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Question 1
Correct
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A 65-year-old man has scheduled an elective inguinal hernia surgery and is a diabetic taking metformin once daily. His blood glucose levels have been well controlled. He is wondering what he should do with his medication before the surgery.
What advice would be appropriate for him?Your Answer: Continue metformin as normal the day before surgery
Explanation:Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus presents at the emergency department complaining of vomiting and abdominal pain. Upon examination, she appears dehydrated. The following are some of her blood test results:
pH 7.23 (7.35-7.45)
pCO2 2.1 kPa (4.5-6.0)
pO2 11.2 kPa (10-14)
Na+ 135 mmol/L (135-145)
K+ 3.1 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
Bicarbonate 13 mmol/L (22-28)
Glucose 22.4 mmol/L (<11.1)
Ketones 3.6 mmol/L (<0.6)
Question: What should be done with her regular insulin during her treatment?Your Answer: Stop both long-acting and short-acting insulin
Correct Answer: Continue long-acting insulin and stop short-acting insulin
Explanation:In the management of DKA, it is important to continue the patient’s regular long-acting insulin while stopping their short-acting insulin. Fixed-rate insulin and fluids should also be administered. Continuing short-acting insulin may lead to hypoglycaemia, so it should be stopped until the patient is stable. Increasing the dose of both long-acting and short-acting insulin is not recommended.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with a history of hypertension comes in for a check-up. During his annual health assessment, he undergoes a U&E, HbA1c, and cholesterol test. The results are as follows:
His blood pressure today is 128/78 mmHg. He takes ramipril 5mg od as his only regular medication.
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 4.6 mmol/l
Urea 5.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 88 µmol/l
Total cholesterol 5.2 mmol/l
HbA1c 45 mmol/mol (6.3%)
His 10-year QRISK2 score is 7%. What is the most appropriate course of action based on these findings?Your Answer: Add amlodipine 5mg od
Correct Answer: Arrange a fasting glucose sample
Explanation:There is no need to take any action regarding his cholesterol as it is under control. Additionally, his blood pressure is also well managed. However, his HbA1c level is in the pre-diabetes range (42-47 mmol/mol) and requires further investigation. It is important to note that a HbA1c reading alone cannot rule out diabetes, and a fasting sample should be arranged for confirmation.
Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.
In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.
There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).
Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with excessive sweating and weight loss. Her partner reports that she is constantly on edge and you notice a fine tremor during the consultation. A large, nontender goitre is also noted. Upon examination of her eyes, there is no evidence of exophthalmos. Her pulse rate is 96/min. The following results were obtained: Free T4 26 pmol/l, Free T3 12.2 pmol/l (3.0-7.5), and TSH < 0.05 mu/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Graves’ Disease: Common Features and Unique Signs
Graves’ disease is the most frequent cause of thyrotoxicosis, which is commonly observed in women aged 30-50 years. The condition presents typical features of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. However, Graves’ disease also exhibits specific signs that are not present in other causes of thyrotoxicosis. These include eye signs, such as exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia, as well as pretibial myxoedema and thyroid acropachy. The latter is a triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation.
Autoantibodies are also present in Graves’ disease, including TSH receptor stimulating antibodies in 90% of patients and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 75% of patients. Thyroid scintigraphy can also aid in the diagnosis of Graves’ disease, as it shows diffuse, homogenous, and increased uptake of radioactive iodine.
Overall, Graves’ disease presents with both typical and unique features that distinguish it from other causes of thyrotoxicosis. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 2-month history of fatigue and muscle weakness.
During the examination, her blood pressure is found to be 160/95 mmHg. The rest of the examination is normal. The General Practitioner decides to order routine blood tests. The results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 151 mmol
Potassium (K+) 3.0 mmol
Bicarbonate 29 mmol/l
Urea 5.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 70.5 µmol/l
Random glucose 5.8 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate first-line investigation to make a diagnosis?Your Answer: Overnight dexamethasone-suppression test
Correct Answer: Aldosterone/renin ratio
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of hypertension, hypokalaemia, and hypernatraemia suggest a diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism, which is characterized by increased water and sodium reabsorption in the kidneys and potassium loss due to high aldosterone levels. While muscle weakness and lethargy are common symptoms, they are only present in 40% of cases. Metabolic alkalosis is another common finding. Primary hyperaldosteronism is often caused by bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, rather than an adrenal adenoma. To diagnose hyperaldosteronism, a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio is recommended as the first-line investigation, followed by a high-resolution CT scan of the abdomen and adrenal vein sampling to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. While an overnight dexamethasone suppression test is useful for diagnosing Cushing syndrome, it is not relevant in this case. Urine dipstick and formal urinalysis would be helpful in identifying renal causes of secondary hypertension, but are not necessary in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 45 year-old-woman of African origin is diagnosed with type II diabetes by her General Practitioner. Her haemoglobin A1c was found to be 58 mmol/mol (normal range < 48 mmol/mol) on routine bloods for her annual hypertension review. Her body mass index (BMI) is 30 kg/m2.
Along with Metformin (an oral hypoglycaemic agent), which of the following is the most appropriate dietary recommendation for this patient?Your Answer: Weight loss of 10–20% (initially after diagnosis)
Correct Answer: Low-fat dairy and oily fish
Explanation:Dietary Recommendations for Type II Diabetes Management
Managing type II diabetes requires a comprehensive approach that includes lifestyle modifications and medication. One crucial aspect of diabetes management is a healthy, balanced diet. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines on dietary recommendations for people with type II diabetes.
Low-fat dairy and oily fish are recommended to control the intake of saturated and trans fatty acids. Oily fish contains Omega-3 fatty acids, which are cardio-protective. High-fibre foods with carbohydrates with a low glycaemic index, such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, and pulses, are also recommended.
Sucrose-containing foods should be limited, and care should be taken to avoid excess energy intake. NICE discourages the use of foods marketed specifically for people with type II diabetes, as they are often higher in calories.
Weight loss is an essential aspect of diabetes management, particularly for overweight individuals. NICE recommends a weight loss target of 5-10% for overweight adults with type II diabetes. Those who achieve a weight loss of 10% or more in the first five years after diagnosis have the greatest chance of seeing their disease go into remission.
In summary, a healthy, balanced diet that includes low-fat dairy, oily fish, high-fibre foods with low glycaemic index carbohydrates, and limited sucrose-containing foods is crucial for managing type II diabetes. Weight loss is also an essential aspect of diabetes management, particularly for overweight individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 7
Correct
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A 47-year-old man is found to have a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg on multiple readings. He undergoes investigation for secondary hypertension. Computed tomography (CT) imaging shows a 4.3 cm right-sided adrenal lesion. Below are his blood results. He is listed for elective adrenalectomy.
Investigation Result Normal reference range
Plasma free metanephrines 3000 pmol/l 80-510 pmol/l
Which of the following treatments should be started to commence preparation of this patient for surgery for removal of adrenal phaeochromocytoma?Your Answer: Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers
Explanation:Management of Phaeochromocytoma: Medications and Interventions
Phaeochromocytoma is a neuroendocrine tumor that secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline, leading to sympathetic stimulation and clinical symptoms such as tachycardia, hypertension, anxiety, diaphoresis, and weight loss. Diagnosis is made through the measurement of catecholamines and metanephrines in plasma or urine. Surgery is required, but patients are at high risk due to potential life-threatening tachycardia and hypertension. The following medications and interventions are used in the management of phaeochromocytoma:
Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers: Phenoxybenzamine or doxazosin are used to dampen sympathetic stimulation by blocking alpha-adrenoceptors.
Beta-adrenergic receptor blockers: Beta-blockers are used after alpha-blockers to avoid unopposed alpha-receptor stimulation, which can cause a hypertensive crisis.
Calcium channel blockers: These are not commonly used in phaeochromocytoma management but may be used as an antihypertensive in certain populations or as an anti-anginal drug.
Intravenous fluids: IV fluids should be readily available for all surgeries to address potential blood loss and hypotension following surgery.
Low-salt diet and low fluid intake: These interventions are not typically used in phaeochromocytoma management but may be used for chronic hypertension or fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 8
Correct
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A 56-year-old man has just been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes after a routine blood test. He has a history of myocardial infarction and chronic left ventricular systolic dysfunction. The patient is started on metformin and titrated to the maximum tolerated dose. The following are the results of his blood tests:
- Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 3.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 4.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 75 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- eGFR >90 mL/min (>90)
- Hba1c 62 mmol/mol (7.8%) (20-41)
What is the most appropriate medication to initiate for this patient?Your Answer: Empagliflozin
Explanation:For this patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) and cardiac comorbidity, the most appropriate medication would be an SGLT-2 inhibitor. This is especially true for patients with established cardiovascular disease (CVD) or those under 40 with one or more cardiovascular risk factors. Studies have shown that SGLT-2 inhibitors have a cardioprotective effect, with the greatest benefit seen in those with CVD. Additionally, these medications have been associated with reduced hospital admissions and mortality in patients with heart failure.
Gliclazide is not the best option for this patient as there is no evidence that it would have a beneficial effect on their cardiac comorbidity, unlike SGLT-2 inhibitors. While gliclazide is effective at lowering HbA1c, it can cause weight gain. In some cases, gliclazide may be used as rescue therapy for patients with T2DM who have very poor glycemic control and are symptomatic, but this is not the case for this patient.
Insulin is not necessary at this stage, as there are many other medications available to optimize glycemic control before insulin should be considered. In some cases, insulin may be used as short-term rescue therapy for patients with T2DM who have very poor glycemic control and are symptomatic, but this is not the case for this patient.
Pioglitazone is not a suitable option for this patient, as it is contraindicated in patients with heart failure due to its potential to worsen fluid retention and edema. Additionally, pioglitazone is associated with an increased risk of fractures. However, pioglitazone does have benefits such as safety in renal impairment and a low risk of hypoglycemia.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 9
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with a history of hypothyroidism is admitted to the Emergency Department after experiencing chest pain. He is diagnosed with acute coronary syndrome and iron-deficiency anemia. A percutaneous coronary intervention is performed, and a coronary artery stent is inserted. Endoscopies of the upper and lower gastrointestinal tract are performed and reported as normal. Upon discharge, he is prescribed aspirin, clopidogrel, ramipril, lansoprazole, simvastatin, and ferrous sulfate in addition to his regular levothyroxine. Six weeks later, he reports feeling constantly fatigued to his GP, who orders routine blood tests. The results show a TSH level of 8.2 mu/l, which is elevated compared to the patient's previous two years of TSH levels within range. Which of the newly prescribed drugs is most likely responsible for the raised TSH?
Your Answer: Ferrous sulphate
Explanation:To avoid reduced absorption of levothyroxine, iron/calcium carbonate tablets should be administered four hours apart.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.
Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 10
Correct
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As you review the blood results of a 65-year-old man who has been diagnosed with hypertension, you notice that a HbA1c level was requested as part of the routine work-up. What HbA1c range would be indicative of prediabetes?
Your Answer: 42-47 mmol/mol (6.0-6.4%)
Explanation:Understanding Prediabetes and Impaired Glucose Regulation
Prediabetes is a term used to describe impaired glucose levels that are higher than normal but not yet high enough to be diagnosed as diabetes mellitus. This includes individuals with impaired fasting glucose (IFG) or impaired glucose tolerance (IGT). Diabetes UK estimates that around 1 in 7 adults in the UK have prediabetes, and many of them will eventually develop type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), putting them at risk of microvascular and macrovascular complications.
To identify patients with prediabetes, NICE recommends using a validated computer-based risk assessment tool for adults aged 40 and over, people of South Asian and Chinese descent aged 25-39, and adults with conditions that increase the risk of T2DM. Patients identified as high risk should have a blood sample taken, and a fasting plasma glucose of 6.1-6.9 mmol/l or an HbA1c level of 42-47 mmol/mol (6.0-6.4%) indicates high risk.
Lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, increased exercise, and changes in diet are recommended for managing prediabetes. NICE also recommends metformin for adults at high risk who are still progressing towards T2DM despite lifestyle changes.
There are two main types of impaired glucose regulation: impaired fasting glucose (IFG) and impaired glucose tolerance (IGT). IFG is due to hepatic insulin resistance, while IGT is due to muscle insulin resistance. Patients with IGT are more likely to develop T2DM and cardiovascular disease than those with IFG.
To rule out a diagnosis of diabetes, people with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person doesn’t have diabetes but does have IGT. It is important to understand prediabetes and impaired glucose regulation to prevent the progression to T2DM and its associated complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 11
Correct
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Which of the following is most commonly associated with the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion?
Your Answer: Small cell lung cancer
Explanation:SIADH is a frequent endocrine complication associated with small cell lung cancer.
SIADH is a condition where the body retains too much water, leading to low sodium levels in the blood. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including malignancies such as small cell lung cancer, neurological conditions like stroke or meningitis, infections such as tuberculosis or pneumonia, and certain drugs like sulfonylureas and SSRIs. Other causes may include positive end-expiratory pressure and porphyrias. Treatment for SIADH involves slowly correcting the sodium levels to avoid complications like central pontine myelinolysis. This can be done through fluid restriction, the use of demeclocycline to reduce responsiveness to ADH, or the use of ADH receptor antagonists. It is important to note that certain drugs, such as glimepiride and glipizide, have been reported to cause SIADH according to the BNF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 12
Correct
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A 36-year-old female patient complains of various symptoms that have persisted for the last four months. These symptoms include weight gain, especially around the abdomen, with noticeable purplish stretch marks, thin skin, and easy bruising. She has also been experiencing increased swelling in her ankles and a low mood. As part of the diagnostic process, a series of laboratory tests are conducted.
What electrolyte abnormality is anticipated in this patient?Your Answer: Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis
Explanation:The patient is suffering from Cushing’s syndrome, which is characterized by an excess of cortisol. This can be caused by exogenous glucocorticoid therapy, autonomous overproduction by the adrenal glands, or increased production of adrenocorticotrophic hormone. High levels of cortisol can mimic the effects of aldosterone, leading to increased sodium and water retention and increased potassium excretion, resulting in hypokalemia. The increased resorption of bicarbonate in the tubules due to potassium depletion causes metabolic alkalosis. Hyperkalemic metabolic acidosis is not expected because cortisol’s effect on the mineralocorticoid receptor causes a loss of potassium. Hyperkalemic respiratory alkalosis is also not expected because cortisol’s effect on the mineralocorticoid receptor leads to potassium excretion. Additionally, any acid-base disturbance in Cushing’s syndrome is likely to be metabolically mediated rather than respiratory. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis is not expected because the concomitant loss of potassium and reabsorption of bicarbonate causes metabolic alkalosis.
Investigations for Cushing’s Syndrome
Cushing’s syndrome is a condition caused by excessive cortisol production in the body. There are various causes of Cushing’s syndrome, including iatrogenic, ACTH-dependent, and ACTH-independent causes. To diagnose Cushing’s syndrome, doctors typically perform tests to confirm the condition and determine its underlying cause.
General lab findings consistent with Cushing’s syndrome include hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis and impaired glucose tolerance. Ectopic ACTH secretion, which is often associated with small cell lung cancer, is characterized by very low potassium levels.
The two most commonly used tests to confirm Cushing’s syndrome are the overnight dexamethasone suppression test and the 24-hour urinary free cortisol test. The overnight dexamethasone suppression test is the most sensitive test and is used first-line to test for Cushing’s syndrome. Patients with Cushing’s syndrome do not have their morning cortisol spike suppressed. The 24-hour urinary free cortisol test measures the amount of cortisol in the urine over a 24-hour period.
To localize the cause of Cushing’s syndrome, doctors may perform additional tests such as high-dose dexamethasone suppression test, CRH stimulation, and petrosal sinus sampling of ACTH. An insulin stress test may also be used to differentiate between true Cushing’s and pseudo-Cushing’s. Overall, a combination of these tests can help diagnose Cushing’s syndrome and determine its underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with a long history of steroid-treated sarcoidosis presents with extreme thirst and nocturia up to five times a night. Her serum calcium concentration is 2.3 mmol/l (reference range 2.2–2.7 mmol/l), random plasma glucose 4.6 mmol/l (reference range <11.1 mmol/l) and potassium 3.5 mmol/l (reference range 3.6–5.2 mmol/l). After an overnight fast, her serum sodium is 149 mmol/l (reference range 135–145 mmol/l).
What is the cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency
Correct Answer: Cranial diabetes insipidus
Explanation:Polyuria and polydipsia can be caused by various conditions, including cranial diabetes insipidus, chronic cystitis, hypokalaemia-induced polyuria, iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency, and primary polydipsia. Cranial diabetes insipidus is characterized by decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone, resulting in the passage of large volumes of dilute urine. Chronic cystitis is an ongoing inflammation of the lower urinary tract, while hypokalaemia-induced polyuria occurs when there is a low concentration of potassium in the filtrate. Iatrogenic adrenal insufficiency is a possible cause of polydipsia/polyuria, but less consistent with this scenario. Primary polydipsia is suspected when large volumes of very dilute urine occur with low-normal plasma osmolality. Differentiating between these conditions can be challenging, but a combination of plasma ADH assay and water deprivation testing can lead to greater accuracy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-month history of lethargy and generalised weakness. On examination, she is found to have a blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg. The rest of the examination is unremarkable.
