-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean origin presents to the Oncology Clinic under the 2-week-wait pathway. She has been noticing some lumps on her neck that are classified as painless, nontender, asymmetrical lymphadenopathy. She complains of increasing night sweats and has noticed some pain when drinking alcohol.
Given the likely diagnosis, which one of the following features is associated with a poor prognosis?Your Answer: Asymmetrical lymphadenopathy
Correct Answer: Night sweats
Explanation:Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Symptoms and Prognosis Factors
Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphatic system. One of the most common symptoms of this malignancy is painless, non-tender, asymmetrical lymphadenopathy. However, the presence of night sweats, fever, and weight loss can also indicate a diagnosis of Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Patients of Afro-Caribbean origin may have a worse prognosis in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, but not in Hodgkin’s lymphoma. Alcohol-induced pain is a characteristic feature of some cases of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, but it has not been associated with a poor prognosis. Asymmetrical lymphadenopathy is a typical feature of Hodgkin’s lymphoma and has not been linked to a worse prognosis. Finally, while female sex has not been associated with poor prognosis, some studies suggest that male sex could be connected with a poorer outcome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
A 35-year-old female patient presents to the GP clinic seeking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She has a BMI of 25 kg/m2 and a history of migraine without aura. She is a smoker, consuming 20 cigarettes a day, and drinks socially. The patient gave birth to her second child 10 weeks ago and is currently breastfeeding. Her mother had a pulmonary embolism at the age of 60 years. Identify the UKMEC 4 contraindication that would make the COCP unsuitable for her.
Your Answer: 37 years-old and smoking 20 cigarettes a day
Explanation:The use of COCP is absolutely contraindicated for individuals who are over 35 years old and smoke more than 15 cigarettes per day. Migraine without aura is not a contraindication, but migraine with aura is a UKMEC 3 contraindication. A BMI of over 35 kg/m2 and a family history of thromboembolism at age less than 45 years are also UKMEC 3 contraindications, but in this case, the patient’s BMI is 25 kg/m2 and her mother had pulmonary embolism at the age of 60 years, so these are not contraindications. Breastfeeding less than 6 weeks post-partum is a UKMEC 4 contraindication, but since the patient is 10 weeks post-partum, it is a UKMEC 2.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, breast feeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 31-year-old pilot comes in for his yearly physical examination. He has no significant medical history, does not take any regular medication, and reports no concerning symptoms. He maintains a healthy lifestyle and enjoys participating in ultramarathons as a runner.
During the physical examination, an ECG is conducted, which was normal during his last check-up the previous year. What would be the most worrisome ECG characteristic?Your Answer: Left bundle branch block (LBBB)
Explanation:A new left bundle branch block on an ECG is always a sign of pathology and not a normal variant. It indicates a delay in the left half of the conducting system, which can be caused by conditions such as aortic stenosis, cardiomyopathy, or ischaemia. However, other findings on an ECG, such as J-waves, left axis deviation, second-degree heart block (Mobitz I), or a short QT interval, may be normal variants in a healthy individual and not a cause for concern unless accompanied by symptoms of arrhythmias.
Left Bundle Branch Block: Causes and Diagnosis
Left bundle branch block (LBBB) is a cardiac condition that can be diagnosed through an electrocardiogram (ECG). The ECG shows typical features of LBBB, including a ‘W’ in V1 and a ‘M’ in V6. It is important to note that new LBBB is always pathological and can be caused by various factors such as myocardial infarction, hypertension, aortic stenosis, and cardiomyopathy. However, diagnosing a myocardial infarction for patients with existing LBBB can be difficult. In such cases, the Sgarbossa criteria can be used to aid in diagnosis.
Other rare causes of LBBB include idiopathic fibrosis, digoxin toxicity, and hyperkalaemia. It is crucial to identify the underlying cause of LBBB to determine the appropriate treatment plan. Therefore, patients with LBBB should undergo further evaluation and testing to determine the cause of their condition. By identifying the cause of LBBB, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and management to improve the patient’s overall health and well-being.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A new phlebotomist, who has only received one dose of hepatitis B vaccine, accidentally pricks herself with a needle while drawing blood from a patient known to have hepatitis B. What steps should she take to reduce her risk of contracting the virus?
Your Answer: Give an accelerated course of the hepatitis B vaccine + hepatitis B immune globulin
Explanation:Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Infectious Diseases
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to an infectious disease. The type of PEP given depends on the specific disease and the circumstances of the exposure. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin (HNIG) or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, if the source is HBsAg positive, a booster dose of the HBV vaccine should be given to known responders. Non-responders require hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) and a booster vaccine. If the source is unknown, known responders may receive a booster dose of the HBV vaccine, while known non-responders require HBIG and a vaccine. Those in the process of being vaccinated should have an accelerated course of the HBV vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, the risk of transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. Low-risk incidents such as human bites generally do not require PEP. However, for high-risk incidents, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. It is important to note that the risk of transmission varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old, atopic, healthcare worker presents with red wheals and itchy hands within 20 minutes of wearing latex gloves.
Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation to perform to establish a diagnosis?Your Answer: Skin-patch testing
Correct Answer: Radioallergosorbent test (RAST)
Explanation:Diagnosis of Latex Allergy: Tests and Considerations
Latex allergy is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction that is IgE-mediated. The diagnosis of latex allergy involves various tests and considerations. The first choice test for results on latex-specific IgE is the Radioallergosorbent test (RAST). Skin-prick testing with latex extracts is sensitive, specific, and rapid, but carries the risk of anaphylaxis. Skin-patch testing is useful in identifying specific allergens in patients with type IV hypersensitivity to latex products. A gluten exclusion diet would not be the most appropriate investigation if latex allergy were suspected. Complement-mediated and immune complex reactions typically produce vascular damage, so bullae and petechiae would predominate in the skin. In summary, the diagnosis of latex allergy requires careful consideration of the type of hypersensitivity reaction and appropriate testing.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 6-week-old infant is brought to the GP clinic by her mother for a check-up. The mother is concerned about her daughter's occasional fever and wants to have her checked. The baby appears active and healthy, breathing comfortably with a central capillary refill of less than 2 seconds. She has no rashes and is of normal color.
The following observations and growth measurements are recorded:
- Heart rate: 140 beats per minute (normal range: 115-180)
- Oxygen saturation: 99% on room air
- Respiratory rate: 42 breaths per minute (normal range: 25-60)
- Temperature: 38.7ºC
- Weight: 75th percentile
- Height: 50th percentile
- Head circumference: 75th percentile
What would be the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Refer to the paediatric emergency department
Explanation:If an infant is under 3 months old and has a fever over 38ºC, it is crucial to consider the possibility of a serious infection. In this case, it is not appropriate to assess the infant in a GP clinic. Instead, they should be immediately referred to a paediatric emergency department for monitoring and potential investigations, such as urine, chest X-ray, blood cultures, or lumbar puncture, depending on the progression of symptoms. Keeping the infant in the GP clinic for observations is not recommended, as they may deteriorate rapidly and become difficult to manage in that setting. Reassurance and review are usually appropriate for a febrile infant with an obvious infective focus, but not for an infant under 3 months old with no apparent focus of infection. Similarly, an urgent referral to an outpatient paediatrician is not appropriate, as it may take too long to organise and may not be able to manage sudden deterioration.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer.
The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 67-year-old man with worsening dyspnea is suspected to have idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. What is the preferred diagnostic test to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: High-resolution CT scan
Explanation:Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.
The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.
Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.
The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor after coming back from a weekend getaway. She explains that she left her combined oral contraceptive pills behind, resulting in her missing the pill for the past 2 days. She has not engaged in any sexual activity during this period and is currently in the third week of her pill pack.
