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  • Question 1 - What is the only accurate statement regarding the management of osteoarthritis according to...

    Incorrect

    • What is the only accurate statement regarding the management of osteoarthritis according to the 2014 NICE guidance?

      Your Answer: Cyclo-oxygenase-2 inhibitors can be used in patients with a history of peptic ulcer disease without proton pump inhibitors

      Correct Answer: Patients with mechanical knee locking symptoms should be referred for arthroscopic lavage and debridement

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance for Managing Osteoarthritis Pain

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends exercise for all patients with osteoarthritis. When analgesia is necessary, paracetamol and topical NSAIDs should be the first line of treatment, followed by oral NSAIDs or COX-2 inhibitors if needed. However, a proton pump inhibitor should be used alongside these medications to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects.

      NICE doesn’t recommend the use of acupuncture or glucosamine for managing osteoarthritis pain. Arthroscopic debridement, a surgical procedure to remove damaged tissue from the joint, is only indicated if the patient has a clear history of mechanical locking, rather than morning joint stiffness, giving way, or X-ray evidence of loose bodies.

      Overall, NICE’s guidance emphasizes the importance of exercise and non-pharmacological interventions in managing osteoarthritis pain, while also providing recommendations for safe and effective use of analgesic medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      36.4
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  • Question 2 - A 60-year-old woman presents with swollen legs and is diagnosed with proteinuria. Identify...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with swollen legs and is diagnosed with proteinuria. Identify the one characteristic that would strongly indicate a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome instead of nephritic syndrome.

      Your Answer: Proteinuria > 3.5g/24 hours

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome and Nephritic Syndrome

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia. On the other hand, nephritic syndrome is defined by azotemia, hematuria, hypertension, and oliguria. Both syndromes present with edema, but the amount of proteinuria is higher in nephrotic syndrome.

      In nephrotic syndrome, the glomerulus has small pores that allow protein to pass through but not cells, resulting in proteinuria and hypoalbuminemia. The liver compensates for protein loss by increasing the synthesis of albumin, LDL, VLDL, and lipoprotein(a), leading to lipid abnormalities. Patients with nephrotic syndrome are also at risk of hypercoagulability and infection due to the loss of inhibitors of coagulation and immunoglobulins in the urine.

      The etiology of nephrotic syndrome varies depending on age and comorbidities. Minimal change disease is the most common cause in children, while focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is the most common cause in younger adults. Membranous nephropathy is the most common cause in older people, and diabetic nephropathy in adults with long-standing diabetes. Secondary causes include amyloidosis, lupus nephritis, and multiple myeloma.

      Categorizing glomerular renal disease into syndromes such as nephrotic syndrome and nephritic syndrome helps narrow the differential diagnosis. Understanding the differences between these two syndromes is crucial in the diagnosis and management of glomerular renal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A mother brings her 10-week old baby girl in to see you. She...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 10-week old baby girl in to see you. She was born at 39/40 without any complications and is growing along the 50th centile. The mother is concerned as the baby frequently spits up small amounts of milk after being fed, which is accompanied by crying and discomfort. However, the baby settles down after a few minutes. The baby is having wet and full nappies, and the vomit is milk-colored. The baby is formula-fed approximately 4 ounces, 7 times a day.

      What is the recommended first-line advice or treatment for this situation?

      Your Answer: Offer a 1–2 week trial of alginate therapy (for example Gaviscon® Infant) mixed with water and given after each feed

      Correct Answer: Reduce his feeds to 150ml/kg per day (in total) and give them more frequently and review in 1-2 weeks

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for formula-fed infants with gastro-oesophageal reflux disease is to reduce their daily milk intake to 150ml/kg and offer more frequent, smaller feeds. This should be tried for 2 weeks, and if the baby is still experiencing discomfort, milk thickeners can be offered for 1-2 weeks. If this is not successful, a trial of alginate therapy should be attempted for 1-2 weeks. If this also fails, a 4-week trial of a proton pump inhibitor or histamine-2 receptor antagonist can be prescribed. Breastfed infants should first try a 1-2 week trial of alginate therapy.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux is a common cause of vomiting in infants, with around 40% of babies experiencing some degree of regurgitation. However, certain risk factors such as preterm delivery and neurological disorders can increase the likelihood of developing this condition. Symptoms typically appear before 8 weeks of age and include vomiting or regurgitation, milky vomits after feeds, and excessive crying during feeding. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical observation.

      Management of gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants involves advising parents on proper feeding positions, ensuring the infant is not overfed, and considering a trial of thickened formula or alginate therapy. However, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not recommended as a first-line treatment for isolated symptoms of regurgitation. PPIs may be considered if the infant experiences unexplained feeding difficulties, distressed behavior, or faltering growth. Metoclopramide, a prokinetic agent, should only be used with specialist advice.

      Complications of gastro-oesophageal reflux can include distress, failure to thrive, aspiration, frequent otitis media, and dental erosion in older children. If medical treatment is ineffective and severe complications arise, fundoplication may be considered. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors, symptoms, and management options for gastro-oesophageal reflux in infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      148.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman has had type 1 diabetes mellitus for 15 years and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has had type 1 diabetes mellitus for 15 years and has been your patient for nine years. Her HbA1c has ranged from 63 mmol/mol to 74 mmol/mol (19-41).

      Today her blood pressure is 132/86 mmHg. She also has noticed that her home blood glucose levels fluctuate more than normal over the last three months. She also informs you that she is aware of nausea after eating and has required less food than usual to satisfy her appetite.

      Investigations show:

      Urea 8.3 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 110 µmol/L (60-110)

      Sodium 139 mmol/L (137-144)

      Potassium 4.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Bicarbonate 25 mmol/L (20-28)

      HbA1c 41 mmol/mol (20-42)

      Urinalysis Protein+

      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Inaccurate insulin administration

      Correct Answer: Delayed gastric emptying

      Explanation:

      Autonomic Neuropathy and Gastric Emptying

      She has a lengthy medical history of diabetes and has been experiencing nausea after eating, along with a feeling of fullness and a reduced appetite. These symptoms suggest that she may be experiencing reduced gastric emptying, which is a common symptom of autonomic neuropathy. Other symptoms that may be present include postural hypotension, gustatory sweating, diarrhea, or changes in bowel habits. To confirm the diagnosis, a barium swallow and meal may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      138.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 16-year-old boy presents to his GP with a gradual increase in difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy presents to his GP with a gradual increase in difficulty walking quickly or climbing stairs, which has been developing over the past few years. He has never been interested in sports due to his inability to keep up with his peers, but has not experienced any issues with daily activities and had a normal childhood development. His male maternal cousin has been using a wheelchair since his late twenties and is currently taking ramipril and bisoprolol.
      During the examination, the patient displays a normal gait, with slight wasting in his quadriceps muscles bilaterally.
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient's likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Muscle biopsy

      Correct Answer: Creatine kinase (CK)

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Becker Muscular Dystrophy

      Becker muscular dystrophy (BMD) is a genetic disorder that causes muscular weakness, particularly in the proximal muscles. Symptoms usually appear in childhood, but weakness may not become problematic until the late teens or early twenties. BMD follows an X-linked inheritance pattern and is characterised by a moderate to severe increase in creatine kinase (CK) levels. An X-ray of the hips is not the most appropriate initial investigation, as it would not account for the family history or wasting of the quadriceps. While an electrocardiogram (ECG) is important in confirmed BMD, it is not the most appropriate initial investigation. Genetic testing and muscle biopsy are frequently carried out to confirm a BMD diagnosis, but they are not the most appropriate initial investigations due to their invasive nature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 61-year-old man with ischaemic heart disease experiences chest pain while climbing stairs....

