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Question 1
Correct
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A healthy toddler is playing outside but suddenly stops breathing. The toddler's heart rate is over 100 bpm, but the skin colour is blue and the toddler is not moving. After calling for help and checking for a pulse, what is the most appropriate action to take?
Your Answer: Give five breaths of air via a face mask
Explanation:Steps for Neonatal Resuscitation
Neonatal resuscitation is a crucial process that can save a newborn’s life. Here are the steps to follow:
1. Dry the baby and assess its tone, breathing, and heart rate. If the baby is not breathing or gasping, open the airway by placing the baby on its back with the head in a neutral position. Give five inflation breaths of air via a face mask.
2. If the heart rate increases but the baby still cannot breathe, give breaths at a rate of 30-40 per minute until the baby can breathe independently.
3. Cardiac massage should only be done if the chest is not moving or the heart rate drops below 60 bpm. In this case, commence cardiac massage at a rate of three compressions to one breath.
4. Suction of the airways should only be done if there is an obvious airway obstruction that cannot be corrected by airway repositioning manoeuvres.
5. While it is important to keep the baby warm, avoid wrapping it tightly in a towel as it can obstruct the resuscitation process.
6. Intubation is not the first step in the resuscitation process. It is an option when resuscitation is failing and is the decision of a senior paediatrician.
By following these steps, you can increase the chances of a successful neonatal resuscitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old boy is presented to an urgent GP appointment with an acute limp. He has a runny nose but no fever. There is no reported injury. He is able to bear weight on the affected leg.
What is the appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Watchful waiting with safety netting advice
Correct Answer: Urgent specialist assessment
Explanation:A child under the age of 3 who presents with an acute limp requires urgent specialist assessment. This is because septic arthritis is more common than transient synovitis in this age group. A routine paediatric referral is not appropriate as the concern is ruling out septic arthritis, which requires urgent attention. An urgent X-ray or hip ultrasound scan is also not sufficient, as a comprehensive specialist examination is necessary to exclude serious pathology.
Causes of Limping in Children
Limping in children can be caused by various factors, which may differ depending on the child’s age. One possible cause is transient synovitis, which has an acute onset and is often accompanied by viral infections. This condition is more common in boys aged 2-12 years. On the other hand, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis may cause a child to feel unwell and have a high fever. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis may cause a painless limp, while trauma can usually be diagnosed through the child’s history. Development dysplasia of the hip is usually detected in neonates and is six times more common in girls. Perthes disease, which is due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head, is more common in children aged 4-8 years. Finally, slipped upper femoral epiphysis may occur in children aged 10-15 years and is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly. It is important to identify the cause of a child’s limp in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 6-hour-old baby girl is assessed after being born at 37 weeks without any complications. The mother has not reported any issues and breastfeeding has been going smoothly. During the examination, the neonate appears to be in good condition. However, a blood glucose test reveals a reading of 2.0 mmol/L. What is the best course of action at this point?
Your Answer: Admit to the neonatal unit for infusion of 10% dextrose
Correct Answer: Encourage continued breastfeeding
Explanation:Dextrose is not the correct treatment option, except in cases where the baby is symptomatic or has extremely low glucose levels.
Neonatal Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Neonatal hypoglycaemia is a common condition in newborn babies, especially in the first 24 hours of life. While there is no agreed definition, a blood glucose level of less than 2.6 mmol/L is often used as a guideline. Transient hypoglycaemia is normal and usually resolves on its own, but persistent or severe hypoglycaemia may be caused by various factors such as preterm birth, maternal diabetes mellitus, IUGR, hypothermia, neonatal sepsis, inborn errors of metabolism, nesidioblastosis, or Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.
Symptoms of neonatal hypoglycaemia can be autonomic, such as jitteriness, irritability, tachypnoea, and pallor, or neuroglycopenic, such as poor feeding/sucking, weak cry, drowsiness, hypotonia, and seizures. Other features may include apnoea and hypothermia. Management of neonatal hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the condition and whether the newborn is symptomatic or not. Asymptomatic babies can be encouraged to feed normally and have their blood glucose monitored, while symptomatic or severely hypoglycaemic babies may need to be admitted to the neonatal unit and receive intravenous infusion of 10% dextrose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl with cerebral palsy comes to the GP with her father for a check-up. Upon examination, she has a delay in her overall development. She is not yet able to walk or crawl, but she can use her fingers to pick up objects and is happily playing with toys during the visit. She can say a few words, such as mom and dad. During the examination, you notice some bruises on her abdomen, left elbow, and right forearm. Her father explains that these bruises are due to her clumsiness and he is concerned that she will continue to hurt herself. He mentions that her mother had a similar condition that required oral steroids and wonders if his daughter has developed the same condition.
What is the next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Same-day paediatric assessment
Explanation:Immediate paediatric assessment is necessary for a non-mobile infant with multiple bruises, as this could indicate non-accidental injury. Bruising near the trunk, cheeks, ears, or buttocks should also be considered red flags. Coagulation screen and coagulopathy testing may be performed later, but the priority is to assess for potential abuse. Oral prednisolone is not first-line for children with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) and reassurance and discharge are not appropriate in this situation.
Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms
Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to intervene and protect the child. One possible indicator of abuse is when a child discloses abuse themselves. However, there are other factors that may point towards abuse, such as an inconsistent story with injuries, repeated visits to A&E departments, delayed presentation, and a frightened, withdrawn appearance known as frozen watchfulness.