Routine blood tests show a hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis, along with a hypernatraemia of 152 mmol/l (135–145 mmol/l). Primary aldosteronism is suspected and investigations reveal bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia.
Which of the following is the best treatment option?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate treatment from the list below.
Your Answer: Perindopril
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:The patient’s hypertension, hypokalaemia, and hypernatremia suggest a diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism, where high levels of aldosterone cause increased water and sodium reabsorption in the kidneys and potassium loss. The recommended treatment for primary hyperaldosteronism due to bilateral adrenal disease is a mineralocorticoid antagonist, with spironolactone as the primary agent and eplerenone as an alternative. Losartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, is an alternative to angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors for managing primary hypertension in patients under 55 years of age who are not Afro-Caribbean or diabetic. Nifedipine, a calcium-channel blocker, is a first-line drug for essential hypertension in patients aged 55 years or older or Afro-Caribbean patients. Perindopril, an ACEi, is a first-line drug for managing primary hypertension in patients under 55 years of age who are not Afro-Caribbean or diabetic. However, it is not appropriate for treating hyperaldosteronism, where spironolactone is the preferred option. Unilateral laparoscopic adrenalectomy is recommended for cases of hyperaldosteronism due to unilateral adrenal diseases, but not for bilateral adrenal disease like in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of myocardial infarction, congestive heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents for a diabetes check-up at his GP's office. He was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, and despite attempting lifestyle changes, his HbA1c remains at 56 mmol/mol. The GP decides to initiate drug therapy.
Which of the following medications would be inappropriate for this patient?Your Answer: Sitagliptin
Correct Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Patients with heart failure should not take pioglitazone due to its potential to cause fluid retention.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old African American woman who is 28 weeks pregnant undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) due to her ethnicity and a history of being overweight. An ultrasound reveals that the fetus is measuring larger than expected for its gestational age. The results of the OGTT are as follows:
Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
0 9.5
2 15.0
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Give advice about a diabetic diet + repeat OGTT in 4 weeks
Correct Answer: Start insulin
Explanation:Immediate initiation of insulin is recommended due to the high blood glucose levels and presence of macrosomia. Additionally, it is advisable to consider administering aspirin as there is an elevated risk of pre-eclampsia.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes to the Endocrine Clinic with a history of hyperthyroidism. Her blood tests confirm that she is currently experiencing thyrotoxicosis. She is hoping to conceive and wants to discuss her treatment options.
What is the most suitable treatment for her condition in this scenario?Your Answer: Propylthiouracil and thyroxine
Correct Answer: Thyroidectomy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hyperthyroidism in Women Planning a Pregnancy
When it comes to treating hyperthyroidism in women who are planning a pregnancy, there are several options to consider. Definitive treatment, such as thyroidectomy, is the preferred option as it eliminates the risk of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy and the need for medication that could harm the fetus. However, following thyroidectomy, the patient will need thyroxine replacement and should wait until she is euthyroid before trying to conceive.
Propylthiouracil and thyroxine are not recommended for use during pregnancy due to the risk of fetal goitre or hypothyroidism. Carbimazole is teratogenic and should not be started in women planning a pregnancy. Propylthiouracil can be used in low doses if there is no other suitable alternative.
Radioactive iodine is highly effective but is contraindicated in women planning a pregnancy within six months. This option can be considered if the patient is willing to continue contraception until six months after treatment. Ultimately, the best course of action will depend on the individual patient’s needs and preferences, and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 18
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of sudden headaches accompanied by sweating and palpitations. During the examination, the patient appears anxious and has a pale complexion. Her blood pressure is measured at 230/190 mmHg, and a 24-hour urine collection shows elevated levels of catecholamines. What is the most probable reason for this woman's hypertension?
Your Answer: Phaeochromocytoma
Explanation:Differentiating Adrenal Gland Disorders: Phaeochromocytoma, Conn Syndrome, Cushing Syndrome, PKD, and RAS
Adrenal gland disorders can present with similar symptoms, making it challenging to differentiate between them. However, understanding the unique features of each condition can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
Phaeochromocytoma is a tumour of the adrenal gland that causes paroxysmal secretion of catecholamines, resulting in hypertension, headache, sweating, and anxiety. It is associated with the 10% rule, where 10% of cases are extramedullary, malignant, familial, and bilateral.
Conn syndrome, or primary aldosteronism, is characterised by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and metabolic alkalosis. The most common causes are aldosterone-producing adenomas and bilateral adrenal hyperplasia.
Cushing syndrome is caused by prolonged hypercortisolism and presents with centripetal obesity, secondary hypertension, glucose intolerance, proximal myopathy, and hirsutism. Sweating, palpitations, and elevated catecholamines are not typical of hypercortisolism.
Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is associated with hypertension due to progressive kidney enlargement. It is a significant independent risk factor for progression to end-stage renal failure, but it does not cause elevated catecholamine levels.
Renal artery stenosis (RAS) is a major cause of renovascular hypertension, but it is not associated with elevated catecholamines or the symptoms described. Patients with RAS may also have a history of atherosclerosis, dyslipidaemia, smoking, and hypertension resistant to multiple antihypertensive medications.
In summary, understanding the unique features of adrenal gland disorders can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man who has been recently started on insulin for type I diabetes presents for a check-up at his local General Practice Surgery.
He admits to feeling a bit confused as to what he should be doing with his insulin since this was explained to him at the Diabetes Clinic while he was still in shock. He was provided with a blood glucose monitor but is unsure when he needs to use it.
How often should the patient be checking his blood glucose?
Select the SINGLE best option from the list below.
Your Answer: At least eight times a day, including before each meal and before bed, and increase during periods of illness and before, during and after sport
Correct Answer: At least four times a day, including before each meal and before bed, increase during periods of illness and before, during and after sport
Explanation:The Importance of Self-Monitoring Blood Glucose in Diabetes Management
Self-monitoring of blood glucose is a crucial aspect of diabetes management. According to the National Institute of Clinical Excellence (NICE) guidelines, blood glucose should be checked at least four times a day, including before each meal and before bed. More frequent monitoring is recommended during periods of illness and before, during, and after sport. Blood glucose targets should be 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals and at other times of the day. Additionally, glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) levels should be checked every 3-6 months with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower. Checking blood glucose only during illness or once a day is not recommended as it can lead to complications such as hypoglycaemia and hyperglycaemia. Regular self-monitoring of blood glucose is essential for good diabetes management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of a 3 kg weight gain, fatigue, dry hair and skin, and a small diffuse goitre. She always feels cold and has a family history of thyroid disease.
Investigation Result Normal value
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 18.0 mU/l 0.25–4.0 mU/l
Free T4 6 pmol/l 12–22 pmol/l
Thyroid peroxidase antibody Positive at high titres
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Graves' disease
Correct Answer: Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and blood test results suggest hypothyroidism, which is commonly caused by Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disorder affecting the thyroid gland. Risk factors for this condition include a family history of autoimmune disease, being female, and having another autoimmune disorder. Positive thyroid antibodies and a diffuse goitre may also be present. De Quervain’s thyroiditis, on the other hand, typically presents with hyperthyroidism after a viral infection and is associated with neck pain and fever. Follicular thyroid carcinoma is characterized by a painless thyroid nodule and possible hoarseness or stridor if the recurrent laryngeal nerve is affected. Graves’ disease, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism, presents with symptoms such as sweating, anxiety, and weight loss, as well as eye signs in some cases. Multinodular goitre, which involves multiple autonomously functioning thyroid nodules, typically presents as hyperthyroidism with a multinodular goitre, but the patient in this scenario is hypothyroid.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is hospitalized for a chest infection and undergoes a standard blood test in the emergency room. The results show his HbA1c level as follows:
HbA1c 48 mmol/mol (27-48 mmol/mol)
What medical condition could cause this reading to inaccurately reflect his blood sugar levels?Your Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis
Correct Answer: Splenectomy
Explanation:If a person has undergone a splenectomy, their HbA1c level may be falsely elevated due to the longer lifespan of their red blood cells. HbA1c testing is commonly used to determine diabetes, as it provides an average blood glucose level over a three-month period, which is the lifespan of a typical red blood cell. A higher HbA1c reading can be caused by either a higher average blood glucose concentration or a longer red cell lifespan. Therefore, only a splenectomy would result in an overestimation of blood sugar levels, as it increases the lifespan of red blood cells, while all other conditions would decrease their lifespan and lower the HbA1c reading.
Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus
Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in the blood at a rate proportional to the glucose concentration. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.
HbA1c is believed to reflect the blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous 3 months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose. The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached.
Understanding HbA1c is crucial in managing diabetes mellitus and achieving optimal blood sugar control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 22
Correct
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A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain, vomiting and lethargy. His mother informs you he first developed 'flu-like symptoms' around four days ago. The patient has a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes. He is on a basal-bolus regimen but has not been taking his insulin regularly since he became unwell.
On examination, he is confused and is hyperventilating. His blood glucose is 22 mmol/L (<11.1 mmol/L) and his blood ketone level is 4.0 mmol/L (<0.6 mmol/L). You request an arterial blood gas (ABG).
pH 7.19 (7.35-7.45)
pO2 14.0 kPa (10-14 kPa)
pCO2 3.6 kPa (4.5-6.0 kPa)
Bicarbonate 12 mmol/L (22-28 mmol/L)
Given the results, you start the patient on IV resuscitation fluids. What is the next most appropriate step in management?Your Answer: Fixed-rate IV insulin infusion (0.1 units/kg/hour) AND continue injectable long-acting insulin only
Explanation:Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient is admitted with vomiting and abdominal pain. He was noted to have marked buccal pigmentation.
On examination, he is dehydrated. His pulse is 95 beats per minute, while his blood pressure (BP) is 100/70 mmHg.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal values
Glucose 3.5 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
Sodium (Na+) 130 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 7.8 mmol/l 2.5–7.1 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 95 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Peutz–Jeghers syndrome
Correct Answer: Addison’s disease
Explanation:Endocrine Disorders: Addison’s Disease, Cushing Syndrome, and Conn Syndrome
Addison’s Disease:
Addison’s disease, or primary hypoadrenalism, is a condition characterized by chronic adrenal insufficiency. It is most commonly caused by autoimmune destruction of the adrenals in the UK, while tuberculosis is the most common cause worldwide. Other causes include long-term exogenous steroid use, cancer, or hemorrhage damage. Symptoms develop gradually, but patients can present in Addisonian crisis if there is a sudden deterioration in adrenal function or a physiological stress that the residual adrenal function cannot cope with. Treatment is with long-term replacement of corticosteroids and aldosterone.Cushing Syndrome:
Cushing syndrome is a result of excess corticosteroid. It can be caused by exogenous steroids, primary hyperadrenalism, or secondary hyperadrenalism. Signs and symptoms include weight gain with moon facies and buffalo hump, hypertension, hyperglycemia, mood changes, hirsutism, baldness, and sleep disturbance.Conn Syndrome:
Conn syndrome, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism, is caused most commonly by adrenal hyperplasia or adenomas. It results in excess aldosterone release, causing difficult-to-treat hypertension, hypernatremia, and hypokalemia.Other Disorders:
Hypoglycemia occurs in insulinoma, but the other features are absent. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by perioral freckling and small bowel polyps, which may present with vomiting secondary to intussusception from the small polyps but does not explain the hypoglycemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 24
Correct
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A 45-year-old man has been referred by his GP due to a history of uncontrolled hypertension. He has come in today to undergo an aldosterone: renin ratio test. The results indicate high levels of aldosterone and low levels of renin. Additionally, a CT scan has revealed bilateral adrenal gland hyperplasia.
What is the recommended management plan for this patient?Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:The patient is suffering from primary hyperaldosteronism, which is caused by bilateral adrenal gland hyperplasia. This condition leads to elevated aldosterone levels, resulting in increased sodium retention and negative feedback to renin release. The most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism is bilateral adrenal hyperplasia, which can be treated with spironolactone, an aldosterone receptor antagonist, for four weeks. Adrenalectomy is only recommended for unilateral adrenal adenoma, which is not the case for this patient. Fludrocortisone and hydrocortisone are not appropriate treatments for hyperaldosteronism as they act on mineralocorticoid receptors, exacerbating the condition. Reassurance and discharge are not recommended as untreated primary hyperaldosteronism can lead to chronic elevation of blood pressure, increasing the risk of cardiovascular disease, stroke, and kidney damage.
Understanding Primary Hyperaldosteronism
Primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that was previously believed to be caused by an adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is the cause in up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two as this determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.
The common features of primary hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Hypokalaemia can cause muscle weakness, but this is seen in only 10-40% of patients. To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone.
If the plasma aldosterone/renin ratio is high, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia. The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is treated with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone.
In summary, primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that can be caused by adrenal adenoma, bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, or adrenal carcinoma. It is characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Diagnosis involves a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio, high-resolution CT abdomen, and adrenal vein sampling. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may involve surgery or medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 25
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman with suspected diabetes mellitus undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test using the standard WHO protocol. The results are as follows:
Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
0 5.9
2 8.4
What is the interpretation of these findings?Your Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance
Explanation:Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.
In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.
There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).
Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy is suspected of suffering from insulin-dependent diabetes. He undergoes a glucose tolerance test following an overnight fast.
Which of the following results would most likely confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: An ‘overshoot’ in the decline of plasma glucose at 3.5 hours
Correct Answer: A peak of plasma glucose occurring between 1 and 2 hours that stays high
Explanation:Interpreting Glucose Tolerance Test Results in Insulin-Dependent Diabetes
Glucose tolerance tests are commonly used to diagnose and monitor diabetes. In insulin-dependent diabetes, the results of these tests can provide valuable information about the patient’s glucose metabolism. Here are some key points to consider when interpreting glucose tolerance test results in insulin-dependent diabetes:
– A peak of plasma glucose occurring between 1 and 2 hours that stays high: In insulin-dependent diabetes, the plasma glucose remains elevated throughout the 4 hours of the test. This is in contrast to normal individuals, who typically have a sharper and earlier peak that returns to basal levels.
– An ‘overshoot’ in the decline of plasma glucose at 3.5 hours: This phenomenon is seen in normal individuals but not in insulin-dependent diabetics.
– A plasma glucose level of 4 mmol/l at zero time: This is unlikely in diabetic patients, who typically have high basal glucose levels.
– A glucose concentration of 5.2 mmol/l at 4 hours: In insulin-dependent diabetes, the plasma glucose remains elevated throughout the 4 hours of the test.
– A low haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c): If the patient has been suffering from diabetes for some time without treatment, the HbA1c would likely be elevated rather than low.Overall, glucose tolerance tests can provide valuable insights into the glucose metabolism of insulin-dependent diabetics. By understanding the nuances of these test results, healthcare providers can better diagnose and manage this chronic condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You review a 56-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes. He was diagnosed one year ago and is currently managed with diet and exercise. His additional medication includes ramipril 10 mg once daily, atorvastatin 10 mg and aspirin 75 mg/day.
On examination, his blood pressure (BP) is measured at 129/75 mmHg. His low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol is 2.1 mmol/l (normal range: < 2.6 mmol/l), while his haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) is 62 mmol/mol (normal range: < 48 mmol/mol). and creatinine (Cr) is 110 μmol/l (normal range: 50–120 μmol/l).
Which of the following is the most appropriate next treatment step in this case?Your Answer: Commence gliclazide
Correct Answer: Commence metformin
Explanation:Medication Recommendations for a Patient with Diabetes and High Blood Pressure
Based on the patient’s HbA1c level, it is recommended to start first-line treatment with metformin. If the patient experiences poor tolerance or side-effects from metformin, gliclazide may be considered as a second-line option. Pioglitazone may also be used in conjunction with metformin if HbA1c is poorly controlled on monotherapy. However, the patient’s blood pressure is adequately controlled, so an additional antihypertensive is not necessary. Lastly, the patient’s LDL cholesterol level suggests adequate control, and therefore, there is no need to increase the dosage of atorvastatin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male visits his primary care physician for a diabetic check-up. He has been dealing with type-two diabetes mellitus for a while, but has not been able to control it completely. Despite making all the necessary lifestyle changes and taking metformin and gliclazide, he complains of polyuria and his Hba1c is 62 mmol/mol. He has a history of hypertension, which is managed with amlodipine, and recurrent urinary tract infections. He is hesitant to use insulin due to his fear of needles. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?