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man with ischaemic heart disease experiences chest pain while climbing stairs. He uses his sublingual glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray. What is the most likely side-effect profile of taking the GTN spray?

      Your Answer: Hypertension + bradycardia + headache

      Correct Answer: Hypotension + tachycardia + headache

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nitrates and Their Effects on the Body

      Nitrates are a type of medication that can cause blood vessels to widen, which is known as vasodilation. They are commonly used to manage angina and treat heart failure. One of the most frequently prescribed nitrates is sublingual glyceryl trinitrate, which is used to relieve angina attacks in patients with ischaemic heart disease.

      The mechanism of action for nitrates involves the release of nitric oxide in smooth muscle, which activates guanylate cyclase. This enzyme then converts GTP to cGMP, leading to a decrease in intracellular calcium levels. In the case of angina, nitrates dilate the coronary arteries and reduce venous return, which decreases left ventricular work and reduces myocardial oxygen demand.

      However, nitrates can also cause side effects such as hypotension, tachycardia, headaches, and flushing. Additionally, many patients who take nitrates develop tolerance over time, which can reduce their effectiveness. To combat this, the British National Formulary recommends that patients who develop tolerance take the second dose of isosorbide mononitrate after 8 hours instead of 12 hours. This allows blood-nitrate levels to fall for 4 hours and maintains effectiveness. It’s important to note that this effect is not seen in patients who take modified release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Liam is a 2-day old boy who was born with a pale pink...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 2-day old boy who was born with a pale pink patch on the back of his neck. It has an irregular edge and is more visible when he cries. It was noted to blanch with pressure.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cafe au lait spot

      Correct Answer: Salmon patch

      Explanation:

      Salmon patches are a type of birthmark caused by excess blood vessels, but they typically go away on their own without treatment. These birthmarks are often found in symmetrical patterns on the forehead, eyelids, or nape of the neck.

      Cafe-au-lait spots are another type of birthmark that appear as brown patches on the skin. While they are common, they can sometimes be a sign of an underlying medical condition.

      Cherry angiomas are small, red bumps that tend to develop later in life.

      Port-wine stains are a rare type of birthmark that can darken over time and are often asymmetrical in appearance.

      Strawberry naevi are raised, red lesions that typically appear within the first few weeks of life.

      Understanding Salmon Patches in Newborns

      Salmon patches, also known as stork marks or stork bites, are a type of birthmark that can be found in approximately 50% of newborn babies. These marks are characterized by their pink and blotchy appearance and are commonly found on the forehead, eyelids, and nape of the neck. While they may cause concern for new parents, salmon patches typically fade over the course of a few months. However, marks on the neck may persist. These birthmarks are caused by an overgrowth of blood vessels and are completely harmless. It is important for parents to understand that salmon patches are a common occurrence in newborns and do not require any medical treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old football player comes in for evaluation the day after a game....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old football player comes in for evaluation the day after a game. He has noticeable swelling and redness in his left ear. Upon examination, it appears to be an auricular hematoma. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care

      Explanation:

      The RCGP curriculum includes a specific mention of auricular haematomas.

      Auricular haematomas are frequently observed in individuals who participate in rugby or wrestling. It is crucial to seek immediate medical attention to prevent the development of ‘cauliflower ear’. The management of auricular haematomas necessitates an evaluation by an ENT specialist on the same day. Incision and drainage have been demonstrated to be more effective than needle aspiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
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  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is being...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder and is being discharged on lithium at a dose of 400 mg daily after a prolonged period of inpatient treatment. You receive a discharge summary requesting that you continue her blood monitoring in primary care as long term lithium treatment is planned.

      What would be the most suitable monitoring regimen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measure renal function or thyroid function only if clinically indicated (for example, if intercurrent infection/dehydration or symptoms of hypothyroidism develop)

      Explanation:

      Lithium Monitoring

      Lithium is a medication with a narrow therapeutic index, which means that it requires close monitoring. The dosage is adjusted to achieve a serum lithium concentration of 0.4-1 mmol/L. Lithium toxicity can cause symptoms such as blurred vision, ataxia, coarse tremor, nystagmus, dysarthria, and gastrointestinal disturbance (vomiting and diarrhea). Severe toxicity can lead to convulsions, renal failure, and circulatory failure. Therefore, serum lithium levels should be measured every three months on stabilised regimens.

      Renal failure and hypothyroidism are potential side effects of lithium use. As such, renal and thyroid function should be measured six monthly on stabilised regimens. Patients should be informed of the symptoms of hypothyroidism and advised to seek medical review if these symptoms develop. It is also important to note that lithium should be prescribed by brand rather than generically because different lithium preparations vary widely in their bioavailability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old man with high blood pressure visits his GP for a check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with high blood pressure visits his GP for a check-up. His blood pressure has been consistently high, with a reading of 154/82 during his last visit. The GP arranged for ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, which showed an average daytime blood pressure of 140/88 mmHg. Despite being on the highest dose of ramipril, his blood pressure remains elevated. What would be the most suitable second-line medication to add?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indapamide

      Explanation:

      In cases of poorly controlled hypertension where the patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor, the updated NICE guidelines (2019) recommend adding a calcium-channel blocker (CCB) or a thiazide-like diuretic like indapamide as the next step. If the patient’s potassium levels are greater than 4.5 mmol/L, bisoprolol and doxazosin can be added as 4th line agents for those with resistant hypertension. On the other hand, spironolactone can be added as a 4th line agent when potassium levels are lower than 4.5 mmol/L.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.

      Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.

      Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.

      The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.