Physical presentations of child abuse can also be a sign of abuse. These may include bruising, fractures (especially metaphyseal, posterior rib fractures, or multiple fractures at different stages of healing), torn frenulum (such as from forcing a bottle into a child’s mouth), burns or scalds, failure to thrive, and sexually transmitted infections like Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas. It is important to be aware of these signs and symptoms and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A mother takes her four-week-old daughter to visit her pediatrician. The baby has been throwing up white substance after feeds, particularly when laid down afterwards. The mother reports that the baby also frequently cries during breastfeeding. The baby was born at 36 weeks through vaginal delivery and has been meeting developmental milestones. There are no other siblings. There have been no instances of bloody stools or diarrhea. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for an infant under eight weeks who is experiencing milky vomits after feeds, particularly when laid flat, and excessive crying during feeds is gastro-oesophageal reflux. This is supported by the risk factor of preterm delivery in this case. Coeliac disease is an unlikely diagnosis as the child is exclusively breastfed and would typically present with diarrhoea and failure to thrive when introduced to cereals. Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy is also unlikely as it is more commonly seen in formula-fed infants and would typically present with additional symptoms such as atopy and diarrhoea. Duodenal atresia, which causes bilious vomiting in neonates a few hours after birth, is also an unlikely diagnosis for a six-week-old infant experiencing white vomitus.
Understanding Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux in Children
Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.
Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not being overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. Proton pump inhibitors are not recommended unless the child is experiencing unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Ranitidine, previously used as an alternative to PPIs, has been withdrawn from the market due to the discovery of carcinogens in some products. Prokinetic agents should only be used with specialist advice.
Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux in children include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. In severe cases where medical treatment is ineffective, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for parents and caregivers to understand the symptoms and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in children to ensure the best possible outcomes for their little ones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 14-month-old boy is referred to paediatrics by his GP due to concerns that he is still not attempting to 'pull to stand'. He was born at 28 weeks by emergency cesarean section due to foetal distress and weighed 1.2kg at birth.
On examination, he appears healthy and engaged. He responds to his name and has 8 meaningful words. He can drink from a cup using both hands. When put on the floor, he commando crawls to move around. Upper limb tone is normal however lower limb tone is significantly increased.
Based on this patient's symptoms, where in the brain/nervous system has damage occurred?Your Answer: Upper motor neurons in the periventricular white matter
Explanation:Damage to upper motor neurons is the cause of spastic cerebral palsy.
Understanding Cerebral Palsy
Cerebral palsy is a condition that affects movement and posture due to damage to the motor pathways in the developing brain. It is the most common cause of major motor impairment and affects 2 in 1,000 live births. The causes of cerebral palsy can be antenatal, intrapartum, or postnatal. Antenatal causes include cerebral malformation and congenital infections such as rubella, toxoplasmosis, and CMV. Intrapartum causes include birth asphyxia or trauma, while postnatal causes include intraventricular hemorrhage, meningitis, and head trauma.
Children with cerebral palsy may exhibit abnormal tone in early infancy, delayed motor milestones, abnormal gait, and feeding difficulties. They may also have associated non-motor problems such as learning difficulties, epilepsy, squints, and hearing impairment. Cerebral palsy can be classified into spastic, dyskinetic, ataxic, or mixed types.
Managing cerebral palsy requires a multidisciplinary approach. Treatments for spasticity include oral diazepam, oral and intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin type A, orthopedic surgery, and selective dorsal rhizotomy. Anticonvulsants and analgesia may also be required. Understanding cerebral palsy and its management is crucial in providing appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 3-day-old neonate born at term is presenting with tachypnoea, grunting, and cyanosis. The baby is unable to feed and has an oxygen saturation of 70% on room air. On auscultation, a loud S2 and systolic murmur are heard, which is loudest at the left sternal border. The doctors suspect transposition of the great arteries and have started the baby on intravenous fluids, antibiotics, and scheduled surgery. What additional medication should be given in the meantime?
Your Answer: Indomethacin
Correct Answer: Prostaglandin E1
Explanation:To maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in cyanotic congenital heart diseases, prostaglandin E1 should be administered. It is helpful to recall the 5 T’s for cyanotic CHD, which include Tetralogy of Fallot, Transposition of Great Vessels (TGA), Tricuspid Atresia, Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return, and Truncus Arteriosus. Based on the timing of onset and heart murmur, the patient in this case likely has TGA with a concurrent VSD. TGA typically presents shortly after birth. Prostaglandin E1 is given in ductal dependent cyanotic heart diseases to prevent closure of the patent ductus arteriosus until surgical correction can be performed. This allows for mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to ensure adequate systemic circulation. Antibiotics should also be administered as prophylaxis for bacterial endocarditis. It is important to note that nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as indomethacin and ibuprofen will actually close the ductus arteriosus and should not be used in this situation.
Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, is a common occurrence in newborns. Peripheral cyanosis, which affects the hands and feet, is often seen in the first 24 hours of life and can be caused by crying or illness. Central cyanosis, on the other hand, is a more serious condition that occurs when the concentration of reduced hemoglobin in the blood exceeds 5g/dl. To differentiate between cardiac and non-cardiac causes of central cyanosis, doctors may use the nitrogen washout test, which involves giving the infant 100% oxygen for ten minutes and then measuring arterial blood gases. A pO2 of less than 15 kPa indicates cyanotic congenital heart disease, which can be caused by conditions such as tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries, and tricuspid atresia.
If cyanotic congenital heart disease is suspected, initial management involves supportive care and the use of prostaglandin E1, such as alprostadil, to maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in ductal-dependent congenital heart defects. This can serve as a temporary measure until a definitive diagnosis is made and surgical correction is performed.