Your Answer: Stop gliclazide and prescribe sitagliptin
Correct Answer: Add sitagliptin
Explanation:If a patient with TD2M is already taking two drugs and their HbA1c is above 58 mmol/mol, they should be offered a third drug or insulin therapy. However, insulin therapy should be avoided if possible for patients who are afraid of needles. In this case, the best option is to add sitagliptin to the patient’s current medication regimen of metformin and gliclazide. SGLT-2 inhibitors should be avoided due to the patient’s history of recurrent urinary tract infections, and pioglitazone is rarely prescribed. Exenatide is not appropriate for this patient as it is a GLP-1 mimetic and should only be added if the patient cannot tolerate triple therapy and has a BMI greater than 35. It is not recommended to stop any current medications and substitute them with sitagliptin, as the drugs should work synergistically together.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 29
Correct
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An increase in alkaline phosphatase can be attributed to any of the following conditions except?
Your Answer: Hypoparathyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Alkaline Phosphatase and Its Causes
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is an enzyme found in various tissues throughout the body, including the liver, bones, and intestines. When the levels of ALP in the blood are elevated, it can indicate a potential health issue. The causes of raised ALP can be divided into two categories based on the calcium level in the blood.
If both ALP and calcium levels are high, it may indicate bone metastases, hyperparathyroidism, osteomalacia, or renal failure. On the other hand, if ALP is high but calcium is low, it may be due to cholestasis, hepatitis, fatty liver, neoplasia, Paget’s disease, or physiological factors such as pregnancy, growing children, or healing fractures.
It is important to note that elevated ALP levels do not necessarily indicate a specific condition, but rather serve as a signal for further investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of weight gain, hair thinning, fatigue, and dry skin. What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Primary hypoparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Endocrine Disorders: Symptoms and Treatment Options
Hypothyroidism, adrenal insufficiency, Cushing syndrome, primary hypoparathyroidism, and secondary hypoparathyroidism are all endocrine disorders that can present with various symptoms. Hypothyroidism may cause cerebellar ataxia, myxoedema, and congestive cardiac failure, and is treated with replacement of thyroid hormone. Adrenal insufficiency may cause tiredness, weakness, and postural hypotension, among other symptoms. Cushing syndrome may present with central obesity, skin and muscle atrophy, and osteoporosis. Primary hypoparathyroidism may cause hypocalcaemia symptoms, while secondary hypoparathyroidism may also present with hypocalcaemia symptoms. Treatment options vary depending on the specific disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 31
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with headaches. Her blood pressure is 170/96 mmHg. Routine investigations reveal the following results:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium 148 mmol/l 137–144 mmol/l
Potassium 2.8 mmol/l 3.5–4.9 mmol/l
Chloride 103 mmol/l 95–107 mmol/l
The renin level is undetectable and aldosterone levels are raised. The urea and creatinine are normal.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of her hypertension?
Your Answer: Conn syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating between causes of hypertension: A brief overview
One possible cause of hypertension is Conn syndrome, which is characterized by primary hyperaldosteronism due to a benign adrenal adenoma that secretes aldosterone. This leads to hypokalaemia, hypertension, and elevated sodium levels. Renin levels are reduced due to negative feedback from high aldosterone levels. Treatment options include surgical excision of the adenoma or potassium-sparing diuretics.
Acromegaly, on the other hand, is caused by excessive secretion of growth hormone, usually due to a pituitary tumor. While hypertension may be present, other clinical features such as visual field defects, abnormal increase in size of hands and feet, frontal bossing, and hyperhidrosis are expected. Abnormal electrolytes, renin, and aldosterone levels are not typically seen in acromegaly.
Cushing syndrome is characterized by hypercortisolism and may present with central obesity, skin and muscle atrophy, osteoporosis, and gonadal dysfunction. While hypertension may also be present, low renin levels and elevated aldosterone are not expected.
Phaeochromocytoma is a catecholamine-producing tumor that presents with episodic headaches, sweating, and tachycardia. While hypertension is also present, a low renin and elevated aldosterone are not expected.
Finally, renal artery stenosis is caused by renal hypoperfusion, leading to a compensatory increase in renin secretion, secondary hyperaldosteronism, and hypertension. This may result in hypokalaemia and hypernatraemia, but both renin and aldosterone levels would be raised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 32
Correct
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During a geriatrics ward round, you assess a 87-year-old woman who was admitted with community acquired pneumonia and AKI requiring IV antibiotics and fluids. She was delirious on admission but has been improving. Her confusion screen bloods show abnormal thyroid function tests:
Calcium 2.2 mmol/L (2.1 - 2.6)
Phosphate 1.0 mmol/L (0.8 - 1.4)
Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7 - 1.0)
Vitamin B12 550 pg/ml (110 - 1500)
Folate 5.6 µg/ml (2.5 - 20)
TSH 4.6 mU/L (0.5 - 5.5)
Free T4 6.0 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
Free T3 3.6 pmol/L (4 - 7.4)
She is currently feeling much better on day 6 of her 7 day course of antibiotics and is asymptomatic. She takes bisoprolol, digoxin, ramipril, atorvastatin, and rivaroxaban regularly.
What is the appropriate course of action for her abnormal thyroid function tests?Your Answer: Ask her GP to repeat thyroid function tests (TFTs) in 6 weeks
Explanation:It is common for elderly patients who are unwell to have abnormal thyroid function tests, known as sick euthyroid. This is likely the case for the woman in question, as she has no history of thyroid disease and is not taking levothyroxine. It may be reasonable to consider starting levothyroxine, but it would be preferable to wait until her current illness has resolved. Discontinuing her antibiotics before completing her course is not appropriate, as they are unlikely to be causing the abnormal TFTs and she is currently asymptomatic. It is also unnecessary to perform a radio-isotope scan, as there is no suspicion of malignancy. Her thyroid function tests tomorrow are expected to be similar.
Understanding Sick Euthyroid Syndrome
Sick euthyroid syndrome, also known as non-thyroidal illness, is a condition where the levels of TSH, thyroxine, and T3 are low. However, it is important to note that in most cases, the TSH level is within the normal range, which is considered inappropriate given the low levels of thyroxine and T3. This condition is reversible and typically resolves upon recovery from the underlying systemic illness. As such, treatment is usually not necessary.
In summary, sick euthyroid syndrome is a condition where the thyroid hormone levels are low, but the TSH level is within the normal range. It is a reversible condition that typically resolves upon recovery from the underlying illness. No treatment is usually required for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man is being evaluated for possible diabetes mellitus and undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test using the standard WHO protocol. The results are as follows:
Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
0 5.9
2 8.2
What is the interpretation of these findings?Your Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance
Correct Answer: Normal
Explanation:Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.
In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.
There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).
Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with dizziness and headache. On examination, her blood pressure is found to be 190/120 mmHg. She said that she had been diagnosed with hypertension on two previous occasions but discontinued drugs both times. She is a computer analyst and drinks 3–5 units of alcohol every day. Blood tests reveal:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 3.03 mmol/l 2.20-2.60 mmol/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Albumin 38 g/l 35–55 g/l
Magnesium (Mg2+) 0.60 mmol/l 0.75–1.00 mmol/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Wermer syndrome or MEN 1
Correct Answer: Sipple syndrome or MEN 2a
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hypertension, Hypercalcemia, and Low Magnesium in a Patient
One possible diagnosis for a patient with severe hypertension, hypercalcemia, and low magnesium is MEN 2a, also known as Sipple syndrome. This is because these symptoms can be explained by the presence of a phaeochromocytoma and hyperparathyroidism, which are both associated with MEN 2a.
Conn syndrome, which is characterized by asymptomatic hypertension and hypokalemia, is not the most likely diagnosis in this case since the patient is normokalemic and has high calcium levels. Phaeochromocytoma could explain the hypertension, but not the hypercalcemia and low magnesium.
MEN 1, also known as Wermer syndrome, is associated with hyperparathyroidism, pancreatic endocrine tumors, and pituitary tumors, but rarely with phaeochromocytoma. Wagenmann-Froboese syndrome, or MEN 2b, is associated with medullary thyroid carcinoma and phaeochromocytoma, but hyperparathyroidism is rarely present.
Therefore, based on the patient’s symptoms, MEN 2a or Sipple syndrome is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old male patient with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension is admitted to a surgical ward for a routine cholecystectomy. He is currently taking metformin 500mg BD, gliclazide 120 mg BD, ramipril 5mg, and atorvastatin 20 mg. The nurse on the morning drug round asks the doctor if they should administer the morning dose of gliclazide, as the surgery is scheduled for 9 am. What should the doctor advise the nurse?
Your Answer: Both the morning and afternoon dose of gliclazide can be given on the day of surgery
Correct Answer: The morning dose of gliclazide should be held but the afternoon dose can be given
Explanation:On the day of surgery, sulfonylureas should be omitted, except for patients who take them twice a day. In this case, the morning dose should be withheld, and the afternoon dose given after the surgery. This is because there is a risk of hypoglycemia in the fasted state before surgery. Withholding both doses or withholding for 24 or 48 hours is incorrect. The BNF website provides a comprehensive guide for managing diabetic patients on insulin and anti-diabetic drugs during surgery, including information on when to introduce variable rate insulin infusions and withholding anti-diabetic medications.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 36
Correct
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A 30-year-old man is diagnosed with Addison’s disease.
What should be prescribed in combination with hydrocortisone to benefit him?Your Answer: Fludrocortisone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Addison’s Disease
Addison’s disease is a condition in which the adrenal glands do not produce enough hormones. To manage this condition, patients are typically given replacement therapy with both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid medications. Fludrocortisone is a common mineralocorticoid medication used in this treatment. However, dexamethasone, aspirin, and both types of contraceptive pills have no role in the treatment of Addison’s disease. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 37
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is referred by her General Practitioner due to irregular and unpredictable menstrual cycle and headaches. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain shows a midline lesion. Further investigations reveal that her prolactin level is 2314 ng/ml (normal range: 2–29 ng/ml). To reduce the prolactin level, which mediator is manipulated for medical treatment?
Your Answer: Dopamine
Explanation:Targeting Hormones in Prolactinoma Treatment
Prolactinoma is a pituitary lesion that results in excessive prolactin secretion. To reduce prolactin levels, dopamine agonists like bromocriptine are used to target dopamine receptors in the anterior pituitary. While increased prolactin can indirectly decrease gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) secretion, GnRH receptors are not a therapeutic target in prolactin disorders. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) increases adrenocorticotropic hormone secretion and is not a target in prolactin disorders. Somatostatin decreases thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and growth hormone secretion but does not affect prolactin levels. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) increases prolactin and TSH release, but its use is limited due to side-effects on thyroid regulation and the superiority of dopamine agonists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 38
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner with a complaint of feeling tired and lethargic for the past six months. She also reports a weight gain of approximately 10 kg during this time. Upon conducting a blood test, the following results were obtained: Hb 141 g/l, Na+ 141 mmol/l, Bilirubin 7 µmol/l, Platelets 331 * 109/l, K+ 4.1 mmol/l, ALP 71 u/l, WBC 4.6 * 109/l, Urea 3.9 mmol/l, ALT 31 u/l, Neuts 3.1 * 109/l, Creatinine 86 µmol/l, γGT 51 u/l, Lymphs 1.2 * 109/l, TSH 0.1 mu/l, Albumin 41 g/l, Eosin 0.2 * 109/l, free-T4 3 nmol/l, and CRP 4.1 mg/l. What would be the most appropriate next investigation to determine the cause of her fatigue?
Your Answer: MRI brain and pituitary
Explanation:When a patient has normal blood tests except for low thyroid function, which is indicated by low TSH and low free-T4, and presents with symptoms of hypothyroidism, it may be a case of secondary hypothyroidism caused by pituitary failure. This is a rare condition that requires imaging of the pituitary gland to rule out any anatomical or vascular causes, such as a tumor.
Understanding the Causes of Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism is a condition that affects a small percentage of women in the UK, with females being more susceptible than males. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease that may be associated with other conditions such as IDDM, Addison’s or pernicious anaemia. Other causes of hypothyroidism include subacute thyroiditis, Riedel thyroiditis, thyroidectomy or radioiodine treatment, drug therapy, and dietary iodine deficiency. It is important to note that some of these causes may have an initial thyrotoxic phase.
In rare cases, hypothyroidism may also be caused by pituitary failure, which is known as secondary hypothyroidism. Additionally, there are certain conditions that may be associated with hypothyroidism, such as Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, and coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 39
Correct
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A 21-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of increased thirst throughout the day and difficulty performing everyday tasks. He was recently treated for a UTI with ciprofloxacin. His father has a history of diabetes, but is unsure of the type. He drinks about 8 units of alcohol per week. Fasting plasma glucose is 17.1 mmol/L (3.9-5.6), ketone bodies are 0.4 mmol/L (< 0.6 mmol/L), and C-peptide level is 2.87 ng/mL (0.51-2.72). What is the most likely diagnosis based on the patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Type 2 diabetes
Explanation:Distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes can be achieved through the measurement of C-peptide levels and diabetes-specific autoantibodies.
Diagnosis of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically diagnosed through symptoms and signs that are similar to those seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), although the diagnosis may take longer. Symptoms of DKA include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and an acetone-smelling breath. To confirm a diagnosis, urine should be dipped for glucose and ketones, and fasting glucose and random glucose levels should be measured. C-peptide levels are typically low in patients with T1DM, and diabetes-specific autoantibodies can be useful in distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD), islet cell antibodies (ICA), insulin autoantibodies (IAA), and insulinoma-associated-2 autoantibodies (IA-2A) are commonly used.
The diagnostic criteria for T1DM include a fasting glucose level greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or a random glucose level greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l if the patient is symptomatic. If the patient is asymptomatic, the criteria must be demonstrated on two separate occasions. To distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes, age of onset, speed of onset, weight of the patient, and symptoms should be considered. NICE recommends further investigation for adults suspected of having T1DM if the clinical presentation includes atypical features. Conversely, for patients suspected of having type 2 diabetes, if they respond well to oral hypoglycaemic agents and are over the age of 40 years, further testing for T1DM may not be necessary.
Example scenarios include a 15-year-old with weight loss and lethargy, a 38-year-old obese man with polyuria, a 52-year-old woman with polyuria and polydipsia, and a 59-year-old obese man with polyuria. The appropriate diagnostic tests should be conducted based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man has been diagnosed with type two diabetes and prescribed medication by his GP. The medication functions by binding to its receptor and closing the potassium ion channels, which reduces potassium efflux from the cell and causes depolarization. This, in turn, leads to calcium ion influx and insulin release. What medication has the patient been prescribed?
Your Answer: Metformin
Correct Answer: Gliclazide
Explanation:Sulfonylureas attach to a KATP channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells that is dependent on ATP.
Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but they are only effective if the pancreas is functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, which helps to increase insulin secretion. However, there are some potential side effects associated with these drugs.
One of the most common side effects of sulfonylureas is hypoglycaemia, which can be more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Weight gain is another possible side effect. In rare cases, sulfonylureas can cause hyponatraemia, which is a condition where the body retains too much water and sodium levels become too low. Other rare side effects include bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy. It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Addison's disease. What medications are typically prescribed in combination for this condition?
Your Answer: Prednisolone + fludrocortisone
Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone + fludrocortisone
Explanation:Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.
During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 42
Correct
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A 46-year-old woman presents with recurring thrush and fatigue. She is concerned that it may be caused by a sexually transmitted infection, but her recent sexual health screening came back negative for syphilis, HIV, Chlamydia, and Gonorrhoea. Her urine test shows ketones and glucose. A random glucose test reveals a reading of 13. What is the most suitable medication for the ongoing treatment of this condition?
Your Answer: Metformin
Explanation:The patient is displaying symptoms of type 2 diabetes, with a random blood glucose level exceeding 11.1 and experiencing related symptoms. As per protocol, the first line of treatment for type 2 diabetes is metformin, which should be prescribed to the patient. It is important to note that insulin is the primary treatment for type 1 diabetes, while gliclazide, pioglitazone, and glibenclamide are secondary medications used in the management of type 2 diabetes, but are not typically prescribed as first line treatments.
Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.
In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.
There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).
Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with neck pain and swelling. She reports having symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection followed by neck pain and swelling for the past 2 weeks. During examination, she appears anxious, her heart rate is 98/min, and her thyroid gland is tender and diffusely swollen.
Her blood tests reveal the following results:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.4 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 42 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
ESR 65 mm/h (1-20)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Graves' disease
Correct Answer: Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain's thyroiditis)
Explanation:Subacute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis is the likely diagnosis for this woman who presents with hyperthyroidism and a tender goitre following an upper respiratory tract infection. This condition is characterized by high ESR and painful thyroid gland. Graves’ disease, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, and thyroid cancer are less likely causes as they do not present with these specific symptoms.
Subacute Thyroiditis: A Self-Limiting Condition with Four Phases
Subacute thyroiditis, also known as De Quervain’s thyroiditis or subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, is a condition that is believed to occur after a viral infection. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, a painful goitre, and raised ESR during the first phase, which lasts for 3-6 weeks. The second phase, which lasts for 1-3 weeks, is characterized by euthyroidism. The third phase, which can last for weeks to months, is characterized by hypothyroidism. Finally, in the fourth phase, the thyroid structure and function return to normal.
