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  • Question 1 - Choose the cell organelle involved in the synthesis of lipids: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the cell organelle involved in the synthesis of lipids:

      Your Answer: Rough endoplasmic reticulum

      Correct Answer: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

      Explanation:

      The Smooth endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is the major site at which membrane lipids are synthesized in eukaryotic cells. Because they are extremely hydrophobic, lipids are synthesized in association with already existing cellular membranes rather than in the aqueous environment of the cytosol. Although some lipids are synthesized in association with other membranes, most are synthesized in the ER. They are then transported from the ER to their ultimate destinations either in vesicles or by carrier proteins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 19-year-old woman is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). It is her fourth...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). It is her fourth episode in the past two months and she's known to be a type 1 diabetes mellitus patient. The doctors suspects she's non-compliant with her treatment to keep her weight down. She often self-discharges after 24 hours. What is the single most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Have a chat after the ward round about why she thinks her control is so bad

      Explanation:

      In many Western countries and health plans in the United States, patients have a primary care physician who acts as a formal gatekeeper for medical specialist care and thereby determines together with the patient whether or not a patient requires medical specialist care. Ideally in such systems, patients are treated in primary care if possible, and referred to medical specialist care if necessary. For the gatekeeper system to be effective, it is vital that adequate decisions are made about when and who to refer. But it is also important that referred patients comply with the referral by consulting a medical specialist. In this case, the GP should discuss with the patient the reasons why she cannot follow the treatment plan. In other words, the GP should detect why the patient is being non-compliant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 3 - A 52-year-old woman is diagnosed as having acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman is diagnosed as having acute myeloid leukaemia. What is the single most important test in determining her prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytogenetics

      Explanation:

      All of the aforementioned options may be important however cytogenetics, for detecting chromosomal abnormalities, is the single most important test to determine her disease prognosis.

      Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is the acute expansion of the myeloid stem line, which may occur as a primary disease or follow the secondary transformation of a myeloproliferative disorder. It is more common over the age of 45 and is characterized by signs and symptoms largely related to bone marrow failure such as anaemia (pallor, lethargy), frequent infections due to neutropenia (although the total leucocyte count may be very high), thrombocytopaenia (bleeding), ostealgia, and splenomegaly.

      The disease has a poor prognosis if:
      1. Age of the patient >60 years
      2. >20% blasts seen after the first course of chemotherapy
      3. Chromosomal aberration with deletion of part of chromosome 5 or 7.

      Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL) is an aggressive form of AML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 4 - Choose the hormone secreted only by the adrenal medulla: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the hormone secreted only by the adrenal medulla:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline

      Explanation:

      The major endocrine functions of adrenal gland are to produce catecholamines and steroids. Catecholamine, synthesized by the adrenal medulla, is responsible for blood pressure and blood flow regulation whereas steroids produced by the cortex control energy and water homeostasis and immune responses. Glucocorticoids, a major group of adrenal steroids, have a stimulatory effect on catecholamine synthesis in the medulla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 5 - A prescription for Olanzapine is written for a 28 year old lady with...

    Incorrect

    • A prescription for Olanzapine is written for a 28 year old lady with a history of schizophrenia. Which adverse effect is she most likely to experience?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weight gain

      Explanation:

      Weight gain is an extremely common (5-40%) adverse effect of atypical antipsychotics such as olanzapine (dose dependent). Olanzapine causes orthostatic hypotension ≥20% of reported cases. Parkinsonism reactions occurs in 4% of people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
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  • Question 6 - A 22-year-old man is investigated for visual loss and diagnosed with Leber's optic...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old man is investigated for visual loss and diagnosed with Leber's optic atrophy. Given the mitochondrial inheritance of this condition, which one of the following relatives is most likely to be also affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sister

      Explanation:

      The human cell has two type of DNA: Nuclear DNA and Mitochondrial DNA (MtDNA). A MtDNA copy is passed down entirely unchanged, through the maternal line. Males cannot pass their MtDNA to their offspring although they inherit a copy of it from their mother. Mitochondrial inheritance therefore has the following characteristics:
      – Inheritance is only via the maternal line
      – All children of affected males will not inherit the disease
      – All children of affected females will inherit it