      If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 42-year-old man with a history of depression and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man with a history of depression and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease visits his GP complaining of milky discharge from his nipples. His blood test results show a prolactin level of 700 mu/l. Which medication is the most probable cause of this symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      There are several causes of raised prolactin, which can be remembered using the letter P. These include pregnancy, prolactinoma (a type of pituitary tumor), physiological changes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, primary hypothyroidism, and the use of certain medications such as phenothiazines, metoclopramide, and domperidone. While selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors like fluoxetine have been linked to hyperprolactinemia in rare cases, the most likely culprit in this patient is metoclopramide. It’s worth noting that cimetidine is typically associated with gynecomastia rather than galactorrhea, although this side effect is considered very rare according to the British National Formulary.

      Understanding Prolactin and Galactorrhoea

      Prolactin is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is regulated by various physiological factors. Dopamine is the primary inhibitor of prolactin release, and dopamine agonists like bromocriptine can be used to manage galactorrhoea. It is crucial to distinguish between the causes of galactorrhoea and gynaecomastia, which are both related to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue.

      Excess prolactin can lead to different symptoms in men and women. Men may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhoea, while women may have amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Several factors can cause raised prolactin levels, including prolactinoma, pregnancy, oestrogens, stress, exercise, sleep, acromegaly, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and primary hypothyroidism.

      Certain drugs can also increase prolactin levels, such as metoclopramide, domperidone, phenothiazines, and haloperidol. Although rare, some SSRIs and opioids may also cause raised prolactin levels.

      In summary, understanding prolactin and its effects on the body is crucial in diagnosing and managing conditions like galactorrhoea. Identifying the underlying causes of raised prolactin levels is essential in providing appropriate treatment and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 12 - What is the correct statement regarding migraine from the list provided? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding migraine from the list provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Onset of migraine over the age of 50 years is unusual and should be investigated

      Explanation:

      Understanding Migraine: Symptoms, Triggers, and Risks

      Migraine is a neurological condition that is often characterized by a prodromal aura preceding a severe headache that can last for several hours or even days. While the first attack usually occurs in childhood, over 80% of individuals experience their first migraine by the age of 30. However, if the onset of migraine occurs after the age of 50, other underlying conditions should be investigated.

      While certain foods and additives such as caffeine, chocolate, and aged cheese have been suggested as potential triggers for migraine, large epidemiological studies have failed to confirm these claims. As such, no specific diets have been shown to alleviate migraine symptoms.

      It is important to note that both migraine and the use of combined oral contraceptives are independent risk factors for ischemic stroke. However, the risk is low in the absence of other risk factors, and migraine without aura is not a contraindication for the use of combined oral contraceptives. Women with other risk factors for arterial disease should use caution when taking the pill, and those with prothrombotic coagulation disorders should avoid it altogether.

      Hemiplegic migraine is a rare form of migraine that is characterized by unilateral weakness that accompanies a migraine headache attack. This form of migraine with aura may occur either in families or only in one individual. It is important to distinguish between migraine aura and other conditions such as epileptic aura or transient ischemic attack, which have different characteristics.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms, triggers, and risks associated with migraine is crucial for effective management and treatment of this debilitating condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 13 - A 20-year-old man visits your GP clinic with concerns about spots on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man visits your GP clinic with concerns about spots on his face that have been present for a few months. Despite using an over-the-counter facial wash, the spots have not improved and the patient is becoming more self-conscious about them. He is seeking treatment. During examination, you observe comedones and inflamed lesions on his face, but no nodules.

      What is the best initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line management for acne is non-antibiotic topical treatment. For mild to moderate acne, a trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide, topical azelaic acid, or topical antibacterial is appropriate. Referral to dermatology is not necessary for mild to moderate acne. Oral antibiotics should only be considered if topical management options have failed. It is important to reassure the patient that treatment is available and necessary, and to review their progress in 2 months.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - An 80 year old man undergoes decompressive surgery for degenerative cervical myelopathy. After...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old man undergoes decompressive surgery for degenerative cervical myelopathy. After three years, he complains of neck pain and hand paraesthesias. What is the recommended management strategy for his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to spinal surgery or neurosurgery

      Explanation:

      Patients with cervical myelopathy require ongoing follow-up after surgery as the pathology can recur at adjacent spinal levels that were not treated during the initial decompressive surgery. Recurrent symptoms should be treated with suspicion, and peripheral neuropathy should not be the primary diagnosis as delays in diagnosing and treating DCM can negatively impact outcomes. Urgent evaluation by specialist spinal services is necessary for all patients with recurrent symptoms, and axial spine imaging, such as an MRI scan, is the first line of investigation. AP and lateral radiographs are of limited use when myelopathy is suspected. Therefore, statements A and E are false, and statement C is also false.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 15 - A school nurse is bitten by a student who is known to have...

    Incorrect

    • A school nurse is bitten by a student who is known to have hepatitis B. The nurse has a documented full history of hepatitis B vaccination and was known to be a responder. What is the most suitable course of action to minimize the risk of acquiring hepatitis B?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give hepatitis B vaccine booster

      Explanation:

      Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections

      Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.

      Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 16 - How should strong opioids be used for cancer pain management in primary care?...

    Incorrect

    • How should strong opioids be used for cancer pain management in primary care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oxycodone has a more predictable systemic bioavailability than morphine

      Explanation:

      Opioid Prescription Guidelines

      About 10-30% of patients cannot use morphine due to side effects or poor analgesic response. However, oxycodone is not shown to have fewer unwanted effects than morphine. On the other hand, hydromorphone is seven times more potent than morphine on a mg for mg basis. Fentanyl should only be used second line, and when a daily requirement is established.

      To ensure safe and appropriate opioid prescription, it is important to remember the STOPP criteria. Prescription is potentially inappropriate if a strong, oral or transdermal opioid (i.e. morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl, buprenorphine, diamorphine, methadone, tramadol, pethidine, pentazocine) is prescribed as first-line therapy for mild pain (WHO analgesic ladder not observed). Additionally, regular use without concomitant laxative can lead to severe constipation. Lastly, prescribing a long-acting (modified-release) opioid without a short-acting (immediate-release) opioid for breakthrough pain can result in the persistence of severe pain.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safe and effective use of opioids in pain management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 17 - A researcher is studying the number of children in a family among a...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher is studying the number of children in a family among a population of married couples. The distribution curve representing the results is positively skewed.
      What is the correct effect on mean, median and mode in comparison to what the values would have been if the distribution had been normally distributed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mean increases, median remains the same, mode remains the same

      Explanation:

      Effects of Skewed Distribution on Mean, Median, and Mode

      Skewed distribution can have different effects on the mean, median, and mode. In a positively skewed distribution, a small number of very large values will increase the mean, while the median and mode remain unchanged. On the other hand, a negatively skewed distribution with a small number of very small values will decrease the mean, while the median and mode remain unchanged. In some cases, the mode may increase while the mean and median remain the same, but this is not affected by skewed distribution. However, in all cases, the mean is affected by every score in the data set, while the median and mode are not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 18 - You are called to give evidence in court in a case of suspected...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to give evidence in court in a case of suspected child abuse. The child in question is a 6-year-old boy., who you saw six months ago with burns on his arms. You are asked to give evidence related to the burns. Which one of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is no pathognomonic pattern of burns in child abuse

