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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following has been shown to improve pruritus and liver function in patients with obstetric cholestasis?
Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid
Explanation:Intrahepatic cholestasis characterized by reversible cholestasis typically occurring in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, elevated serum aminotransferases and bile acid level and resolution of symptoms by 2 to 3 weeks after delivery. Ursodeoxycholic acid has shown to reduce the symptoms of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 2
Correct
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Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Turner's syndrome?
Your Answer: Buccal smear is chromatin positive
Explanation:Turner syndrome patients have high FSH levels and low oestrogen levels. They have a short stature and buccal smear is chromatin negative.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 28-year-old, currently at 26 weeks’ gestation of her third pregnancy, presents with irregular uterine contractions for the past 24 hours and has concerns about premature delivery. She delivered her first child at 38 weeks of gestation and her second at 39 weeks gestation. On examination, BP and urinalysis have come back normal. Her symphysis-fundal height measures 27cm, the uterus is lax and non-tender. Fetal heart rate is 148/min. She also undergoes a pelvic examination along with other investigations. Which findings would suggest that delivery is most likely going to happen before 30 weeks’ of gestation?
Your Answer: The cervix is closed, but the fetal fibronectin test on cervical secretions is positive.
Explanation:Predisposing factors of preterm delivery include a short cervix (or if it shortens earlier than in the third trimester), urinary tract or sexually transmitted infections, open cervical os, and history of a previous premature delivery. Increased uterine size can also contribute to preterm delivery and is seen with cases of polyhydramnios, macrosomia and multiple pregnancies. The shorter the cervical length, the greater the risk of a premature birth.
In this case, the risk of bacterial vaginosis and candidiasis contributing to preterm delivery would be lower than if in the context of an open cervical os. However, the risk of premature delivery is significantly increased if it is found that the fetal fibronectin test is positive, even if the os is closed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Correct
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Regarding the female breast how many lobes does the typical breast contain?
Your Answer: 15-20
Explanation:The basic components of the mammary gland are the alveoli. These are lined with milk-secreting cuboidal cells surrounded by myoepithelial cells. The alveoli join to form groups known as lobules. The lobules form lobes. Each lobe has a lactiferous duct that drains into openings in the nipple. Each breast typically contains 15-20 lobes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old Asian woman with a background history of primary pulmonary hypertension attends your clinic. She is planning for a pregnancy in the next few months and feels well generally. What would be your advice?
Your Answer: Sudden death is a rare complication
Correct Answer: Pregnancy is contraindicated in her condition
Explanation:From the options given, option A is correct as primary pulmonary hypertension is considered a contraindication to pregnancy.
The patient should be educated about the possible risks and increased maternal mortality in such cases. This restriction is due to the fact that symptoms of Pulmonary hypertension gets worse during pregnancy which results in high maternal mortality.
Termination of pregnancy may be advisable in these circumstances mostly to preserve the life of the mother.
Sudden death secondary to hypotension is also a commonly dreaded complication among patients with pulmonary hypertension during pregnancy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A young patient presented with foul smelling greyish vaginal discharge. She also has burning and itching. She is sexually active. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a clinical condition characterized by a shift in vaginal flora away from Lactobacillus species toward more diverse bacterial species, including facultative anaerobes. The altered microbiome causes a rise in vaginal pH and symptoms that range from none to very bothersome. Future health implications of BV include, but are not limited to, increased susceptibility to other sexually transmitted infections and preterm birth. Fifty to 75 percent of women with BV are asymptomatic. Symptomatic women typically present with vaginal discharge and/or vaginal odour. The discharge is off-white, thin, and homogeneous; the odour is an unpleasant fishy smell that may be more noticeable after sexual intercourse and during menses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic for advice as she is 20 weeks pregnant and was found to have thyrotoxicosis with mild enlargement of the thyroid gland. What other investigation will you consider to be done in this patient?
Your Answer: Anti-thyroid antibodies
Correct Answer: Ultrasound thyroid gland
Explanation:A 20 weeks pregnant patient has developed goitre along with thyrotoxicosis, where the diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis has already been established.
Ultrasound of the thyroid and a radioisotope scan to differentiate between “hot” and “cold” nodules are the confirming investigations for goitre. A nodule composed of cells that do not make thyroid hormone and the nodule which produces too much thyroid hormone are respectively called as cold and “hot” nodules.Due to the risk of fetal uptake of the isotope which leads to the damage of fetal thyroid, radioisotope or radionuclide Technetium uptake scan is contraindicated in pregnancy.
