraspinous ligament

      Explanation:

      Lumbar Puncture Procedure

      Lumbar puncture is a medical procedure that involves obtaining cerebrospinal fluid. In adults, the procedure is typically performed at the L3/L4 or L4/5 interspace, which is located below the spinal cord’s termination at L1.

      During the procedure, the needle passes through several layers. First, it penetrates the supraspinous ligament, which connects the tips of spinous processes. Then, it passes through the interspinous ligaments between adjacent borders of spinous processes. Next, the needle penetrates the ligamentum flavum, which may cause a give. Finally, the needle passes through the dura mater into the subarachnoid space, which is marked by a second give. At this point, clear cerebrospinal fluid should be obtained.

      Overall, the lumbar puncture procedure is a complex process that requires careful attention to detail. By following the proper steps and guidelines, medical professionals can obtain cerebrospinal fluid safely and effectively.

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  • Question 74 - An 8-year-old boy arrives at the emergency department complaining of weakness in his...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy arrives at the emergency department complaining of weakness in his limbs, difficulty swallowing, and a general feeling of malaise. These symptoms began after he recently had an upper respiratory tract infection. Upon examination, it is noted that his neck muscles, as well as both his proximal and distal arm and leg muscles, are weak. Additionally, his tendon reflexes are reduced bilaterally in both his upper and lower limbs, but his sensation is only mildly affected. What is the most probable underlying condition causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (Guillain-Barre syndrome)

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barre Syndrome: A Breakdown of its Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that occurs when the immune system attacks the peripheral nervous system, resulting in demyelination. This is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. In the initial stages of the illness, around 65% of patients experience back or leg pain. However, the characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is progressive, symmetrical weakness of all limbs, with the legs being affected first in an ascending pattern. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild. Other features may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement, which can lead to urinary retention and diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption. To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency.

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  • Question 75 - A 36-year-old patient, Sarah, arrives at the emergency department with an abrupt onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old patient, Sarah, arrives at the emergency department with an abrupt onset of left-sided facial weakness. The weakness impacts the entire left side of her face, including her forehead, and her corneal reflex is absent upon examination. The physician prescribes prednisolone and informs Sarah that her facial weakness should improve within a few weeks.

      What is the cranial foramen through which the nerve responsible for Sarah's symptoms passes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal acoustic meatus

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the internal acoustic meatus, through which the facial nerve (CN VII) and vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) pass. Emily is likely experiencing Bell’s Palsy, which is treated with prednisolone. The foramen ovale is incorrect, as it is where the mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve (CN V₃) passes. The foramen spinosum is also incorrect, as it is where the middle meningeal artery, middle meningeal vein, and meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve (CN V₃) pass. The jugular foramen is incorrect, as it is where the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), vagus nerve (CN X), and spinal accessory nerve (CN XI) pass. The superior orbital fissure (SOF) is also incorrect, as it is where the lacrimal nerve, frontal and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic nerve (CN V₁), trochlear nerve (CN IV), oculomotor nerve (CN III), abducens nerve (CN VI), superior ophthalmic vein, and a branch of the inferior ophthalmic vein pass.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

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  • Question 76 - A 22-year-old graduate student comes to you with concerns about abnormal muscle jerks...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old graduate student comes to you with concerns about abnormal muscle jerks and contractions while studying late for her upcoming exams. She is worried that she may be experiencing seizures. Upon further questioning, she denies any post-episode drowsiness, incontinence, or tongue biting, but admits that the muscle contractions occur just as she is about to fall asleep. She also denies any alcohol or illicit drug use.

      If an EEG performed during these episodes showed theta waves, what diagnosis would be made?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypnagogic jerks

      Explanation:

      Non-REM stage 1 (N1) sleep is associated with hypnagogic jerks, also known as hypnic jerks, and is the lightest stage of sleep. During this phase, benign physiological muscular contractions occur and the EEG shows theta waves (3 to 8 Hz). Therefore, the correct answer is ‘hypnagogic jerks of stage N1 sleep’.

      Absence seizures, on the other hand, are short and frequent episodes of profound impairment of consciousness without loss of body tone, typically found in children. The EEG finding during an absence seizure is generalized 2.5 to 5 Herz (Hz) spike wave discharges, not theta waves.

      Although alcohol withdrawal can cause seizures, isolated muscle contractions during the sleep-wake interphase are unlikely. Furthermore, the finding of theta waves makes stage N1 more likely.

      Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME) is characterized by myoclonic jerks, which are most frequent in the morning, within the first hour after awakening, though generalized tonic-clonic seizures (GTCS) and absence seizures can also occur. The EEG finding during episodes is 3 to 4 Hz polyspike-waves with frontocentral predominance, not theta waves.