Acrocyanosis, a type of peripheral cyanosis, is a benign condition that is often seen in healthy newborns. It is characterized by bluish discoloration around the mouth and extremities, such as the hands and feet, and is caused by vasomotor changes that result in peripheral vasoconstriction and increased tissue oxygen extraction. Unlike other causes of peripheral cyanosis that may indicate significant pathology, such as septic shock, acrocyanosis occurs immediately after birth in healthy infants and typically resolves within 24 to 48 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother. His father passed away two weeks ago. He is feeling very emotional and is hesitant to return to school. He has no known risk factors for depression.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing his situation?Your Answer: Refer urgently to CAMHS
Correct Answer: Supportive chat, provide resources and arrange follow-up
Explanation:Managing Traumatic Life Events in Children: Appropriate Interventions and Referrals
When a child experiences a traumatic life event, it is important to provide appropriate interventions and referrals to prevent the development of depression. For children with low risk of developing depression, a supportive chat, resource provision, and follow-up should be the first line of management. Urgent referral to Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS) is only necessary if the child has two or more risk factors for depression or is currently displaying signs of depression.
Encouraging the child to return to school as soon as possible is also crucial. The school can offer support and help the child maintain contact with peers. Referral to CAMHS should only be considered if the child meets the criteria mentioned above.
Initiating antidepressant medication such as fluoxetine should be done in secondary care and is not recommended for this child at present. By following appropriate interventions and referrals, we can help children cope with traumatic life events and prevent the development of depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Parents bring their infant to see you because their child is not growing normally. There is no family history of note. On examination, he is noted to have a large head relative to the limbs. The limbs are relatively shortened, compared to the trunk.
What is the molecular basis for this condition?Your Answer: Trisomy 18
Correct Answer: Activation of the fibroblast growth factor 3 (FGF3) receptor
Explanation:There are several genetic mutations that can cause developmental abnormalities and disorders. One such mutation is the activation of the fibroblast growth factor 3 (FGF3) receptor, which leads to achondroplasia and stunted bone growth. Another mutation affects the fibrillin-1 gene, causing Marfan’s syndrome and resulting in tall stature, joint hypermobility, and cardiac abnormalities. Mutations in collagen genes can lead to disorders like osteogenesis imperfecta, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, and Alport disease. Trisomy 18, or Edwards’ syndrome, is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 18 and results in severe developmental abnormalities and organ system dysfunction. Trisomy 21, or Down syndrome, is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 and leads to characteristic physical features such as dysplastic ears and a high arched palate, as well as intellectual disability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother. Her mother noticed her face twitching and mouth drooling while trying to wake her up this morning. The episode lasted for 30 seconds and the girl was fully aware of what was happening. The girl has been feeling drowsy and confused for the past 15 minutes. She has been healthy and has no medical conditions. Her mother is concerned that she has been staying up late for the past few nights, which may have contributed to her fatigue. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
Correct Answer: Benign rolandic epilepsy
Explanation:The correct answer is benign rolandic epilepsy, which is a syndrome that typically affects children between the ages of 4-12. The main symptom is a focal seizure that occurs before or after bedtime, involving facial twitching, drooling, and twitching of one limb or side of the body. The EEG will show centrotemporal spikes, indicating that the seizure originates in the rolandic fissure. This condition has a good prognosis and may not require treatment depending on the severity and frequency of the seizures.
Incorrect answers include absence seizure, infantile spasms, and juvenile myoclonic epilepsy. Absence seizure is a generalised seizure that does not involve limb twitching or focal symptoms. Infantile spasms typically occur in infants and are associated with developmental delays. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy is a focal syndrome that involves myoclonic jerks and daytime absences, which can progress to secondarily generalised seizures.
Benign rolandic epilepsy is a type of epilepsy that usually affects children between the ages of 4 and 12 years. This condition is characterized by seizures that typically occur at night and are often partial, causing sensations in the face. However, these seizures may also progress to involve the entire body. Despite these symptoms, children with benign rolandic epilepsy are otherwise healthy and normal.
Diagnosis of benign rolandic epilepsy is typically confirmed through an electroencephalogram (EEG), which shows characteristic centrotemporal spikes. Fortunately, the prognosis for this condition is excellent, with seizures typically ceasing by adolescence. While the symptoms of benign rolandic epilepsy can be concerning for parents and caregivers, it is important to remember that this condition is generally not associated with any long-term complications or developmental delays.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A concerned father brings his 6-year-old daughter to see the GP, worried about her walking and balance. The child learned to walk around 2 years old, much the same as her older brother. However, over the last few months, her dad has noticed that she has become reluctant to walk and often trips or falls when she does.
On examination, the child is of average build but has disproportionately large calves. When asked to walk across the room she does so on her tiptoes. Gowers test is positive.
What investigation is considered most appropriate to confirm the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Creatine kinase levels
Correct Answer: Genetic analysis
Explanation:A diagnosis of Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) can now be made through genetic testing instead of a muscle biopsy. The symptoms and history described strongly suggest DMD, which is a genetic disorder that causes muscle wasting and weakness. Classic features of DMD include calf hyperplasia and a positive Gowers test. Most individuals with DMD will require a wheelchair by puberty, and management is primarily conservative. CT imaging of the legs is not typically used for diagnosis, and while a high creatine kinase can indicate muscular dystrophy in children, genetic testing is more definitive. Muscle function testing is useful for monitoring disease progression but not for initial diagnosis.