To diagnose subacute thyroiditis, thyroid scintigraphy is used to show a globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. However, most patients do not require treatment as the condition is self-limiting. Thyroid pain may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs, but in more severe cases, steroids may be used, particularly if hypothyroidism develops.
It is important to note that subacute thyroiditis is just one of the many causes of thyroid dysfunction. A Venn diagram can be used to show how different causes of thyroid dysfunction may manifest. It is interesting to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Proper diagnosis and management of thyroid dysfunction are crucial to ensure optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 44
Correct
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Which of the following outcomes confirms a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer: Symptomatic patient with random glucose 12.0 mmol/L on one occasion
Explanation:To diagnose diabetes mellitus, fasting blood glucose levels should be above 7.0 or random blood glucose levels should be above 11.1. If the patient is asymptomatic, two readings are required for confirmation.
Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.
In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.
There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).
Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 45
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of central abdominal pain, extreme thirst and polyuria. She has no past medical history but her mother and sister both have diabetes. She is noted to be breathing heavily with breath that smells of acetone. An urgent set of investigations is taken.
Which of the following test results are most likely in this patient?
Select the SINGLE most likely results from the list below.
Your Answer: pH 7.21, partial pressure of pCO2 2.1 kPa, partial pressure of pO211.2 kPa, Na+ 131 mmol/l, K+ 3.1 mmol/l, HCO3 12 mmol/l, glucose 31 mmol/l, ketones 4.2 mmol/l
Explanation:Interpreting Blood Test Results: Distinguishing Diabetic Ketoacidosis from Other Conditions
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a life-threatening condition that requires urgent treatment. It can occur as a complication of existing type I diabetes mellitus (DM) or be the first presentation of type I DM. To diagnose DKA, the Joint British Diabetes Societies have established specific criteria, including a blood glucose of more than 11 mmol/l or known DM, a venous pH of less than 7.3 and/or a serum bicarbonate of less than 15 mmol/l, and ketonaemia of more than 3 mmol/l or ketonuria 2+ on dipstick.
When interpreting blood test results, it is important to distinguish DKA from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. For example, a metabolic acidosis may indicate DKA, but it would also be present in other conditions. In DKA, you would expect a combination of high blood glucose, low pH and serum bicarbonate, and high ketone levels.
Normal blood test results would rule out DKA, but hyperkalaemia may be present despite low total body potassium levels. Potassium levels may need to be monitored and adjusted during treatment. Respiratory alkalosis, indicated by low pCO2 and high pH, would suggest hyperventilation rather than DKA.
In summary, interpreting blood test results is crucial in diagnosing and distinguishing DKA from other conditions. Understanding the specific criteria for DKA diagnosis and recognizing the patterns of abnormal results can help healthcare professionals provide timely and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 46
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman who is currently 33 weeks pregnant has been monitoring her capillary blood glucose (CBG) at home since being diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) 3 weeks ago. She has received appropriate dietary and exercise advice, as well as review by a dietitian. Additionally, she has been taking metformin and has been on the maximum dose for the past week. Fetal growth scans have been normal, with no signs of macrosomia or polyhydramnios. Today, she presents her CBG diary, which indicates a mean pre-meal CBG of 6.0 mmol/L and a mean 1-hour postprandial CBG of 8.4 mmol/L. What is the most suitable management plan?
Your Answer: Commence insulin
Explanation:If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be added. Pregnant women with GDM should aim to keep their CBGs below specific levels, including fasting at 5.3mmol/L and 1 hour postprandial at 7.8 mmol/L or 2 hours postprandial at 6.4 mmol/L. If these targets are not met, insulin should be offered as an additional therapy. Gliclazide is not recommended, and the use of any sulphonylurea in GDM is an off-license indication. Gliptins are not recommended due to insufficient evidence of their safety in pregnancy. It is not appropriate to continue the same management or de-escalate treatment by stopping metformin if CBG readings are above target levels. Failure to achieve glycaemic control can result in serious risks to both mother and fetus, including pre-eclampsia, pre-term labour, stillbirth, and neonatal hypoglycaemia, even if fetal growth appears normal.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with a painless lump in her left breast. After undergoing triple assessment, she is diagnosed with oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer and her oncologist prescribes anastrozole as treatment. What potential risks may this medication pose for her?
Your Answer: Venous thromboembolism
Correct Answer: Osteoporosis
Explanation:Anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, may lead to the development of osteoporosis. This medication is commonly used to treat oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer in postmenopausal women by reducing the production of peripheral oestrogen. However, patients taking this medication are at an increased risk of developing osteoporosis. On the other hand, selective oestrogen receptor modulators (SERM) like tamoxifen may cause amenorrhoea, endometrial cancer, vaginal bleeding, and venous thromboembolism. Tamoxifen is typically used to treat oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer in pre-menopausal women.
Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen can cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors can cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 48
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of weight gain and irregular menstrual cycles. She reports feeling weak and depressed. During the examination, the doctor notices multiple purplish striae on her abdomen and bruises on her lower extremities. Laboratory tests show normal thyroid hormone levels and TSH, but elevated cortisol secretion. If the patient has adrenal hyperfunction, what other symptom may also be present?
Your Answer: Hirsutism
Explanation:Effects of Cortisol on the Body: Misconceptions and Clarifications
Cortisol, a hormone produced by the adrenal glands, plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions. However, there are some misconceptions about the effects of cortisol on the body. Here are some clarifications:
Hirsutism: Elevated cortisol levels can cause a condition called Cushingoid, which may result in hirsutism in women. This is characterized by excessive hair growth in areas such as the face, chest, and back.
Hypoglycemia: Contrary to popular belief, cortisol does not cause hypoglycemia. Instead, it increases gluconeogenesis (the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources) and reduces glucose uptake in peripheral tissues, resulting in hyperglycemia.
Enhanced glucose uptake: Cortisol actually has the opposite effect on glucose uptake. It reduces the uptake of glucose into peripheral tissues and accelerates gluconeogenesis.
Hypotension: Patients with adrenal hyperfunction (excessive cortisol production) often suffer from hypertension (high blood pressure), not hypotension (low blood pressure). This is because excessive mineralocorticoids are released, which can cause fluid retention and increase blood pressure.
Hypocalciuria: Cortisol can lead to osteopenia and osteoporosis by increasing bone breakdown. This may result in hypercalcemia (high levels of calcium in the blood), which can cause hypercalciuria (excessive calcium in the urine), not hypocalciuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 49
Correct
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A 36-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department experiencing confusion and vomiting. Upon further inquiry, she reports six months of weight loss, fatigue, and dizziness upon standing. Blood tests reveal the following results: Na+ 126 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 5.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Urea 6.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and Creatinine 95 µmol/L (55 - 120). After stabilization, she undergoes additional testing and is prescribed a daily maintenance regimen of 20 mg hydrocortisone and 100mcg fludrocortisone. In the event of an acute illness, such as an infection, what dosage of medication should she take?
Your Answer: 40mg hydrocortisone, 100mcg fludrocortisone
Explanation:To manage this patient with Addison’s disease who is experiencing an intercurrent illness, it is recommended to increase the glucocorticoid dose by double while keeping the fludrocortisone dose the same. The patient’s symptoms, including vomiting, confusion, fatigue, weight loss, and postural hypotension, suggest adrenal insufficiency. Blood tests reveal hyponatremia and hyperkalemia due to aldosterone deficiency. Aldosterone normally regulates sodium and potassium levels in the body, and its absence leads to sodium loss and potassium elevation. The prescribed steroid replacement regimen is appropriate for intercurrent illness, as it mimics the body’s natural response by increasing glucocorticoid secretion while maintaining mineralocorticoid secretion. The patient’s hydrocortisone dose has been doubled from 20mg to 40mg, while the fludrocortisone dose remains at 100mcg.
Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.
During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 50
Correct
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A 38-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling generally unwell. He reports experiencing daily frontal headaches for the past three months, which have not improved with regular paracetamol. Additionally, he has noticed some unusual symptoms such as his wedding ring no longer fitting, his shoe size apparently increasing, and a small amount of milky discharge from both nipples. During examination, his blood pressure is found to be 168/96 mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acromegaly
Explanation:Acromegaly: Excess Growth Hormone and its Features
Acromegaly is a condition characterized by excess growth hormone, which is usually caused by a pituitary adenoma in over 95% of cases. However, a minority of cases are caused by ectopic GHRH or GH production by tumours such as pancreatic. The condition is associated with several features, including a coarse facial appearance, spade-like hands, and an increase in shoe size. Patients may also have a large tongue, prognathism, and interdental spaces. Excessive sweating and oily skin are also common, caused by sweat gland hypertrophy.
In addition to these physical features, patients with acromegaly may also experience symptoms of a pituitary tumour, such as hypopituitarism, headaches, and bitemporal hemianopia. Raised prolactin levels are also seen in about one-third of cases, which can lead to galactorrhoea. It is important to note that 6% of patients with acromegaly have MEN-1, a genetic disorder that affects multiple endocrine glands.
Complications of acromegaly include hypertension, diabetes (seen in over 10% of cases), cardiomyopathy, and an increased risk of colorectal cancer. Early diagnosis and treatment of acromegaly are crucial to prevent these complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department feeling very sick. He reports having flu-like symptoms for the past few days and is having difficulty keeping anything down. He feels weak, drowsy, and disoriented. He experiences dizziness when he stands up. Upon observation, he is found to be tachycardic and hypotensive with a fever. He reports taking only hydrocortisone 10 mg PO bidaily for Addison's disease. What is the most crucial management step in this case?
Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) fludrocortisone
Correct Answer: Give 100 mg hydrocortisone intravenous (IV) STAT
Explanation:Managing Addisonian Crisis: Treatment Options and Considerations
Addisonian crisis is a life-threatening condition that requires prompt intervention. Patients with Addison’s disease are at risk of developing an Addisonian crisis if they forget to take their steroids or if steroids have not been increased appropriately during an accompanying illness. In such cases, the first-line treatment is to administer 100 mg hydrocortisone intravenously (IV) STAT. This should be followed by fluid resuscitation and IV glucose if hypoglycemia is present.
It is important to note that treatment should be initiated before biochemical results are obtained. Patients with Addison’s disease should carry an IM autoinjector in case of an emergency. If an Addisonian crisis is suspected, hydrocortisone should be administered immediately, and blood tests for cortisol, ACTH, urea and electrolytes, and glucose should be carried out urgently.
Oral hydrocortisone is not recommended in cases where the patient is vomiting. In such cases, IM hydrocortisone injection is the preferred treatment option. Additionally, glucose gel sublingually may be given for hypoglycemia, but the primary focus should be on restoring cortisol levels.
Fludrocortisone may be of use if the cause of the Addisonian crisis is adrenal disease. However, it should be noted that hydrocortisone is the first-line treatment as it acts mainly on glucocorticoid receptors to increase blood sugar levels and counteract insulin. Fludrocortisone, on the other hand, acts mainly at mineralocorticoid receptors.
In conclusion, managing Addisonian crisis requires prompt intervention and careful consideration of treatment options. Administering hydrocortisone, fluid resuscitation, and IV glucose if necessary should be the primary focus, with fludrocortisone being considered only if the cause is adrenal disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 52
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents to his physician with a range of distressing symptoms he has been experiencing for the past two months. These include recurrent flushing, diarrhea, bronchospasm-like tightness in his throat, and significant weight loss. The physician also observes that the patient is hypotensive. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to confirm the suspected condition?
Your Answer: Urinary 5-HIAA
Explanation:Carcinoid tumors can lead to an increase in urinary 5-HIAA due to the release of serotonin. Symptoms of carcinoid syndrome include flushing, diarrhea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and weight loss. The appropriate diagnostic test for this condition is a urinary 5-HIAA test. CA125 is not relevant in this case as it is used to detect ovarian cancer. MRCP is used to investigate gallbladder or pancreatic conditions, while urinary metanephrines are used to diagnose phaeochromocytoma.
Carcinoid Tumours and Syndrome
Carcinoid tumours are a type of neuroendocrine tumour that can secrete various hormones and bioactive substances, including serotonin. When these tumours metastasize to the liver, they can release serotonin into the systemic circulation, leading to a condition known as carcinoid syndrome. This syndrome can also occur with lung carcinoids, as the mediators are not cleared by the liver.
The earliest symptom of carcinoid syndrome is often flushing, followed by diarrhoea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and right heart valvular stenosis. In bronchial carcinoids, the left heart can also be affected. In some cases, other molecules such as ACTH and GHRH may be secreted, resulting in conditions like Cushing’s syndrome. Pellagra, a condition caused by a deficiency of niacin, can also develop as dietary tryptophan is diverted to serotonin by the tumour.
To diagnose carcinoid syndrome, doctors may perform a urinary 5-HIAA test or measure plasma chromogranin A levels. Treatment typically involves somatostatin analogues like octreotide to manage symptoms, while cyproheptadine may help with diarrhoea. Proper management of carcinoid tumours and syndrome is crucial to prevent complications and improve quality of life for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 53
Correct
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Which of the following medications for treating diabetes is most likely to result in cholestasis?
Your Answer: Gliclazide
Explanation:Cholestasis can be caused by sulphonylureas.
Understanding Drug-Induced Liver Disease
Drug-induced liver disease is a condition that occurs when certain medications or drugs cause damage to the liver. This condition is generally divided into three categories: hepatocellular, cholestatic, or mixed. However, there is often overlap between these categories, as some drugs can cause a range of changes to the liver.
Hepatocellular drug-induced liver disease is characterized by damage to the liver cells. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include paracetamol, sodium valproate, phenytoin, MAOIs, halothane, anti-tuberculosis medications, statins, alcohol, amiodarone, methyldopa, and nitrofurantoin.
Cholestatic drug-induced liver disease, on the other hand, is characterized by a reduction in bile flow from the liver. Some of the drugs that tend to cause this type of damage include the combined oral contraceptive pill, antibiotics such as flucloxacillin, co-amoxiclav, and erythromycin, anabolic steroids, testosterones, phenothiazines such as chlorpromazine and prochlorperazine, sulphonylureas, fibrates, and rare reported causes such as nifedipine. Methotrexate, methyldopa, and amiodarone can cause both hepatocellular and cholestatic damage.
It is important to note that drug-induced liver disease can be a serious condition and can lead to liver cirrhosis if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with certain medications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms of liver damage occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 54
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents to a walk-in clinic with complaints of fatigue and feeling cold for the past two months. She has become increasingly distressed by these symptoms and reports a recent weight gain of approximately 5kg. Which of her regular medications could potentially be causing these symptoms?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Hypothyroidism can be caused by long-term use of lithium.
The patient’s symptoms suggest hypothyroidism, and the only medication on the list that can lead to this condition is lithium. While the other drugs listed may cause individual side effects that could contribute to the patient’s presentation, none of them would produce all of the symptoms described.
Amlodipine may cause weight gain due to fluid retention, but it is unlikely to cause as much as 5 kg, and it would not cause mood changes or fatigue to the extent described. Bisoprolol can cause significant fatigue, but it would not cause weight gain. Citalopram may cause significant weight gain and mood changes, but it is unlikely to cause the patient to feel cold. Atorvastatin can also cause weight gain, but this is rare.
Understanding the Causes of Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism is a condition that affects a small percentage of women in the UK, with females being more susceptible than males. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease that may be associated with other conditions such as IDDM, Addison’s or pernicious anaemia. Other causes of hypothyroidism include subacute thyroiditis, Riedel thyroiditis, thyroidectomy or radioiodine treatment, drug therapy, and dietary iodine deficiency. It is important to note that some of these causes may have an initial thyrotoxic phase.
In rare cases, hypothyroidism may also be caused by pituitary failure, which is known as secondary hypothyroidism. Additionally, there are certain conditions that may be associated with hypothyroidism, such as Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, and coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 55
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Endocrinology Clinic with bruising, striae, acne and hirsutism.
On examination, the patient appears lethargic and depressed, with centripetal obesity and demonstrable proximal myopathy. Her blood pressure is 165/106 mmHg
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal values
Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 2.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Random glucose 8.2 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
A low-dose dexamethasone test and a 24-hour urinary cortisol test are ordered.
Which of the following is the most common cause of Cushing syndrome?Your Answer: Iatrogenic
Explanation:Understanding the Different Causes of Cushing Syndrome
Cushing syndrome is a condition that occurs when the body is exposed to high levels of cortisol for an extended period. There are several different causes of Cushing syndrome, including iatrogenic, pituitary-dependent, ectopic ACTH secretion, primary adrenal disorder, and pseudo-Cushing’s syndrome.
The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is iatrogenic, which is related to the use of corticosteroid medication. This risk is higher in people who take oral corticosteroids, but it can also affect those who misuse inhaled or topical corticosteroids.
Pituitary-dependent Cushing’s disease is a much rarer cause of Cushing syndrome that arises from a pituitary tumour. Ectopic ACTH secretion is a very rare cause of Cushing syndrome that arises due to ACTH secretion from a carcinoid tumour.