Fine needle aspiration cytology is required to establish a histopathological diagnosis in case of all cold nodules.
So ultrasound of the thyroid gland is the mandatory investigation to be done in this case as it will show diffuse enlargement, characteristic of the autoimmune disease, or multinodularity, which is suggestive of autonomous multinodular goitre.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. She plans to conceive in the next few months and asks for advice. Her fasting blood sugar is 10.5 mmol/L and her HbA1c is 9%. Which of the following is considered the best advice to give to the patient?
Your Answer: She can be pregnant anytime she likes
Correct Answer: Achieve HbA1c value less than 7% before she gets pregnant
Explanation:Women with diabetes have increased risk for adverse maternal and neonatal outcomes and similar risks are present for either type 1 or type 2 diabetes. Both forms of diabetes require similar intensity of diabetes care. Preconception planning is very important to avoid unintended pregnancies, and to minimize risk of congenital defects. Haemoglobin A1c goal at conception is <6.5% and during pregnancy is <6.0%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 34 year old patient is being investigated in the infertility clinic and is offered Hysterosalpingography (HSG). She has 28 day cycles. Which of the following statements regarding HSG is correct?
Your Answer: Appropriate 1st line test of tubal potency in patients with past history of pelvic inflammatory disease
Correct Answer: Typically performed using iodine based water soluble contrast
Explanation:Hysterosalpingography is used to assess the patency of the fallopian tubes. It is performed by injection of a radio-opaque iodine based contrast. This test is contraindicated in pelvic inflammatory disease and during pregnancy. Should be performed in Follicular phase of menstrual cycle after cessation of menstrual bleeding and prior to ovulation (days 6-12).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old lady seeks counsel from your clinic since she has a history of deep vein thrombosis. She was on progesterone-only tablets (POP) until fivemonths ago, when she decided to get pregnant. However, the pregnancy turned out to be ectopic. Thankfully, she made it through. She doesn't want to get pregnant again and asks if she may resume taking the tablets. Which of the following is the best piece of advise you could give?
Your Answer: She should take anticoagulants along with combined oral contraceptive pills
Correct Answer: She cannot take progesterone only pills
Explanation:Oestrogen-containing contraceptives are not recommended for this woman since she has a history of DVT. This is most likely why she was started on POP instead of standard combination tablets prior. Progesterone is also contraindicated with a history of ectopic pregnancy and should never be used again. Barrier approaches, for example, could be applied in this woman’s case.
The following are absolute contraindications to taking just progesterone pills:
– Pregnancy
– Breast cancer
– Vaginal bleeding that hasn’t been diagnosed
– Ectopic pregnancy history or a high risk of ectopic pregnancyProgesterone-only pills have the following relative contraindications:
– Active viral hepatitis
– Severe chronic liver disease
– Malabsorption syndrome
– Severe arterial disease
– Successfully treated breast cancer more than 5 years ago
– Concomitant use of hepatic enzyme inducing medications. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Correct
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After 2yearsof marriage, a 36-year-old morbidly obese lady with a BMI of 41has been unable to conceive. Her husband's sperm analysis is normal, and he has no additional abnormalities. The fallopian tube looks to be blocked. What is the best course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Suggest her to lose weight
Explanation:This patient has been unable to conceive for over a year, and her fallopian tubes are blocked. Her body mass index is 42.
Because she has obstructed Fallopian tubes, in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) is an alternative to getting pregnant for this patient.
A woman with a BMI over 35, on the other hand, will need twice as many IVF rounds to conceive as a woman of normal weight.
As a result, the greatest advise for successful IVF would be to decrease weight as the first step in management.
Obese (BMI less than 40) patients’ IVF success chances are reduced by 25% and 50%, respectively. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman at 37 weeks of gestation, who has been fine antenatally, presented with a history of sudden onset of severe abdominal pain with vaginal bleeding, and cessation of contractions after 18 hours of active pushing at home. On examination, she is conscious and pale. Her vital signs include blood pressure of 70/45 mm of Hg and a pulse rate of 115 beats per minute which is weak. Her abdomen is irregularly distended, with both shifting dullness and fluid thrill present. Fetal heart sounds are not audible. What will be the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Uterine rupture
Explanation:Patient’s presentation is classic for uterine rupture, were she developed sudden abdominal pain followed by cessation of contractions, termination of urge to push and vaginal bleeding.