What would be the most appropriate guidance to provide?Your Answer: Take an active pill and omit the upcoming pill-free interval
Explanation:If two combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) are missed in week three, the woman should finish the remaining pills in the current pack and immediately start a new pack without taking the pill-free interval. It is important to note that contraceptive protection may be reduced during this time. Seeking emergency contraception is not necessary if there has been no unprotected sexual intercourse during the period of missed pills. Simply taking an active pill and continuing with the upcoming pill-free interval is not sufficient as the woman has likely lost contraceptive protection during the missed pill days. Taking an active pill as soon as possible without exercising caution is also not recommended as the woman may have reduced contraceptive protection.
Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.
However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.
If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 50-year-old female comes to the doctor's office complaining of progressive paraesthesia in her fingers, toes, and peri-oral area for the past two weeks. She also experiences muscle cramps and spasms. The patient had a thyroidectomy for Graves' disease recently but has no other health issues or drug allergies. What can be expected from this patient's ECG results, considering the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Isolated QTc elongation
Explanation:Following thyroid surgery, a patient is experiencing paraesthesia, cramps, and spasms, which are likely due to hypocalcemia resulting from damage to the parathyroid glands. The most common ECG change associated with this condition is isolated QTc elongation, while dysrhythmias are rare. Alternating QRS amplitude is not associated with this condition and is instead linked to pericardial effusion. Isolated QTc shortening is also incorrect as it is typically associated with hypercalcemia, which can be caused by hyperparathyroidism and malignancy. The combination of T wave inversion, QTc prolongation, and visible U waves is associated with hypokalemia, which can be caused by vomiting, thiazide use, and Cushing’s syndrome. Similarly, the combination of tall, peaked T waves, QTc shortening, and ST-segment depression is associated with hyperkalemia, which can be caused by Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, acute kidney injury, and potassium-sparing diuretics.
Complications of Thyroid Surgery: An Overview
Thyroid surgery is a common procedure that involves the removal of all or part of the thyroid gland. While the surgery is generally safe, there are potential complications that can arise. These complications can be anatomical, such as damage to the recurrent laryngeal nerve, which can result in voice changes or difficulty swallowing. Bleeding is another potential complication, which can be particularly dangerous in the confined space of the neck and can lead to respiratory problems due to swelling. Additionally, damage to the parathyroid glands, which are located near the thyroid, can result in hypocalcaemia, a condition in which the body has low levels of calcium. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential complications and to discuss them with their healthcare provider before undergoing thyroid surgery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 68-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of urinary frequency and dysuria that has been present for 2 days. Upon urine dip, she tests positive for blood, leucocytes, nitrites, and protein. Her medical history includes rheumatoid arthritis treated with methotrexate and hypertension treated with ramipril. She has no known allergies. The patient is worried because she has been cautioned about an antibiotic that she should avoid due to her current medications.
What medication has she been warned about from the list provided?Your Answer: Trimethoprim
Explanation:Understanding Trimethoprim: Mechanism of Action, Adverse Effects, and Use in Pregnancy
Trimethoprim is an antibiotic that is commonly used to treat urinary tract infections. Its mechanism of action involves interfering with DNA synthesis by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase. This can potentially interact with methotrexate, which also inhibits dihydrofolate reductase. However, the use of trimethoprim can also lead to adverse effects such as myelosuppression and a transient rise in creatinine. The drug can competitively inhibit the tubular secretion of creatinine, resulting in a temporary increase that reverses upon stopping the drug. Additionally, trimethoprim can block the ENaC channel in the distal nephron, causing a hyperkalaemic distal RTA (type 4). It can also inhibit creatinine secretion, often leading to an increase in creatinine by around 40 points, but not necessarily causing AKI.
When it comes to the use of trimethoprim in pregnancy, caution is advised. The British National Formulary (BNF) warns of a teratogenic risk in the first trimester due to its folate antagonist properties. As such, manufacturers advise avoiding the use of trimethoprim during pregnancy. It is important to understand the potential risks and benefits of using this antibiotic and to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 27-year-old female patient presents to her doctor seeking guidance on pregnancy and the postpartum period. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications thus far. The patient has a history of HIV and is currently taking antiretroviral medication. She has expressed a desire to breastfeed her baby once it is born.
What recommendations should be given to this patient?Your Answer: She should not breastfeed
Explanation:In the UK, it is recommended that all women who are HIV-positive should not breastfeed their babies. This advice remains the same even if the mother’s viral load is undetectable. The decision should not be left to the HIV consultant as the national guidelines are clear on this matter. Although breastfeeding may reduce the risk of transmission if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml, there is still a risk involved. Therefore, the advice remains not to breastfeed. Continuing with antiretroviral therapy is expected regardless of the decision not to breastfeed as it significantly reduces the risk of vertical transmission during pregnancy. Babies born to HIV-positive mothers are given antiretroviral therapy, either zidovudine alone if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml or triple-therapy if it is higher. However, this does not change the advice to avoid breastfeeding.
HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission
With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In fact, in London alone, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The primary goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus, and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.
To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Firstly, all pregnant women should be offered HIV screening, according to NICE guidelines. Additionally, antiretroviral therapy should be offered to all pregnant women, regardless of whether they were taking it previously. This therapy has been shown to significantly reduce vertical transmission rates, which can range from 25-30% to just 2%.
The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. If the viral load is higher, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before the procedure. Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also typically administered to the newborn, with zidovudine being the preferred medication if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. If the viral load is higher, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.
Finally, infant feeding is an important consideration. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed, as this can increase the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help to minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and child.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
The physician is analyzing the routine blood test results for a 65-year-old woman who has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and giant cell arteritis. The following are some of the findings:
- Hemoglobin (Hb) level of 133 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L; males: 135-180 g/L)
- Mean cell volume (MCV) of 88 fl (normal range: 82-100 fl)
- Platelet count of 390 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
- White blood cell (WBC) count of 10.7 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)
- Neutrophil count of 8.4 * 109/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0 * 109/L)
- Lymphocyte count of 1.4 * 109/L (normal range: 1.0-3.0 * 109/L)
What could be the possible cause of these abnormal results?Your Answer: Exenatide
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:The slightly high neutrophil count of 8.4 could be attributed to the use of prednisolone, a corticosteroid commonly used in the treatment of giant cell arteritis. This medication is known to induce neutrophilia. On the other hand, amlodipine, an antihypertensive drug, is not associated with neutrophilia but may cause leucopenia as a rare side effect. Dapagliflozin, a medication used in managing type 2 diabetes mellitus, does not affect white cell count, but it may cause frequent urinary tract infections, dizziness, and rash. Similarly, exenatide, a subcutaneous injection used in managing type 2 diabetes mellitus, is not known to cause changes in white cell count, but it may cause nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
Understanding Corticosteroids and Their Side-Effects
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed therapies used to replace or augment the natural activity of endogenous steroids. They can be administered systemically or locally, depending on the condition being treated. However, the usage of corticosteroids is limited due to their numerous side-effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic therapy.
Glucocorticoid side-effects include impaired glucose regulation, increased appetite and weight gain, hirsutism, hyperlipidaemia, Cushing’s syndrome, moon face, buffalo hump, striae, osteoporosis, proximal myopathy, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, immunosuppression, increased susceptibility to severe infection, reactivation of tuberculosis, insomnia, mania, depression, psychosis, peptic ulceration, acute pancreatitis, glaucoma, cataracts, suppression of growth in children, intracranial hypertension, and neutrophilia.
On the other hand, mineralocorticoid side-effects include fluid retention and hypertension. It is important to note that patients on long-term steroids should have their doses doubled during intercurrent illness. Longer-term systemic corticosteroids suppress the natural production of endogenous steroids, so they should not be withdrawn abruptly as this may precipitate an Addisonian crisis. The British National Formulary suggests gradual withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids if patients have received more than 40mg prednisolone daily for more than one week, received more than three weeks of treatment, or recently received repeated courses.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 54-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of blurring of vision and headache. He does not complain of any pain when touching the scalp or any pain when eating and chewing food.