Primary adrenal disorder is an unusual cause of Cushing syndrome that arises from primary hypercortisolism. Finally, pseudo-Cushing’s syndrome describes hypercortisolism arising as a result of a separate condition, such as malnutrition or chronic alcoholism, resulting in the same phenotype and biochemical abnormalities of Cushing syndrome.
Understanding the different causes of Cushing syndrome is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 56
Correct
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An 81-year-old man who is a resident in a nursing home reports feeling tired and cold all the time. Blood tests are arranged which show the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 12.8 mU/l 0.25–4.0 mU/l
Free T4 (thyroxine) 6.8 pmol/l 12.0-22.0 pmol/l
Free T3 (triiodothyronine) 2.6 pmol/l 3.1–6.8 pmol/l
Which of the following is the best action to take?
Select the SINGLE best action from the list below.Your Answer: Start levothyroxine 25 µg once daily
Explanation:Managing Hypothyroidism in an Elderly Patient: Recommended Treatment and Monitoring
For an elderly patient with overt hypothyroidism, immediate treatment is recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). The recommended starting dose of levothyroxine is 25 µg once daily, with regular monitoring of response every 3-4 weeks until a stable TSH has been achieved. After that, a blood test should be performed at 4-6 months and annually thereafter. The goal of treatment is to resolve symptoms and signs of hypothyroidism, normalize TSH and T3/T4 levels, and avoid overtreatment, especially in elderly patients who are at risk of developing cardiac disease. Inappropriate treatments, such as carbimazole or radio-iodine therapy, should be avoided. It is crucial to avoid overtreatment, as it can worsen the patient’s condition and put them at risk of developing myxoedema coma, which can be life-threatening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman is seen in the diabetes clinic with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus (HbA1c 63 mmol/mol). She had to discontinue gliclazide due to recurrent hypoglycaemia and is currently on maximum dose metformin. Her BMI is 26 kg/m^2. What is the best course of action for further management?
Your Answer: Refer her for insulin therapy
Correct Answer: Add either pioglitazone, a DPP-4 inhibitor or a SGLT-2 inhibitor
Explanation:NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man is worried about his chances of developing heart disease due to his family history. His father passed away from a heart attack at the age of 45. During his medical check-up, his lipid profile is as follows:
HDL: 1.4 mmol/l
LDL: 5.7 mmol/l
Triglycerides: 2.3 mmol/l
Total cholesterol: 8.2 mmol/l
Upon clinical examination, the doctor notices tendon xanthomata around his ankles. What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Mixed hyperlipidaemia
Correct Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia
Explanation:Familial hypercholesterolaemia can be diagnosed when there are tendon xanthomata and elevated cholesterol levels present.
Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.
To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected. The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes total cholesterol and LDL-C levels, tendon xanthoma, and family history of myocardial infarction or raised cholesterol levels.
Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate for FH. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by age 10 if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.
Overall, early diagnosis and management of FH are crucial in preventing cardiovascular disease and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 59
Correct
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An infant is born with ambiguous genitalia, following an uneventful pregnancy and delivery. Upon further investigation, it is discovered that the child has congenital adrenal hyperplasia caused by 21-hydroxylase deficiency.
What is a characteristic of 21-hydroxylase deficiency-related congenital adrenal hyperplasia?Your Answer: Adrenocortical insufficiency
Explanation:Medical Conditions Associated with 21-Hydroxylase Deficiency
21-hydroxylase deficiency is a medical condition that results in decreased cortisol synthesis and commonly reduces aldosterone synthesis. This condition can lead to adrenal insufficiency, causing salt wasting and hypoglycemia. However, it is not associated with diabetes insipidus, which is characterized by low ADH levels. Patients with 21-hydroxylase deficiency may also experience stunted growth and elevated androgens, but hypogonadism is not a feature. Treatment may involve the use of gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the endocrine clinic with thyroid function test results indicating palpitations, excessive sweating, unintentional weight loss, and a notable thyroid goitre that is tender upon palpation. The test results show a TSH level of 9.4 mU/L (normal range: 0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 6.4 pmol/L (normal range: 9.0-18). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Grave's disease
Correct Answer: Subacute (De Quervain's) thyroiditis
Explanation:Subacute Thyroiditis: A Self-Limiting Condition with Four Phases
Subacute thyroiditis, also known as De Quervain’s thyroiditis or subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, is a condition that is believed to occur after a viral infection. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, a painful goitre, and raised ESR during the first phase, which lasts for 3-6 weeks. The second phase, which lasts for 1-3 weeks, is characterized by euthyroidism. The third phase, which can last for weeks to months, is characterized by hypothyroidism. Finally, in the fourth phase, the thyroid structure and function return to normal.
To diagnose subacute thyroiditis, thyroid scintigraphy is used to show a globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. However, most patients do not require treatment as the condition is self-limiting. Thyroid pain may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs, but in more severe cases, steroids may be used, particularly if hypothyroidism develops.
It is important to note that subacute thyroiditis is just one of the many causes of thyroid dysfunction. A Venn diagram can be used to show how different causes of thyroid dysfunction may manifest. It is interesting to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Proper diagnosis and management of thyroid dysfunction are crucial to ensure optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 61
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old girl is referred to the Endocrine Clinic with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, her height and weight are normal. She has moderate hirsutism and acne, small breast buds and an enlarged clitoris. Bimanual pelvic examination is normal. A male cousin was seen in the clinic at the age of nine years with precocious puberty.
Which is the most likely cause of her primary amenorrhoea?
Your Answer: Turner syndrome
Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a genetic disorder that affects cortisol production, leading to an increase in adrenocorticotrophic hormone and enlargement of the adrenal glands. There are different types, with classic/severe presenting at birth with ambiguous genitalia or in an acute salt-losing crisis, and milder forms causing hyperandrogenism. The patient and her cousin are likely to have the milder form. Imperforate hymen, hyperprolactinaemia, and Sheehan syndrome are unlikely causes of the patient’s primary amenorrhoea, while Turner syndrome is ruled out due to the absence of characteristic features.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and occasional breast discharge. She has never been pregnant and has not been sexually active for the past year. She is not on any regular medications and has had regular menstrual cycles in the past. On breast examination, there are no palpable abnormalities and she has normal secondary sexual characteristics. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?
Your Answer: Skull computed tomography (CT)
Correct Answer: Prolactin level
Explanation:Investigating Hyperprolactinaemia: Tests and Imaging
Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin, often caused by a microadenoma in the pituitary gland. While no single test can determine the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, a prolactinoma is likely if the prolactin level is above 250 ng/ml. Inhibitory effects of raised prolactin may result in low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), but this is not diagnostic. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred imaging technique for investigating the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, rather than a skull computed tomography (CT) or X-ray, which may only show enlarged pituitary fossa with large adenomas. Additionally, thyroid function tests may be necessary to investigate mildly raised prolactin levels in the absence of pituitary pathology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman has just been prescribed gliclazide for her T2DM. What is the mechanism of action of gliclazide?
Your Answer: Increases peripheral glucose uptake and utilisation, and decreases gluconeogenesis
Correct Answer: Stimulates insulin secretion from the b-cells of the islets of Langerhans
Explanation:Different medications used to treat diabetes have varying mechanisms of action. Sulfonylureas like gliclazide stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas, making them effective for type II diabetes but not for type I diabetes. However, they can cause hypoglycemia and should be used with caution when combined with other hypoglycemic medications. Biguanides like metformin increase glucose uptake and utilization while decreasing gluconeogenesis, making them a first-line treatment for type II diabetes. Glucosidase inhibitors like acarbose delay the digestion of starch and sucrose, but are not commonly used due to gastrointestinal side effects. DPP-4 inhibitors like sitagliptin increase insulin production and decrease hepatic glucose overproduction by inhibiting the action of DPP-4. Thiazolidinediones like pioglitazone increase insulin sensitivity in the liver, fat, and skeletal muscle, but their use is limited due to associated risks of heart failure, bladder cancer, and fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes in for a check-up with her doctor. She has a history of hypothyroidism and is currently taking 100mcg of levothyroxine. She reports feeling well and has no notable symptoms. Her last TFTs were normal 6 months ago.
Free T4 18.5 pmol/l
TSH 0.1 mu/l
What should be done next?Your Answer: Make no changes to the current dose
Correct Answer: Decrease dose to levothyroxine 75mcg od
Explanation:The latest TFTs reveal that the patient is experiencing over replacement, as evidenced by a suppressed TSH. Despite being asymptomatic, it is advisable to decrease the dosage to minimize the risk of osteoporosis and atrial fibrillation. According to the BNF, a 25mcg dose adjustment is recommended for individuals in this age bracket.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.
Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes in for his annual check-up for type 2 diabetes mellitus. During the review, his HbA1c level is found to be 58 mmol/mol. The patient is currently taking metformin 1g twice daily and is fully compliant. He has no allergies and is not taking any other medications. The patient had a transurethral resection for bladder cancer five years ago and is still under urology follow-up with no signs of disease recurrence. He has no other medical history, exercises regularly, and maintains a healthy diet. The patient's BMI is 25kg/m².
What would be the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Switch to modified-release metformin
Correct Answer: Add gliclazide
Explanation:For a patient with T2DM who is on metformin and has an HbA1c level of 58 mmol/mol, the most appropriate choice for a second antidiabetic agent is gliclazide, according to NICE guidelines and the patient’s clinical factors. Pioglitazone is not recommended due to the patient’s history of bladder cancer, and SGLT-2 inhibitors and GLP-1 receptor agonists are not appropriate in this case. Modified-release metformin is not recommended for improving HbA1c control. Dual therapy with a sulfonylurea, DPP-4 inhibitor, or pioglitazone is recommended by NICE once HbA1c is 58 mmol/mol or over on metformin, but the choice of agent depends on the individual clinical scenario.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female presents to the GP with a two-week history of feeling generally unwell. She reports experiencing hot flashes and sweating, as well as difficulty sleeping at night. Her husband has also noticed that she seems more agitated and on edge than usual. The patient has no significant medical history but reports having had flu-like symptoms six weeks ago that have since resolved. On examination, there is a tender goitre present. Thyroid function tests reveal a TSH level of 0.5 mU/L (normal range 0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 21 pmol/L (normal range 9.0-18). What is the first-line management for the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Carbimazole
Correct Answer: Conservative management with ibuprofen
Explanation:Subacute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis is the likely cause of this patient’s hyperthyroidism, as evidenced by symptoms such as heat intolerance, insomnia, and agitation, as well as a normal TSH and high T4 level. The presence of a tender goitre and recent viral illness further support this diagnosis. Conservative management, including observation and NSAIDs for pain relief, is the most appropriate course of action as subacute thyroiditis is typically self-limiting. Antithyroid drugs such as carbimazole and propylthiouracil are not indicated for this condition, as they are used to treat chronic hyperthyroidism such as Grave’s disease. Radioactive iodine therapy is also not appropriate for subacute thyroiditis.
Subacute Thyroiditis: A Self-Limiting Condition with Four Phases
Subacute thyroiditis, also known as De Quervain’s thyroiditis or subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, is a condition that is believed to occur after a viral infection. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, a painful goitre, and raised ESR during the first phase, which lasts for 3-6 weeks. The second phase, which lasts for 1-3 weeks, is characterized by euthyroidism. The third phase, which can last for weeks to months, is characterized by hypothyroidism. Finally, in the fourth phase, the thyroid structure and function return to normal.
To diagnose subacute thyroiditis, thyroid scintigraphy is used to show a globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. However, most patients do not require treatment as the condition is self-limiting. Thyroid pain may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs, but in more severe cases, steroids may be used, particularly if hypothyroidism develops.
It is important to note that subacute thyroiditis is just one of the many causes of thyroid dysfunction. A Venn diagram can be used to show how different causes of thyroid dysfunction may manifest. It is interesting to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Proper diagnosis and management of thyroid dysfunction are crucial to ensure optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 67
Correct
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A 42 year old undergoes a thyroidectomy and is informed about the potential impact on her parathyroid glands. What is a possible sign of parathyroid damage after the surgery?
Your Answer: Tingling around the hands, feet or mouth, and unusual muscle movements
Explanation:Symptoms and Complications of Thyroidectomy
Thyroidectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the thyroid gland. However, it can lead to various complications, including hypoparathyroidism and hyperparathyroidism. Here are some symptoms to watch out for:
Acute hypocalcaemia, characterized by tingling around the hands, feet, or mouth, and unusual muscle movements, is a common complication of hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy. Intravenous calcium may be necessary to correct the hypocalcaemia.
Headache, sweating, and tachycardia are classic symptoms of phaeochromocytoma, which can occur in patients at risk of hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy.
Dry, thick skin, coarse hair, and brittle nails are signs of hypothyroidism, not hypoparathyroidism.
Feeling thirsty and passing a lot of urine are signs of hypercalcaemia, which may be caused by hyperparathyroidism. Hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy is a common complication that can lead to hypercalcaemia.
Hyperactivity and mood swings are more indicative of hyperthyroidism, but patients at risk of hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy should still be monitored for these symptoms.
In summary, patients who undergo thyroidectomy should be aware of the potential complications and symptoms that may arise. Regular monitoring and prompt medical attention can help manage these issues effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 68
Correct
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A 21-year-old is brought unconscious to the Emergency Department. An alert ambulance attendant notes that the patient's breath smells like fruit punch. The patient was found holding a glass containing a clear liquid, and the ambulance attendant had noted a syringe on the patient's coffee table and a pool of vomit near the patient.
With which of the following would this presentation be most consistent?Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
Explanation:Differentiating between medical conditions based on breath scent
When a comatose patient presents with a distinct scent on their breath, it can be a helpful clue in determining the underlying medical condition. The smell of acetone is strongly indicative of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which is commonly seen in patients with poorly controlled type I diabetes. In contrast, alcohol intoxication produces a scent of alcohol rather than a fruity odor. Diabetic hyperosmolar coma, typically seen in older patients with type II diabetes, does not produce a specific scent as there is no acetone production. Heroin overdose and profound hypoglycemia also do not result in a distinct breath scent. Understanding the different scents associated with various medical conditions can aid in prompt and accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 69
Incorrect
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You assess a 75-year-old patient with a complex medical history and taking multiple medications. The patient presents with significant bilateral breast tissue growth. Which medication is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Terbinafine
Correct Answer: Goserelin (Zoladex)
Explanation:Gynaecomastia may occur as a side effect of using GnRH agonists like goserelin for prostate cancer management. Tamoxifen can be prescribed to address gynaecomastia.
Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers
Gynaecomastia is a medical condition that occurs when males develop an abnormal amount of breast tissue. This condition is usually caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea, which is due to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue, from those of gynaecomastia.
There are several causes of gynaecomastia, including physiological changes that occur during puberty, syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallman’s and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure, liver disease, testicular cancer, ectopic tumour secretion, hyperthyroidism, and haemodialysis. Additionally, certain drugs can trigger gynaecomastia, with spironolactone being the most common drug cause. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids.
It is important to note that while drug-induced gynaecomastia is rare, there are still some drugs that can trigger this condition. Some of the very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa. Understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward with severe loin to groin abdominal pain. A CT-KUB reveals a right-sided renal calculus. When you take her medical history, she confesses that she has been feeling unwell for the past few weeks with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, constipation and altered mood.
Her blood tests show an estimated glomerular filtration rate of >60 ml/min, adjusted calcium of 3.1 mmol/l (2.1-2.6 mmol/l), phosphate of 0.6 mmol/l (0.8-1.4 mol/l), and parathyroid hormone of 5.1 pmol/l (1.2-5.8 pmol/l).
What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is caused by parathyroid adenoma or hyperplasia. The typical biochemical markers are low phosphate and high serum calcium levels. However, the parathyroid hormone level may be high or inappropriately normal. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is caused by chronic hypocalcemia, such as in chronic kidney disease, where serum calcium levels are low or normal, but parathyroid hormone levels are high. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism is a result of autonomous parathyroid production and usually occurs in patients with end-stage renal disease. Sarcoidosis and type 1 renal tubular acidosis are rare causes of hypercalcemia.
Understanding Primary Hyperparathyroidism
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition commonly seen in elderly females, characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, with hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, and carcinoma being less common causes. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, those who do experience symptoms may have polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension. Primary hyperparathyroidism is also associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN I and II).
To diagnose primary hyperparathyroidism, doctors may look for raised calcium levels and low phosphate levels, as well as perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan. A characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism is the pepperpot skull. Treatment options include total parathyroidectomy, conservative management, and the use of calcimimetics like cinacalcet. Calcimimetics mimic the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.
In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can be asymptomatic or present with a range of symptoms. It is most commonly caused by a solitary adenoma and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia. Diagnosis involves blood tests and imaging, while treatment options include surgery and medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP for a check-up of her diabetes medication. During the examination, the GP observes that the patient has unusually large hands and feet and prominent supraorbital ridges. After obtaining consent for a more detailed examination, the GP discovers acanthosis nigricans in the patient's neck, enlargement of her thyroid gland, and hepatomegaly. Besides diabetes, what other condition is frequently linked to acromegaly?