      Night terrors, which occur during non-REM stage N3 sleep, the deepest type of non-REM sleep, are a parasomnia during which there is a loss of motor tone, not muscle jerks. The EEG waveform during this stage of sleep are beta waves.

      Understanding Sleep Stages: The Sleep Doctor’s Brain

      Sleep is a complex process that involves different stages, each with its own unique characteristics. The Sleep Doctor’s Brain provides a simplified explanation of the four main sleep stages: N1, N2, N3, and REM.

      N1 is the lightest stage of sleep, characterized by theta waves and often associated with hypnic jerks. N2 is a deeper stage of sleep, marked by sleep spindles and K-complexes. This stage represents around 50% of total sleep. N3 is the deepest stage of sleep, characterized by delta waves. Parasomnias such as night terrors, nocturnal enuresis, and sleepwalking can occur during this stage.

      REM, or rapid eye movement, is the stage where dreaming occurs. It is characterized by beta-waves and a loss of muscle tone, including erections. The sleep cycle typically follows a pattern of N1 → N2 → N3 → REM, with each stage lasting for different durations throughout the night.

      Understanding the different sleep stages is important for maintaining healthy sleep habits and identifying potential sleep disorders. By monitoring brain activity during sleep, the Sleep Doctor’s Brain can provide valuable insights into the complex process of sleep.

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  • Question 77 - A 25-year-old male patient complains of headache, confusion, and lethargy. During the examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient complains of headache, confusion, and lethargy. During the examination, he has a fever and exhibits weakness on the right side. A CT scan reveals a ring-enhancing lesion that affects the motor cortex on the left side. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebral abscess

      Explanation:

      The presence of fever, headache, and rapidly worsening neurological symptoms strongly indicates the possibility of cerebral abscess. A CT scan can confirm this diagnosis by revealing a lesion with a ring-enhancing appearance, as the contrast material cannot reach the center of the abscess cavity. It is important to note that HSV encephalitis does not typically result in ring-enhancing lesions.

      Understanding Brain Abscesses

      Brain abscesses can occur due to various reasons such as sepsis from middle ear or sinuses, head injuries, and endocarditis. The symptoms of brain abscesses depend on the location of the abscess, with those in critical areas presenting earlier. Brain abscesses can cause a mass effect in the brain, leading to raised intracranial pressure. Symptoms of brain abscesses include persistent headaches, fever, focal neurology, nausea, papilloedema, and seizures.

      To diagnose brain abscesses, doctors may perform imaging with CT scanning. Treatment for brain abscesses involves surgery, where a craniotomy is performed to remove the abscess cavity. However, the abscess may reform after drainage. Intravenous antibiotics such as 3rd-generation cephalosporin and metronidazole are also administered, along with intracranial pressure management using dexamethasone.

      Overall, brain abscesses are a serious condition that require prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent further complications.

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  • Question 78 - A 68-year-old male comes to the emergency department with hemiparesis. During your conversation...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male comes to the emergency department with hemiparesis. During your conversation with him, you discover that his speech is fluent but his repetition is poor. He is conscious of his inability to repeat words accurately but persists in trying. You suspect that a stroke may be the cause of this condition.

      Which region of the brain has been impacted by the stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arcuate fasciculus

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms of conduction aphasia, which is typically caused by a stroke that affects the arcuate fasciculus.

      If the lesion is in the parietal lobe, the patient may experience sensory inattention and inferior homonymous quadrantanopia.

      Lesions in the inferior frontal gyrus can cause speech to become non-fluent, labored, and halting.

      Occipital lobe lesions can result in visual changes.

      If the lesion is in the superior temporal gyrus, the patient may produce sentences that don’t make sense, use word substitution, and create neologisms, but their speech will still be fluent.

      Types of Aphasia: Understanding the Different Forms of Language Impairment

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and underlying causes. Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. This area is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. People with Wernicke’s aphasia may speak fluently, but their sentences often make no sense, and they may use word substitutions and neologisms. Comprehension is impaired.

      Broca’s aphasia, also known as expressive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area is responsible for speech production. People with Broca’s aphasia may speak in a non-fluent, labored, and halting manner. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasciculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. People with conduction aphasia may speak fluently, but their repetition is poor. They are aware of the errors they are making, but comprehension is normal.

      Global aphasia is caused by a large lesion affecting all three areas mentioned above, resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. People with global aphasia may still be able to communicate using gestures. Understanding the different types of aphasia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 79 - A 47-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after experiencing a loss of...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after experiencing a loss of consciousness. She mentions seeing a man in the corner of the room before this happened. She also describes feeling disconnected from herself and experiencing déjà vu. The diagnosis is a focal seizure.