      Explanation:
      • Infected burns are rarely a sign of abuse:
        • Incorrect: Infected burns can indeed be a sign of abuse. Neglect in treating burns can lead to infection, which may indicate a lack of proper care and potentially abusive behavior.
      • Burns from hot water where there are no splash marks are rarely a sign of abuse:
        • Incorrect: Burns from hot water without splash marks are often a sign of abuse. These burns may indicate forced immersion, where the child is held in hot water intentionally, resulting in clear demarcation lines instead of splashes.
      • Burns on the back are rarely a sign of abuse:
        • Incorrect: Burns on the back can be indicative of abuse, as accidental burns typically occur on accessible areas like the front of the body, arms, and legs. Unusual burn locations, such as the back, should raise suspicion for abuse.
      • There is no pathognomonic pattern of burns in child abuse:
        • Correct: There is no single pathognomonic pattern of burns that definitively indicates child abuse. However, certain patterns, such as immersion burns, cigarette burns, and patterned burns (e.g., from an iron), are highly suspicious for abuse but not exclusively diagnostic. The absence of a single definitive pattern underscores the need for careful assessment and consideration of the context in which the burns occurred.
      • Burns with discrete edges are rarely a sign of abuse:
        • Incorrect: Burns with discrete edges can be a sign of abuse, especially when they are from forced immersion in hot water or contact with a hot object. These burns typically show clear boundaries, unlike accidental burns, which often have irregular edges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 19 - A 75-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department complaining of increased swelling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male comes to the Emergency Department complaining of increased swelling in his right leg. He has a medical history of right-sided heart failure. During the examination, his right calf is found to be 3 cm larger than his left and he has bilateral pitting oedema up to the knee. A positive D-dimer result prompts the initiation of apixaban. However, an ultrasound scan of his leg comes back negative.

      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop anticoagulation and repeat scan in 1 week

      Explanation:

      If a D-dimer test is positive but an ultrasound scan for possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is negative, the recommended course of action is to stop anticoagulation and repeat the scan in one week. It is not appropriate to simply discharge the patient with worsening advice, as a follow-up scan is necessary to ensure that a clot has not been missed. Continuing anticoagulation would only be appropriate if the scan had shown a positive result. It is not recommended to continue anticoagulation for three or six months, as these are management strategies for a confirmed DVT that has been detected by a positive ultrasound scan.

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.

      If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).

      The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.

      All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old man presents to your urgent clinic with a red eye that...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to your urgent clinic with a red eye that he noticed upon waking up this morning. He reports that his eye appeared normal before going to bed last night and denies any pain, discharge, or itching. He has no history of regular medication use and has no visual acuity issues or contact lens use.

      During examination, his blood pressure is measured at 132/88 mmHg. The medial inferior quadrant of his eye shows uniform redness, but his cornea and pupil are unaffected. Based on these findings, you suspect a subconjunctival haemorrhage. The patient expresses concern about the healing time as he has an important business meeting scheduled for next week.

      How long can the patient expect for his subconjunctival haemorrhage to resolve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Subconjunctival haemorrhages typically clear up on their own within two weeks and do not require any treatment. However, it is important to check the patient’s blood pressure as these haemorrhages can be linked to high blood pressure. Additionally, it should be noted that the cornea is not affected by a subconjunctival haemorrhage.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhages occur when blood vessels in the subconjunctival space bleed. These vessels typically supply the conjunctiva or episclera. Trauma is the most common cause, followed by spontaneous idiopathic cases, Valsalva manoeuvres, and several systemic diseases. While subconjunctival haemorrhages can look alarming, they are rarely an indicator of anything serious. They are more common in women than men, and the risk increases with age. Newborns are also more susceptible. The incidence of both traumatic and non-traumatic subconjunctival haemorrhages is 2.6%.

      Risk factors for subconjunctival haemorrhages include trauma, contact lens usage, idiopathic causes, Valsalva manoeuvres, hypertension, bleeding disorders, certain drugs, diabetes, arterial disease, and hyperlipidaemia. Symptoms include a red eye, usually unilateral, and mild irritation. Signs include a flat, red patch on the conjunctiva with well-defined edges and normal conjunctiva surrounding it. The patch’s size can vary depending on the size of the bleed and can involve the whole conjunctiva. Traumatic haemorrhages are most common in the temporal region, with the inferior conjunctiva as the next most commonly affected area. Vision should be normal, including acuity, visual fields, and range of eye movements. On examination, the fundus should be normal.

      The diagnosis of a subconjunctival haemorrhage is clinical. If there is no obvious traumatic cause, check the patient’s blood pressure. If raised, refer the patient appropriately. If the patient is taking warfarin, check the INR. If raised, refer for appropriate adjustments to the dose to bring the INR back into the target range. If you cannot see the whole border of the haemorrhage, it may be associated with an intracranial bleed or an orbital roof fracture. Further appropriate investigations should then be done, including a full cranial nerve exam looking for neurological signs as well as a CT head, after discussion with a senior. Recurrent or spontaneous, bilateral subconjunctival haemorrhages warrant investigations for bleeding disorders or other pathology.

      Reassure the patient that subconjunctival haemorrhages are a benign condition that will resolve on their own in 2 to 3 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 21 - A patient with chronic depression in their 50s comes for advice about changing...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with chronic depression in their 50s comes for advice about changing medication. They have been to the psychiatrist who wants to change them from their monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) to a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI).

      The patient cannot remember how long they were told to wait between stopping the MAOI and starting the SSRI.

      What is the recommended time interval between stopping the MAOI and starting the SSRI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      Recommended Interval Before Starting Antidepressants After Stopping MAOI

      After stopping a MAOI, it is recommended to wait before starting most other antidepressants. The interval should be two weeks, except for imipramine or clomipramine, where the interval should be three weeks. This is important to avoid potential adverse reactions and interactions between the medications. It is crucial to follow the recommended interval to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the antidepressant treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypothyroidism. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with symptoms of hypothyroidism. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is 10 mIU/l (normal range 0.17 - 3.2 mIU/l).
      What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a risk of cardiac arrhythmias with treatment

      Explanation:

      Correcting Hypothyroidism with Levothyroxine: Dosage and Risks

      One of the main concerns with starting levothyroxine replacement for hypothyroidism is the risk of cardiac arrhythmias or myocardial ischemia, although rare. Therefore, initial low dosing is followed by gradual dose escalation until euthyroid status is achieved. Over-treatment can also lead to osteoporosis. The aim of treatment is to normalise serum TSH and improve thyroid hormone concentrations to the euthyroid state. Levothyroxine alone is the recommended treatment, with an initial dose of 50-100 µg once daily for patients aged 18-49 years, adjusted in steps of 25-50 µg every four weeks according to response. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, and those over 50 years, the recommended initial dose is 25 µg once daily. Symptom relief may take many months after TSH levels have returned to normal, and persisting symptoms warrant further investigations for non-thyroid causes.