Past medical history includes hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
On further history taking, he tells you that he has a family history of brain cancer and he is afraid that this could be relevant to his symptoms.
On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, you could see some arterioles narrower than others. You also see venules being compressed by arterioles. There are also some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages, as well as some cotton-wool spots. There is no optic disc swelling.
His vital observations are as follows:
Heart rate 80 bpm
Blood pressure 221/119 mmHg
Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
Respiratory rate 14 per minute
Temperature 37 °C
According to the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification of hypertensive retinopathy, what grade of hypertensive retinopathy is this?Your Answer: Grade 3
Explanation:Stages of Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes of people with diabetes. It is important to detect and treat it early to prevent vision loss. There are different stages of diabetic retinopathy, each with its own set of features.
Grade 1 is characterized by arteriolar narrowing. Grade 2 includes features of grade 1 and arteriovenous nipping. Grade 3 includes features of grade 2 and microaneurysms, dot-and-blot haemorrhages, flame-shaped haemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and hard exudates. Grade 4 includes features of grade 3 and optic disc swelling.
It is important to have regular eye exams if you have diabetes to detect any signs of diabetic retinopathy early. With proper management and treatment, vision loss can be prevented or delayed.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 16-year-old boy with Marfan syndrome is seen in the Cardiology Clinic. He has been researching possible complications of his condition online and is worried about potential cardiac issues.
Which of the following cardiac abnormalities is most probable in this patient?Your Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:Cardiac Abnormalities Associated with Marfan Syndrome
Marfan syndrome is commonly associated with cardiac abnormalities, with aortic root dilatation being the most prevalent, found in approximately 80% of cases. This can lead to aortic regurgitation and even dissection. While there is some evidence of a slight increase in atrial septal defects in Marfan syndrome patients, it is not as common as aortic regurgitation or mitral valve prolapse. Dilated cardiomyopathy can also present in Marfan syndrome patients, although it is not as prevalent as aortic root dilatation or regurgitation. Pulmonary regurgitation is also increased in incidence in Marfan syndrome, but it is still less common than aortic regurgitation. Finally, while persistent ductus arteriosus is more commonly found in Marfan syndrome patients than in the general population, the association is relatively weak. Overall, Marfan syndrome patients should be monitored closely for these cardiac abnormalities to ensure proper management and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 7-week old male infant is presented to the GP clinic by his mother for a regular examination. During auscultation of the baby's heart, you detect a harsh ejection systolic murmur that is most audible at the second intercostal space on the right parasternal area and extends to the neck. Additionally, you observe that the baby has a small upturned nose, a long philtrum, a small chin, and swollen eyes. What is the probable syndrome that this baby is suffering from?
Your Answer: Down's syndrome
Correct Answer: William's syndrome
Explanation:Aortic stenosis is commonly seen in individuals with William’s syndrome, which is characterized by distinct facial features such as a small upturned nose, long philtrum, wide mouth, full lips, small chin, and puffiness around the eyes. On the other hand, Down’s syndrome is typically associated with atrioventricular septal defects, while Klinefelter syndrome is linked to hypogonadism. Angelman syndrome, on the other hand, is not commonly associated with aortic stenosis.
Aortic Stenosis in Children: Causes and Management
Aortic stenosis is a type of congenital heart disease that affects 5% of children. It can be associated with other conditions such as William’s syndrome, coarctation of the aorta, and Turner’s syndrome. The aim of management is to delay or avoid valve replacement if possible. However, if the gradient across the valve is greater than 60 mmHg, balloon valvotomy may be necessary. It is important to monitor and manage aortic stenosis in children to prevent complications and ensure optimal health outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 25-year-old man presents with facial and ankle swelling that has been gradually developing over the past week. He reports passing 'frothy' urine during the review of systems. A urine dipstick reveals protein +++ and a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome is confirmed after a 24-hour urine sample. What is the probable cause of this presentation?
Your Answer: Minimal change disease
Explanation:Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, around 10-20% have a known cause, such as certain drugs, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and reduced electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin. The disease is characterized by nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, with only intermediate-sized proteins such as albumin and transferrin leaking through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, but electron microscopy reveals fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.
Management of minimal change disease typically involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Approximately one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a 3-day history of acute left-sided abdominal pain, diarrhoea and fever. She has a history of chronic constipation. On examination she is tachycardic and there is localised peritonism in the left iliac fossa.
What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?
Your Answer: Admit to hospital under the surgical team for investigation and management
Explanation:Differentiating Appropriate Management Strategies for Diverticulitis: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals
Diverticulitis is a common condition that can lead to serious complications if not managed appropriately. As a healthcare professional, it is important to understand the different management strategies available and when they are appropriate. Here are some scenarios and the recommended management strategies:
1. Admit to hospital under the surgical team for investigation and management: This is the recommended management strategy for a patient with peritonitis secondary to diverticulitis. The surgical team may choose to use imaging investigations first or proceed straight to surgery for operative management.
2. Admit to hospital for urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) enterography: MRI enterography is not usually used in diverticular disease. A CT scan would be quicker and would provide the required information needed to evaluate whether or not the patient needs emergency surgery.
3. Analgesia and fluids and review in 24 hours: This management strategy is not appropriate for a patient with severe diverticulitis and peritonism. Urgent intravenous antibiotics and fluid management in the hospital are needed.
4. Arrange a stool sample and commence antibiotics in the community: A stool sample is unlikely to provide any additional information in this scenario. Urgent admission to the hospital for further management is needed.
5. Admit to hospital for urgent colonoscopy: Performing a colonoscopy on an inflamed bowel would be inappropriate since the risk of perforation would be high. A colonoscopy is sometimes used to evaluate the patient after the diverticulitis is present, to exclude other intramural pathology.
In conclusion, appropriate management strategies for diverticulitis depend on the severity of the condition and the presence of complications. Healthcare professionals should be aware of the different options available and choose the most appropriate one for each patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 75-year-old male has two episodes of weakness affecting the right arm and leg each lasting ten minutes, both within the space of 2 days. He did not attend the emergency department after the first episode. His only significant past medical history is hypertension, for which he takes amlodipine 5mg OD. He has experienced one similar episode to this one year ago, but did not seek medical attention. His son is present who informs you that the patient has lost a significant amount of weight in the last year. On further questioning, he reports some haemoptysis lately. His blood pressure in the department was 170/90 mmHg initially.
His bloods reveal:
Hb 115 g/l
Platelets 149 * 109/l
WBC 13.1 * 109/l
Na+ 132 mmol/l
K+ 5.3 mmol/l
Creatinine 111 µmol/l
CRP 15 mg/l
ECG: Sinus tachycardia, rate 104/min
What is the most appropriate management for this gentleman?Your Answer: Admit for CT head + aspirin
Explanation:This question assesses the candidate’s understanding of TIA risk stratification. The individual meets the criteria for crescendo TIAs, having experienced two TIAs within a week. This necessitates prompt evaluation and imaging. Admission is recommended for any patient with a score of more than 4 on the ABCD2 scale or crescendo TIA.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, and sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax).