      Which specific area of the brain is the seizure likely originating from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Temporal lobe seizures can lead to hallucinations, among other focal seizure features such as automatisms and viscerosensory symptoms. Seizures in other areas of the brain, such as the cerebellum, frontal lobe, occipital lobe, and parietal lobe, would present with different symptoms.

      Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy

      Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.

      On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.

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  • Question 80 - A 50-year-old man with T2DM goes for his yearly diabetic retinopathy screening and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with T2DM goes for his yearly diabetic retinopathy screening and is diagnosed with proliferative diabetic retinopathy. What retinal characteristics are indicative of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: neovascularization

      Explanation:

      Diabetic retinopathy is a progressive disease that affects the retina and is a complication of diabetes mellitus (DM). The condition is caused by persistent high blood sugar levels, which can damage the retinal vessels and potentially lead to vision loss. The damage is caused by retinal ischaemia, which occurs when the retinal vasculature becomes blocked.

      There are various retinal findings that indicate the presence of diabetic retinopathy, which can be classified into two categories: non-proliferative and proliferative. Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy is indicated by the presence of microaneurysms, ‘cotton-wool’ spots, ‘dot-blot’ haemorrhages, and venous beading at different stages. However, neovascularization, or the formation of new blood vessels, is the finding associated with more advanced, proliferative retinopathy.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness in adults aged 35-65 years-old. The condition is caused by hyperglycaemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls, causing damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage leads to increased vascular permeability, which causes exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischaemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are typically classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous haemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. For maculopathy, intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors are used if there is a change in visual acuity. Non-proliferative retinopathy is managed through regular observation, while severe/very severe cases may require panretinal laser photocoagulation. Proliferative retinopathy is treated with panretinal laser photocoagulation, intravitreal VEGF inhibitors, and vitreoretinal surgery in severe or vitreous haemorrhage cases. Examples of VEGF inhibitors include ranibizumab, which has a strong evidence base for slowing the progression of proliferative diabetic retinopathy and improving visual acuity.

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  • Question 81 - A 85-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after collapsing at home....

    Incorrect

    • A 85-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after collapsing at home. He has a history of hypertension and poorly controlled type 2 diabetes. During examination, he complains of right-sided facial pain and left-sided arm pain, and mentions that the room appears to be spinning. The patient also has reduced temperature sensation on the right side of his face and the left side of his body, an ataxic gait, and vomits during the examination. Which artery is the most likely to be affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for a patient presenting with sudden onset vertigo and vomiting, dysphagia, ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss, contralateral limb pain and temperature loss, and ataxia is posterior inferior cerebellar artery. This constellation of symptoms is consistent with lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg syndrome, which is caused by ischemia of the lateral medulla. This condition is associated with involvement of the trigeminal nucleus, lateral spinothalamic tract, cerebellum, and nucleus ambiguus, resulting in the aforementioned symptoms.

      The anterior spinal artery, basilar artery, middle cerebral artery, and posterior cerebral artery are not associated with lateral medullary syndrome and would present with different symptoms.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

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  • Question 82 - A person becomes deficient in a certain hormone and as a result, develops...

    Incorrect

    • A person becomes deficient in a certain hormone and as a result, develops cranial diabetes insipidus.

      Where in the hypothalamus is this hormone typically produced?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supraoptic nucleus

      Explanation:

      The production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is attributed to the supraoptic nucleus located in the hypothalamus. ADH plays a crucial role in retaining water in the distal nephron, and its deficiency can lead to diabetes insipidus.

      Other functions of the hypothalamus include regulating circadian rhythms and the sleep-wake cycle through the suprachiasmatic nucleus, controlling satiety and hunger through the ventromedial and lateral nuclei respectively, and regulating body temperature through the anterior nucleus, which stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system to initiate cooling.

      The hypothalamus is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in maintaining the body’s internal balance, or homeostasis. It is located in the diencephalon and is responsible for regulating various bodily functions. The hypothalamus is composed of several nuclei, each with its own specific function. The anterior nucleus, for example, is involved in cooling the body by stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system. The lateral nucleus, on the other hand, is responsible for stimulating appetite, while lesions in this area can lead to anorexia. The posterior nucleus is involved in heating the body and stimulating the sympathetic nervous system, and damage to this area can result in poikilothermia. Other nuclei include the septal nucleus, which regulates sexual desire, the suprachiasmatic nucleus, which regulates circadian rhythm, and the ventromedial nucleus, which is responsible for satiety. Lesions in the paraventricular nucleus can lead to diabetes insipidus, while lesions in the dorsomedial nucleus can result in savage behavior.