      Levothyroxine Dosage and Risks in Correcting Hypothyroidism

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer after a lesion was...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer after a lesion was detected during a routine mammogram as part of the NHS Breast Screening program. What are the optimal features of a screening test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High sensitivity and high specificity

      Explanation:

      An optimal screening test would possess both high sensitivity and high specificity.

      Sensitivity refers to the proportion of individuals with a particular disease who are correctly identified as having the disease by the test. In an ideal screening program, a high sensitivity would ensure that the majority of affected individuals are detected. The positive predictive value, which indicates the proportion of people with the disease among those who test positive, is less important than sensitivity in a screening test. A high positive predictive value doesn’t necessarily mean that most individuals with the disease would test positive, but rather that most of those who test positive have the disease.

      Specificity, on the other hand, refers to the proportion of individuals without the disease who are correctly identified as not having the disease by the test. A screening program with high specificity would produce negative test results for those who do not have the disease, reducing the need for further, more invasive tests. It is crucial for a screening program to have few false positive results. The negative predictive value, which indicates the proportion of people without the disease among those who test negative, is not relevant to a screening program’s goals.

      Screening for a particular condition should meet certain criteria, known as the Wilson and Jungner criteria. Firstly, the condition being screened for should be a significant public health concern. Secondly, there should be an effective treatment available for those who are diagnosed with the disease. Thirdly, facilities for diagnosis and treatment should be accessible. Fourthly, there should be a recognizable early stage of the disease. Fifthly, the natural progression of the disease should be well understood. Sixthly, there should be a suitable test or examination available. Seventhly, the test or examination should be acceptable to the population being screened. Eighthly, there should be a clear policy on who should be treated. Ninthly, the cost of screening and subsequent treatment should be economically balanced. Finally, screening should be an ongoing process rather than a one-time event.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 24 - You review a 59-year-old woman, who is worried about her risk of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 59-year-old woman, who is worried about her risk of abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) due to her family history. She has a BMI of 28 kg/m² and a 20 pack-year smoking history. Her blood pressure in clinic is 136/88 mmHg. She is given a leaflet about AAA screening.

      What is accurate regarding AAA screening in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He will be invited for one-off abdominal ultrasound at aged 65

      Explanation:

      At the age of 65, all males are invited for a screening to detect abdominal aortic aneurysm through a single abdominal ultrasound, irrespective of their risk factors. In case an aneurysm is identified, additional follow-up will be scheduled.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, so it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If the width is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. If the width is between 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or greater, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.

      For patients with a low risk of rupture (asymptomatic, aortic diameter < 5.5cm), abdominal ultrasound surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture (symptomatic, aortic diameter >=5.5cm or rapidly enlarging), referral to vascular surgery for probable intervention should occur within 2 weeks. Treatment options include elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if unsuitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, where the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm, and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 25 - A previously healthy 70-year-old woman presents with lethargy and breathlessness. She looks anaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 70-year-old woman presents with lethargy and breathlessness. She looks anaemic and significant blood results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 72 g/l 135-175 g/l
      White cell count 2.4 x 109/l 4.0-11.0 x 109/l
      Platelets 155 x 109/l 150-400 x 109/l
      Reticulocytes 0.80% 0.5%-1.5%
      Mean corpuscular volume 92 fl 76-98 fl
      Ferritin 8 μg/l 10-120 μg/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next option for further investigation of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum vitamin B12 and folate

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Checking B12 and Folate Levels in Iron Deficiency Anaemia

      Iron deficiency anaemia can mask the development of macrocytic anaemia, leading to a normal mean cell volume despite anaemia and iron deficiency. To avoid missing a potential underlying condition, it is crucial to check serum B12 and folate levels. Thalassaemia trait can also mask macrocytosis, but ferritin levels are elevated in this case. A blood film may not be helpful if macrocytosis has not developed, but in megaloblastic anaemia, oval macrocytes and hypersegmented nuclei in neutrophils can be seen. Therefore, checking B12 and folate levels is essential in the diagnosis and management of iron deficiency anaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 26 - Which one of the following statements regarding hepatitis B is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding hepatitis B is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10-15% of adults fail to respond or respond poorly to 3 doses of the vaccine

      Explanation:

      An anti-HBs check is necessary only for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease who are at risk of occupational exposure.

      Understanding Hepatitis B: Causes, Symptoms, Complications, Prevention, and Management

      Hepatitis B is a virus that spreads through exposure to infected blood or body fluids, including from mother to child during birth. The incubation period is typically 6-20 weeks. Symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases. Complications of the infection can include chronic hepatitis, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.

      Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of an individual with hepatitis B, individuals receiving regular blood transfusions, chronic kidney disease patients, prisoners, and chronic liver disease patients. The vaccine is given in three doses and is typically effective, although around 10-15% of adults may not respond well to the vaccine.

      Management of hepatitis B typically involves antiviral medications such as tenofovir, entecavir, and telbivudine, which aim to suppress viral replication. Pegylated interferon-alpha was previously the only treatment available and can still be used as a first-line treatment, but other medications are increasingly being used. A better response to treatment is predicted by being female, under 50 years old, having low HBV DNA levels, being non-Asian, being HIV negative, and having a high degree of inflammation on liver biopsy.

      Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, complications, prevention, and management of hepatitis B is important for both healthcare professionals and the general public. Vaccination and early detection and treatment can help prevent the spread of the virus and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old male patient complains of mouth pain and halitosis. During examination, it...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient complains of mouth pain and halitosis. During examination, it is observed that he has poor dental hygiene, bleeding gums, and extensive gingival ulceration. He also has a fever of 38.0ºC. You suggest that he should visit a dentist. What other treatment alternatives should be provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol + oral metronidazole + chlorhexidine mouthwash

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gingivitis and its Management

      Gingivitis is a dental condition that is commonly caused by poor oral hygiene. It is characterized by red and swollen gums that bleed easily. In severe cases, it can lead to acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, which is accompanied by painful bleeding gums, bad breath, and ulcers on the gums.

      For patients with simple gingivitis, regular dental check-ups are recommended, and antibiotics are usually not necessary. However, for those with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, it is important to seek immediate dental attention. In the meantime, oral metronidazole or amoxicillin may be prescribed for three days, along with chlorhexidine or hydrogen peroxide mouthwash and simple pain relief medication.