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 7 - A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 8 - A 45 year old man, known case of hypothyroidism, presents with a 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old man, known case of hypothyroidism, presents with a 3 month history of pain and stiffness in the joints of his hands and feet. He also complains of dyspnoea occurring for the past 6 weeks. On examination there is a right pleural effusion and swollen hand joints. The clinician makes a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following is most characteristic of a rheumatoid pleural effusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has a low glucose level

      Explanation:

      The typical “rheumatoid effusion” is a sterile exudative fluid with low pH (<7.3), low glucose (<60 mg. dL−1) and elevated lactate dehydrogenase (may be >700 IU). It should initially be treated with NSAIDs. Decortication should be reserved in patients with thickened pleura who have symptomatic dyspnoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 9 - Which of the following statements describe the mechanism of fibrates most accurately? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements describe the mechanism of fibrates most accurately?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased lipoprotein lipase activity via PPAR-alpha

      Explanation:

      The main mechanism of fibrate drugs is activation of gene transcription factors known as PPARs, particularly PPAR-α, which regulate the expression of genes that control lipoprotein metabolism. There are several consequences of PPAR-α activation, which reduce circulating LDL cholesterol and triglycerides and increase HDL cholesterol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old woman is investigated for weight loss and anaemia. Clinical examination reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is investigated for weight loss and anaemia. Clinical examination reveals splenomegaly associated with pale conjunctivae. Her full blood count (FBC) report shows: Hb: 10.9 g/dL, Plts: 702 x 10^9/L, WCC: 56.6 x 10^9/L. Moreover, all stages of granulocyte maturation are seen on her blood film. Given the likely diagnosis, what should be the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Imatinib

      Explanation:

      This patient is a case of chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) and should be started on imatinib as the first-line drug of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 11 - What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism of action of sumatriptan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5-HT1 agonist

      Explanation:

      Triptans are specific 5-HT1 agonists used in the acute treatment of migraine. They are generally used as first-line therapy in combination with an NSAID or paracetamol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old male has recently had a splenectomy following a motorcycle accident. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male has recently had a splenectomy following a motorcycle accident. He is up to date with all vaccinations which were offered as part of his childhood vaccination scheme. It is July. Which of the following vaccinations does he require in the first instance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumococcus, meningococcus type B and C, Haemophilus type B

      Explanation:

      Acquired asplenia or hyposlenia can occur following splenectomy. Hyposplenism is used to describe reduced (‘hypo-‘) splenic functioning and is associated with increased risk of sepsis from polysaccharide encapsulated bacteria. In particular, patients are at risk from Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and meningococcus. The risk is elevated as much as 350–fold.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 13 - A young man presents to the clinic with recurrent episodes of breathlessness. Past...

    Incorrect

    • A young man presents to the clinic with recurrent episodes of breathlessness. Past medical history reveals recurrent episodes of colicky abdominal pain for the past three years. On examination, he has a productive cough with foul smelling sputum. Investigations show: Sputum culture with Heavy growth of Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Haemophilus influenzae. Chest x-ray: Tramline and ring shadows. What is his diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a multisystemic, autosomal recessive disorder that predominantly affects infants, children, and young adults. CF is the most common life-limiting genetic disorder in whites, with an incidence of 1 case per 3200-3300 new-borns in the United States.

      People with CF can have a variety of symptoms, including:
      Very salty-tasting skin
      Persistent coughing, at times with phlegm
      Frequent lung infections including pneumonia or bronchitis
      Wheezing or shortness of breath
      Poor growth or weight gain in spite of a good appetite
      Frequent greasy, bulky stools or difficulty with bowel movements
      Male infertility

      Signs of bronchiectasis include the tubular shadows; tram tracks, or horizontally oriented bronchi; and the signet-ring sign, which is a vertically oriented bronchus with a luminal airway diameter that is 1.5 times the diameter of the adjacent pulmonary arterial branch.

      Bronchiectasis is characterized by parallel, thick, line markings radiating from hila (line tracks) in cylindrical bronchiectasis. Ring shadows represent dilated thick-wall bronchi seen in longitudinal section or on-end or dilated bronchi in varicose bronchiectasis.

      Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the key bacterial agent of cystic fibrosis (CF) lung infections, and the most important pathogen in progressive and severe CF lung disease. This opportunistic pathogen can grow and proliferate in patients, and exposure can occur in hospitals and other healthcare settings.