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  • Question 83 - A 30-year-old woman presents with an absent corneal reflex on cranial nerve examination....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with an absent corneal reflex on cranial nerve examination. The examining neurologist suspects a lesion affecting either the afferent or efferent limb of this reflex. Which two cranial nerves should be considered as potential culprits?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trigeminal and facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The trigeminal nerve’s ophthalmic branch serves as the input or arriving limb in the corneal reflex, while the facial nerve acts as the output or exiting limb.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

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  • Question 84 - After spending 8 weeks in a plaster cast on his left leg, John,...

    Incorrect

    • After spending 8 weeks in a plaster cast on his left leg, John, a 25-year-old male, visits the clinic to have it removed. During the examination, it is observed that his left foot is in a plantar flexed position, indicating foot drop. Which nerve is typically impacted, resulting in foot drop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      Footdrop, which is impaired dorsiflexion of the ankle, can be caused by a lesion of the common peroneal nerve. This nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve and divides into the deep and superficial peroneal nerves after wrapping around the neck of the fibula. The deep peroneal nerve is responsible for innervating muscles that control dorsiflexion of the foot, such as the tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, and extensor digitorum longus. Damage to the common or deep peroneal nerve can result in weakness or paralysis of these muscles, leading to unopposed plantar flexion of the foot. The superficial peroneal nerve, on the other hand, innervates muscles that evert the foot. Other nerves that innervate muscles in the lower limb include the femoral nerve, which controls hip flexion and knee extension, the tibial nerve, which mainly controls plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, and the obturator nerve, which mainly controls thigh adduction.

      The common peroneal nerve originates from the dorsal divisions of the sacral plexus, specifically from L4, L5, S1, and S2. This nerve provides sensation to the skin and fascia of the anterolateral surface of the leg and dorsum of the foot, as well as innervating the muscles of the anterior and peroneal compartments of the leg, extensor digitorum brevis, and the knee, ankle, and foot joints. It is located laterally within the sciatic nerve and passes through the lateral and proximal part of the popliteal fossa, under the cover of biceps femoris and its tendon, to reach the posterior aspect of the fibular head. The common peroneal nerve divides into the deep and superficial peroneal nerves at the point where it winds around the lateral surface of the neck of the fibula in the body of peroneus longus, approximately 2 cm distal to the apex of the head of the fibula. It is palpable posterior to the head of the fibula. The nerve has several branches, including the nerve to the short head of biceps, articular branch (knee), lateral cutaneous nerve of the calf, and superficial and deep peroneal nerves at the neck of the fibula.

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  • Question 85 - A 45-year-old patient with Down syndrome is exhibiting personality and behavioral changes, including...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient with Down syndrome is exhibiting personality and behavioral changes, including irritability, uncooperativeness, and a decline in memory and concentration. After diagnosis, it is determined that he has early onset Alzheimer's disease. Which gene is most commonly linked to this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amyloid precursor protein

      Explanation:

      Mutations in the amyloid precursor protein gene (APP), presenilin 1 gene (PSEN1) or presenilin 2 gene (PSEN2) are responsible for early onset familial Alzheimer’s disease. The gene for amyloid precursor protein is situated on chromosome 21, which is also linked to Down’s syndrome.

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.

      The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.

      Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.

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  • Question 86 - A 65-year-old male, with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, visits the doctor with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male, with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, visits the doctor with complaints of left ankle pain and tingling sensation in his lower leg. The pain worsens after prolonged standing and improves with rest. Upon examination, the doctor observes swelling in the left ankle and foot. The doctor suspects tarsal tunnel syndrome, which may be compressing the patient's tibial nerve. Can you identify which muscles this nerve innervates?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flexor hallucis longus

      Explanation:

      The tibial nerve provides innervation to the flexor hallucis longus, which is responsible for flexing the big toe, as well as the flexor digitorum brevis, which flexes the four smaller toes. Meanwhile, the superficial peroneal nerve innervates the peroneus brevis, which aids in plantar flexion of the ankle joint, while the deep peroneal nerve innervates the extensor digitorum longus, which extends the four smaller toes and dorsiflexes the ankle joint. Additionally, the deep peroneal nerve innervates the tibialis anterior, which dorsiflexes the ankle joint and inverts the foot, while the superficial peroneal nerve innervates the peroneus longus, which everts the foot and assists in plantar flexion.

      The Tibial Nerve: Muscles Innervated and Termination

      The tibial nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve that begins at the upper border of the popliteal fossa. It has root values of L4, L5, S1, S2, and S3. This nerve innervates several muscles, including the popliteus, gastrocnemius, soleus, plantaris, tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, and flexor digitorum brevis. These muscles are responsible for various movements in the lower leg and foot, such as plantar flexion, inversion, and flexion of the toes.

      The tibial nerve terminates by dividing into the medial and lateral plantar nerves. These nerves continue to innervate muscles in the foot, such as the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, and quadratus plantae. The tibial nerve plays a crucial role in the movement and function of the lower leg and foot, and any damage or injury to this nerve can result in significant impairments in mobility and sensation.