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy with aspirin 300 mg unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis, specialist review is necessary. Urgent assessment is required within 24 hours for patients who have had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment is necessary as soon as possible within 7 days for patients who have had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. Neuroimaging and carotid imaging are recommended, and antithrombotic therapy is necessary. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A 24-year-old man with a history of recurrent otitis media, two bouts of pneumonia, and a recent Giardia infection suffered a severe allergic reaction to a blood transfusion after a road traffic accident. His investigations showed slightly decreased immunoglobulins, a mild obstructive pattern on spirometry, and normal values for haemoglobin, white cell count, and platelets. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Immunoglobulin A (IgA) deficiency
Explanation:Understanding Immunoglobulin Deficiencies and Their Symptoms
Immunoglobulin deficiencies are a group of disorders that affect the body’s ability to produce specific types of antibodies, leading to an increased risk of infections and autoimmune diseases. Here, we will discuss the different types of immunoglobulin deficiencies and their associated symptoms.
IgA Deficiency:
This deficiency is characterized by a decrease in immunoglobulin A, which can lead to an increased incidence of mucosal infections, particularly gastrointestinal infections with Giardia. Patients may also experience recurrent ear infections, sinusitis, bronchitis, pneumonia, and urinary tract infections. Additionally, IgA deficiency increases the risk of autoimmune diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus.IgE Deficiency:
IgE is responsible for fighting parasitic and helminthic infections, so patients with IgE deficiency are more likely to develop these types of infections. They are also at an increased risk of autoimmune disease and non-allergic reactive airways disease.IgG Deficiency:
Patients with IgG deficiency are prone to developing infections from encapsulated bacteria, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Neisseria meningitidis. This deficiency can lead to upper and lower respiratory tract infections and meningitis.IgM Deficiency:
Primary selective IgM deficiency results in increased infections by bacteria, fungi, and viruses, as well as increased autoimmune diseases. However, this deficiency does not have the selectivity for mucosal membrane infections seen in IgA deficiency.Severe Combined Immunoglobulin Deficiency (SCID):
SCID is a rare disorder that results from abnormal T- and B-cell development due to inherited genetic mutations. Patients with SCID are affected early in life with multiple severe bacterial, viral, and fungal infections, as well as failure to thrive, interstitial lung disease, and chronic diarrhea.In conclusion, understanding the different types of immunoglobulin deficiencies and their associated symptoms is crucial for prompt recognition and treatment of opportunistic bacterial infections and autoimmune diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
A 28-year-old female patient visits her GP for a routine check-up after her initial cervical smear. She has no medical history, no family history of gynaecological cancers, and no known allergies to medications. She is currently taking the progesterone-only pill. The results of her smear test indicate:
Positive for HPV
Low-grade dyskaryosis cytology
What is the next course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Colposcopy referral
Explanation:If a patient’s cervical cancer screening shows a positive result for high-risk HPV (hrHPV) and cytological abnormalities, they should be referred for a colposcopy. This is because HPV increases the risk of developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and abnormal cytology indicates the need for further investigation. If the sample is inadequate, a repeat test should be offered in 3 months. However, there is no situation in which a patient is asked to return for a repeat test in 6 months. If the patient is hrHPV negative, they would be returned to normal recall as the NHS now follows an HPV first system. If the patient is hrHPV positive but has normal cytology, they would be invited for a repeat test in 12 months to assess for resolution of HPV or for further increased surveillance before considering a colposcopy. It would be inappropriate to reassure the patient and return them to normal recall if they are hrHPV positive and have dyskaryosis.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
A 55-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic for review. She has a past medical history of depression and gout. The patient was initiated on lisinopril for hypertension two months ago, with gradual titration of the dose and monitoring of her urea and electrolytes. During today's visit, she reports a dry cough that has been progressively worsening over the past four weeks. The cough is described as really annoying and is causing sleep disturbance. The patient is a non-smoker, and a chest x-ray performed six weeks ago during an Emergency Department visit was normal. What is the most appropriate course of action regarding her antihypertensive medications?
Your Answer: Switch her to an angiotensin II receptor blocker
Explanation:A dry cough is a common side effect experienced by patients who begin taking an ACE inhibitor. However, in this case, the patient has been suffering from this symptom for four weeks and it is affecting her sleep. Therefore, it is advisable to switch her to an angiotensin II receptor blocker.
Angiotensin II receptor blockers are a type of medication that is commonly used when patients cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors due to the development of a cough. Examples of these blockers include candesartan, losartan, and irbesartan. However, caution should be exercised when using them in patients with renovascular disease. Side-effects may include hypotension and hyperkalaemia.
The mechanism of action for angiotensin II receptor blockers is to block the effects of angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor. These blockers have been shown to reduce the progression of renal disease in patients with diabetic nephropathy. Additionally, there is evidence to suggest that losartan can reduce the mortality rates associated with CVA and IHD in hypertensive patients.
Overall, angiotensin II receptor blockers are a viable alternative to ACE inhibitors for patients who cannot tolerate the latter. They have a proven track record of reducing the progression of renal disease and improving mortality rates in hypertensive patients. However, as with any medication, caution should be exercised when using them in patients with certain medical conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
A 67-year-old female presents to rheumatology out-patients referred by her GP due to a history of arthritis in both hands. What x-ray finding would indicate a higher likelihood of rheumatoid arthritis compared to other potential causes?
Your Answer: Juxta-articular osteoporosis
Explanation:Early x-ray signs of rheumatoid arthritis include juxta-articular osteoporosis/osteopenia, which distinguishes it from osteoarthritis. Both RA and osteoarthritis may exhibit joint space reduction.
X-Ray Changes in Rheumatoid Arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and swelling. X-ray imaging is often used to diagnose and monitor the progression of the disease. Early x-ray findings in rheumatoid arthritis include a loss of joint space, juxta-articular osteoporosis, and soft-tissue swelling. These changes indicate that the joint is being damaged and that the bones are losing density.
As the disease progresses, late x-ray findings may include periarticular erosions and subluxation. Periarticular erosions are areas of bone loss around the joint, while subluxation refers to the partial dislocation of the joint. These changes can lead to deformities and functional impairment.
It is important to note that x-ray findings may not always correlate with the severity of symptoms in rheumatoid arthritis. Some patients may have significant joint damage on x-ray but experience minimal pain, while others may have severe pain despite minimal x-ray changes. Therefore, x-ray imaging should be used in conjunction with other clinical assessments to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
A 59-year-old man with type 2 diabetes visits his GP for a check-up. He has discontinued his modified-release metformin due to experiencing nausea and diarrhoea. Lately, he has been feeling increasingly fatigued and thirsty. His blood pressure measures 150/110 mmHg and he reports no issues with his eyesight. Laboratory tests reveal an HbA1c level of 56 mmol/mol. The QRISK score is calculated and shows 23%. He is a non-smoker and non-alcoholic.
What would be the most suitable course of action for his management?Your Answer: Offer dapagliflozin
Explanation:Gliclazide is not the preferred initial treatment for type 2 diabetes. Due to the patient’s inability to tolerate metformin and a QRISK score of >10, there is now a higher likelihood of cardiovascular disease.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
You are seeing a 65-year-old patient in the outpatient clinic who complains of weight loss and a painless, growing penile sore that has been present for more than two months. The patient has a history of genital warts. What tests would be suitable for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Immunoassay for Human Immunodeficiency Virus
Explanation:Penile cancer is strongly linked to sexually transmitted diseases, including HIV infection. Therefore, it would be advisable to conduct an HIV test in cases where penile cancer is suspected. Liver function tests may not be as relevant as an HIV test since penile cancer is unlikely to spread to the liver. Instead, it can spread locally to lymph nodes, bones, and even the brain. Herpes is not a likely cause of penile cancer as it typically causes painful lesions that disappear within a week. Chancroid, caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, can cause painful lesions, while syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, can cause a painless ulcer known as a chancre. However, a chancre would not cause weight loss, and the lesion typically resolves within six to eight weeks, even without treatment.