Abdominal examination shows no fetal cardiac activity and signs of fluid collection like fluid thrill and shifting dullness. The fluid collected will be blood, which usually enters the peritoneum after the rupture of the uterus. In such patients vaginal examination will reveal a range of cervical dilatation with evidences of cephalopelvic disproportion.
Anterior lower transverse segment is the most common site for spontaneous uterine rupture. Patient in the case presenting with tachycardia and hypotension is in shock due to blood loss and will require urgent resuscitation.Placenta previa presents with painless bleeding from the vagina and Placental abruption will present with painful vaginal bleeding with tender and tense uterine wall, however, in contrary to that of uterine rupture, uterine contractions will continue in both these cases.
Shoulder dystocia is more likely to present in a prolonged labour with a significant delay in the progress of labour. However, in this case, there is no mention of shoulder dystocia.
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition which is causes due to abnormal and excessive generation of thrombin and fibrin in the circulating blood which results in bleeding from every skin puncture sites. It results in increased platelet aggregation and consumption of coagulation factors which results in bleeding at some sites and thromboembolism at other sites. Placental abruption, or retained products of conception in the uterine cavity are the causes for DIC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Correct
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Regarding lymph drainage of the breast where does the majority of lymph drain to?
Your Answer: Axillary nodes
Explanation:Lymphatic drainage of the breast.
The lateral two thirds of the breast drains into the axillary lymph nodes. This constitute about 75% of the lymphatic drainage of the breast. The medial third of the breast drains into the parasternal lymph nodes and these communicate with the ipsilateral lymph nodes from the opposite breast. The superior part of the breast drains into the infraclavicular lymph nodes and inferior part drains into the diaphragmatic lymph nodes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 29 year old female who is 32 weeks pregnant, has been admitted to hospital with very severe hypertension. This is her second pregnancy. In the United Kingdom, what is the first line of treatment for hypertension whilst pregnant?
Your Answer: Labetalol
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Atenolol is considered teratogenic and has two main risks: fetal bradycardia and neonatal apnoea. ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers are also known to be teratogenic (even though large-scale studies are difficult to conduct during pregnancies).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Correct
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All of the following are characteristic features of normal labour, except:
Your Answer: Moderate bleeding
Explanation:Normal labour is characterized by spontaneous onset, rhythmical uterine contractions along with vertex presentation. Cervical dilatation starts from the 1st stage of labour and intensity of the uterine contractions increases with passing time. Bleeding occurs after the child is expelled and the average loss is about 250-500 ml in a normal vaginal delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to the gynaecological clinic for evaluation of vulval ulcer. A swab was taken revealing the herpes simplex type 2 virus. There is no prior history of such lesions and her partners of the last decade had no history of the infection. She's anxious about how she got the condition and the potential consequences for her and her unborn kid. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?
Your Answer: The risk of neonatal herpes is much higher if there is a recurrence of previous genital herpes near the time of delivery than if a primary infection occurs at the time,
Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic.
Explanation:Despite the fact that this question includes many true-false options, the knowledge examined is particularly essential in the treatment of women who have genital herpes.
It answers many of the questions that such women have regarding the disease, how it spreads, how it may be controlled, and how it affects an unborn or recently born child.
All of these issues must be addressed in a counselling question.
Currently, the most prevalent type of genital herpes is type 1, while in the past, type 2 was more common, as confirmed by serology testing.
Type 2 illness is nearly always contracted through sexual contact, but it can go undetected for years.
Acyclovir can be taken during pregnancy, and there are particular reasons for its usage.
Neonatal herpes is most usually diagnosed when the newborn has no cutaneous lesions, and past genital herpes in the mother is protective against neonatal infection, although not always.
Where the genital infection is the initial sign of the disease rather than a relapse of earlier disease, neonatal herpes is far more frequent.
Many patients and doctors are unaware that, while the original infection might be deadly, it is usually asymptomatic.
This explains how the illness spreads between sexual partners when neither has had any previous symptoms of the disease. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 26-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester was brought to the labour room with complaints of painless vaginal bleeding. On examination, her abdomen was non-tender and os was closed. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Threatened miscarriage
Explanation:Threatened miscarriage is a term used to describe any abnormal vaginal bleeding that occurs in first trimester, sometime associated with abdominal cramps. The cervix remains closed and the pregnancy may continue as normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Correct
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Sensory supply to the clitoris is via branches of which nerve?