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  • Question 87 - A 5-year-old child is brought to the pediatric clinic by their mother. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old child is brought to the pediatric clinic by their mother. The child was born to a mother with gestational diabetes and had a difficult delivery due to shoulder dystocia. During the physical examination, the doctor observes paralysis of the intrinsic hand muscles. The doctor suspects the child has Klumpke's paralysis. What is commonly associated with this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Horner's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Klumpke’s paralysis is not associated with Horner’s syndrome. It is caused by injury to the brachial plexus, specifically nerve roots C8-T1, and results in paralysis of the intrinsic hand muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and movement of the fingers. When the T1 nerve root is affected, there may be an associated injury to the sympathetic chain, which can lead to symptoms of Horner’s syndrome such as partial ptosis, miosis, enophthalmos, and anhidrosis.

      Anterior cord syndrome, Brown-Séquard syndrome, and central cord syndrome are all incorrect as they are not associated with Klumpke’s paralysis. Anterior cord syndrome causes motor paralysis and loss of pain and temperature sensation below the lesion, and is caused by ischaemia of the anterior spinal artery. Brown-Séquard syndrome is caused by a hemisection of the spinal cord due to traumatic injury, and central cord syndrome is the most common cervical cord injury that causes motor impairment of the upper limbs, usually due to trauma or osteoarthritis.

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while postganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.

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  • Question 88 - From which of these foraminae does the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve...

    Incorrect

    • From which of these foraminae does the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve exit the skull?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior orbital fissure

      Explanation:

      Standing Room Only – Locations of trigeminal nerve branches exiting the skull

      V1 – Superior orbital fissure
      V2 – Foramen rotundum
      V3 – Foramen ovale

      The trigeminal nerve is the main sensory nerve of the head and also innervates the muscles of mastication. It has sensory distribution to the scalp, face, oral cavity, nose and sinuses, and dura mater, and motor distribution to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, and tensor palati. The nerve originates at the pons and has three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. The ophthalmic and maxillary branches are sensory only, while the mandibular branch is both sensory and motor. The nerve innervates various muscles, including the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids.

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  • Question 89 - A 70-year-old-man arrives at the emergency department with dysphasia, right-sided neglect, and right-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old-man arrives at the emergency department with dysphasia, right-sided neglect, and right-sided weakness. He has a medical history of hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, type two diabetes mellitus, and a 20-pack-year smoking history. His symptoms began 55 minutes ago.

      Which part of the brain is likely affected by this stroke based on the presented symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle and anterior cerebral arteries

      Explanation:

      A total anterior circulation infarct affects the middle and anterior cerebral arteries, which is the correct answer (option 1). Option 2 is only true for a partial anterior circulation infarct, while option 3 is true for a lacunar infarct. Option 4 is true for a posterior circulation infarct, and option 5 would result in quadriplegia and lock-in-syndrome.

      Stroke: A Brief Overview

      Stroke is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality, with over 150,000 strokes occurring annually in the UK alone. It is the fourth leading cause of death in the UK, killing twice as many women as breast cancer each year. However, the prevention and treatment of strokes have undergone significant changes over the past decade. What was once considered an untreatable condition is now viewed as a ‘brain attack’ that requires emergency assessment to determine if patients may benefit from new treatments such as thrombolysis.

      A stroke, also known as a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), is a sudden interruption in the vascular supply of the brain. There are two main types of strokes: ischaemic and haemorrhagic. Ischaemic strokes occur when there is a blockage in the blood vessel that stops blood flow, while haemorrhagic strokes occur when a blood vessel bursts, leading to a reduction in blood flow. Symptoms of a stroke may include motor weakness, speech problems, swallowing problems, visual field defects, and balance problems.

      Patients with suspected stroke need to have emergency neuroimaging to determine if they are suitable for thrombolytic therapy to treat early ischaemic strokes. The two types of neuroimaging used in this setting are CT and MRI. If the stroke is ischaemic, and certain criteria are met, the patient should be offered thrombolysis. Once haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded, patients should be given aspirin 300mg as soon as possible, and antiplatelet therapy should be continued. If imaging confirms a haemorrhagic stroke, neurosurgical consultation should be considered for advice on further management. The vast majority of patients, however, are not suitable for surgical intervention. Management is therefore supportive as per haemorrhagic stroke.