      Haemophilus influenzae is regularly involved in chronic lung infections and acute exacerbations of CF patients

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 14 - A 36 year old man arrives at the clinic complaining of pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year old man arrives at the clinic complaining of pain and swelling of the left knee, ankles and right hallux. He has acute conjunctivitis, and dysuria. He suffered from an episode of gastroenteritis two weeks back. Clinical examination shows left Achilles tendonitis and right plantar fasciitis. Radiological examination reveals left sacroiliitis, with evidence of enthesitis, joint erosions and periostitis. HLA-B27 is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reiter’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 15 - A homeless woman presented with a cough and fever for the last 3...

    Incorrect

    • A homeless woman presented with a cough and fever for the last 3 months. She also complained of night sweats and weight loss. Her CXR showed lung opacities. What is the next appropriate step for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acid fast bacilli

      Explanation:

      History and CXR are suggestive of tuberculosis. Acid fast bacilli should be seen on microscopy to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 16 - A 77-year-old female who is a known to have COPD and metastatic lung...

    Incorrect

    • A 77-year-old female who is a known to have COPD and metastatic lung cancer is admitted with increasing shortness of breath. Following discussion with her family, it is decided to withdraw active treatment including fluids and antibiotics as the admission likely represents a terminal event. Two days after admission, she becomes agitated and restless. What is the most appropriate management for her agitation and confusion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subcutaneous midazolam

      Explanation:

      Generally, underlying causes of confusion need to be looked for and treated as appropriate, for example, hypercalcaemia, infection, urinary retention, and medication. If specific treatments fail, the following may be tried:

      1. First choice: haloperidol
      2. Other options: chlorpromazine, levomepromazine

      In the terminal phase of the illness, agitation or restlessness is best treated with midazolam.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 17 - A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly,...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-day-old baby presented in NICU with the signs and symptoms of hydrocephaly, seizures and chorioretinitis. Which of the following infectious agents is most probably the cause in a case like this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

      Explanation:

      CMV is a common virus in the herpesvirus family that can cause serious illness in newborns when contracted congenitally from the mother during pregnancy. Congenital CMV infection can lead to various neurological manifestations, including hydrocephaly (enlargement of the fluid-filled spaces within the brain), seizures, and chorioretinitis (inflammation of the retina in the eye). These symptoms can result in significant morbidity and long-term complications for the affected infant.

      Other congenital infections such as toxoplasmosis, rubella, herpes simplex virus (HSV), and syphilis can also cause similar symptoms in newborns. However, given the presentation described, CMV is the most likely infectious agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 18 - Which of the following treatments would you advise for a young, 21 year...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following treatments would you advise for a young, 21 year old student who has ankylosing spondylitis and complains of worsening back pain and morning stiffness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      NSAIDs are considered as the first line of treatment for managing pain and stiffness associated with ankylosing spondylitis. Other useful medications include TNF-alpha inhibitors. Other drugs like paracetamol, colchicine, and steroids are not routinely used. Bilateral total hip replacement might be indicated in advanced disease contrary to complicated spinal surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 19 - A 40 year old man who has a 12 year history of bipolar...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year old man who has a 12 year history of bipolar disorder is placed on Lithium. How often should his Lithium levels be checked once a stable dose has been achieved?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Every 3 months

      Explanation:

      Lithium acts by:
      – I inhibiting postsynaptic D2 receptor super sensitivity
      – Altering cation transport in nerve and muscle cells and influencing reuptake of serotonin or norepinephrine
      – Inhibiting phosphatidylinositol cycle second messenger systems

      The NICE guidelines for depression and bipolar disorder both recommend Lithium as an effective treatment; patients who take lithium should have regular blood tests to monitor the amount of lithium in their blood (every 3 months), and to make sure the lithium has not caused any problems with their kidneys or thyroid (every 6 months).