Understanding Penile Cancer: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Penile cancer is a rare type of cancer that is typically characterized by squamous cell carcinoma. It is a condition that affects the penis and can cause a variety of symptoms, including penile lump and ulceration. There are several risk factors associated with penile cancer, including human immunodeficiency virus infection, human papillomavirus virus infection, genital warts, poor hygiene, phimosis, paraphimosis, balanitis, and age over 50.
When it comes to treating penile cancer, there are several options available, including radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and surgery. The prognosis for penile cancer can vary depending on the stage of the cancer and the treatment options chosen. However, the overall survival rate for penile cancer is approximately 50% at 5 years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man presents to the General Practice with a 4-week history of pain in his left hand and forearm. The pain is concentrated around the thumb and index finger and is worse at night. There is no history of trauma. Shaking his hand seems to provide some relief. The likely diagnosis conclusion is carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS).
Which of the following would suggest an alternative diagnosis?Your Answer: Weakness of thumb abduction
Correct Answer: Wasting of the hypothenar eminence
Explanation:Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Symptoms and Examination Findings
Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a condition caused by compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. One of the symptoms of CTS is the wasting of the thenar eminence, which is innervated by the median nerve. It is important to note that the hypothenar eminence, which is innervated by the ulnar nerve, is not affected by CTS.
During examination, weakness of thumb abduction (abductor pollicis brevis) is a common finding in CTS. Tapping along the problematic nerve causes paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist also causes symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.
Treatment for CTS may include a corticosteroid injection, wrist splints at night, and surgical decompression through flexor retinaculum division.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and examination findings of CTS can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A 35-year-old patient is admitted with vomiting and abdominal pain. He was noted to have marked buccal pigmentation.
On examination, he is dehydrated. His pulse is 95 beats per minute, while his blood pressure (BP) is 100/70 mmHg.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal values
Glucose 3.5 mmol/l 3.9–7.1 mmol/l
Sodium (Na+) 130 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 7.8 mmol/l 2.5–7.1 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 95 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Addison’s disease
Explanation:Endocrine Disorders: Addison’s Disease, Cushing Syndrome, and Conn Syndrome
Addison’s Disease:
Addison’s disease, or primary hypoadrenalism, is a condition characterized by chronic adrenal insufficiency. It is most commonly caused by autoimmune destruction of the adrenals in the UK, while tuberculosis is the most common cause worldwide. Other causes include long-term exogenous steroid use, cancer, or hemorrhage damage. Symptoms develop gradually, but patients can present in Addisonian crisis if there is a sudden deterioration in adrenal function or a physiological stress that the residual adrenal function cannot cope with. Treatment is with long-term replacement of corticosteroids and aldosterone.Cushing Syndrome:
Cushing syndrome is a result of excess corticosteroid. It can be caused by exogenous steroids, primary hyperadrenalism, or secondary hyperadrenalism. Signs and symptoms include weight gain with moon facies and buffalo hump, hypertension, hyperglycemia, mood changes, hirsutism, baldness, and sleep disturbance.Conn Syndrome:
Conn syndrome, also known as primary hyperaldosteronism, is caused most commonly by adrenal hyperplasia or adenomas. It results in excess aldosterone release, causing difficult-to-treat hypertension, hypernatremia, and hypokalemia.Other Disorders:
Hypoglycemia occurs in insulinoma, but the other features are absent. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition characterized by perioral freckling and small bowel polyps, which may present with vomiting secondary to intussusception from the small polyps but does not explain the hypoglycemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A 26-year-old female patient comes to the clinic after discovering a lump in her right breast. She is uncertain about how long it has been there and reports no pain or other symptoms. She has no significant medical history. During the physical examination, a smooth, rubbery, mobile mass of approximately 2 cm in diameter is palpated. The patient is immediately referred for imaging, which reveals a small, lobulated lesion measuring about 2.5cm in width, highly suggestive of a fibroadenoma. What is the next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Reassurance and monitoring
Explanation:A young patient has a small fibroadenoma <3 cm, which is highly suggestive on imaging. There is no increase in the risk of breast cancer, so a core-needle biopsy is not necessary. Watchful waiting is appropriate, and cryoablation may be used for larger fibroadenomas. Fine-needle aspiration is only necessary for larger lumps or in older patients. Understanding Breast Fibroadenoma Breast fibroadenoma is a type of breast mass that develops from a whole lobule. It is characterized by a mobile, firm, and smooth lump in the breast, which is often referred to as a breast mouse. Fibroadenoma accounts for about 12% of all breast masses and is more common in women under the age of 30. Fortunately, fibroadenomas are usually benign and do not increase the risk of developing breast cancer. In fact, over a two-year period, up to 30% of fibroadenomas may even get smaller on their own. However, if the lump is larger than 3 cm, surgical excision is typically recommended. In summary, breast fibroadenoma is a common type of breast mass that is usually benign and does not increase the risk of breast cancer. While it may cause concern for some women, it is important to remember that most fibroadenomas do not require treatment and may even resolve on their own.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 35-year-old man attends morning surgery complaining of ringing in his left ear, with occasional vertigo. His coworkers have recently commented that he speaks loudly on the phone. On examination his tympanic membranes appear normal.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ménière’s disease
Explanation:Understanding Ménière’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Ménière’s disease is a progressive inner ear disorder that can cause a triad of symptoms including fluctuant hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus. Aural fullness may also be present. In contrast, benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is characterized by brief episodes of vertigo induced by specific movements, while cholesteatoma typically presents with recurrent ear discharge, conductive hearing loss, and ear discomfort. Presbyacusis, or age-related hearing loss, is not the most likely diagnosis in this case. Although impacted ear wax can cause similar symptoms, normal tympanic membranes suggest that Ménière’s disease is more likely.
Diagnosis of Ménière’s disease is based on a history of at least two spontaneous episodes of vertigo lasting 20 minutes each, along with tinnitus and/or a sense of fullness in the ear canal, and confirmed sensorineural hearing loss on audiometry. Management includes self-care advice such as vestibular rehabilitation, medication such as prochlorperazine for acute attacks and betahistine for prevention, and referral to an ENT specialist to confirm the diagnosis and exclude other causes. Patients should also consider the risks of certain activities, such as driving or operating heavy machinery, during severe symptoms. With proper management, patients with Ménière’s disease can improve their quality of life and reduce the impact of their symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
A 28-year-old female comes to the gastroenterology clinic for a follow-up on her Crohn's disease. She has been on budesonide for 3 months to induce remission and reports feeling well. She did not experience any acute episodes during treatment and her bowel habits are regular. The physician determines that she requires maintenance therapy. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe?
Your Answer: Azathioprine
Explanation:Bone marrow suppression, which can be fatal, is a potential risk associated with the use of azathioprine as a second-line treatment for Crohn’s disease. Budesonide, a corticosteroid medication primarily used for asthma prevention, may be considered as a second-line option for inducing remission in Crohn’s patients. Mesalazine, which acts locally on the colon’s mucous membrane and has various anti-inflammatory effects, is less effective than glucocorticoids but can be used as a second-line option to induce remission. Methotrexate, a folate derivative that inhibits enzymes responsible for nucleotide synthesis, is the second-line medication used to maintain remission in Crohn’s patients. However, in this case, there is no indication to use second-line management instead of first-line treatment.
Managing Crohn’s Disease: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Crohn’s disease is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the digestive tract. To manage this condition, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines that provide recommendations for inducing and maintaining remission, as well as treating complications. One of the most important steps in managing Crohn’s disease is to advise patients to quit smoking, as this can worsen the condition. Additionally, some medications, such as nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and the combined oral contraceptive pill, may increase the risk of relapse, although the evidence is not conclusive.