Understanding Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. It affects the dystrophin genes that are essential for normal muscular function. The disorder is characterized by progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Other features include calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when a child uses their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.
To diagnose Duchenne muscular dystrophy, doctors typically look for elevated levels of creatinine kinase in the blood. However, genetic testing has now replaced muscle biopsy as the preferred method for obtaining a definitive diagnosis. Unfortunately, there is currently no effective treatment for Duchenne muscular dystrophy, so management is largely supportive.
The prognosis for Duchenne muscular dystrophy is poor. Most children with the disorder are unable to walk by the age of 12 years, and patients typically survive to around the age of 25-30 years. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is also associated with dilated cardiomyopathy, which can further complicate the management of the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father. Her temperature is 38.5ÂşC and her respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute.
During the examination, you observe that her left leg is warm and swollen with purple discoloration. On the back of her leg, her skin is peeling, and a deep, erythematosus, diffuse, grey soft wound is visible with white discharge.
When you ask her father about her medical history, he mentions that there was an outbreak of chickenpox at her school. He first noticed the wound on her leg three days ago.
Her Hb is 115 g/L (110-140), platelets are 140* 109/L (150 - 450), and WBC is 16 * 109/L (5-12 * 109).
What is the most likely complication?Your Answer: Necrotising fasciitis
Explanation:Chickenpox and its Complications
Chickenpox can lead to various complications, including invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections such as necrotizing fasciitis. This rare complication of the varicella-zoster virus causes painful lesions on the skin and underlying muscles, with systemic symptoms and open wounds. Diagnosis is made by passing a probe or gloved finger below the affected skin, causing it to separate from the underlying tissue.
Another complication caused by group A streptococcus is cellulitis, which affects the dermis and subcutaneous tissue. It presents with erythema, pain, swelling, and warmth, without systemic symptoms. Erysipelas, on the other hand, is a bacterial infection that affects the superficial layer of the dermis and commonly affects superficial cutaneous lymphatics. It presents similarly to cellulitis but has well-defined borders and can be a rare complication of chickenpox.
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura is an IgA-mediated vasculitis of the small vessels of the skin. It can rarely present as a complication of chickenpox with a widespread rash on the buttocks and lower thigh, abdominal pain, and joint pain. Reyes syndrome is another complication that commonly presents after a recent viral infection such as chickenpox. It is also thought to be triggered by aspirin use, which is often used to treat the symptoms of chickenpox, such as headaches. It presents with tachypnea, tiredness, and in severe cases can cause behavioral changes and coma. However, in this case, the patient only presents with tachypnea, and there is no evidence to suggest the use of aspirin.
Chickenpox: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life, causing shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious four days before the rash appears and until five days after the rash first appears. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever, an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading, and mild systemic upset.
Management of chickenpox is supportive and includes keeping cool, trimming nails, and using calamine lotion. School exclusion is recommended during the infectious period. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV acyclovir may be considered. Secondary bacterial infection of the lesions is a common complication, which may be increased by the use of NSAIDs. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.
Radiographic Findings in Varicella Pneumonia
Varicella pneumonia is a rare complication of chickenpox that can occur in immunocompromised patients or adults. Radiographic findings of healed varicella pneumonia may include miliary opacities throughout both lungs, which are of uniform size and dense, suggesting calcification. There is typically no focal lung parenchymal mass or cavitating lesion seen. These findings are characteristic of healed varicella pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency department with symptoms of malaise, rash, vomiting and fever. The mother reports that the child has not been eating well for the past day and has been running a low-grade temperature. Additionally, the mother points out a partial thickness burn on the child's arm that has been treated with dressings by their GP. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Meningococcal septicaemia
Correct Answer: Toxic shock syndrome
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for an unwell child with an unhealed burn
When a child with an unhealed burn appears acutely unwell, several life-threatening conditions must be considered and ruled out promptly. Among them, toxic shock syndrome and meningococcal septicaemia are particularly concerning and require urgent management in the intensive care unit. Anaphylaxis, although a rare possibility, should also be considered and treated promptly with intramuscular adrenaline. Haemophilus influenzae and Salmonella are less likely causes, as they typically present with respiratory or gastrointestinal symptoms, respectively, which are not evident in this case. A thorough assessment and appropriate interventions are crucial to ensure the best possible outcome for the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A toddler with macrosomia has had a difficult delivery, owing to shoulder dystocia. The obstetrician pulled the child’s head downwards towards the floor to disengage the anterior shoulder from below the pubic bones. When the child is having a check-up prior to discharge, the paediatrician notes that the left upper limb is adducted and medially rotated, with extension at the elbow joint. When questioned, the mother admits that the child has not been moving it.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Isolated musculocutaneous nerve injury
Correct Answer: Erb–Duchenne palsy due to trauma to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus
Explanation:Differentiating Brachial Plexus Injuries: Causes and Symptoms
The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originates from the spinal cord and supplies the upper limb. Trauma to this network can result in various types of injuries, each with its own set of symptoms. Here are some of the common types of brachial plexus injuries and their distinguishing features:
Erb-Duchenne Palsy: This injury occurs due to trauma to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus, typically during obstructed labor or delivery. The affected muscles include those supplied by the musculocutaneous, radial, and axillary nerves, resulting in adduction and medial rotation of the arm, wrist drop, and sensory loss along the posterolateral aspect of the limb.
Isolated Radial Nerve Injury: This type of injury is associated with paralysis of the wrist and digital extensors, as well as the triceps. However, medial rotation of the humerus is not affected.