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  • Question 90 - A 3 week old infant has been diagnosed with hydrocephalus due to congenital...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 week old infant has been diagnosed with hydrocephalus due to congenital spina bifida. Can you identify the location of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) production?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Choroid plexuses

      Explanation:

      The choroid plexuses, located in the ventricles of the brain, are responsible for the production of CSF. The cerebral aqueduct (or aqueduct of Sylvius) does not have a choroid plexus. The cribriform plate, which is a part of the ethmoid bone, does not produce or secrete anything but a fracture in it can cause CSF leakage into the nose and result in anosmia. The arachnoid granulations (or villi) serve as the communication between the subarachnoid space and the venous sinuses, allowing for the continuous reabsorption of CSF into the bloodstream. The pia mater, which is the innermost layer of the meninges around the brain, encloses the CSF within the subarachnoid space.

      Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.

      The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.

      The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.

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  • Question 91 - A 6-year-old boy has been experiencing recurring headaches. During his evaluation, an MRI...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy has been experiencing recurring headaches. During his evaluation, an MRI scan of his brain was conducted, revealing an enlargement of the lateral and third ventricles. What is the probable location of the obstruction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aqueduct of Sylvius

      Explanation:

      The Aqueduct of Sylvius is the pathway through which the CSF moves from the 3rd to the 4th ventricle.

      Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.

      The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.

      The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 92 - A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his colleagues following...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his colleagues following a brief episode of unusual behavior at work, lasting approximately 2 minutes. His colleagues observed him repeatedly smacking his lips during the episode. Afterward, he displayed mild speech difficulties and appeared to have difficulty understanding his colleagues.

      What is the probable site of the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Localising features of a temporal lobe seizure include postictal dysphasia and lip smacking.

      Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy

      Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.

      On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 93 - A 16-year-old male comes to the emergency department with a shoulder injury following...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male comes to the emergency department with a shoulder injury following a football tackle.

      During the examination, it is discovered that he has a dislocated shoulder, weakness in elbow flexion, weakness in supination, and a loss of sensation on the lateral side of his forearm.

      Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      When the musculocutaneous nerve is injured, it can cause weakness in elbow flexion and supination, as well as sensory loss on the outer side of the forearm. Other nerves in the arm have different functions, such as the median nerve which controls many of the flexor muscles in the forearm and provides sensation to the palm and fingers, the radial nerve which controls the triceps and extensor muscles in the back of the forearm and provides sensation to the back of the arm and hand, and the axillary nerve which controls the deltoid and teres minor muscles and provides sensation to the lower part of the deltoid muscle. The musculocutaneous nerve also has a branch that provides sensation to the outer part of the forearm.

      Understanding the Brachial Plexus and Cutaneous Sensation of the Upper Limb

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originates from the anterior rami of C5 to T1. It is divided into five sections: roots, trunks, divisions, cords, and branches. To remember these sections, a common mnemonic used is Real Teenagers Drink Cold Beer.

      The roots of the brachial plexus are located in the posterior triangle and pass between the scalenus anterior and medius muscles. The trunks are located posterior to the middle third of the clavicle, with the upper and middle trunks related superiorly to the subclavian artery. The lower trunk passes over the first rib posterior to the subclavian artery. The divisions of the brachial plexus are located at the apex of the axilla, while the cords are related to the axillary artery.

      The branches of the brachial plexus provide cutaneous sensation to the upper limb. This includes the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the posterior arm, forearm, and hand; the median nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar aspect of the thumb, index, middle, and half of the ring finger; and the ulnar nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar and dorsal aspects of the fifth finger and half of the ring finger.

      Understanding the brachial plexus and its branches is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the upper limb, such as nerve injuries and neuropathies. It also helps in understanding the cutaneous sensation of the upper limb and how it relates to the different nerves of the brachial plexus.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 94 - A 65-year-old patient presents with dysdiadochokinesia, gait ataxia, nystagmus, intention tremor and slurred...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with dysdiadochokinesia, gait ataxia, nystagmus, intention tremor and slurred speech. What investigation would be most appropriate for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MRI Brain

      Explanation:

      When it comes to cerebellar disease, MRI is the preferred diagnostic tool. CT brain scans are better suited for detecting ischemic or hemorrhagic strokes in the brain, rather than identifying cerebellar lesions. X-rays of the brain are not effective in detecting cerebellar lesions. PET-CT scans are typically used in cancer cases where there is active uptake of the radioactive isotope by cancer cells.

      Cerebellar syndrome is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. When there is damage or injury to one side of the cerebellum, it can cause symptoms on the same side of the body. These symptoms can be remembered using the mnemonic DANISH, which stands for Dysdiadochokinesia, Dysmetria, Ataxia, Nystagmus, Intention tremour, Slurred staccato speech, and Hypotonia.