      Lithium adverse effects include:
      – Leucocytosis (most patients) which is when the white cells are above the normal range in the blood.
      – Polyuria/polydipsia (30-50%)
      – Dry mouth (20-50%)
      – Hand tremor (45% initially, 10% after 1 year of treatment)
      – Confusion (40%)
      – Decreased memory (40%)
      – Headache (40%)
      – Muscle weakness (30% initially, 1% after 1 year of treatment)
      – Electrocardiographic (ECG) changes (20-30%)
      – Nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea (10-30% initially, 1-10% after 1-2 years of treatment)
      – Hyperreflexia (15%)
      – Muscle twitch (15%)
      – Vertigo (15%)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A 50 yr. old male patient was started on amiodarone. Prior to commencement,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 yr. old male patient was started on amiodarone. Prior to commencement, his blood urea and electrolytes were checked. What is the reason for doing this investigation before starting amiodarone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To detect hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Any antiarrhythmic drugs can potentially cause arrhythmias. Before starting amiodarone, any electrolyte imbalance including hypokalaemia, hypomagnesemia, or hypocalcaemia should be corrected to prevent any arrhythmias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0
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  • Question 21 - A patient has been diagnosed with multi-drug resistant tuberculosis and is currently bring...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has been diagnosed with multi-drug resistant tuberculosis and is currently bring treated with rifampicin, isoniazid, and pyrazinamide. He is commenced on streptomycin. Which among the following is the most likely neurological side-effect of streptomycin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vestibular damage

      Explanation:

      Vestibular damage is a neurological side effect of streptomycin.

      Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside bactericidal antibiotic. It is used in the treatment of tularaemia and resistant mycobacterial infections.
      The most common neurological side-effect is vestibular damage leading to vertigo and vomiting.
      Cochlear damage is less frequent and results in deafness.
      Other side-effects include rashes, angioneurotic oedema, and nephrotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 22 - A 64 year old woman who is of Asian descent and is diabetic...

    Incorrect

    • A 64 year old woman who is of Asian descent and is diabetic (controlled by diet) presents with generalized body aches and difficulty rising from sitting for the last few months. Her blood glucose levels are in the normal range. Lab examination reveals normal blood cell count, low serum phosphate, calcium at the lower range, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. Radiological examination shows which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Linear areas of low density

      Explanation:

      Osteomalacia is a condition due to defective mineralization of osteoid. Occurs as a result of Vitamin D deficiency secondary to poor dietary intake and sun exposure, malabsorption e.g., inflammatory bowel disease and gastrointestinal bypass surgery. Radiological findings include reduced bone mineral density (a non specific finding), inability to radiologically distinguish vertebral body trabeculae (the film appears poor quality), looser pseudo fractures, fissures, or narrow radiolucent lines (these are the characteristic findings). Osteolytic or punched out lesions may be seen with multiple myeloma and bony metastases. Areas of sclerosis may be observed with conditions like osteosclerosis and Paget disease. A Brodie abscess is a subacute osteomyelitis, which may persist for years before progressing to a chronic, frank osteomyelitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 23 - A study is developed to compare the calcemia of men and women with...

    Incorrect

    • A study is developed to compare the calcemia of men and women with Crohn's disease. The objective of the study is to detect any differences between the average calcium levels in men compared to women. Previous studies have shown a normal distribution regarding calcium levels. Which of the the following tests would you most likely apply?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Student's unpaired t-test

      Explanation:

      A t test is a type of statistical test that is used to compare the means of two groups. It is one of the most widely used statistical hypothesis tests in pain studies. There are two types of statistical inferences: parametric and nonparametric methods. Parametric methods refer to a statistical technique in which one defines the probability distribution of probability variables and makes inferences about the parameters of the distribution. In cases in which the probability distribution cannot be defined, nonparametric methods are employed. T tests are a type of parametric method; they can be used when the samples satisfy the conditions of normality, equal variance, and independence. In this case the data is parametric, comparing two independent samples from the same population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 24 - Choose the correct statement regarding endothelin: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement regarding endothelin:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endothelin antagonists are useful in primary pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      Current guidelines recommend the use of ambrisentan, Bosentan (recommendation I, level of evidence A) and macitentan (I, B) in patients with PAH and WHO functional class II and III. In WHO functional class IV, the first-line drug is Epoprostenol and the recommendation for Endothelin receptor antagonists is weaker (IIb, C).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 25 - A patient with a history of asthma presents with worsening of her symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a history of asthma presents with worsening of her symptoms and dyspnoea. She recently started taking a new medicine and she feels it might have aggravated her symptoms. Which of the following is likely responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Timolol eye drops

      Explanation:

      β-blockers are the class of drug most often chosen to treat glaucoma, although other medical therapies are available. Systemic absorption of timolol eye drops can cause unsuspected respiratory impairment and exacerbation of asthma. Physicians should be alert to the possibility of respiratory side-effects of topical therapy with β-blockers. Leukotriene antagonists and salbutamol are used in asthma treatment. HRT and ferrous sulphate do not lead to the exacerbation of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 26 - A 60 year old male presents with one month history of generalized headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old male presents with one month history of generalized headache, fever and malaise. He also complains of scalp sensitivity while combing his hair. In order to confirm the diagnosis, which of the following would be the definite test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal artery biopsy