Klumpke’s Palsy: This injury is caused by trauma to the lower trunk of the brachial plexus, often during difficult delivery or sudden upward stretching of the upper limb. It results in claw hand due to damage to T1, causing paralysis of the short muscles of the hand.
Isolated Axillary Nerve Injury: With this type of injury, the wrist extensors function normally.
Isolated Musculocutaneous Nerve Injury: This injury is not associated with wrist drop.
In summary, understanding the specific symptoms associated with each type of brachial plexus injury can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with her mother, complaining of right iliac fossa pain for the past 2 days. She has no significant medical history, except for a recent cold and sore throat. She has had a high fever for the past 2 days and has lost her appetite, but denies any other symptoms. On examination, her temperature is 38.9 °C and her heart rate is 130 bpm. She has palpable and slightly tender submandibular and cervical lymph nodes on both sides. Her chest is clear, with transmitted sounds from the upper airways. Abdominal examination reveals marked tenderness in the right iliac fossa without guarding. A urine dipstick shows 2+ ketones and 1+ protein. Her FBC results are as follows: haemoglobin 145 g/l (normal range 135–175 g/l), WCC 14.3 × 109/l (normal range 4–11 × 109/l), and platelets 425 × 109/l (normal range 150–400 × 109/l). What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?
Your Answer: Mesenteric adenitis
Explanation:When a child presents with right iliac fossa pain, a previous and recent history of a viral upper respiratory tract infection, along with enlarged neck nodes and high temperature, may indicate mesenteric adenitis. This condition is caused by mesenteric lymphadenopathy and can cause abdominal pain. Appendicitis is another possible diagnosis, but it tends to present with a low-grade fever and involuntary muscle spasms in the abdominal wall. A urinary tract infection is unlikely if there are no nitrites or leukocytes on urine dipstick. Meckel’s diverticulitis is a rare complication of Meckel’s diverticulum and is difficult to diagnose without considering appendicitis. Retroperitoneal appendix abscess is another uncommon type of infection that presents with non-specific symptoms such as fever, back pain, and abdominal pain. High temperatures may also be present, but they usually fluctuate in abscesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Liam, a 3-year-old boy and his father visit a paediatric neurology clinic. Liam's father is worried about epilepsy, but the consultant explains that Liam has been experiencing reflex anoxic seizures. What characteristics could distinguish between epilepsy and Liam's condition?
Your Answer: Stiffening of the body
Correct Answer: Quick recovery following seizure
Explanation:Both epilepsy and reflex anoxic seizures can cause collapse, jerking, stiffness, and cyanosis. However, reflex anoxic seizures have a faster recovery time compared to epileptic seizures, which usually have a longer recovery period.
Reflex Anoxic Seizures: A Brief Overview
Reflex anoxic seizures are a type of syncope or fainting episode that occurs in response to pain or emotional stimuli. This condition is believed to be caused by a temporary pause in the heart’s electrical activity due to overstimulation of the vagus nerve in children with sensitive reflexes. Reflex anoxic seizures are most commonly seen in young children between the ages of 6 months and 3 years.
During a reflex anoxic seizure, the child may suddenly become very pale and fall to the ground. Secondary anoxic seizures may also occur, which are brief episodes of muscle twitching or jerking. However, the child typically recovers quickly and without any long-term effects.
There is no specific treatment for reflex anoxic seizures, but it is important to identify and avoid triggers that may cause these episodes. The prognosis for children with reflex anoxic seizures is excellent, and most children outgrow this condition as they get older. By understanding the symptoms and triggers of reflex anoxic seizures, parents and caregivers can help manage this condition and ensure the safety and well-being of their child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is the preferred investigation to detect renal scarring in a pediatric patient with vesicoureteral reflux?
Your Answer: Micturating cystourethrogram
Correct Answer: Radionuclide scan using dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA)
Explanation:Understanding Vesicoureteric Reflux
Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR) is a condition where urine flows back from the bladder into the ureter and kidney. This is a common urinary tract abnormality in children and can lead to urinary tract infections (UTIs). In fact, around 30% of children who present with a UTI have VUR. It is important to investigate for VUR in children following a UTI as around 35% of children develop renal scarring.
The pathophysiology of VUR involves the ureters being displaced laterally, which causes a shortened intramural course of the ureter. This means that the vesicoureteric junction cannot function properly. VUR can present in different ways, such as hydronephrosis on ultrasound during the antenatal period, recurrent childhood UTIs, and reflux nephropathy, which is chronic pyelonephritis secondary to VUR. Renal scarring can also produce increased quantities of renin, which can cause hypertension.
To diagnose VUR, a micturating cystourethrogram is usually performed. A DMSA scan may also be done to check for renal scarring. VUR is graded based on the severity of the condition, with Grade I being the mildest and Grade V being the most severe.
Overall, understanding VUR is important in preventing complications such as UTIs and renal scarring. Early diagnosis and management can help improve outcomes for children with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Correct
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You are observing a doctor on the neonatal ward who is asked to assess a 3-hour-old baby delivered at 40+5 weeks by ventouse. The mother is concerned about the appearance of her baby's head. Upon examination, you notice a soft, puffy swelling at the back of the head with some light bruising from the ventouse cup. The swelling seems to extend across the suture lines. However, the baby appears to be in good health otherwise, and the neonatal hearing screen conducted earlier that morning was normal. What could be the probable cause of this presentation?