Your Answer: Pigmentation of the skin
Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation
Explanation:Acromegaly is a medical condition caused by hypersecretion of growth hormone, which can lead to various health problems. One of the associated conditions is diabetes mellitus, as acromegaly is often linked with insulin resistance. Another condition is acanthosis nigricans, which involves hyperpigmentation of the skin. However, there is no general pigmentation associated with acromegaly.
Cardiovascular disease is also a common association, which can increase the risk of atrial fibrillation. Left ventricular hypertrophy is another condition that can occur with acromegaly.
Finally, ulnar nerve entrapment is not directly associated with acromegaly, but carpal tunnel syndrome affecting the median nerve is a common association.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman presents to her GP with tearfulness and a low mood for the past few weeks. The GP notes from her medical history that she has a history of renal stones.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Low Mood and Renal Stones
Primary Hyperparathyroidism:
This condition can cause hypercalcemia, which may present as renal stones, osteoporosis, arthritis, nausea and vomiting, peptic ulcer disease, constipation, polyuria, depression, memory loss, and delirium.Hyperthyroidism:
Hyperthyroidism may present with restlessness, irritability, insomnia, tremor, palpitations, weight loss, sweating, heat intolerance, diarrhea, oligomenorrhea, hair thinning, and muscle weakness. Graves’ disease may also cause a goiter and thyroid eye disease, presenting as proptosis, dry eyes, periorbital edema, and lagophthalmos.Hypothyroidism:
Typical features of hypothyroidism include dry skin, brittle and diminished hair, lethargy, cold intolerance, dull or blank expression, puffy eyelids, and weight gain. Patients may also experience cerebellar ataxia, ascites, non-pitting edema of the hands and feet, and congestive cardiac failure.Pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism:
This condition may present with short fourth and fifth metacarpals, round face, short stature, basal ganglia calcification, and decreased IQ.Secondary Hyperparathyroidism:
This condition may present with signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia, including perioral paresthesia, seizures, spasms, anxiety, increased smooth muscle tone, disorientation, dermatitis, impetigo herpetiformis, cataracts, Chvostek’s sign, and long Q–T interval.Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Low Mood and Renal Stones
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A floppy four-week-old neonate presents with vomiting, weight loss and circulatory collapse. Blood tests demonstrate hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. Further tests confirm metabolic acidosis and hypoglycaemia. The paediatrician notices that the penis was enlarged and the scrotum pigmented. The child was treated with both a glucocorticoid and a mineralocorticoid.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Addisonian crisis
Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:Endocrine Disorders: Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, Conn Syndrome, Addisonian Crisis, Cushing Syndrome, and Thyrotoxic Crisis
Endocrine disorders are conditions that affect the production and regulation of hormones in the body. Here are five different endocrine disorders and their characteristics:
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH) is a group of autosomal recessive conditions caused by mutations in the enzymes involved in the production of steroids and hormones from the adrenal glands. It can affect both men and women equally, and symptoms include ambiguous genitalia at birth for women and hyperpigmentation and penile enlargement for men. Treatment involves hormone replacement therapy.
Conn Syndrome is a condition associated with primary hyperaldosteronism, which presents with hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia. It is more commonly seen in adult patients, but there are cases reported in childhood.
Addisonian Crisis occurs due to glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid deficiency, usually occurring in adulthood. It is a potentially fatal episode that presents with hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, hypoglycaemia, and hypercalcaemia. Urgent intravenous administration of glucocorticoids is necessary for management.
Cushing Syndrome is due to cortisol excess, either exogenous or endogenous, and is usually diagnosed in adulthood. Symptoms include weight gain, hypertension, oedema, hyperglycaemia, hypokalaemia, and pigmentation of the skin in the axillae and neck.
Thyrotoxic Crisis, also known as a thyroid storm, is a life-threatening condition associated with excessive production of thyroid hormones. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed hyperthyroidism in neonates and children. Symptoms include tachycardia, hypertension, fever, poor feeding, weight loss, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, seizures, and coma. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent acute congestive heart failure, shock, and death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 74
Correct
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A 16-year-old woman who takes insulin for type I diabetes presents to the Emergency Department feeling unwell. She states she has had vomiting and diarrhoea for two days and since she is not eating, she has not been taking her full insulin doses. Her capillary glucose is 37 mmol/l, and there are 4+ ketones on urinalysis. An arterial blood gas is performed, and the results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
pH 7.12 7.35–7.45
Partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2) 3.5 kPa 4.5–6.0 kPa
Partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) 13 kPa 10–14 kPa
Sodium (Na+) 121 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 6.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Bicarbonate 13 mmol/l 22–28 mmol/l
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment option?
Select the SINGLE best treatment from the list below.
Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) 0.9% sodium chloride bolus
Explanation:Management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that requires prompt treatment. The key principles of DKA management include initial fluid resuscitation with normal saline, followed by an IV insulin infusion at a fixed rate of 0.1 unit/kg per hour. Once the blood glucose level reaches 15 mmol/l, an infusion of 5% dextrose is added. Correction of electrolyte disturbance, particularly hypokalaemia, is also essential.
Empirical IV antibiotics are not useful in DKA unless triggered by an infection, in which case emergency DKA treatment should be started first. An insulin sliding scale is not used in DKA management.
It is important to note that IV 10 units Actrapid and 50 ml 50% dextrose are not used in DKA management. Similarly, IV sodium bicarbonate bolus is not recommended. Instead, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and appropriate fluid and insulin therapy are crucial for successful management of DKA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of fatigue and increased urination. The symptoms began two months ago and have been progressively worsening. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is classified as morbidly obese. Upon conducting a fasting glucose test, the results show 8.2 mmol/L. The doctor decides to measure the patient's C-peptide levels, which are found to be low. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Maturity-onset diabetes of the young
Correct Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Patients with T1DM typically have low C-peptide levels.
The patient in question is exhibiting classic symptoms of diabetes, including polyuria and tiredness, and their fasting glucose level is 8.2 mmol/L, which meets the diagnostic criteria for diabetes according to the World Health Organization. Given their age and risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend testing for C-peptide levels. C-peptide is a byproduct of proinsulin cleavage into insulin, and low levels indicate a lack of insulin production, which is characteristic of T1DM.
Impaired fasting glucose is an incorrect answer because the patient’s fasting glucose level is above the diagnostic threshold for diabetes. Maturity-onset diabetes of the young is also incorrect because it is an autosomal-dominant condition that typically presents as T2DM in patients under 25, and C-peptide levels remain normal. Suggests diabetes mellitus but further testing is needed is also incorrect because the patient’s symptoms and fasting glucose level meet the diagnostic criteria for diabetes.
Diagnosis of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
Type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically diagnosed through symptoms and signs that are similar to those seen in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), although the diagnosis may take longer. Symptoms of DKA include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and an acetone-smelling breath. To confirm a diagnosis, urine should be dipped for glucose and ketones, and fasting glucose and random glucose levels should be measured. C-peptide levels are typically low in patients with T1DM, and diabetes-specific autoantibodies can be useful in distinguishing between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD), islet cell antibodies (ICA), insulin autoantibodies (IAA), and insulinoma-associated-2 autoantibodies (IA-2A) are commonly used.
The diagnostic criteria for T1DM include a fasting glucose level greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or a random glucose level greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l if the patient is symptomatic. If the patient is asymptomatic, the criteria must be demonstrated on two separate occasions. To distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes, age of onset, speed of onset, weight of the patient, and symptoms should be considered. NICE recommends further investigation for adults suspected of having T1DM if the clinical presentation includes atypical features. Conversely, for patients suspected of having type 2 diabetes, if they respond well to oral hypoglycaemic agents and are over the age of 40 years, further testing for T1DM may not be necessary.
Example scenarios include a 15-year-old with weight loss and lethargy, a 38-year-old obese man with polyuria, a 52-year-old woman with polyuria and polydipsia, and a 59-year-old obese man with polyuria. The appropriate diagnostic tests should be conducted based on the patient’s symptoms and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and lethargy. He has areas of skin hyperpigmentation and hypopigmentation consistent with vitiligo. His blood pressure is 96/58 mmHg. Laboratory tests reveal the following results, and treatment is initiated.
Hemoglobin: 138 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
Platelets: 210 * 109/L (150-400)
White blood cells: 11.5 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
Sodium: 133 mmol/L (135-145)
Potassium: 5.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
Urea: 6.5 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
Creatinine: 95 µmol/L (55-120)
C-reactive protein: 4 mg/L (<5)
Fasting blood sugar: 4.4 mmol/L (4-7)
What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Serum adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) level
Correct Answer: Short synacthen test
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient is Addison’s disease based on their clinical presentation of hypotension, hyperpigmentation, vitiligo, and electrolyte abnormalities. Immediate treatment with intravenous fluids and glucocorticoids is necessary. The best test to confirm the diagnosis is the short synacthen test, which measures cortisol levels after administering a stimulating hormone. The aldosterone renin ratio and overnight dexamethasone suppression test are not useful in this scenario. While the serum ACTH level can aid in the diagnosis, dynamic testing with suppression/stimulation is more accurate in endocrine conditions.
Investigating Addison’s Disease: ACTH Stimulation Test and Serum Cortisol Levels
When a patient is suspected of having Addison’s disease, the definitive investigation is an ACTH stimulation test, also known as a short Synacthen test. This involves measuring plasma cortisol levels before and 30 minutes after administering Synacthen 250ug IM. Adrenal autoantibodies, such as anti-21-hydroxylase, may also be demonstrated.
However, if an ACTH stimulation test is not readily available, a 9 am serum cortisol level can be useful. A level of over 500 nmol/l makes Addison’s disease very unlikely, while a level of less than 100 nmol/l is definitely abnormal. A level between 100-500 nmol/l should prompt an ACTH stimulation test to be performed.
It is important to note that around one-third of undiagnosed patients with Addison’s disease may also have associated electrolyte abnormalities, such as hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia, hypoglycaemia, and metabolic acidosis. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate these patients thoroughly to ensure a proper diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has been referred by her General Practitioner (GP), as she is passing a substantial volume of urine. She complains that she is continuously thirsty.
Random plasma reveals the following:
Investigation Result Normal values
Sodium (Na+) 155 mmol
Osmolality 300 mOsmol/kg
Glucose 4.5 mmol
Urine analysis reveals the following:
Investigation Result
Osmolality 90 mOsmol/kg
Glucose 0.1 mmol/l
In healthy patients, the urine : plasma osmolality ratio is > 2.
A water deprivation test reveals the following:
After 6.5 hours of fluid deprivation, the patient’s weight had dropped by > 3%, and the serum osmolality was 310 mOsmol/kg. Urine osmolality at this stage was 210 mOsmol/kg. The patient was then given desmopressin intramuscularly (IM) and allowed to drink. The urine osmolality increased to 700 mOsmol/kg, and her plasma osmolality was 292 mOsmol/kg.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Lithium therapy
Correct Answer: A pituitary tumour
Explanation:Diagnosing Cranial Diabetes Insipidus: A Pituitary Tumour as the Likely Cause
Cranial diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition where the kidneys are unable to reabsorb free water, resulting in excessive water loss. The most likely cause of this condition is reduced antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion, which can be caused by a pituitary tumour. In this case, the patient’s low urine osmolality and reduced response to the water deprivation test confirm the presence of cranial DI.
Chronic renal disease and lithium therapy can also cause nephrogenic DI, but the patient’s response to desmopressin im excludes these as potential causes. Diabetes mellitus may cause polydipsia and polyuria, but it also presents with glycosuria and hyperglycaemia. Primary polydipsia, characterized by a compulsive desire to drink, can cause low urine osmolality, but the patient’s ability to concentrate urine to some extent excludes this as a likely cause.
In conclusion, a pituitary tumour is the most likely cause of the patient’s cranial DI, as confirmed by the water deprivation test and response to desmopressin im.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with a range of symptoms that have been progressively worsening over the past 6 months. Despite no changes in her diet, she has gained over 3 stone of weight, with a concentration on her face and neck. She has also noticed stretch marks on her abdomen and excessive hair growth on her body and face. Upon referral to an endocrinologist, she is diagnosed with a pituitary adenoma causing an increased secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone.
What is the best description of this condition?Your Answer: Addison's disease
Correct Answer: Cushing's disease
Explanation:The patient is experiencing Cushing’s disease, which is caused by excessive secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the anterior pituitary gland, often due to a pituitary adenoma. Addison’s disease and acromegaly can be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms. It is important to differentiate between Cushing’s triad, which includes irregular breathing, bradycardia, and systolic hypertension caused by increased intracranial pressure, and Cushing’s syndrome, a collection of symptoms resulting from prolonged exposure to cortisol. Cushing’s disease is a specific type of Cushing’s syndrome characterized by increased ACTH production due to a pituitary adenoma or excess production of hypothalamus CRH.
Understanding the Causes of Cushing’s Syndrome
Cushing’s syndrome is a condition that occurs when the body is exposed to high levels of cortisol for an extended period. While exogenous causes of Cushing’s syndrome, such as glucocorticoid therapy, are more common, endogenous causes can also occur. The causes of Cushing’s syndrome can be divided into two categories: ACTH dependent and ACTH independent.
ACTH dependent causes of Cushing’s syndrome include Cushing’s disease, which is caused by a pituitary tumor secreting ACTH and producing adrenal hyperplasia. Ectopic ACTH production, which is caused by small cell lung cancer, is another ACTH dependent cause. On the other hand, ACTH independent causes of Cushing’s syndrome include iatrogenic causes such as steroid use, adrenal adenoma, adrenal carcinoma, Carney complex, and micronodular adrenal dysplasia.
In addition to these causes, there is also a condition called Pseudo-Cushing’s, which mimics Cushing’s syndrome. This condition is often caused by alcohol excess or severe depression and can cause false positive dexamethasone suppression tests or 24-hour urinary free cortisol tests. To differentiate between Cushing’s syndrome and Pseudo-Cushing’s, an insulin stress test may be used. Understanding the causes of Cushing’s syndrome is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old woman who is passionate about health and fitness visits your GP clinic. She reports experiencing weight loss, increased thirst, and frequent urination. A urine dip test shows glucosuria, and her blood work indicates an HBA1c level of 63 mmol/mol. She mentions that her aunt passed away due to a pancreas problem. Despite receiving treatment for newly diagnosed diabetes, she still complains of weight loss. What factors should you take into account?
Your Answer: Repeat urine dip
Correct Answer: CT scan
Explanation:If a person develops new onset diabetes at the age of 56 and has a strong interest in health and fitness, it is unlikely that they have type 2 diabetes. Therefore, it may be necessary to investigate secondary causes of pancreatic insufficiency, such as pancreatic cancer. In such cases, a CT scan is the most appropriate diagnostic tool, while abdominal X-ray and ultrasound are unlikely to be helpful. Repeating the urine dip test is not likely to provide any additional information, and delaying treatment by repeating blood tests in 120 days would be inappropriate. This person should be treated promptly, as they are symptomatic with an HBA1c level of over 48mmol.
Understanding Pancreatic Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management
Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. Adenocarcinomas, which occur at the head of the pancreas, make up over 80% of pancreatic tumors. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and genetic mutations such as BRCA2 and KRAS.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, pruritus, anorexia, weight loss, epigastric pain, loss of exocrine and endocrine function, and atypical back pain. Migratory thrombophlebitis, also known as Trousseau sign, is more common in pancreatic cancer than in other cancers.
Diagnosis of pancreatic cancer can be made through ultrasound or high-resolution CT scanning, which may show the double duct sign – simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts. However, less than 20% of patients are suitable for surgery at diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection, or pancreaticoduodenectomy, may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas. Adjuvant chemotherapy is usually given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
In summary, pancreatic cancer is a serious disease with non-specific symptoms that can be difficult to diagnose. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms can help with early detection and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old female medical student, who is an insulin-dependent diabetic, went on a weekend trip to visit some friends at another university. She forgot to pack her insulin. When she returned, she went to visit her General Practitioner. Which of the following blood results would be expected?
Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia
Correct Answer: Unchanged haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c)
Explanation:Insulin-dependent diabetes patients rely on insulin to regulate their blood glucose levels. Without insulin, several physiological changes occur. However, these changes do not happen immediately. Here are some effects of insulin absence in insulin-dependent diabetes patients:
Unchanged HbA1c levels – Correct: HbA1c levels do not change significantly over two to three days without insulin. Changes in HbA1c levels are observed over weeks and months.
Below normal fatty acid levels – Incorrect: In the absence of insulin, triglyceride hydrolysis and increased release from adipose tissue occur, giving raised fatty acid levels. Fatty acids are utilised to synthesise ketones.