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is a chronic large- and medium-sized vessel vasculitis that typically involves the temporal arteries. Classical symptoms include temporal headaches, jaw claudication, amaurosis fugax. Physical exam shows scalp tenderness, palpation of the temporal area may demonstrate an absent pulse, knot-like swelling, and vision loss. Lab results reveal an increased erythematous sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Management approach: high-dose systemic corticosteroids should be promptly administered even before the diagnosis is established. Temporal artery biopsy confirms the diagnosis. Inability to manage this or administer glucocorticoids might lead to development of blindness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 27 - A 65 yr. old male patient presented with acute severe central chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 yr. old male patient presented with acute severe central chest pain for one hour. His ECG confirmed the diagnosis of acute ST elevation myocardial infarction and he was treated with thrombolysis. Two days later he developed sudden onset breathlessness and became unwell. On examination he had bibasal crepitation and a systolic murmur at the apex which radiated to the axilla. Which of the following is the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ruptured papillary muscle

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause for acute breathlessness is due to papillary muscle rupture which causes mitral regurgitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old male patient who was initially investigated for having an abdominal mass...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male patient who was initially investigated for having an abdominal mass is diagnosed as having Burkitt lymphoma. He is due to start chemotherapy today. Which one of the following should be given prior to his chemotherapy in order to reduce the risk of tumour lysis syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rasburicase

      Explanation:

      Rasburicase should be given prior to chemotherapy in order to reduce the risk of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS). Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin. Allantoin is 5–10 times more soluble than uric acid, hence, renal excretion is more effective.

      TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.

      Burkitt lymphoma is a high-grade B-cell neoplasm. There are two major forms:
      1. Endemic (African) form: typically involves maxilla or mandible.
      2. Sporadic form: abdominal (e.g. ileocaecal) tumours are the most common form. More common in patients with HIV.

      Burkitt lymphoma is associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8;14). The Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is strongly implicated in development of the African form of Burkitt lymphoma and to a lesser extent, the sporadic form.

      Management of the lymphoma is with chemotherapy. This tends to produce a rapid response which may cause TLS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
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  • Question 29 - A 26-year-old woman presents to a reproductive endocrinology clinic with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to a reproductive endocrinology clinic with a history of not being able to conceive after 2 years of using no contraception. Polycystic ovarian syndrome maybe her diagnosis. Which of the following is most likely to be associated with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Elevated LH/FSH ratio

      Explanation:

      In patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), FSH levels are within the reference range or low. Luteinizing hormone (LH) levels are elevated for Tanner stage, sex, and age. The LH-to-FSH ratio is usually greater than 3.

      Women with PCOS have abnormalities in the metabolism of androgens and oestrogen and in the control of androgen production. PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis.
      The major features of PCOS include menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism. Other signs and symptoms of PCOS may include the following:
      – Hirsutism
      – Infertility
      – Obesity and metabolic syndrome
      – Diabetes
      – Obstructive sleep apnoea

      Androgen excess can be tested by measuring total and free testosterone levels or a free androgen index. An elevated free testosterone level is a sensitive indicator of androgen excess. Other androgens, such as dehydroepiandrosterone sulphate (DHEA-S), may be normal or slightly above the normal range in patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). Levels of sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG) are usually low in patients with PCOS.

      Some women with PCOS have insulin resistance and an abnormal lipid profile (cholesterol >200 mg/dL; LDL >160 mg/dL). Approximately one-third of women with PCOS who are overweight have impaired glucose tolerance or type 2 diabetes mellitus by 30 years of age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old male is admitted with vomiting. He has a long history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male is admitted with vomiting. He has a long history of alcohol abuse, appears slightly jaundiced and is dishevelled and unkempt. He was started on an intravenous glucose infusion and diazepam and he symptomatically improved. One day later he becomes confused, develops vomiting, diplopia and is unable to stand. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin B deficiency

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is Wernicke’s encephalopathy. This presents in a long time alcoholic from vitamin BI deficiency. Symptoms include confusion and confabulation, oculomotor symptoms/signs, and ataxia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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