      There are several possible causes of cerebellar syndrome, including genetic conditions like Friedreich’s ataxia and ataxic telangiectasia, neoplastic growths like cerebellar haemangioma, strokes, alcohol use, multiple sclerosis, hypothyroidism, and certain medications or toxins like phenytoin or lead poisoning. In some cases, cerebellar syndrome may be a paraneoplastic condition, meaning it is a secondary effect of an underlying cancer like lung cancer. It is important to identify the underlying cause of cerebellar syndrome in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 95 - A 36-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a complaint of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man comes to the emergency department with a complaint of severe headaches upon waking up for the past three days. He has also been experiencing blurred vision for the past three weeks, and has been feeling increasingly nauseated and has vomited four times in the past 24 hours. Upon ophthalmoscopy, bilateral papilloedema is observed. A CT head scan reveals dilation of the lateral, third, and fourth ventricles, with a lesion obstructing the flow of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) from the fourth ventricle into the cisterna magna. What is the usual pathway for CSF to flow from the fourth ventricle directly into the cisterna magna?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median aperture (foramen of Magendie)

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the foramen of Magendie, also known as the median aperture.

      The interventricular foramina connect the two lateral ventricles to the third ventricle, which is located in the midline between the thalami of the two hemispheres. The third ventricle communicates with the fourth ventricle via the cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius.

      CSF flows from the third ventricle into the fourth ventricle through the cerebral aqueduct. From the fourth ventricle, CSF exits through one of four openings: the foramen of Magendie, which drains CSF into the cisterna magna; the foramina of Luschka, which drain CSF into the cerebellopontine angle cistern; the central canal at the obex, which runs through the center of the spinal cord.

      The superior sagittal sinus is a large venous sinus located along the midline of the superior cranial cavity. Arachnoid villi project from the subarachnoid space into the superior sagittal sinus to allow for the absorption of CSF.

      A patient presenting with symptoms and signs of raised intracranial pressure may have a variety of underlying causes, including mass lesions and neoplasms. In this case, a mass is obstructing the normal flow of CSF from the fourth ventricle, leading to increased pressure in all four ventricles.

      Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.

      The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.

      The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 96 - A 72-year-old male visits his doctor with complaints of decreased and blurry vision....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male visits his doctor with complaints of decreased and blurry vision. Upon examination with a slit lamp, a nuclear sclerotic cataract is detected in his right eye. The patient has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus for 12 years and is currently on insulin therapy.

      What is the primary factor that increases the risk of developing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ageing

      Explanation:

      Ageing is the most significant risk factor for cataracts, although the other factors also contribute to the development of this condition.

      Understanding Cataracts

      A cataract is a common eye condition that occurs when the lens of the eye becomes cloudy, making it difficult for light to reach the retina and causing reduced or blurred vision. Cataracts are more common in women and increase in incidence with age, affecting 30% of individuals aged 65 and over. The most common cause of cataracts is the normal ageing process, but other possible causes include smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes mellitus, long-term corticosteroids, radiation exposure, myotonic dystrophy, and metabolic disorders such as hypocalcaemia.

      Patients with cataracts typically experience a gradual onset of reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. Signs of cataracts include a defect in the red reflex, which is the reddish-orange reflection seen through an ophthalmoscope when a light is shone on the retina. Diagnosis is made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which reveal a visible cataract.

      In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts, involving the removal of the cloudy lens and replacement with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, patient choice, and the risks and benefits of surgery. Complications following surgery may include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis. Despite these risks, cataract surgery has a high success rate, with 85-90% of patients achieving corrected vision of 6/12 or better on a Snellen chart postoperatively.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 97 - A 67-year-old male presents with a 3-week history of deteriorating vision in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male presents with a 3-week history of deteriorating vision in his left eye. During examination of the cranial nerves, it is observed that the left pupil is more constricted than the right. The patient experiences slight ptosis of the left eyelid. The patient reports dryness on the left side of the face with decreased sweating. There are no reports of reduced sweating elsewhere. The patient has no known medical history and lives independently with his family. He drinks 6 units per week and has a smoking history of 35 pack-years. Based on the neurological symptoms and history, where is the lesion most likely located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sympathetic chain

      Explanation:

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition that can be categorized into three types based on the location of the lesion. The first type is a central lesion that can occur anywhere from the hypothalamus to the synapse at T1. The second type is a preganglionic lesion that occurs between the synapse in the spinal cord to the superior cervical ganglion. The third type is a postganglionic lesion that occurs above the superior cervical ganglion.

      The level of anhidrosis, or lack of sweating, can help determine the location of the lesion. Anhidrosis is only seen in the first and second types of lesions. In first-type lesions, it affects the entire sympathetic region, while in second-type lesions, it only affects the face after the ganglion.

      In this case, the patient has anhidrosis of the face, suggesting a second-type lesion. The patient’s smoking history increases the likelihood of a Pancoast’s tumor, which compresses the sympathetic chain.