Below normal glucagon levels – Incorrect: The body responds to the absence of insulin by increasing glucagon levels. In a healthy individual, this raised glucagon would raise glucose levels in the bloodstream, providing target organs with utilisable glucose. However, in a diabetic patient, the absence of insulin means target organs are still not able to utilise this resource.
Hypoglycaemia – Incorrect: In the absence of insulin, hyperglycaemia would be expected to develop. Ketones are generated by the body as an alternative energy source to glucose, since to utilise glucose, insulin is required.
Undetectable ketones – Incorrect: A diabetic patient who is normally dependent on insulin is at risk of developing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) even with only a weekend of missed insulin doses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A middle-aged patient presents with lethargy, weight loss and fainting episodes. In the Emergency Department, a postural drop in blood pressure is noted of > 20 mmHg systolic from the supine to the standing position. Blood glucose is 2.9 mmol/l, and Na+ is 122 mmol/l.
What is the cause of this patient's condition?Your Answer: Increased cortisol; decreased aldosterone
Correct Answer: Decreased cortisol; decreased aldosterone
Explanation:Understanding Addison’s Disease: Hormonal Imbalances and Clinical Presentation
Addison’s disease, or primary adrenal failure, is a condition characterized by autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex, resulting in reduced levels of cortisol and aldosterone. This hormonal imbalance leads to a range of clinical symptoms, including hypotension, hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, acidosis, and skin and mucosal hyperpigmentation.
While other hormonal imbalances may occur in the adrenal glands, such as increased cortisol or aldosterone, they are less likely to result in the clinical presentation of Addison’s disease. For example, increased cortisol is unlikely due to autoimmune destruction of the zona fasciculata, while increased aldosterone is rare and typically caused by an adrenal adenoma. Similarly, decreased cortisol with normal aldosterone is more commonly associated with secondary adrenal failure caused by pituitary disease, but does not fit with the hyponatraemia seen in Addison’s disease.
Overall, understanding the hormonal imbalances and clinical presentation of Addison’s disease is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman reports to her community midwife with complaints of failure to lactate, lethargy, dizziness upon standing, and weight loss after a difficult childbirth complicated by placental abruption. What blood test results are expected?
Your Answer: Increased cortisol; decreased aldosterone
Correct Answer: Decreased cortisol; normal aldosterone
Explanation:Interpreting Cortisol and Aldosterone Levels in Sheehan’s Syndrome
Sheehan’s syndrome is a condition that results in hypopituitarism, causing reduced production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and secondary adrenal insufficiency. This can lead to decreased cortisol levels, which can cause postural hypotension. However, aldosterone levels remain normal as they are not dependent on pituitary function.
In rare cases of adrenal adenoma, increased levels of both cortisol and aldosterone may occur, but this does not fit the clinical picture of Sheehan’s syndrome. Similarly, decreased levels of both cortisol and aldosterone would be indicative of primary adrenal insufficiency, which is not the case here.
An unusual result would be increased cortisol levels with decreased aldosterone levels, which does not fit the clinical picture of hypocortisolism in Sheehan’s syndrome. Conversely, decreased cortisol levels with increased aldosterone levels would also be an unusual result, as aldosterone levels are not typically affected in Sheehan’s syndrome.
Therefore, when interpreting cortisol and aldosterone levels in a patient with suspected Sheehan’s syndrome, it is important to consider the expected pattern of decreased cortisol levels with normal aldosterone levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. His urine and serum tests reveal elevated ketone levels, and his serum glucose level is 3 mmol/L. An ABG is conducted, and the results are as follows:
pH 7.24
PaO2 14.7 kPa
PCO2 3.5 kPa
HCO3 13 mEq/L
What is the most probable cause of these findings?Your Answer: Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state
Correct Answer: Alcoholic ketoacidosis
Explanation:If a patient is experiencing metabolic ketoacidosis with normal or low glucose levels, alcohol consumption should be considered as a possible cause. This condition is characterized by partial respiratory compensation. While diabetic ketoacidosis could also be a potential cause, a serum glucose level of 3mmol/L makes it less likely. Therefore, the patient is more likely to be suffering from alcoholic ketoacidosis. It is important to note that a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state would present with high serum glucose levels and normal ketone levels, while a diabetic hypoglycemic episode would not typically result in elevated ketone levels or metabolic acidosis.
Alcoholic ketoacidosis is a type of ketoacidosis that occurs in individuals who consume large amounts of alcohol regularly. This condition is not related to diabetes and is characterized by normal blood sugar levels. Alcoholics often suffer from malnutrition due to their irregular eating habits and may vomit the food they consume, leading to starvation. When the body becomes malnourished, it starts breaking down body fat, which produces ketones and leads to ketoacidosis.
The typical symptoms of alcoholic ketoacidosis include metabolic acidosis, elevated anion gap, elevated serum ketone levels, and normal or low glucose concentration. The most effective treatment for this condition is an infusion of saline and thiamine. Thiamine is essential to prevent the development of Wernicke encephalopathy or Korsakoff psychosis. Therefore, it is crucial to provide timely and appropriate treatment to individuals suffering from alcoholic ketoacidosis to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 84
Incorrect
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As the on-call FY2 covering the wards, you are asked to assess a 55-year-old woman who was admitted yesterday with community-acquired left basal pneumonia. Over the past 12 hours, she has deteriorated significantly with a temperature of 40.5ºC, blood pressure 160/95 mmHg, and heart rate of 130 bpm. On examination, she appears jaundiced, agitated, and confused. Her medical history includes hayfever and Graves' disease, but she has been generally healthy otherwise. What is the most important initial treatment to start for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Therapeutic plasma exchange
Correct Answer: IV propranolol
Explanation:Thyroid storm is a medical emergency that can occur in patients with hyperthyroidism, such as those with Graves’ disease. It is characterized by symptoms such as high fever, rapid heartbeat, jaundice, and altered mental status. In such cases, IV beta-blockers, such as propranolol, are the first-line treatment to inhibit the peripheral adrenergic effects of excess thyroid hormone. However, propranolol should not be used in patients with asthma or reversible COPD, and caution should be exercised in patients with heart failure. Lugol’s solution can also be used to inhibit the release of stored thyroid hormone, but it is usually delayed until after antithyroid therapy has been initiated. Therapeutic plasma exchange may be considered for patients who do not respond to medical therapy. In this case, the patient’s jaundice is likely due to her hyperthyroid crisis, and there is no evidence of biliary disease or cholecystitis. Therefore, IV co-amoxiclav, which is the first-line antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia, would be appropriate for this patient. If propranolol is contraindicated, a cardiac-specific beta-blocker or calcium-channel blocker may be used instead. However, in this patient, IV propranolol should be used as the first-line treatment.
Understanding Thyroid Storm
Thyroid storm is a rare but serious complication of thyrotoxicosis, which is characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. It is usually seen in patients who already have thyrotoxicosis and is not typically the first symptom. It is important to note that an excess of thyroxine caused by medication does not usually lead to thyroid storm.
There are several events that can trigger thyroid storm, including surgery, trauma, infection, and exposure to iodine, such as through CT contrast media. The clinical features of thyroid storm include fever, tachycardia, confusion, nausea, vomiting, hypertension, heart failure, and abnormal liver function tests.
The management of thyroid storm involves treating the underlying cause and providing symptomatic relief. This may include medications such as beta-blockers, anti-thyroid drugs, Lugol’s iodine, and dexamethasone. Paracetamol may also be used to manage fever.
In summary, thyroid storm is a serious complication of thyrotoxicosis that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding the triggers and clinical features of thyroid storm can help with early diagnosis and effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 85
Correct
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You receive a letter from an endocrinology consultant following a referral that you made for a 25 year old gentleman who has been newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. The consultant requests that you start the patient on carbimazole 15mg daily with a repeat thyroid function test (TFT) in 4 weeks. What is the most crucial advice to give the patient?
Your Answer: Attend for urgent medical review if develops any symptoms of infection e.g. sore throat or fever
Explanation:Understanding Carbimazole and Its Mechanism of Action
Carbimazole is a medication used to manage thyrotoxicosis, a condition characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. It is typically administered in high doses for six weeks until the patient becomes euthyroid, or has a normal thyroid function. The drug works by blocking thyroid peroxidase, an enzyme responsible for coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, which ultimately reduces thyroid hormone production.
In contrast to propylthiouracil, another medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis, carbimazole only has a central mechanism of action. Propylthiouracil, on the other hand, also has a peripheral action by inhibiting 5′-deiodinase, an enzyme that reduces peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
While carbimazole can be effective in managing thyrotoxicosis, it is not without its adverse effects. One of the most serious side effects is agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a severe reduction in white blood cells. Additionally, carbimazole can cross the placenta, but may be used in low doses during pregnancy.
Overall, carbimazole is a medication that can be effective in managing thyrotoxicosis, but it is important to be aware of its mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Patients should always consult with their healthcare provider before starting any new medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of weight gain, hair loss, constipation, feeling cold all the time, and absence of menstrual periods. She also had difficulty breastfeeding after giving birth. Her medical history is unremarkable except for a previous episode of hypovolaemic shock due to significant blood loss during delivery, which required a prolonged hospital stay. What is the most probable diagnosis for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Subarachnoidal haemorrhage
Correct Answer: Sheehan's syndrome
Explanation:Sheehan’s syndrome, also known as postpartum hypopituitarism, is characterized by a decrease in pituitary gland function caused by ischemic necrosis resulting from hypovolemic shock after childbirth. The symptoms can be diverse and may take several years to manifest due to the pituitary damage. The patient’s presentation of amenorrhea, lactation difficulties, and hypothyroidism suggests pituitary dysfunction, which can be attributed to her complicated delivery, leading to a diagnosis of Sheehan’s syndrome.
Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management
Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.
There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.
The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with known type I diabetes mellitus presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain and vomiting.
On examination, he appears dehydrated. He is started on an insulin infusion. His blood tests are shown below:
Investigation Result Normal value
pH (venous) 7.23 7.35–7.45
Partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2) 2.1 kPa 4.5–6.0 kPa
Partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) 11.2 kPa 10–14 kPa
Sodium (Na+) 135 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Bicarbonate 13 mmol/l 22–28 mmol/l
Glucose 22.4 mmol/l < 11.1 mmol/l
Ketones 3.6 mmol/l < 0.6 mmol/l
What should happen to his regular insulin while he is treated?
Select the SINGLE best treatment from the list below.
Your Answer: Increase the dose of both long-acting and short-acting insulin
Correct Answer: Continue long-acting insulin and stop short-acting insulin
Explanation:Treatment of Diabetic Ketoacidosis: Continuing Long-Acting Insulin and Stopping Short-Acting Insulin
When a patient presents with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), it is important to provide prompt treatment. This involves fluid replacement with isotonic saline and an intravenous insulin infusion at 0.1 unit/kg per hour. While this takes place, the patient’s normal long-acting insulin should be continued, but their short-acting insulin should be stopped to avoid hypoglycemia.
In addition to insulin and fluid replacement, correction of electrolyte disturbance is essential. Serum potassium levels may be high on admission, but often fall quickly following treatment with insulin, resulting in hypokalemia. Potassium may need to be added to the replacement fluids, guided by the potassium levels. If the rate of potassium infusion is greater than 20 mmol/hour, cardiac monitoring is required.
Overall, the key to successful treatment of DKA is a careful balance of insulin, fluids, and electrolyte replacement. By continuing long-acting insulin and stopping short-acting insulin, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcome for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with type 1 diabetes visits his GP for a check-up on his blood sugar levels. He has been monitoring his daily blood glucose readings and the GP calculates an average of 7.8 mmol/L, indicating the need for better control. However, his HbA1c level is 41.5 mmol/mol (5.9%), indicating good glycaemic control. What could be causing this inconsistency?
Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency
Correct Answer: Sickle-cell anaemia
Explanation:Individuals with sickle cell anaemia and other haemoglobinopathies may have inaccurate HbA1c readings due to the shortened lifespan of their red blood cells, resulting in lower than actual levels. Conversely, conditions such as splenectomy, iron-deficiency anaemia, B12 deficiency, and alcoholism can lead to falsely elevated HbA1c levels. The accuracy of HbA1c as a measure of average blood glucose concentration is dependent on the lifespan of red blood cells.
Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus
Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in the blood at a rate proportional to the glucose concentration. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.
HbA1c is believed to reflect the blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous 3 months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose. The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached.
Understanding HbA1c is crucial in managing diabetes mellitus and achieving optimal blood sugar control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 89
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman with a body mass index (BMI) of 32 was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus during a routine check-up six months ago. Despite being advised about a low-energy, weight-reducing diet and exercise, she has not followed through with these recommendations and her postprandial blood glucose concentration is 13.8 mmol/l (reference range <11.1 mmol/l). What would be the drug of choice in this case?
Your Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Medications for Type 2 Diabetes
Metformin: The Initial Drug Treatment of Choice
For adults with type 2 diabetes, standard-release metformin is the recommended initial drug treatment. The dose should be gradually increased to avoid gastrointestinal side effects. If significant GI side effects occur, modified-release metformin can be tried. Metformin reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis and increases insulin sensitivity, leading to an increase in peripheral glucose uptake. However, caution should be exercised when using metformin in patients with renal failure, and it should be stopped if the estimated glomerular filtration rate is less than 30 ml/min per 1.73m2.Tolbutamide and Chlorpropamide: First-Generation Sulfonylureas
Tolbutamide and chlorpropamide are first-generation sulfonylureas that are no longer routinely used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes due to a higher incidence of side effects compared to newer, second-generation sulfonylureas. Chlorpropamide is not available in the UK.Insulin: Considered for Dual Therapy
Insulin-based treatment should be considered in type 2 diabetes patients who have not achieved optimal glycated haemoglobin control with dual therapy using metformin and another oral drug. Metformin should continue to be offered to patients without contraindications or intolerance.Pioglitazone: An Alternative Second-Line Agent
Pioglitazone can be considered as an alternative second-line agent for patients with type 2 diabetes who cannot take metformin or have not tolerated it well. It can also be used in dual therapy for first intensification of treatment. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 90
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presented with complaints of constant fatigue and underwent blood tests. All results were within normal limits except for her thyroid function test (TFT) which revealed:
TSH 12.5 mU/l
Free T4 7.5 pmol/l
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Levothyroxine
Explanation:The TFTs indicate a diagnosis of hypothyroidism, which can be treated with levothyroxine. Carbimazole is not suitable for this condition as it is used to treat hyperthyroidism. To ensure proper absorption, levothyroxine should be taken 30 minutes before consuming food, caffeine, or other medications.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.
Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 91
Correct
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You assess a 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who receives approximately 7-8 rounds of oral prednisolone annually to manage infectious exacerbations of his condition. What is one of the potential negative consequences associated with prolonged steroid use?
Your Answer: Avascular necrosis
Explanation:Osteopaenia and osteoporosis are associated with prolonged use of corticosteroids, not osteomalacia.
Understanding Corticosteroids and Their Side-Effects
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed therapies used to replace or augment the natural activity of endogenous steroids. They can be administered systemically or locally, depending on the condition being treated. However, the usage of corticosteroids is limited due to their numerous side-effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic therapy.
Glucocorticoid side-effects include impaired glucose regulation, increased appetite and weight gain, hirsutism, hyperlipidaemia, Cushing’s syndrome, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, osteoporosis, proximal myopathy, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, immunosuppression, increased susceptibility to severe infection, reactivation of tuberculosis, insomnia, mania, depression, psychosis, peptic ulceration, acute pancreatitis, glaucoma, cataracts, suppression of growth in children, intracranial hypertension, and neutrophilia.
On the other hand, mineralocorticoid side-effects include fluid retention and hypertension. It is important to note that patients on long-term steroids should have their doses doubled during intercurrent illness. Longer-term systemic corticosteroids suppress the natural production of endogenous steroids, so they should not be withdrawn abruptly as this may precipitate an Addisonian crisis. The British National Formulary suggests gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids if patients have received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week, received more than three weeks of treatment, or recently received repeated courses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns of feeling constantly overheated and experiencing early menopause. Her husband has also noticed a swelling in her neck over the past few weeks. During the examination, her pulse is recorded at 90/minute, and a small, painless goitre is observed. The doctor orders blood tests, which reveal the following results: TSH < 0.05 mu/l, Free T4 24 pmol/l, Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies 102 IU/mL (< 35 IU/mL), and ESR 23 mm/hr. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis
Correct Answer: Graves' disease
Explanation:Based on the presence of thyrotoxic symptoms, goitre, and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies, the likely diagnosis is
Graves’ Disease: Common Features and Unique Signs
Graves’ disease is the most frequent cause of thyrotoxicosis, which is commonly observed in women aged 30-50 years. The condition presents typical features of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. However, Graves’ disease also exhibits specific signs that are not present in other causes of thyrotoxicosis. These include eye signs, such as exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia, as well as pretibial myxoedema and thyroid acropachy. The latter is a triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation.