      It is crucial to maintain good oral hygiene to prevent gingivitis from developing or worsening. This includes brushing teeth twice a day, flossing daily, and using mouthwash regularly. By understanding the causes and management of gingivitis, individuals can take steps to protect their oral health and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 28 - A recently published meta-analysis on the prevalence of interstitial lung disease in elderly...

    Incorrect

    • A recently published meta-analysis on the prevalence of interstitial lung disease in elderly patients with a history of severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) is discussed at a geriatric medicine conference that you attend. The speaker suggests that there may be a publication bias affecting the results.

      What statistical method, graph or examination would be the most effective in exploring the speaker's hypothesis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      A funnel plot is the correct tool to use when evaluating meta-analyses for publication bias. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis, with an asymmetrical funnel indicating the presence of publication bias or small study effects. In contrast, a box and whisker plot is not an appropriate test for publication bias, as it primarily displays quartiles, median, and variability. Similarly, the chi-square test and Kruskal-Wallis test are not suitable for investigating publication bias, as they are designed to evaluate binary outcomes and compare means of independent groups, respectively.

      Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses

      Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).

      In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 29 - A 14-year-old boy presents with excessive bleeding during a routine dental extraction. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy presents with excessive bleeding during a routine dental extraction. Upon examination, petechial skin haemorrhages are observed. Blood tests reveal:

      - Hb: 12.3 g/dl
      - Plt: 255 * 109/l
      - WBC: 7.9 * 109/l
      - PT: 13.3 secs
      - APTT: 39 secs
      - Factor VIII activity: 87%

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Von Willebrand's disease

      Explanation:

      Von Willebrand’s disease is the most probable diagnosis due to the presence of a petechial skin rash, along with a slightly increased APTT and decreased factor VIII activity.

      Understanding Von Willebrand’s Disease

      Von Willebrand’s disease is a genetic bleeding disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant or recessive manner. It is the most common inherited bleeding disorder, and it behaves like a platelet disorder. Patients with this condition often experience epistaxis and menorrhagia, while haemoarthroses and muscle haematomas are rare.

      The disease is caused by a deficiency or abnormality in von Willebrand factor, a large glycoprotein that promotes platelet adhesion to damaged endothelium and serves as a carrier molecule for factor VIII. There are three types of von Willebrand’s disease: type 1, which involves a partial reduction in vWF and accounts for 80% of cases; type 2, which is characterized by an abnormal form of vWF; and type 3, which involves a total lack of vWF and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.

      To diagnose von Willebrand’s disease, doctors may perform a bleeding time test, measure APTT, and check factor VIII levels. Defective platelet aggregation with ristocetin is also a common finding. Treatment options include tranexamic acid for mild bleeding, desmopressin to raise levels of vWF, and factor VIII concentrate. The type of von Willebrand’s disease a patient has doesn’t necessarily correlate with their symptoms, but common themes include excessive mucocutaneous bleeding, bruising without trauma, and menorrhagia in females.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 30 - A 49 year old teacher comes to you with a recent onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 49 year old teacher comes to you with a recent onset of nosebleeds and bleeding gums. You order immediate blood tests and the results are as follows:

      Hemoglobin 85 g/L
      White blood cells 2.5 x 10^9/L
      Platelets 17 x 10^9/L
      Abnormal clotting
      Blood smear shows bilobed large mononuclear cells

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      The image depicts bone marrow failure caused by acute myeloid leukemia, which occurs when abnormal white blood cells accumulate in the bone marrow, replacing normal blood cells. This type of leukemia is more common in individuals over the age of 45, whereas acute lymphoblastic leukemia is mostly seen in children. Unlike lymphoma, which typically presents with enlarged lymph nodes, acute myeloid leukemia can lead to bone marrow failure. Von Willebrand’s disease may cause severe cases of epistaxis and bleeding gums, but abnormalities in blood test results are rare.

      Acute myeloid leukaemia is a prevalent form of acute leukaemia in adults that can occur as a primary disease or as a result of a myeloproliferative disorder. The condition is characterized by bone marrow failure, which can lead to anaemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, splenomegaly, and bone pain. Poor prognostic features include being over 60 years old, having more than 20% blasts after the first course of chemotherapy, and deletions of chromosome 5 or 7.

      Acute promyelocytic leukaemia M3 is a subtype of acute myeloid leukaemia that is associated with t(15;17) and the fusion of PML and RAR-alpha genes. This type of leukaemia typically presents at a younger age than other types of AML, with an average age of 25 years old. Auer rods, which are visible with myeloperoxidase stain, are often present, and patients may experience DIC or thrombocytopenia at presentation. However, the prognosis for acute promyelocytic leukaemia M3 is generally good.

      The French-American-British (FAB) classification system categorizes acute myeloid leukaemia into seven subtypes based on the degree of maturation of the cells: MO (undifferentiated), M1 (without maturation), M2 (with granulocytic maturation), M3 (acute promyelocytic), M4 (granulocytic and monocytic maturation), M5 (monocytic), M6 (erythroleukaemia), and M7 (megakaryoblastic).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 31 - The mother of a 27-year-old male who has been diagnosed with a personality...

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 27-year-old male who has been diagnosed with a personality disorder seeks your advice. She shares that her son has a history of getting into fights and has been arrested multiple times. During his teenage years, he would lie to obtain money, skip school, and say hurtful things to her without remorse. He has never been able to hold down a job and relies on his parents for financial support.

      The mother is aware of her son's diagnosis but understands that you cannot discuss his case specifically. She asks if you can provide general information about the condition to help her understand better. She has always blamed herself for her son's behavior and hopes to gain some insight into his condition.

      What is the most probable diagnosis for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antisocial personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Patients with this condition often exhibit nonconformity to social norms, lack of remorse, deceitfulness, and irresponsibility. They may engage in unlawful behavior resulting in multiple arrests, get into fights due to aggressiveness, and be deceitful for personal gain. They may also disregard the safety of themselves and others and fail to support themselves financially. Despite their hurtful actions, they are unable to show remorse. Childhood problems such as truancy may be present, and their behavior can negatively impact family life. It is important to maintain confidentiality during the consultation.

      Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a fear of social contact and relationships due to a fear of criticism, rejection, or embarrassment. Patients view themselves as inferior to others and are hesitant to engage unless they are certain of being liked.

      Borderline personality disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, and unstable relationships with others. Patients may experience feelings of emptiness, have a poor self-image, and engage in self-harm.

      Narcissistic personality disorder is characterized by an exaggerated sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and a sense of entitlement.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 32 - A 65-year-old man presents for review. He has been recently diagnosed with congestive...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents for review. He has been recently diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Currently, he takes digoxin 0.25 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily and amiloride 5 mg daily.

      Routine laboratory studies are normal except for a blood urea of 8 mmol/l (2.5-7.5) and a serum creatinine of 110 μmol/L (60-110).

