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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old man presents for review. He has been recently diagnosed with congestive...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents for review. He has been recently diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Currently, he takes digoxin 0.25 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily and amiloride 5 mg daily.

      Routine laboratory studies are normal except for a blood urea of 8 mmol/l (2.5-7.5) and a serum creatinine of 110 μmol/L (60-110).

      One month later, the patient continues to have dyspnoea and orthopnoea and has noted a 4 kg reduction in weight. His pulse rate is 96 per minute, blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg. Physical examination is unchanged except for reduced crackles, JVP is no longer visible and there is no ankle oedema.

      Repeat investigations show:

      Urea 10.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 120 µmol/L (60-110)

      Sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144)

      Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Digoxin concentration within therapeutic range.

      What would be the next most appropriate change to make to his medication?

      Your Answer: Add lisinopril 2.5 mg daily

      Explanation:

      The Importance of ACE Inhibitors in Heart Failure Treatment

      Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are crucial drugs in the treatment of heart failure. They offer a survival advantage and are the primary treatment for heart failure, unless contraindicated. These drugs work by reducing peripheral vascular resistance through the blockage of the angiotensin converting enzyme. This action decreases myocardial oxygen consumption, improving cardiac output and moderating left ventricular and vascular hypertrophy.

      ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in treating congestive heart failure (CHF) caused by systolic dysfunction. However, first dose hypotension may occur, especially if the patient is already on diuretics. These drugs are also beneficial in protecting renal function, especially in cases of significant proteinuria. An increase of 20% in serum creatinine levels is not uncommon and is not a reason to discontinue the medication.

      It is important to note that potassium levels can be affected by ACE inhibitors, and this patient is already taking several drugs that can alter potassium levels. The introduction of an ACE inhibitor may increase potassium levels, which would need to be monitored carefully. If potassium levels become too high, the amiloride may need to be stopped or substituted with a higher dose of furosemide. Overall, ACE inhibitors play a crucial role in the treatment of heart failure and should be carefully monitored to ensure their effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      16.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old man presents with a racing heart. He states that this started...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a racing heart. He states that this started while he was mowing the lawn but subsided after he drank a glass of cold lemonade. However, his symptoms have returned. On physical examination, his pulse is regular and measures 150 bpm. An ECG reveals a narrow complex tachycardia with P waves linked to each QRS complex.
      What is the probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Atrioventricular (AV) nodal re-entrant tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating AV Nodal Re-entrant Tachycardia from Other Arrhythmias: An ECG Analysis

      AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia is a type of arrhythmia that causes recurrent palpitations lasting for minutes to hours. Patients may also experience chest pain, shortness of breath, and syncope. The heart rate is usually between 150-250 bpm, and the rhythm is regular with narrow QRS complexes. Vagal manoeuvres can terminate the episode. However, it is essential to differentiate AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia from other arrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, torsades de pointes, and ventricular tachycardia. An ECG analysis can help in this regard.

      Atrial fibrillation is characterised by irregular ventricular complexes with an absence of P waves. In contrast, atrial flutter shows a saw-tooth pattern with the absence of P waves. Torsades de pointes is a rare form of polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that causes a gradual change in the amplitude and twisting of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line. It is associated with a prolonged QT interval. Ventricular tachycardia, on the other hand, is characterised by broad complexes on ECG.

      In conclusion, an ECG analysis is crucial in differentiating AV nodal re-entrant tachycardia from other arrhythmias. It helps in providing accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment to the patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old healthy woman visits her General Practitioner to obtain a health insurance...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old healthy woman visits her General Practitioner to obtain a health insurance policy. She has no significant medical history, is a non-smoker, and drinks 3 units of alcohol weekly. During examination, a faint systolic murmur is detected. Her ECG shows a heart rate of 68 bpm and is normal. An echocardiogram reveals a bicuspid aortic valve.
      What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Referral for heart surgery at a later date

      Explanation:

      Bicuspid Aortic Valve: Risks and Recommendations

      Bicuspid aortic valve is a common congenital heart disease in adults, occurring in 1-2% of the population with a familial incidence of around 10%. While some patients may be asymptomatic, about 30% develop complications such as aortic stenosis or insufficiency, which may require surgery. Additionally, the aorta of patients with bicuspid aortic valve has reduced tensile strength, putting them at higher risk for aortic dissection and aneurysm formation in the ascending aorta.