      Lesions in the medulla can present more dramatically, with more cranial nerve abnormalities and peripheral neurological signs. Lesions in the nerve fibers after the superior cervical ganglion typically present with ptosis and meiosis but without anhidrosis. Carotid artery dissection is a common cause of these types of lesions. Lesions in the cervical spine or hypothalamus would result in a more extensive disruption of peripheral neurology.

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while postganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.

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  • Question 98 - A 55-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of recent changes in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of recent changes in his vision. He became aware of this while reading a book. He denies any ocular discomfort, redness, or vision loss. During the eye examination, you observe that his right eye is elevated and turned outward.

      What other symptom is commonly linked to the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vertical diplopia

      Explanation:

      Fourth nerve palsy is characterized by vertical diplopia, which is often noticed when reading or going downstairs. The trochlear nerve lesion causes the affected eye to appear upward and rotate out when looking straight ahead. On the other hand, third nerve palsy causes ptosis, where the upper eyelid droops, and the affected eye is in a ‘down and out’ position. Exophthalmos, or bulging of the eye, is a symptom of Grave’s disease, a type of thyrotoxicosis. Other symptoms of Grave’s disease include ophthalmoplegia, thyroid acropachy, and pretibial myxoedema. Mydriasis, or pupil dilation, can be caused by third nerve palsy, drugs like cocaine, and a phaeochromocytoma.

      Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy

      Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is double vision that occurs when looking straight ahead. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding the symptoms of fourth nerve palsy can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 99 - A 65-year-old male presents with a six-month history of progressive weakness in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male presents with a six-month history of progressive weakness in the lower limbs associated with numbness. He also complains of feeling tired and lightheaded lately. He has had recent investigation for this and showed macrocytic anaemia with vitamin B12 deficiency. He is currently awaiting to commence on B12 replacement. Otherwise, he is normally fit and well and is not on any regular medication.

      Neurological examination of the lower limb shows the following:

      Left Right
      Power 4/5 4/5
      Sensation to coarse touch, pain, temperature and pressure normal normal
      Sensation to fine touch and vibration reduced reduced
      Proprioception reduced reduced
      Ankle reflex absent absent
      Babinski response upgoing upgoing

      Which of the following area of the spinal cord is most likely affected in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dorsal and lateral columns

      Explanation:

      Subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord affects both the dorsal and lateral columns. This condition is often caused by a deficiency in vitamin B12 and can result in reduced power in the lower limbs, as well as a loss of sensation to fine touch and proprioception. The dorsal columns are primarily affected, leading to issues with proprioception and vibration sense, while the lateral columns contain the corticospinal tracts, which are responsible for motor function. The anterior column contains the spinothalamic tracts, which are responsible for pain, temperature, coarse touch, and pressure sensations. The lateral horns of the spinal cord contain the neuronal cell bodies of the sympathetic nervous system, and damage to this area can result in Horner syndrome. The ventral horns of the spinal cord contain motor neurons for skeletal muscles and are associated with conditions such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, Charcot–Marie–Tooth disease, and progressive muscular atrophy.

      Subacute Combined Degeneration of Spinal Cord

      Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin B12. The dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts are affected, leading to the loss of joint position and vibration sense. The first symptoms are usually distal paraesthesia, followed by the development of upper motor neuron signs in the legs, such as extensor plantars, brisk knee reflexes, and absent ankle jerks. If left untreated, stiffness and weakness may persist.

      This condition is a serious concern and requires prompt medical attention. It is important to maintain a healthy diet that includes sufficient amounts of vitamin B12 to prevent the development of subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord.

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      • Neurological System
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  • Question 100 - A 49-year-old female patient complains of weakness and paraesthesias in her left hand...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old female patient complains of weakness and paraesthesias in her left hand and visits her GP. During the examination, the doctor observes reduced power in the hypothenar and intrinsic muscles, along with decreased sensation on the medial palm and medial two and a half digits. However, the sensation to the dorsum of the hand remains unaffected, and wrist flexion is normal. Based on these findings, where is the most probable location of the ulnar nerve lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guyon's canal

      Explanation:

      Distal ulnar nerve compression can occur at Guyon’s canal, which is located adjacent to the carpal tunnel. The ulnar nerve passes through this canal as a mixed motor/sensory bundle and then splits into various branches in the palm. In this patient’s case, her symptoms suggest compression at Guyon’s canal, possibly due to a ganglion cyst or hamate fracture. It is important to note that the carpal tunnel transmits the median nerve, not the ulnar nerve, and compression at the more proximal cubital tunnel would affect all branches of the ulnar nerve, including those responsible for sensation to the back of the hand and wrist flexion. Additionally, lesions in the purely sensory branches of the ulnar nerve would not cause the motor symptoms experienced by this patient.

      The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.

      The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.

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