Your Answer: Caput succedaneum
Explanation:Caput succedaneum is a puffy swelling that occurs over the presenting part during prolonged ventouse delivery and resolves spontaneously. It differs from bulging fontanelle, which is caused by increased intracranial pressure, and cephalohaematoma, which is a swelling caused by fluid collecting between the periosteum and skull. Hydrocephalus is a condition where there is an accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid around the brain, and subaponeurotic haemorrhage is a rare condition caused by rupturing of emissary veins.
Understanding Caput Succedaneum
Caput succedaneum is a condition that refers to the swelling of the scalp at the top of the head, usually at the vertex. This swelling is caused by the mechanical trauma that occurs during delivery, particularly in prolonged deliveries or those that involve the use of vacuum delivery. The condition is characterized by soft, puffy swelling due to localized edema that crosses suture lines.
Compared to cephalohaematoma, which is a collection of blood under the scalp, caput succedaneum is caused by edema. While cephalohaematoma is limited to a specific area and does not cross suture lines, caput succedaneum can affect a larger area and cross suture lines. Fortunately, no treatment is needed for caput succedaneum, as the swelling usually resolves on its own within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 4 month old boy is suspected of having hypospadias. In boys with this condition, where is the urethral opening most commonly located?
Your Answer: On the distal dorsal surface of the penis
Correct Answer: On the distal ventral surface of the penis
Explanation:The anomaly is typically situated on the underside and frequently towards the end. Urethral openings found closer to the body are a known occurrence. Surgical removal of the foreskin may hinder the process of repairing the defect.
Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis
Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.
Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 14-year-old teenage girl comes to the clinic with concerns about delayed puberty and not having started her menstrual cycle. She reports feeling generally well and has no significant medical history. During the examination, it is noted that she has a slender build and underdeveloped breasts. There is no pubic hair present. Upon palpation, marble-sized swellings are felt in both groins. What is the most probable cause of her presentation?
Your Answer: Androgen insensitivity
Explanation:The classic presentation of androgen insensitivity is primary amenorrhoea, with the key symptom being groin swellings. When combined with the absence of pubic hair, this points towards a diagnosis of androgen insensitivity, also known as testicular feminisation syndrome. This condition occurs in individuals who are genetically male (46XY) but appear phenotypically female due to increased oestradiol levels, which cause breast development. The groin swellings in this case are undescended testes. While non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma could also cause groin swellings, it is less likely as it would typically present with systemic symptoms and is not a common cause of delayed puberty.
Disorders of sex hormones can have various effects on the body, as shown in the table below. Primary hypogonadism, also known as Klinefelter’s syndrome, is characterized by high levels of LH and low levels of testosterone. Patients with this disorder often have small, firm testes, lack secondary sexual characteristics, and are infertile. They may also experience gynaecomastia and have an increased risk of breast cancer. Diagnosis is made through chromosomal analysis.
Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, or Kallmann syndrome, is another cause of delayed puberty. It is typically inherited as an X-linked recessive trait and is caused by the failure of GnRH-secreting neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus. Patients with Kallmann syndrome may have hypogonadism, cryptorchidism, and anosmia. Sex hormone levels are low, and LH and FSH levels are inappropriately low or normal. Cleft lip/palate and visual/hearing defects may also be present.
Androgen insensitivity syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition that causes end-organ resistance to testosterone, resulting in genotypically male children (46XY) having a female phenotype. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome is the new term for testicular feminisation syndrome. Patients with this disorder may experience primary amenorrhoea, undescended testes causing groin swellings, and breast development due to the conversion of testosterone to oestradiol. Diagnosis is made through a buccal smear or chromosomal analysis to reveal a 46XY genotype. Management includes counseling to raise the child as female, bilateral orchidectomy due to an increased risk of testicular cancer from undescended testes, and oestrogen therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which diagnostic test is most effective in identifying the initial stages of Perthes' disease?
Your Answer: Plain x ray
Correct Answer: MRI
Explanation:Legg-CalvĂ©-Perthes’ Disease: Diagnosis and Imaging
Legg-CalvĂ©-Perthes’ disease is a condition where the femoral head undergoes osteonecrosis, or bone death, without any known cause. The diagnosis of this disease can be established through plain x-rays of the hip, which are highly useful. However, in the early stages, MRI and contrast MRI can provide more detailed information about the extent of necrosis, revascularization, and healing. On the other hand, a nuclear scan can provide less detail and expose the child to radiation. Nevertheless, a technetium 99 bone scan can be helpful in identifying the extent of avascular changes before they become evident on plain radiographs.
In summary, Legg-CalvĂ©-Perthes’ disease is a condition that can be diagnosed through plain x-rays of the hip. However, MRI and contrast MRI can provide more detailed information in the early stages, while a technetium 99 bone scan can help identify the extent of avascular changes before they become evident on plain radiographs. It is important to consider the risks and benefits of each imaging modality when diagnosing and monitoring this disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A child is admitted to the hospital and during a neonatal examination, a systolic heart murmur is detected. Upon further testing with an echocardiogram, it is revealed that the right atrium is hypertrophied and the septal and posterior leaflets of the tricuspid valve are attached to the right ventricle. What is the commonly used name for this condition?
Your Answer: AVSD
Correct Answer: Ebstein's anomaly
Explanation:Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is a condition that affects some patients and is caused by an additional electrical pathway between the atria and ventricles, leading to an irregular heart rate. If a mother takes lithium during the first trimester of pregnancy, it increases the risk of her child developing Ebstein’s anomaly.