      To manage the cardiovascular risk associated with this condition, low-dose aspirin and cholesterol-lowering drugs may be prescribed as appropriate. While there is evidence supporting a familial predisposition, screening for family members is not yet universally recommended. Finally, while infective endocarditis is a potential complication, antibiotic prophylaxis during dental procedures is no longer recommended.

      In summary, bicuspid aortic valve requires careful monitoring and management to prevent complications and ensure optimal cardiovascular health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      2.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 63-year-old man has been feeling ill for 2 weeks with fatigue, loss...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man has been feeling ill for 2 weeks with fatigue, loss of appetite, and night sweats. During examination, he has a temperature of 38.5oC and a loud mid-systolic ejection murmur in the second right intercostal space with a palpable thrill. What is the most appropriate intervention for this man?

      Your Answer: Blood culture

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis of Infective Endocarditis and Criteria for Diagnosis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that involves inflammation of the heart valves caused by various organisms, including Streptococcus viridans. The lack of a dedicated blood supply to the valves reduces the immune response in these areas, making them susceptible to infection, especially if they are already damaged. A new or changing heart murmur, typical of aortic stenosis, may indicate the presence of infective endocarditis, particularly if accompanied by a fever.

      To diagnose infective endocarditis, the Duke criteria require the presence of two major criteria, one major and three minor criteria, or five minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical infective endocarditis microorganisms and evidence of vegetations on heart valves on an echocardiogram. Minor criteria include a predisposing factor such as a heart valve lesion or intravenous drug abuse, fever, embolism, immunological problems, or a single positive blood culture.

      Immediate hospital admission is necessary for patients suspected of having infective endocarditis. Blood cultures should be taken before starting antibiotics, and an echocardiogram should be carried out urgently. While aortic stenosis is a common cause of heart murmurs, a new or changing murmur accompanied by a fever should raise suspicion of infective endocarditis.

      Criteria for Diagnosing Infective Endocarditis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old man comes in for a blood pressure check. His at-home readings...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes in for a blood pressure check. His at-home readings have consistently been high at 155/94 mmHg. He reports feeling fine. He is currently on the maximum dose of amlodipine. An echocardiogram done recently showed moderate to severe aortic stenosis.

      What is the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Add indapamide and review urea and electrolytes and blood pressure in 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to prescribe ACE inhibitors to patients with moderate-severe aortic stenosis, making ramipril an inappropriate choice. Similarly, angiotensin-II receptor blockers like losartan are also contraindicated. Furosemide is not indicated for hypertension treatment. According to NICE CKS guidance, a combination of thiazide-like diuretics and calcium channel blockers is recommended, making indapamide a suitable alternative to ramipril and losartan. Digoxin has no role in hypertension treatment in this case.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old amateur footballer visits his General Practitioner with complaints of feeling lightheaded...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old amateur footballer visits his General Practitioner with complaints of feeling lightheaded during exercise. Upon physical examination, a laterally displaced apical impulse is noted. On auscultation, a mid-systolic murmur is heard in the aortic area that intensifies upon sudden standing. The electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH) and Q waves in the V2-V5 leads.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy from Other Cardiac Conditions

      Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a leading cause of sudden death in young athletes, but many patients are asymptomatic or have mild symptoms. Dyspnea is the most common symptom, along with chest pain, palpitations, and syncope. Physical examination may reveal left ventricular hypertrophy, a loud S4, and a double or triple apical impulse. The carotid pulse may have a jerky feature due to late systolic pulsation. ECG changes often include ST-T wave abnormalities and left ventricular hypertrophy, but Q waves may also be present. It is important to distinguish hypertrophic cardiomyopathy from other cardiac conditions, such as acute myocardial infarction, aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, and young-onset hypertension. Each of these conditions has distinct clinical features and diagnostic criteria that can help guide appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic for a medication review. He has...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic for a medication review. He has been prescribed clopidogrel after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack during an overnight hospital stay. Which medication from his repeat prescription is expected to decrease the efficacy of clopidogrel?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Using clopidogrel and omeprazole/esomeprazole at the same time can decrease the effectiveness of clopidogrel.