      One month later, the patient continues to have dyspnoea and orthopnoea and has noted a 4 kg reduction in weight. His pulse rate is 96 per minute, blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg. Physical examination is unchanged except for reduced crackles, JVP is no longer visible and there is no ankle oedema.

      Repeat investigations show:

      Urea 10.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 120 µmol/L (60-110)

      Sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144)

      Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Digoxin concentration within therapeutic range.

      What would be the next most appropriate change to make to his medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add lisinopril 2.5 mg daily

      Explanation:

      The Importance of ACE Inhibitors in Heart Failure Treatment

      Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are crucial drugs in the treatment of heart failure. They offer a survival advantage and are the primary treatment for heart failure, unless contraindicated. These drugs work by reducing peripheral vascular resistance through the blockage of the angiotensin converting enzyme. This action decreases myocardial oxygen consumption, improving cardiac output and moderating left ventricular and vascular hypertrophy.

      ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in treating congestive heart failure (CHF) caused by systolic dysfunction. However, first dose hypotension may occur, especially if the patient is already on diuretics. These drugs are also beneficial in protecting renal function, especially in cases of significant proteinuria. An increase of 20% in serum creatinine levels is not uncommon and is not a reason to discontinue the medication.

      It is important to note that potassium levels can be affected by ACE inhibitors, and this patient is already taking several drugs that can alter potassium levels. The introduction of an ACE inhibitor may increase potassium levels, which would need to be monitored carefully. If potassium levels become too high, the amiloride may need to be stopped or substituted with a higher dose of furosemide. Overall, ACE inhibitors play a crucial role in the treatment of heart failure and should be carefully monitored to ensure their effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 33 - A 6-year-old boy is admitted to surgery with a worsening of his asthma...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is admitted to surgery with a worsening of his asthma symptoms. According to the British Thoracic Society guidelines, it is classified as a moderate attack. How should his salbutamol inhaler and spacer device be used correctly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give 1 puff every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs

      Explanation:

      The management of acute asthma attacks in children depends on the severity of the attack. Children with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy and steroid therapy should be given. The dosage of prednisolone depends on the age of the child. It is important to monitor SpO2, PEF, heart rate, respiratory rate, use of accessory neck muscles, and other clinical features to determine the severity of the attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 34 - A 32-year-old man needs to take naproxen to relieve the symptoms of ankylosing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man needs to take naproxen to relieve the symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis.
      Select from the list the single most important item that should be regularly monitored.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal function

      Explanation:

      Renal Adverse Drug Reactions Associated with NSAIDs

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used for pain relief, but they come with a relatively high incidence of renal adverse drug reactions. These reactions are caused by changes in renal haemodynamics, which are usually mediated by prostaglandins that are affected by NSAIDs. Patients with renal impairment should avoid these drugs if possible, or use them with caution. It is important to use the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible duration and monitor renal function. NSAIDs may cause sodium and water retention, leading to deterioration of renal function and possibly renal failure. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the potential renal adverse drug reactions associated with NSAIDs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 35 - A 78-year-old man presents to the Elderly Medicine clinic with concerns about his...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man presents to the Elderly Medicine clinic with concerns about his recent memory loss and overall decline in cognitive function. His daughter reports that he has been noticeably slower and has difficulty keeping up with conversations. Additionally, he has experienced frequent urinary incontinence over the past month and one episode of fecal incontinence in the past week. Upon examination, he exhibits brisk reflexes and a shuffling gait, but no cerebellar signs are present. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus may be the cause of urinary incontinence and gait abnormality in the presence of dementia, while the absence of cerebellar signs suggests that multiple system atrophy is unlikely.

      Understanding Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a type of dementia that is reversible and commonly seen in elderly patients. It is believed to be caused by a reduction in the absorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) at the arachnoid villi, which may be due to head injury, subarachnoid hemorrhage, or meningitis. The condition is characterized by a classical triad of symptoms, including urinary incontinence, dementia and bradyphrenia, and gait abnormality that may resemble Parkinson’s disease. These symptoms usually develop over a few months, and around 60% of patients will have all three features at the time of diagnosis.

      Imaging studies typically show hydrocephalus with ventriculomegaly, which is an enlargement of the ventricles in the brain, in the absence of or out of proportion to sulcal enlargement. The management of normal pressure hydrocephalus involves ventriculoperitoneal shunting, which can help alleviate symptoms. However, around 10% of patients who undergo shunting may experience significant complications such as seizures, infection, and intracerebral hemorrhages. Therefore, careful consideration and monitoring are necessary when deciding on treatment options for patients with normal pressure hydrocephalus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 36 - A 19-year-old female with a history of gender dysphoria visits the clinic seeking...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female with a history of gender dysphoria visits the clinic seeking a referral for testosterone therapy. He has researched that this treatment can modify the physical characteristics of his gender, such as deepening his voice and increasing muscle mass, to align with his gender identity. He also wants to use this therapy as a form of contraception.

      The patient's medical history includes a diagnosis of depression, for which he takes fluoxetine. There is no prior history of cancer or blood clots, but his mother and maternal grandmother have a family history of ovarian cancer.

      What is the most appropriate advice to provide to the patient regarding testosterone therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: This treatment doesn't provide protection against pregnancy and is contraindicated in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Testosterone therapy is not a form of contraception for transgender males and should not be used during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. However, a family history of ovarian cancer and a history of depression are not contraindications for this treatment. Patients with gender dysphoria should be referred to specialists at the Gender Identity Clinic or equivalent for assessment and can access testosterone therapy through the NHS regardless of whether they have obtained a Gender Recognition Certificate or not. The Gender Recognition Certificate, which is part of the Gender Recognition Act 2004, grants legal rights to trans men and women, including the ability to obtain a new birth certificate, driving licence, and passport, as well as the right to marry in their new gender.

      Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals

      The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.

      For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.

      In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 37 - A 61-year-old woman comes to the surgery complaining of severe back pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old woman comes to the surgery complaining of severe back pain that has been bothering her for the past five days. She has a history of breast cancer and osteoarthritis. The pain is located in the lower thoracic area and spreads to the front of her chest. Coughing and sneezing exacerbate the pain. She has not experienced any changes in her bowel or urinary habits. During the examination, there is diffuse tenderness in the lower thoracic region. The peri-anal sensation is normal, and the lower limb reflexes are brisk. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral dexamethasone + immediate oncological assessment

      Explanation:

      Neoplastic Spinal Cord Compression: An Oncological Emergency

      Neoplastic spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that affects around 5% of cancer patients. The majority of cases are due to vertebral body metastases, which are more common in patients with lung, breast, and prostate cancer. The earliest and most common symptom is back pain, which may worsen when lying down or coughing. Other symptoms include lower limb weakness and sensory changes such as numbness and sensory loss. The neurological signs depend on the level of the lesion, with lesions above L1 resulting in upper motor neuron signs in the legs and a sensory level, while lesions below L1 cause lower motor neuron signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes tend to be increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.