To induce remission, glucocorticoids are often used, either orally, topically, or intravenously. Budesonide is an alternative for some patients. Enteral feeding with an elemental diet may also be used, especially in young children or when there are concerns about the side effects of steroids. Second-line treatments for inducing remission include 5-ASA drugs like mesalazine, as well as azathioprine or mercaptopurine, which may be used in combination with other medications. Methotrexate is another option. Infliximab is useful for refractory disease and fistulating Crohn’s, and patients may continue on azathioprine or methotrexate.
To maintain remission, stopping smoking is a priority, and azathioprine or mercaptopurine is used first-line. TPMT activity should be assessed before starting these medications. Methotrexate is used second-line. Surgery may be necessary for around 80% of patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the location and severity of the disease. Complications of Crohn’s disease include small bowel cancer, colorectal cancer, and osteoporosis. Perianal fistulae and abscesses require specific treatments, such as oral metronidazole, anti-TNF agents like infliximab, or a draining seton. By following these guidelines and treatment options, patients with Crohn’s disease can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of a persistent blocked nose and reduced sense of smell for the past few months. During examination, the doctor observes pale grey mucosal sacs in both nostrils. The patient has a history of allergies but is otherwise healthy. What is the most likely condition she is suffering from?
Your Answer: Paracetamol usage
Correct Answer: Aspirin usage
Explanation:Medical Conditions and Medication Usage: A Brief Overview
Aspirin Usage and Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps, asthma, and rhinosinusitis are all symptoms of aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease. This condition is caused by hypersensitivity to aspirin or other cyclooxygenase 1 inhibitors and typically develops in individuals aged 30-40 years. Treatment involves avoiding non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and in some cases, aspirin desensitization may be performed.COPD and Nasal Polyps
While nasal polyps can be associated with asthma, there is no known association with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Smokers with nosebleeds or unilateral nasal polyps should be referred for urgent ENT assessment to rule out malignancy.Infective Endocarditis and Nasal Polyps
Infective endocarditis occurs when bacteria enters the bloodstream, usually via poor dentition, an open wound, or mechanical device placed in the heart. There is no known association between nasal polyps and infective endocarditis.Paracetamol Usage and Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are associated with aspirin sensitivity, not sensitivity to paracetamol. According to the British National Formulary, the only side effect of oral paracetamol is thrombocytopenia, which is considered very rare.Simvastatin Usage and Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are not a recognized side effect of statins, which can cause muscle aches, headaches, diarrhea, and sleep disturbances.Understanding Medical Conditions and Medication Usage
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 31
Correct
-
A 30-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Graves disease and has been prescribed carbimazole. What is the most severe side effect of carbimazole?
Your Answer: Reversible agranulocytosis
Explanation:Carbimazole: Side Effects and Mechanism of Action
Carbimazole is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism by inhibiting the production of thyroid hormones. However, it can also cause several side effects that patients should be aware of.
The most serious side effect is bone marrow suppression, which can lead to neutropenia and agranulocytosis. Patients should report any symptoms of infection immediately, as routine monitoring of white cell count is not useful. Cholestatic jaundice and drug-induced hepatitis are also possible side effects, but usually reversible upon discontinuation of the drug. Hypoprothrombinaemia, a rare side effect, can increase the risk of bleeding in patients on anticoagulant therapy.
Carbimazole works by inhibiting the enzyme thyroperoxidase, which is responsible for the synthesis of thyroid hormones. However, its onset of clinical effects is slow because it takes time to deplete the large store of pre-formed thyroid hormones in the thyroid gland.
In addition to its anti-thyroid effect, carbimazole also has a modest immunosuppressive activity, reduces the serum level of thyroid-stimulating hormone antibody, and can cause a reduction in clotting factor prothrombin. However, these effects are not thought to contribute significantly to its efficacy.
Overall, patients taking carbimazole should be aware of its potential side effects and report any symptoms to their healthcare provider promptly.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
-
-
Question 32
Correct
-
A 60-year-old smoker presents with non-healing sores on his lower lip that have been gradually enlarging for several months. Upon examination, a lesion is found at the vermilion border of the lower lip. What is the most probable type of lesion?
Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)
Explanation:Common Skin Lesions and Cancers: Characteristics and Clinical Presentations
Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), actinic keratosis, Bowen’s disease, cold sores, and leukoplakia are common skin lesions and cancers that have distinct characteristics and clinical presentations.
SCC is a malignant tumour that commonly affects the backs of the hands and forearms, the upper part of the face, and the lower lip and pinna in men. The first clinical sign is induration, which may take on nodular, plaque-like, verrucous, or ulcerated characteristics. The limits of induration are not sharp and usually extend beyond the visible margins of the lesion. The surrounding tissue is often inflamed. SCCs rarely metastasize.
Actinic keratosis is a sun-induced scaly or hyperkeratotic lesion that has the potential to become malignant. It is characterized by multifocal, scaly, hyperpigmented or scaly lesions, usually brown with a scaly base, occurring on the head, neck, forearms, and hands.
Bowen’s disease is an intraepidermal (in situ) squamous cell carcinoma that arises in sun-exposed sites, especially the lower legs in women. It is characterized by well-defined pink and scaly patches or plaques that may become crusty, fissured, or ulcerated as lesions grow.
Cold sores are recurrent infections of orofacial herpes simplex that present as grouped vesicles, especially of the lips and perioral skin. The eruption is often preceded by a tingling, itching, or burning sensation. Over a few days, the vesicles form a crust, and the eruption resolves within 7–10 days.
Leukoplakia is a white patch or plaque of the oral mucosa that cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other condition.
A non-healing lesion is also of concern, especially in patients with a history of smoking and advanced age, as it may indicate a malignant cause. Early detection and treatment are crucial in preventing the progression of these skin lesions and cancers.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 33
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman presents with fatigue, fever, dry cough, headache, chest discomfort and worsening difficulty breathing. She works as a factory worker in a plant that produces air filters.
Which of the following pathogens is the most probable cause of this illness?Your Answer: Legionella species
Explanation:Differentiating Between Possible Causes of Pneumonia
Pneumonia can be caused by a variety of pathogens, making it important to identify the specific cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. Legionella pneumophila is a common cause of community-acquired and nosocomial pneumonia in adults, often transmitted through contaminated water sources. Chlamydophila psittaci can cause pneumonia after exposure to infected birds, while Staphylococcus aureus can cause various infections when skin or mucosal barriers are breached. Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically causes mild respiratory tract infections, while different groups of Streptococci can cause a range of infections including pneumonia. In this clinical scenario, the patient’s occupation and symptoms suggest an atypical infection, making Legionella pneumophila the most probable cause.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
-
Question 34
Correct
-
A 49-year-old man is being evaluated at the smoking cessation clinic. Is there any medical condition that would make it inappropriate to prescribe bupropion for him?
Your Answer: Epilepsy
Explanation:Reduced seizure threshold is a contraindication for the use of bupropion in patients with epilepsy.
NICE guidance recommends offering nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline, or bupropion to patients for smoking cessation, with no preference for one medication over another. NRT should be offered in combination for those with high nicotine dependence or inadequate response to single forms. Varenicline should be started a week before the target stop date and monitored for adverse effects, including nausea and suicidal behavior. Bupropion should also be started before the target stop date and is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Pregnant women should be tested for smoking and referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services, with first-line interventions being cognitive behavior therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support. NRT may be used if other measures fail, but varenicline and bupropion are contraindicated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 35
Correct
-
A 30-year-old woman who is 10 weeks postpartum and currently breastfeeding presents with a complaint of a foul odor in her vaginal area. Upon examination, clue cells are detected. What treatment option would you suggest for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Metronidazole 400mg bd for 5 days
Explanation:The recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis in this patient is metronidazole, but high doses of this medication are not safe for breastfeeding. Fluconazole is used to treat thrush, while azithromycin is used for Chlamydia. Clarithromycin is prescribed for pneumonia, strep throat, and H. pylori infections.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
-
-
Question 36
Correct
-
A 70-year-old man is experiencing excessive breast tissue growth and is worried about it. He has a medical history of dyspepsia, hypertension, and left ventricular systolic dysfunction, and has recently undergone treatment for prostate cancer. Which medication from his prescription list is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Goserelin
Explanation:The use of GnRH agonists (such as goserelin) for treating prostate cancer can lead to the development of gynaecomastia. This medication can also cause loss of libido and erectile dysfunction due to its mode of action. Bisoprolol does not have any known association with gynaecomastia. While metoclopramide can cause nipple discharge and hyperprolactinaemia, it is not linked to gynaecomastia. On the other hand, cimetidine (not omeprazole) is known to cause gynaecomastia.
Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers
Gynaecomastia is a medical condition that occurs when males develop an abnormal amount of breast tissue. This condition is usually caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea, which is due to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue, from those of gynaecomastia.
There are several causes of gynaecomastia, including physiological changes that occur during puberty, syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallman’s and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure, liver disease, testicular cancer, ectopic tumour secretion, hyperthyroidism, and haemodialysis. Additionally, certain drugs can trigger gynaecomastia, with spironolactone being the most common drug cause. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids.
It is important to note that while drug-induced gynaecomastia is rare, there are still some drugs that can trigger this condition. Some of the very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa. Understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
-
-
Question 37
Correct
-
A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) after experiencing daily headaches for the past week. She is usually healthy but drinks three cups of coffee a day. She describes sudden onset of severe, unilateral periorbital pain and tearing of the eye. The attacks last around 30 minutes and have all occurred in the late afternoon.
What is the most suitable treatment to be administered to this patient during an acute episode of headache?
Select the MOST appropriate treatment from the options below.Your Answer: Intranasal sumatriptan
Explanation:Treatment options for Cluster Headaches
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is more common in men and presents with intense pain localized around one eye, accompanied by lacrimation and nasal congestion. The pain can last for a few minutes up to three hours and occurs every day for a number of weeks, followed by a symptom-free period. Here are some treatment options for cluster headaches:
Intranasal Sumatriptan: People over the age of 18 with acute bouts of confirmed cluster headache may be given a subcutaneous or nasal triptan for acute attacks.
Verapamil: Verapamil may be prescribed as a preventative treatment for cluster headaches but is not used during an acute attack. It is usually only prescribed following a discussion with a neurologist or a GP with a special interest in headaches.
Carbamazepine: Carbamazepine is used in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia, which presents with sudden attacks of severe, shooting unilateral facial pain that feels like an ‘electric shock’. However, for cluster headaches, it is not the first-line treatment.
Codeine: Patients with cluster headaches should not be offered paracetamol, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or opioids as acute treatment, as they are too slow to take effect.
Short-burst oxygen therapy (home oxygen): Short-burst oxygen therapy (12–15 l/min via a non-rebreathe mask) can be prescribed to reduce the length of an attack, unless it is contraindicated. However, home oxygen is contraindicated for smokers due to the risk of fire.
In conclusion, cluster headaches can be debilitating, but there are various treatment options available to manage the symptoms. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for each individual.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 38
Correct
-
A 27-year-old man complains of back pain. What symptom may indicate a possible diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?
Your Answer: Pain at night
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 39
Correct
-
A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. Her mother was recently released from the hospital after fracturing her hip. The patient is worried that she may have inherited osteoporosis and wants to know what steps she should take. She has no significant medical history, does not take any regular medications, and has never experienced any fractures. She is a smoker, consuming approximately 20 cigarettes per day, and drinks 3-4 units of alcohol daily.
What is the best course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Use the FRAX tool
Explanation:Due to her positive family history, smoking, and excess alcohol intake, this woman is at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis. Therefore, it is recommended that she undergo a FRAX assessment without delay, rather than waiting until the age of 65 as typically recommended for women without such risk factors.
Assessing the Risk of Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012 for assessing the risk of fragility fracture. Women aged 65 years and older and men aged 75 years and older should be assessed, while younger patients should be assessed in the presence of risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, history of falls, and low body mass index.
NICE recommends using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors.
If the FRAX assessment was done without a bone mineral density (BMD) measurement, the results will be categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the FRAX assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorised into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. Patients assessed using QFracture are not automatically categorised into low, intermediate, or high risk.
NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 40
Correct
-
Which of the following examples of infant jaundice from the list below is the most concerning?
Your Answer: Jaundice which develops on the day of delivery
Explanation:Jaundice that appears within the first 24 hours after delivery is always considered to be pathological. Physiological jaundice typically develops 2-3 days after delivery and should resolve within 14 days. The risk of developing jaundice is higher in pre-term infants. In cases of physiological jaundice, bilirubin levels typically do not exceed 200 μmol/L.
Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.
If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
-
-
Question 41
Correct
-
A 58-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of facial paralysis. She also complains of some mild ear pain over the last 2 days. On examination, she has a fixed half-smile on the left side of her face. She is unable to raise her left eyelid and has increased sensitivity to sound in her left ear. She denies dizziness or vertigo. The remainder of her cranial nerve examination is normal. ENT examination shows an erythematous left ear canal and vesicles over her soft palate.
What is the most appropriate treatment to initiate for the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Oral aciclovir and prednisolone
Explanation:When a patient presents with a facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash, Ramsay Hunt syndrome should be considered. The vesicles may not be limited to the ear canal and can also appear on the tongue or soft palate. Treatment typically involves administering oral aciclovir and corticosteroids, unless the patient is severely ill. Ganciclovir is used to treat cytomegalovirus, while amoxicillin would be a more suitable option if bacterial otitis media was the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.
Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this condition is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.
To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral aciclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old man who was previously healthy comes to the clinic complaining of increasing shortness of breath over the past four to five months. His father passed away a few years ago due to a lung disease. During the examination, the doctor notices an elevated jugular venous pressure and a palpable heave at the left sternal edge.
What is the most probable provisional diagnosis?Your Answer: Constrictive pericarditis
Correct Answer: Familial primary pulmonary hypertension
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Familial Primary Pulmonary Hypertension
Familial primary pulmonary hypertension is a rare condition that presents with breathlessness, fatigue, angina, or syncope. It has an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance with incomplete penetrance and physical signs such as elevated JVP, left parasternal heave, pansystolic murmur, right ventricular S4, and peripheral edema. Without treatment, average survival is less than three years. While tricuspid regurgitation may be present, it is best explained in the context of a diagnosis of familial primary pulmonary hypertension. Chronic pulmonary thromboembolism is a more common differential diagnosis that should be considered. Constrictive pericarditis and pulmonary venous hypertension are unlikely diagnoses as they do not run in families. Clinical management requires a specialist with considerable expertise in the field.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 43
Correct
-
A 25-year-old man with a history of bipolar disorder is scheduled for a medication review. When inquiring about his current state, he starts discussing the vast array of emotions that exist and wonders if everyone has experienced all of them. Eventually, he spontaneously mentions that he is feeling quite good.
What is the patient exhibiting in this scenario?Your Answer: Circumstantiality
Explanation:The patient’s lengthy response to the question suggests circumstantiality, which can be a symptom of anxiety disorders or hypomania. However, the patient has remained on topic and has not derailed. Their response is coherent, and there is no evidence of pressured speech in this text-based interaction. Incoherence would be demonstrated by nonsensical statements, which is not the case here.
Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 44
Correct
-
A 55-year-old woman presents to a walk-in clinic with complaints of fatigue and feeling cold for the past two months. She has become increasingly distressed by these symptoms and reports a recent weight gain of approximately 5kg. Which of her regular medications could potentially be causing these symptoms?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Hypothyroidism can be caused by long-term use of lithium.