Understanding Ebstein’s Anomaly
Ebstein’s anomaly is a type of congenital heart defect that is characterized by the tricuspid valve being inserted too low, resulting in a large atrium and a small ventricle. This condition is also known as the atrialization of the right ventricle. It is believed that exposure to lithium during pregnancy may cause this condition.
Ebstein’s anomaly is often associated with a patent foramen ovale (PFO) or atrial septal defect (ASD), which causes a shunt between the right and left atria. Additionally, patients with this condition may also have Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome.
The clinical features of Ebstein’s anomaly include cyanosis, a prominent a wave in the distended jugular venous pulse, hepatomegaly, tricuspid regurgitation, and a pansystolic murmur that is worse on inspiration. Patients may also have a right bundle branch block, which can lead to widely split S1 and S2 heart sounds.
In summary, Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital heart defect that affects the tricuspid valve and can cause a range of symptoms. It is often associated with other conditions such as PFO or ASD and can be diagnosed through clinical examination and imaging tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 35 year old pregnant woman undergoes routine pregnancy screening blood tests and is found to have an elevated alpha-fetoprotein level. This prompts investigation with ultrasound scanning. The scan reveals a fetus with an anterior abdominal wall defect and mass protruding through, which appears to still be covered with an amniotic sac. What is the standard course of action for managing this condition, based on the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Caesarian section and staged repair
Explanation:If a fetus is diagnosed with exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to lower the risk of sac rupture. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein may indicate abdominal wall defects. The appropriate course of action is a caesarian section with staged repair, as this reduces the risk of sac rupture and surgery is not urgent. Immediate repair during caesarian section would only be necessary if the sac had ruptured. Vaginal delivery with immediate repair is only recommended for gastroschisis, as immediate surgery is required due to the lack of a protective sac. Therefore, the other two options are incorrect.
Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.
Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You are in a genetics clinic and explaining to a couple the reason why their daughter has Prader-Willi syndrome. What is the term used to describe the mode of inheritance for Prader-Willi syndrome?
Your Answer: Autosomal recessive
Correct Answer: Imprinting
Explanation:Prader-Willi is an instance of imprinting, where the patient does not inherit the gene from their father. Although the mother’s gene may be normal, the phenotype can still occur, resulting in learning difficulties, hypotonia, obesity, and an insatiable appetite.
Autosomal recessive occurs when a person inherits a defective gene from both parents, leading to the development of a particular condition. Cystic fibrosis is an example of this.
Autosomal dominant only requires the inheritance of one defective gene from either parent to develop a condition. Huntington’s disease is an example of this.
Pleiotropy refers to a single gene causing multiple clinical effects that may seem unrelated when defective.
Variable expressivity occurs when an inherited genetic defect results in varying levels of clinical effects.
Prader-Willi Syndrome: A Genetic Imprinting Disorder
Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the absence of the active Prader-Willi gene on chromosome 15. This disorder is an example of genetic imprinting, where the phenotype of the individual depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father. If the gene is deleted from the father, it results in Prader-Willi syndrome, while if it is deleted from the mother, it results in Angelman syndrome.
There are two main causes of Prader-Willi syndrome: microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13, which accounts for 70% of cases, and maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15. Individuals with Prader-Willi syndrome exhibit a range of symptoms, including hypotonia during infancy, dysmorphic features, short stature, hypogonadism and infertility, learning difficulties, childhood obesity, and behavioral problems in adolescence.
In summary, Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder that results from the absence of the active Prader-Willi gene on chromosome 15. It is an example of genetic imprinting, and the phenotype of the individual depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father. Individuals with Prader-Willi syndrome exhibit a range of symptoms, and the disorder can be caused by microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13 or maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Correct
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A 6-day-old infant has been experiencing noisy breathing since birth. A perceptive resident physician identifies that the sound occurs during inhalation. What is the primary reason for stridor in a newborn?
Your Answer: Laryngomalacia
Explanation:1 – Children between 6 months and 3 years old are typically affected by croup.
2 – Stridor is a common symptom of Epiglottitis in children aged 2-4 years, although the introduction of the H. influenzae vaccine has almost eliminated this condition.
4 – Bronchiolitis often affects individuals between 3 and 6 months old.
5 – No information provided.Stridor in Children: Causes and Symptoms
Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is commonly seen in children. There are several causes of stridor in children, including croup, acute epiglottitis, inhaled foreign body, and laryngomalacia. Croup is a viral infection that affects the upper respiratory tract and is characterized by stridor, barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms. Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B, which can lead to airway obstruction. Inhaled foreign body can cause sudden onset of coughing, choking, vomiting, and stridor, depending on the site of impaction. Laryngomalacia is a congenital abnormality of the larynx that typically presents at 4 weeks of age with stridor.
It is important to recognize the symptoms of stridor in children and seek prompt medical attention, especially if the child appears unwell or toxic. Treatment may include medications, such as corticosteroids or nebulized epinephrine, or in severe cases, intubation or tracheostomy. Prevention measures, such as vaccination against Haemophilus influenzae type B, can also help reduce the incidence of acute epiglottitis. Overall, early recognition and management of stridor in children can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Correct
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A 24-hour-old newborn, born at 35 weeks to a healthy mother, is currently being examined on the ward. The baby appears to be in good health on initial inspection and the mother has not reported any concerns thus far. During the examination, the doctor observes a large volume, collapsing pulse, a heaving apex beat, and a left subclavicular thrill. On auscultation of heart sounds, the doctor detects a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur. An urgent echocardiogram is ordered by the doctor, which confirms their suspected diagnosis. No other abnormalities or defects are detected on the echo.