Your Answer: Pudendal nerve
Explanation:The pudenal nerves has three branches, namely the inferior rectal, perineal and the dorsal nerve of the clitoris. The perineal nerve has two branches: The superficial perineal nerve gives rise to posterior scrotal or labial (cutaneous) branches, and the deep perineal nerve supplies the muscles of the deep and superficial perineal pouches, the skin of the vestibule, and the mucosa of the inferior most part of the vagina. The inferior rectal nerve communicates with the posterior scrotal or labial and perineal nerves. The dorsal nerve of the penis or clitoris is the primary sensory nerve serving the male or female organ, especially the sensitive glans at the distal end.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Correct
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The uterine vein drains where?
Your Answer: Internal iliac vein
Explanation:The venous drainage of the uterus is via the uterine veins which form a plexus passing below the artery within the base of the broad ligament communicating with the rectal and the vesical venous plexus before draining into the internal iliac veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A pregnant woman who is a heavy smoker, observed some thick white patches on the inside of her mouth. Her oral cavity appears inflamed on examination. Which diagnosis is most likely correct?
Your Answer: Leucoplakia
Correct Answer: Candidiasis
Explanation:During pregnancy, the chances for a woman to develop oral candidiasis double. An aphthous ulcer has a yellowish floor which is surrounded by an erythematous halo while in lichen planus, the lesions do not have the appearance of a thick white mark but are more or less lace-like. The lesions in leucoplakia have raised edges and they appear as bright white patches which are sharply defined and cannot be rubbed out. Smoking may affect the tongue, producing tongue coating. In this case the tongue is just inflamed which is a sign of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25 year-old lady presented with complaints of generalised pruritis during the 3rd trimester of her pregnancy. She was diagnosed as a case of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy. Which one of the following factors carries the greatest risk to the foetus in this disease?
Your Answer: Intrauterine growth restriction
Correct Answer: Perinatal mortality
Explanation:Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy can affect both mother and foetus, however it is more harmful for the foetus. Amongst foetuses, there is an increased risk of perinatal mortality, meconium aspiration, premature delivery and post partum haemorrhage. Exact cause of fetal death cannot be predicted accurately but it is not related to intra uterine growth retardation or placental insufficiency. The liver can be affected in the mother leading to generalized pruritis but no evidence of fetal hepatic dysfunction has been found.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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The most common cause of perinatal death in mono-amniotic twin is:
Your Answer: Twin-twin transfusion syndrome
Correct Answer: Cord entrapment
Explanation:Cord entanglement, a condition unique to MoMo pregnancies, occurs in 42 to 80% of the cases and it has been traditionally related to high perinatal mortality. Umbilical cord entanglement is present in all monoamniotic twins when it is systematically evaluated by ultrasound and colour Doppler. Perinatal mortality in monoamniotic twins is mainly a consequence of conjoined twins, twin reversed arterial perfusion (TRAP), discordant anomaly and spontaneous miscarriage before 20 weeks’ gestation. Expectantly managed monoamniotic twins after 20 weeks have a very good prognosis despite the finding of cord entanglement. The practice of elective very preterm delivery or other interventions to prevent cord accidents in monoamniotic twins should be re-evaluated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Correct
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The main function of the cilia of the fallopian tube is?
Your Answer: Transport the ovum towards the uterus
Explanation:Cilia are small hair line projections in the fallopian tube. Their main function is to transport the egg through he fallopian tube towards the uterus. It is present in many other tubular organs and its function varies accordingly to the organ.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 24
Correct
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A 10 day old infant present with signs of disseminated Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) infection. Her mother had her first episode of HSV three weeks prior to delivery. The infant was treated with antivirals upon clinical suspicion. What is the case fatality rate of infants who develop disseminated HSV despite treatment?
Your Answer: 30%
Explanation:Congenital Herpes Simplex Virus infection may cause high levels of morbidity and mortality in neonates. Risk of infection with HSV 1 and 2 is highest within 6 weeks of delivery and is transferred to the neonate via maternal secretions at birth. Affected babies can present as skin manifestations, CNS infection, or disseminated infection, which carries an 85% risk of mortality if left untreated. Treatment with high dose antivirals such as acyclovir can help decrease the case mortality rate to 30% in cases of disseminated infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Regarding the closure of the ductus arteriosus (DA) after birth which of the following most accurately describes the mechanisms leading to closure of the DA?