The patient’s symptoms suggest hypothyroidism, and the only medication on the list that can lead to this condition is lithium. While the other drugs listed may cause individual side effects that could contribute to the patient’s presentation, none of them would produce all of the symptoms described.
Amlodipine may cause weight gain due to fluid retention, but it is unlikely to cause as much as 5 kg, and it would not cause mood changes or fatigue to the extent described. Bisoprolol can cause significant fatigue, but it would not cause weight gain. Citalopram may cause significant weight gain and mood changes, but it is unlikely to cause the patient to feel cold. Atorvastatin can also cause weight gain, but this is rare.
Understanding the Causes of Hypothyroidism
Hypothyroidism is a condition that affects a small percentage of women in the UK, with females being more susceptible than males. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease that may be associated with other conditions such as IDDM, Addison’s or pernicious anaemia. Other causes of hypothyroidism include subacute thyroiditis, Riedel thyroiditis, thyroidectomy or radioiodine treatment, drug therapy, and dietary iodine deficiency. It is important to note that some of these causes may have an initial thyrotoxic phase.
In rare cases, hypothyroidism may also be caused by pituitary failure, which is known as secondary hypothyroidism. Additionally, there are certain conditions that may be associated with hypothyroidism, such as Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, and coeliac disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
-
-
Question 45
Correct
-
You assess a 26-year-old male patient who presents with complaints of leg weakness. He reports feeling healthy except for experiencing a recent episode of diarrhea three weeks ago. The patient has no significant medical history. During your examination, you observe decreased strength in his legs, normal sensation, and reduced reflexes in the knee and ankle. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.
Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.
To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 46
Correct
-
What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia? Choose one option from the list provided.
Your Answer: Carbamazepine is the first-line treatment
Explanation:Trigeminal Neuralgia: Diagnosis and Treatment
Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition characterized by sharp, shooting pain in the distribution of one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve. While the cause is unknown, it can be due to compression of the nerve as it exits the foramen. The pain is intermittent and often exacerbated by light touch, eating, talking, or exposure to the cold.
Carbamazepine is the first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia, with an initial dose of 100 mg up to twice daily. The dosage can be increased in increments of 100-200 mg every 2 weeks until the pain is under control.
Contrary to popular belief, trigeminal neuralgia usually affects the face unilaterally, with only 3% of cases being bilateral. A CT scan of the head is not recommended for all patients with the diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia, but may be necessary if red flag symptoms are present.
It is important to note that patients with trigeminal neuralgia do not typically experience constant pain, as the pain is episodic in frequency. Tramadol is not the first-line treatment for trigeminal pain, carbamazepine is.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 47
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman presents with complaints of recurring pain in her left ankle for the past 4-5 weeks. She also reports experiencing pain in her left sole and swelling in her right toes. Additionally, she has developed low back pain over the last 2 weeks. Upon further inquiry, she mentions having painless oral ulcers that heal on their own. She recently had chlamydial urethritis. Her full blood count, kidney, and liver function tests are all normal, and an autoimmune screen is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Differentiating Reactive Arthritis from Other Arthritic Conditions
Reactive arthritis is a type of arthritis that occurs after an infection, typically dysentery or a sexually transmitted disease. It is characterized by an acute, asymmetrical lower limb arthritis, with common symptoms including enthesitis, sacroiliitis, and spondylosis. Patients may also experience mouth ulcers, conjunctivitis, and cutaneous features such as circinate balanitis and keratoderma blenorrhagia. However, it is important to differentiate reactive arthritis from other arthritic conditions such as disseminated bacterial arthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and hypersensitivity vasculitis. Understanding the unique features of each condition can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 48
Correct
-
A 30-year-old man presents with worsening pain on the left side of the floor of the mouth. He has been experiencing pain intermittently for the past three weeks, especially during meals. However, the pain has escalated significantly over the last 48 hours.
During examination, his temperature is 38.2°C. There is a smooth swelling along the floor of the mouth. Intra-oral examination reveals inadequate dental hygiene and pus seeping into the floor of the mouth anteriorly.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Left submandibular gland infection
Explanation:Differentiating Left Submandibular Gland Infection from Other Conditions
Left submandibular gland infection is a condition that occurs when a submandibular gland calculus obstructs the submandibular duct, leading to stasis of duct contents and infection. It is important to differentiate this condition from other similar conditions to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.
Sialolithiasis, another condition that affects the submandibular gland, typically presents with dull pain around the gland that worsens during mealtimes or when lemon juice is squirted onto the tongue. Dental abscess, on the other hand, causes localized tooth pain without pus draining into the floor of the mouth.
Uncomplicated sialolithiasis does not present with fever and pus oozing into the floor of the mouth, which are common symptoms of left submandibular gland infection. Ludwig’s angina, a serious and potentially life-threatening infection of the soft tissues of the floor of the mouth, typically follows a dental infection and presents with marked oedema and tenderness of submandibular, sublingual, and submental spaces.
Mumps parotitis, which typically affects younger patients, presents with bilateral smooth, enlarged parotid glands and a viral-like illness. Unlike left submandibular gland infection, pus is not seen draining into the floor of the mouth.
In summary, differentiating left submandibular gland infection from other similar conditions is crucial in ensuring proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 49
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man who is a smoker presents with complaints about his left eye. Upon examination, it is found that he has a constricted left pupil with a ptosis and anhidrosis.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Riley-Day syndrome
Correct Answer: Horner syndrome
Explanation:Horner syndrome is a rare condition caused by a disruption of the sympathetic nerve supply to the eye. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms including a constricted pupil, partial drooping of the eyelid, and loss of sweating on one side of the face. Possible causes of Horner syndrome include brain-stem stroke or tumor, brachial plexus trauma, lung infections or tumors, carotid artery issues, and migraines. Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease that attacks the central nervous system and can cause optic neuritis, but the symptoms described in the scenario do not match those of MS. Holmes-Adie syndrome is a neurological disorder characterized by a dilated pupil that reacts slowly to light, loss of deep tendon reflexes, and profuse sweating, which is not consistent with the scenario. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that causes muscle weakness, but it typically affects the facial muscles and extraocular muscles, not the pupil. Riley-Day syndrome is a disorder of the autonomic nervous system that affects infants and is characterized by the absence of overflow tears with emotional crying.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 50
Correct
-
A 3-year-old girl with Down syndrome is brought to see her General Practitioner by her father who has concerns about her motor development which are echoed by her daycare provider. There are no concerns about her speech and she is usually well apart from a few episodes of constipation in the past for which she has received laxatives. Neurological examination is normal. Abdominal examination reveals mild distension and tenderness in the left upper quadrant.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
.Your Answer: Glue ear
Explanation:Common Causes of Hearing Loss in Children
Hearing loss in children can be caused by various factors. Two common causes are glue ear and otosclerosis. Glue ear, also known as otitis media with effusion, is the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear without acute inflammation. It can lead to conductive hearing loss, recurrent ear infections, speech delay, and behavioral problems. Children with Down syndrome and cleft palate are at higher risk of developing glue ear. On the other hand, otosclerosis is the abnormal growth of bone in the middle ear, resulting in gradual hearing loss in early adulthood.
It is important to note that speech delay alone may not indicate autistic spectrum disorder. Children with this disorder typically exhibit issues with social interactions, non-verbal communication, and restrictive behaviors. In contrast, selective mutism is an anxiety disorder that causes a child to be unable to speak in certain situations. Impacted ear wax can also cause hearing loss or speech delay, but it can be diagnosed through ear examination.
In summary, a child with recurrent earache and retracted tympanic membranes is more likely to have glue ear, especially if they have Down syndrome or cleft palate. It is important to monitor their development closely, especially if they also have a learning disability.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)