What would be the most appropriate initial management, given the findings and likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Give indomethacin to the neonate
Explanation:The probable diagnosis based on the examination findings is pulmonary ductus arteriosus (PDA), which is characterized by a ‘machinery-like’ murmur. The recommended treatment for this condition is the administration of indomethacin or ibuprofen, which inhibits prostaglandin production and promotes duct closure. The use of prostaglandin E1 is not appropriate in this case, as it would keep the duct open. Referral for routine or urgent surgery is also not necessary, as no other congenital heart defects were found on the echocardiogram. Monitoring and repeating echocardiograms alone are not sufficient and medical intervention is required for closure of the duct.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy has been brought in by his worried mother. She reports that he is a typical boy, but he has been experiencing difficulty walking and falls frequently. He started walking at 15 months old, and she has observed that he requires assistance getting up from a seated position. Apart from that, he is comparable to his classmates in school and has progressed normally. During the examination, he displays proximal weakness, but his distal muscle strength is intact.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)
Explanation:Differentiating Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy from Other Neuromuscular Disorders
Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is a genetic disorder that primarily affects boys and is characterized by progressive muscle weakness. It is important to differentiate DMD from other neuromuscular disorders to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.
Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) and progressive muscular atrophy are two conditions that affect the lower motor neurons but are not characterized by proximal weakness, which is a hallmark of DMD. Global developmental delay, on the other hand, is characterized by intellectual and communication limitations, delayed milestones, and motor skill delays, but not proximal weakness.
Spinal muscular atrophy (SMA) is another neuromuscular disorder that can be confused with DMD. However, SMA has four types, each with distinct clinical presentations. The scenario described in the prompt does not fit with any of the four types of SMA.
In summary, understanding the unique clinical features of DMD and differentiating it from other neuromuscular disorders is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are participating in a morbidity and mortality meeting following the death of a patient on the 30th day after birth. The classification of the patient's death is being debated. What is the appropriate classification for this case?
Your Answer: Late perinatal death
Correct Answer: Neonatal death
Explanation:Neonatal death is the term used to describe the death of a baby within the first 28 days of life. This classification is important for public health interventions and is a common topic in exams. Miscarriage, on the other hand, is defined as the death of a fetus before 24 weeks of gestation in the UK, or before 28 weeks globally. Puerperal death refers to the death of a mother within the first 6 weeks after giving birth. Perinatal death is a broader term that includes stillbirths and deaths within the first week of life, often resulting from obstetric events. Early neonatal death refers to death within the first week of life, while late neonatal death refers to death after 7 days but before 28 days of life.
Perinatal Death Rates and Related Metrics
Perinatal mortality rate is a measure of stillbirths and early neonatal deaths within seven days per 1,000 births after 24 weeks of gestation. In the UK, this rate is around 6 per 1,000 births. This figure is usually broken down into 4 per 1,000 stillbirths and 2 per 1,000 early neonatal deaths.
Maternal mortality rate, on the other hand, is calculated by dividing the number of deaths during pregnancy, labor, and six weeks after delivery by the total number of maternities and multiplying the result by 1000. Meanwhile, the stillbirth rate is determined by dividing the number of babies born dead after 24 weeks by the total number of births (live and stillborn) and multiplying the result by 1000. Lastly, the neonatal death rate is computed by dividing the number of babies who died between 0-28 days by the total number of live births and multiplying the result by 1000.
These metrics are important in assessing the quality of perinatal care and identifying areas for improvement. By monitoring these rates, healthcare providers can work towards reducing perinatal deaths and improving maternal and neonatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You have just helped deliver a 3 week premature baby and are asked to quickly assess the current APGAR score. The baby has a slow irregular cry, is pink all over, a slight grimace, with a heart rate of 140 BPM and moving both arms and legs freely. What is the current APGAR score?
Your Answer: 9
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation:The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You assess an 11-year-old girl who has been experiencing worsening constipation for the past 3 years, despite previously having regular bowel movements. All other aspects of her medical history and physical examination are unremarkable. She is not currently taking any medications.
What would be the appropriate next course of action in managing her constipation?Your Answer: Docusate rectal enema
Correct Answer: Osmotic laxative
Explanation:Constipation at this age is most likely caused by dietary factors. Therefore, it is important to offer dietary guidance, such as increasing fiber and fluid consumption. Additionally, advising the individual to increase their activity level may be beneficial. As the constipation is getting worse, a laxative would be helpful. An osmotic laxative is recommended initially, as the stool is expected to be hard. A stimulant laxative may be necessary once the stool has softened.
Understanding and Managing Constipation in Children
Constipation is a common problem in children, with the frequency of bowel movements decreasing as they age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and associated distress or pain. Most cases of constipation in children are idiopathic, but other causes such as dehydration, low-fiber diet, and medication use should be considered and excluded.
If a diagnosis of constipation is made, NICE recommends assessing for faecal impaction before starting treatment. Treatment for faecal impaction involves using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) as the first-line treatment, with the addition of a stimulant laxative if necessary. Maintenance therapy involves a similar regime, with adjustments to the starting dose and the addition of other laxatives if necessary.
It is important to note that dietary interventions alone are not recommended as first-line treatment, although ensuring adequate fluid and fiber intake is important. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants, extra water, gentle abdominal massage, and bicycling the legs can be helpful for constipation. If these measures are not effective, lactulose can be added.
In summary, constipation in children can be managed effectively with a combination of medication, dietary adjustments, and behavioral interventions. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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