Autoantibodies are also present in Graves’ disease, including TSH receptor stimulating antibodies in 90% of patients and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 75% of patients. Thyroid scintigraphy can also aid in the diagnosis of Graves’ disease, as it shows diffuse, homogenous, and increased uptake of radioactive iodine.
Overall, Graves’ disease presents with both typical and unique features that distinguish it from other causes of thyrotoxicosis. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus and a history of hypertension, on maximum-dose metformin, was started on gliclazide three weeks ago. Since then she has had recurrent hypoglycaemic events requiring Accident and Emergency (A&E) attendance.
Investigation Result Normal values
HbA1c 72 mmol/mol (8.7%) 20-42 mmol/mol (4.2-6.2%)
Which of the following is the best action to take?
Select the SINGLE action from the list below.Your Answer: Commence insulin
Correct Answer: Stop gliclazide and start sitagliptin
Explanation:Choosing the Right Treatment for Hypoglycaemic Episodes in Type 2 Diabetes
When metformin alone is not enough to control HbA1c in type 2 diabetes, NICE recommends adding a sulfonylurea, pioglitazone, or a DPP-4 inhibitor. However, if the patient experiences hypoglycaemic episodes, it is important to reassess the treatment plan.
Stopping gliclazide, a sulfonylurea, is necessary as it is likely causing the hypoglycaemic episodes. Pioglitazone is contraindicated in patients with heart failure, so a DPP-4 inhibitor like sitagliptin is the appropriate next step.
Initiating insulin is not recommended as it can be dangerous, and should only be considered after other options have failed. Reducing metformin is unlikely to prevent hypoglycaemic episodes as it does not typically cause them on its own.
In summary, choosing the right treatment for hypoglycaemic episodes in type 2 diabetes involves careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and NICE guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 94
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 23-year-old man who has just been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. He works as a software engineer and has no other medical conditions. What should be his initial target for HbA1c?
Your Answer: 42 mmol/mol
Correct Answer: 48 mmol/mol
Explanation:Managing Type 1 Diabetes: NICE Guidelines
The management of type 1 diabetes is a complex process that involves the collaboration of various healthcare professionals. It is crucial to monitor the condition regularly as it can reduce life expectancy by 13 years and lead to micro and macrovascular complications. In 2015, NICE released guidelines on the diagnosis and management of type 1 diabetes, which provide valuable information for clinicians caring for patients with this condition.
One of the key recommendations is to monitor HbA1c levels every 3-6 months, with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower for adults. However, other factors such as daily activities, comorbidities, and history of hypoglycemia should also be considered. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is also essential, with a minimum of four tests per day, including before meals and bedtime. Blood glucose targets should be between 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day.
NICE recommends multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens as the preferred choice for adults with type 1 diabetes, rather than twice-daily mixed insulin regimens. Rapid-acting insulin analogues should be used before meals instead of rapid-acting soluble human or animal insulins. Metformin may also be considered if the patient’s BMI is 25 kg/m² or higher.
In summary, managing type 1 diabetes requires a comprehensive approach that considers various factors. NICE guidelines provide a useful framework for clinicians to ensure optimal care for their patients with type 1 diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after fainting. She is now conscious and able to provide a medical history. The patient mentions having a condition, but cannot recall the name. She shows the doctor the medication she takes, which is a somatostatin analogue.
What medical condition can be treated with somatostatin analogues?Your Answer: Parathyroid adenoma
Correct Answer: Acromegaly
Explanation:Acromegaly is a condition caused by excessive secretion of growth hormone from an anterior pituitary tumor, resulting in enlarged hands, feet, and jaw, as well as other symptoms. While surgery is the preferred treatment, somatostatin analogues such as octreotide and lanreotide can be used if surgery fails. Somatostatin is an inhibitory hormone that can suppress growth hormone release. However, it can also cause side effects such as bradycardia, hypothyroidism, and hypoglycemia. Cushing’s disease, caused by excess adrenocorticotropic hormone, can be treated with pituitary gland removal, radiotherapy, or cortisol-inhibiting medications. Conn syndrome, or primary aldosteronism, is usually treated with surgery. Type I diabetes is treated with insulin, while Type II diabetes is treated with insulin and oral hypoglycemic agents. Parathyroid adenomas are also treated surgically.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 96
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with polyuria, weight loss and tiredness for six months. Full blood count, urea and electrolytes (U&Es), liver function tests, thyroid function test and calcium are all normal. Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is 48 mmol/mol and repeat sample is 50 mmol/mol. On examination, her body mass index is 35 kg/m2, she is normotensive and urinalysis is normal.
Which of the following investigations should be arranged urgently?
Select ONE investigation from the list below.Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) abdomen
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for a Patient with Suspected Type II Diabetes Mellitus
Computed Tomography (CT) Abdomen:
A CT abdomen is recommended for any patient over the age of 60 with weight loss combined with a new onset of diabetes or abdominal or back pain, nausea, vomiting or change in bowel habit. This is because new-onset type II diabetes can be a presenting feature of pancreatic cancer in patients over the age of 60, especially those who have also experienced weight loss.Pancreatic Autoantibodies:
Pancreatic autoantibodies include anti-glutamic acid decarboxylase, insulin autoantibodies and islet-cell antibodies, the presence of which would support a diagnosis of type I diabetes. These tests are usually carried out in secondary care for atypical presentations such as suspected type II diabetes in a child or a non-overweight person.Glucose Tolerance Test:
Glucose tolerance test has a limited role in diagnosing type II diabetes now that HbA1c is an accepted diagnostic investigation. It is still used routinely to investigate pregnant women at risk of gestational diabetes.Short Synacthen Test:
A short synacthen test is used to diagnose adrenal insufficiency. The history and investigation results do not suggest this as a likely diagnosis, so this test would not be indicated.Ultrasound of the Urinary Tract:
Ultrasound is not indicated unless a structural problem is suspected. Although this man is experiencing polyuria, his urinalysis and PSA are both normal, which makes a urological cause for his symptoms less likely than the newly diagnosed diabetes. Diabetes can cause renal impairment, but this should be monitored with annual urine albumin : creatinine measurement and regular U&Es blood test. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner for her annual medication review. Her regular medications are levothyroxine 75 µg, lisinopril 10 mg and she has recently completed a course of ibuprofen tablets. She has been feeling tired and sluggish recently with frequent headaches. Examination reveals she has gained 2 kg since her last review, blood pressure is 142/78 mmHg, pulse is 88 bpm and she has a dry skin. Full blood count, urea and electrolytes and liver function tests are normal. Her thyroid-function test (TFT) results are: Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 6.0 mU/l (0.25–4.0 mU/l) Free T4 10.0 pmol/l (12.0–22.0 pmol/l) What is the most appropriate next step in her management?
Your Answer: Increased dose of levothyroxine
Correct Answer: Reduce levothyroxine dose
Explanation:The patient is experiencing hyperthyroidism due to an excess of levothyroxine replacement. It is important to reduce the dose of levothyroxine and monitor the patient with regular blood tests until they become euthyroid again. Starting carbimazole or increasing the dose of levothyroxine is not recommended as it could lead to further complications. Propylthiouracil is only used in cases of thyrotoxic storm and radio-iodine therapy is not necessary in this case as the hyperthyroidism is due to over-replacement of levothyroxine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A geriatric patient presents to the Emergency Department with a fast, irregular pulse, chest pain, weakness and palpitations. Upon arrival, investigations were carried out, including the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
PaO2 11.9 kPa
pH 7.35 7.40 ± 0.05
PaCO2 27 mmHg
Sodium (Na+) 125 mmol
Potassium (K+) 6.7 mmol
HCO3− 15 mmol
Chloride (Cl−) 107 mmol
Normal anion gap 10–18 mmol/l
With which of the following are the results consistent?Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Correct Answer: Addisonian crisis
Explanation:Causes of Metabolic Acidosis with Normal Anion Gap
Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be caused by various medical conditions. One such condition is an Addisonian crisis, which occurs due to severe adrenal insufficiency. This results in reduced activity of aldosterone, causing sodium loss and potassium retention, leading to hyperkalaemia and metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap.
Burns can also cause hyperkalaemia due to rhabdomyolysis, resulting in a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis. Diabetic ketoacidosis is another condition that presents with hyperkalaemia and metabolic acidosis, but with an increased anion gap due to ketone bodies.
Diarrhoea can cause hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, loss of bicarbonate, and metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. However, excessive thiazide treatment would result in hypokalaemia and not hyperkalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with known type 2 diabetes presents with a 1-week history of polydipsia, feeling generally unwell and drowsy. On examination, he looks very dehydrated and is difficult to rouse. He appears confused when he does talk to you.
Admission bloods show:
Na+ 149 mmol/l
K+ 5.2 mmol/l
Urea 22.1 mmol/l
Creatinine 254 µmol/l
His blood glucose is 36 mmol/L.
What is the most important initial step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Give 10 units of Actrapid (short-acting insulin) immediately
Correct Answer: Rehydrate with 0.9% Saline
Explanation:Complications of the hyperosmolar state, such as rhabdomyolysis, venous thromboembolism, lactic acidosis, hypertriglyceridemia, renal failure, stroke, and cerebral edema, contribute to the mortality of HONK. Identifying precipitants, such as a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes, infection, high-dose steroids, myocardial infarction, vomiting, stroke, thromboembolism, and poor treatment compliance, is crucial.
Supportive care and slow metabolic resolution are the mainstays of HONK management. Patients with HONK often have a fluid deficit of over 8 liters, and caution should be exercised to avoid rapid fluid replacement, which can cause cerebral edema due to rapid osmolar shifts. In this scenario, fluid resuscitation should be the top priority, followed closely by initiating a sliding scale. Some experts recommend waiting for an hour before starting insulin to prevent rapid changes and pontine myelinolysis. However, the fluid alone can lower blood sugar levels, and some argue that administering insulin immediately can cause a precipitous drop in osmolality.
Understanding Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State
Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS) is a medical emergency that can be life-threatening and difficult to manage. It is characterized by severe dehydration, electrolyte deficiencies, and osmotic diuresis resulting from hyperglycaemia. HHS typically affects elderly individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM).
The pathophysiology of HHS involves hyperglycaemia leading to increased serum osmolality, osmotic diuresis, and severe volume depletion. Precipitating factors include intercurrent illness, sedative drugs, and dementia. Clinical features of HHS include polyuria, polydipsia, signs of dehydration, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, altered level of consciousness, and focal neurological deficits.
Diagnosis of HHS is based on the presence of hypovolaemia, marked hyperglycaemia, significantly raised serum osmolarity, no significant hyperketonaemia, and no significant acidosis. Management of HHS involves fluid replacement with IV 0.9% sodium chloride solution, potassium monitoring, and insulin administration only if blood glucose stops falling while giving IV fluids. Patients with HHS are at risk of thrombosis due to hyperviscosity, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis is recommended.
Complications of HHS include vascular complications such as myocardial infarction and stroke. It is important to recognize the clinical features of HHS and manage it promptly to prevent mortality.
Overall, HHS is a serious medical condition that requires urgent attention and management. Understanding its pathophysiology, clinical features, and management is crucial in providing appropriate care to patients with HHS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the diabetes clinic for a follow-up appointment. He was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) approximately 8 years ago and is currently taking gliclazide and atorvastatin. He has a history of bladder cancer, which was successfully treated 2 years ago. The patient recently tried metformin, but discontinued it due to gastrointestinal side-effects. He works as an accountant, does not smoke, and has a BMI of 31 kg/m². His annual blood work reveals the following results:
- Sodium (Na+): 138 mmol/l
- Potassium (K+): 4.1 mmol/l
- Urea: 4.3 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 104 µmol/l
- HbA1c: 62 mmol/mol (7.8%)
What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's diabetes?Your Answer: Add repaglinide
Correct Answer: Add sitagliptin
Explanation:Due to his history of bladder cancer and obesity, pioglitazone is not recommended and contraindicated. Instead, sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, is the most suitable option. Exenatide, which typically leads to weight loss, is beneficial for obese individuals with diabetes, but it does not meet the NICE criteria for body mass index of 35 kg/m².
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 101
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for review, two months after being discharged from hospital. She has hypothyroidism, maintained on 75 µg levothyroxine once a day. Following discharge, she also began taking amlodipine, amitriptyline, ferrous fumarate and ranitidine.
Investigations reveal that her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is 9.1 mU/l (normal range: 0.25–4.0 mU/l), while her free thyroxine (T4) is 8.1 pmol/l (normal range: 12.0–22.0 pmol/l).
She is compliant with her medications and takes them all together in the morning.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s results?
Your Answer: Ranitidine
Correct Answer: Ferrous fumarate
Explanation:Interactions with Levothyroxine: Understanding the Effects of Different Medications
Levothyroxine is a medication used to treat hypothyroidism, a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. However, certain medications can interact with levothyroxine and affect its absorption and effectiveness. Let’s explore the effects of different medications on levothyroxine and how they can impact thyroid function tests.
Ferrous Fumarate: Iron salts can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, leading to inadequate replacement and hypothyroidism. It is recommended to take these medications at least four hours apart to avoid this interaction.
Amitriptyline: While thyroid hormones can enhance the effect of amitriptyline, this medication does not reduce the effect of levothyroxine and would not cause hypothyroidism.
Amlodipine: There is no interaction between amlodipine and levothyroxine, and this medication would not affect thyroid function tests.
Aspirin: Similarly, there is no interaction between aspirin and levothyroxine, and the use of this medication would not impact thyroid function tests.
Ranitidine: While antacids can reduce levothyroxine absorption, ranitidine is an H2 receptor antagonist and not classified as an antacid. Therefore, there is no interaction between ranitidine and levothyroxine.
In conclusion, it is important to be aware of potential interactions between medications and levothyroxine to ensure adequate treatment of hypothyroidism. By understanding the effects of different medications, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions and adjust medication schedules as needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman has recently discovered that she is expecting her second child. During her first pregnancy, she experienced gestational diabetes. However, after giving birth, she was informed that she no longer had diabetes. What is the best course of action for her current pregnancy?
Your Answer: Do oral glucose tolerance test at 16-18 weeks
Correct Answer: Do oral glucose tolerance test as soon as possible after booking
Explanation:The guidelines of NICE have been revised, stating that women who are at risk of gestational diabetes should undergo an oral glucose tolerance test immediately after booking, instead of waiting until 16-18 weeks as previously recommended.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment after undergoing private health screening. The patient has been advised to seek medical attention regarding her thyroid function tests (TFTs).
TSH levels are at 9.2 mU/L and free thyroxine levels are at 14 pmol/L. Despite her age, the patient is currently in good health and shows no symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing her condition?Your Answer: Start levothyroxine
Correct Answer: Repeat TFTs in a few months time
Explanation:According to the guidelines recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, this patient with subclinical hypothyroidism should be monitored at present based on both TSH and age criteria.
Understanding Subclinical Hypothyroidism
Subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is elevated, but the levels of T3 and T4 are normal, and there are no obvious symptoms. However, there is a risk of the condition progressing to overt hypothyroidism, especially in men, with a 2-5% chance per year. This risk is further increased if thyroid autoantibodies are present.
Not all patients with subclinical hypothyroidism require treatment, and guidelines have been produced by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS) to help determine when treatment is necessary. If the TSH level is above 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range, levothyroxine may be offered. If the TSH level is between 5.5 – 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range, a 6-month trial of levothyroxine may be considered if the patient is under 65 years old and experiencing symptoms of hypothyroidism. For older patients, a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used, and asymptomatic patients may simply have their thyroid function monitored every 6 months.
In summary, subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition that requires careful monitoring and consideration of treatment options based on individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 104
Incorrect
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You are performing the yearly evaluation of a 42-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Your objective is to screen for diabetic neuropathy that may affect her feet. What is the most suitable screening test to utilize?
Your Answer: Nerve conduction studies
Correct Answer: Test sensation using a 10 g monofilament
Explanation:To evaluate diabetic neuropathy in the feet, it is recommended to utilize a monofilament weighing 10 grams.
Diabetic foot disease is a significant complication of diabetes mellitus that requires regular screening. In 2015, NICE published guidelines on diabetic foot disease. The disease is caused by two main factors: neuropathy, which results in a loss of protective sensation, and peripheral arterial disease, which increases the risk of macro and microvascular ischaemia. Symptoms of diabetic foot disease include loss of sensation, absent foot pulses, reduced ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI), intermittent claudication, calluses, ulceration, Charcot’s arthropathy, cellulitis, osteomyelitis, and gangrene. All patients with diabetes should be screened for diabetic foot disease at least once a year. Screening for ischaemia involves palpating for both the dorsalis pedis pulse and posterial tibial artery pulse, while screening for neuropathy involves using a 10 g monofilament on various parts of the sole of the foot. NICE recommends that patients be risk-stratified into low, moderate, and high-risk categories based on factors such as deformity, previous ulceration or amputation, renal replacement therapy, neuropathy, and non-critical limb ischaemia. Patients who are moderate or high-risk should be regularly followed up by their local diabetic foot centre.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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