Your Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & increased Prostaglandin E2
Correct Answer: Increased arterial pO2, increased bradykinin & decreased Prostaglandin E2
Explanation:Functional closure of the ductus arteriosus is neonates is completed within the first few days after birth. It normally occurs by the 12th postnatal week. It has been suggested that persistent patency of DA results from a failure of the TGF-B induction after birth. Due to increased arterial pO2, constriction of the DA occurs. In addition to this on inflation the bradykinin system is activated with cause the smooth muscles in the DA to constrict. A decrease in the E2 prostaglandin is also an important factor as raised levels have been indicated in keeping the patency of the DA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Embryology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 52-year-old lady comes to your office with vaginal bleeding 7 hours after sexual intercourse. She hasn't had a menstrual period in over a year. A year ago, she had a normal pap smear. She has no other symptoms and appears to be in good condition. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this woman's postcoital bleeding?
Your Answer: Vaginal atrophy
Explanation:Vaginal atrophy (thinning of vaginal tissue): Oestrogen helps to keep this tissue healthy. After menopause, low oestrogen levels can cause your vaginal walls to become thin, dry, and inflamed. That often leads to bleeding after sex.
Vaginal atrophy is the most common cause of post menopausal vaginal bleeding.
With a normal pap smear a year ago, this patient is unlikely to develop cervical cancer.
Cervical ectropions are not common in post-menopausal women.
Endometrial cancer and cervical polyps are possible causes of postcoital bleeding, however, they are not as common as vaginal atrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What percentage of pregnancies will be uncomplicated following a single episode of reduced fetal movements?
Your Answer: 90%
Correct Answer: 70%
Explanation:Reduced fetal movements can be the first indication of possible fetal abnormalities. Movements are first perceived by the mother from about 18-20 weeks gestation, increase in size and frequency until 32 weeks gestation when they plateau at about 31 movements per hour. Investigations for reduced fetal heart rate include auscultation of the fetal heart rate using a handheld doppler device, and a cardiotocograph or ultrasound if the foetus is above 28 weeks gestation. About 70% of women who experience one episode of reduced fetal movement have uncomplicated pregnancies. They are advised to report to a maternal unit if another episode occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 28
Correct
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Which one of the following features best describes the role of prostaglandins?
Your Answer: Are involved in the onset of labour
Explanation:Prostaglandins are involved in the uterine contraction and cervical dilatation during labour. Higher prostaglandin concentrations can also lead to severe menstrual cramps.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman at 39 weeks of gestation in her second pregnancy is admitted in the hospital for severe abdominal pain. She notes that also has been having vaginal bleeding of about one litre and uterine contractions are present. Her previous pregnancy was a vaginal, without any complications. Her current blood pressure is 95/50 mmHg with a pulse rate of 120 beats/min. On physical examination, the uterus is palpable at the level of the xiphisternum and is firm. It is acutely tender to palpation. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard on auscultation or with Doppler assessment. The cervix is 4 cm dilated and fully effaced. Immediate resuscitative measures are taken. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient?
Your Answer: A Caesarean section.
Correct Answer: Amniotomy
Explanation:This patient is presenting with a severe placental abruption causing fetal death and shock in the mother. The most appropriate initial management for the patient is to treat her shock with blood transfusions and exclude or treat any coagulation disorder resulting from the abruption. Delivery also needs to be expedited to remove the dead foetus. An amniotomy is usually all that is required to induce spontaneous labour as the uterus is usually very irritable. Spontaneous labour is likely to occur in this case, where the cervix is already 4 cm dilated and fully effaced.
Caesarean section is rarely needed to be done when the foetus is already dead.
Vaginal prostaglandin and an oxytocin (Syntocin®) infusion are not needed and unlikely to be required.
Ultrasound examination to confirm the diagnosis and fetal death is also unnecessary given the clinical and Doppler findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Regarding gestational diabetes which of the following statements is TRUE?
Your Answer: it occurs in 5-10% of pregnancies
Correct Answer: it occurs in 2-5% of pregnancies
Explanation:Gestational Diabetes occurs in 2-9% of all the pregnancies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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