      Research has demonstrated that taking clopidogrel and omeprazole simultaneously can lead to a decrease in exposure to the active metabolite of clopidogrel. This interaction is considered moderate in severity according to the BNF, and the manufacturer recommends avoiding concurrent use. The same holds true for esomeprazole.

      There is no evidence to suggest that any of the other medications listed have an impact on the effectiveness of clopidogrel.

      Clopidogrel: An Antiplatelet Agent for Cardiovascular Disease

      Clopidogrel is a medication used to manage cardiovascular disease by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. It is commonly used in patients with acute coronary syndrome and is now also recommended as a first-line treatment for patients following an ischaemic stroke or with peripheral arterial disease. Clopidogrel belongs to a class of drugs called thienopyridines, which work in a similar way. Other examples of thienopyridines include prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine.

      Clopidogrel works by blocking the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor, which prevents platelets from becoming activated. However, concurrent use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may make clopidogrel less effective. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a warning in July 2009 about this interaction, and although evidence is inconsistent, omeprazole and esomeprazole are still cause for concern. Other PPIs, such as lansoprazole, are generally considered safe to use with clopidogrel. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any new medications or supplements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 44-year-old woman has been released from the nearby stroke unit following a...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old woman has been released from the nearby stroke unit following a lacunar ischaemic stroke. She has a history of hypertension and is a smoker who is currently taking lisinopril. However, her discharge medications do not include a statin. What would be the most suitable prescription for initiating statin therapy?

      Your Answer: Atorvastatin 80 mg

      Explanation:

      For primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, atorvastatin 20 mg is recommended, while for secondary prevention, the dose is increased to 80 mg. The patient was previously not on statin therapy for primary prevention despite being hypertensive. However, after experiencing a confirmed vascular event, the patient now requires the higher dose of atorvastatin for secondary prevention as per current guidelines. Simvastatin is not the preferred choice for secondary prevention and neither the 40 mg nor the 20 mg dose would be appropriate. Atorvastatin 10 mg is not recommended for secondary prevention, and the 20 mg dose is only licensed for primary prevention. High-intensity statin treatment is recommended for both primary and secondary prevention.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old patient of yours has a persistently high diastolic blood pressure above...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old patient of yours has a persistently high diastolic blood pressure above 90 mmHg.

      Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring is not currently available so you decide to check his home blood pressures.

      According to NICE what is the minimum number of blood pressure readings a patient should record at home?

      Your Answer: Twice a day for 4 days

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Hypertension Monitoring

      The management of hypertension is a crucial aspect of general practice, and knowledge of the NICE guidelines is essential for GPs. According to the 2019 NICE guidance on Hypertension (NG136), updated in March 2022, blood pressure should be recorded twice daily for at least four days, ideally for seven days. Two consecutive measurements should be taken for each recording, at least one minute apart, with the person seated. The first day’s measurements should be discarded, and the average value of the remaining measurements used to confirm the diagnosis. Although home readings are acceptable if ambulatory equipment is unavailable, they should not be considered equal to ambulatory monitoring. This question tests your knowledge of the NICE guidelines for hypertension monitoring, which have remained consistent since the earlier guidance (CG127) issued in 2011.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You assess a 65-year-old man who has just begun taking a beta-blocker for...

    Correct

    • You assess a 65-year-old man who has just begun taking a beta-blocker for heart failure. What is the most probable side effect that can be attributed to his new medication?

      Your Answer: Sleep disturbances

      Explanation:

      Insomnia may be caused by beta-blockers.

      Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence.

      Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed. Propranolol is lipid-soluble, which means it can cross the blood-brain barrier.

      Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects. These can include bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. There are also some contraindications to using beta-blockers, such as uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which can precipitate severe bradycardia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      4.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Health (10/10) 100%
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