      Urgent MRI is recommended within 24 hours of presentation according to the 2019 NICE guidelines. High-dose oral dexamethasone is used for management, and urgent oncological assessment is necessary for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery. Proper management is crucial to prevent further damage to the spinal cord and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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  • Question 38 - A 42-year-old female comes to see you at the GP surgery complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female comes to see you at the GP surgery complaining of hot flashes. Her LMP was 13 months ago. She wants to have some blood tests to confirm she has gone through the menopause.

      What is the most appropriate management from the list below?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She can be advised that she has gone through the menopause. No bloods required

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Menopause According to NICE NG23

      According to NICE NG23 guidelines, menopause can be diagnosed without laboratory tests in otherwise healthy women aged over 45 years with menopausal symptoms. Perimenopause can be diagnosed based on vasomotor symptoms and irregular periods, while menopause can be diagnosed in women who have not had a period for at least 12 months and are not using hormonal contraception. Menopause can also be diagnosed based on symptoms in women without a uterus.

      However, in women aged 40 to 45 years with menopausal symptoms, including a change in their menstrual cycle, and in women aged under 40 years in whom menopause is suspected, a FSH test may be considered to diagnose menopause.

      In the case of a woman aged over 45 years with amenorrhoea for over 12 months, a clinical diagnosis of menopause can be made without the need for blood tests. It is important to note that premature ovarian failure is not a concern in this case as the woman is aged 48.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 39 - You are conducting a phone consultation with a 36-year-old patient whom you previously...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a phone consultation with a 36-year-old patient whom you previously saw for erectile dysfunction (ED) two weeks ago. You ordered some blood tests, and the results have come back with abnormal findings. The patient's HbA1c and lipid profile are both within normal limits, but his total testosterone level is low at 9 nmol/l (normal is >12 nmol/l).

      What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat the testosterone level and check follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinising hormone (LH), and prolactin level

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 40 - A 31-year-old woman who has not accessed maternity care during pregnancy presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman who has not accessed maternity care during pregnancy presents to the Labour Ward in labour. A small-for-gestational-age baby is born with rigidly flexed limbs, low-set ears, a receding chin and rocker-bottom feet.
      What is the most probable structural organ defect to be present, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

      Explanation:

      The baby in question displays typical characteristics of Edwards syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, including low birth weight, low-set ears, a receding chin, flexed limbs, and feet with a rocker-bottom appearance. Other common features include small facial features, gastrointestinal abnormalities, urogenital abnormalities, and neurological problems. Cardiac abnormalities, such as PDA, septal defects, and polyvalvular disease, are present in up to 90% of cases. The mother’s age is relevant, as the incidence of chromosomal disorders increases with maternal age. Antenatal screening can detect Edwards syndrome, but in this case, the lack of prenatal care means that diagnosis was missed. Pyloric stenosis, congenital cataracts, oesophageal atresia, and polycystic kidneys are all possible but less likely to be present in this scenario.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 41 - A 68-year-old man presents with a dry cough and progressive exertional dyspnoea that...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with a dry cough and progressive exertional dyspnoea that has been worsening over the past nine months. He quit smoking 30 years ago after smoking 20 cigarettes a day. Upon examination, fine bibasal crackles and finger clubbing are noted, while his oxygen saturations are 97% on room air and respiratory rate is 14/min. The following investigations were conducted:

      B-type natriuretic peptide 88 pg/ml (< 100pg/ml)

      ECG: sinus rhythm, 72/min

      Spirometry

      FEV1 1.57 L (50% of predicted)
      FVC 1.63 L (39% of predicted)
      FEV1/FVC 96%

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      A common scenario for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis involves a man between the ages of 50 and 70 who experiences worsening shortness of breath during physical activity. This is often accompanied by clubbing of the fingers and a spirometry test that shows a restrictive pattern. The absence of elevated B-type natriuretic peptide levels makes it highly unlikely that the patient is suffering from heart failure.

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is commonly seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is twice as common in men. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as progressive exertional dyspnea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation.

      To diagnose IPF, spirometry is used to show a restrictive picture, with FEV1 normal/decreased, FVC decreased, and FEV1/FVC increased. Impaired gas exchange is also observed, with reduced transfer factor (TLCO). Imaging tests such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scanning are used to confirm the diagnosis. ANA is positive in 30% of cases, while rheumatoid factor is positive in 10%, but this doesn’t necessarily mean that the fibrosis is secondary to a connective tissue disease.

      Management of IPF involves pulmonary rehabilitation, and very few medications have been shown to give any benefit in IPF. Pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will require supplementary oxygen and eventually a lung transplant. Unfortunately, the prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years.

      In summary, IPF is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. It is diagnosed through spirometry and imaging tests, and management involves pulmonary rehabilitation and medication. However, the prognosis for IPF is poor, and patients may require a lung transplant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 42 - A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of not having...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of not having a period for six months. Previously, she had a regular 28-day cycle with a five-day bleed. Which of the following investigations would be the least helpful initially?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum progesterone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls with no secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      The causes of amenorrhoea vary depending on the type. Primary amenorrhoea may be caused by gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, and thyrotoxicosis. Meanwhile, secondary amenorrhoea may be caused by stress, excessive exercise, PCOS, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and other underlying medical conditions.

      To diagnose amenorrhoea, initial investigations may include pregnancy tests, full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels. Management of amenorrhoea involves treating the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause and treat the underlying cause accordingly. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis and other complications.

      In conclusion, amenorrhoea is a condition that requires proper diagnosis and management. Understanding the causes and appropriate investigations can help in providing the necessary treatment and care for women experiencing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 43 - A 21-year-old female attends surgery. She has recently been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old female attends surgery. She has recently been diagnosed with anorexia nervosa and her BMI is 12.8 kg/m2. She is under the care of the local psychiatrist and has come to see you regarding her physical health.

      Which one of the following is typically associated with anorexia nervosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolonged QT interval

      Explanation:

      Physical Consequences of Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia nervosa is a serious eating disorder that requires both psychological and physical assessment. The malnutrition associated with anorexia nervosa can have significant physical consequences. One of the physical consequences is the loss of pubic and axillary hair, but sufferers develop lanugo hair which results in an overall increase in body hair.

      Classically, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism ensues, which results in amenorrhoea rather than menorrhagia. Hypokalaemia is normally found, which is a consequence of poor nutrient intake and can be exacerbated by the abuse of diuretics and laxatives. Hypotension (low blood pressure) usually features, rather than hypertension. Prolonged QT interval is typically associated with anorexia, and ECG should always be performed as part of the physical assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 44 - You are examining a 3-month-old infant and observe a patch of blotchy skin...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining a 3-month-old infant and observe a patch of blotchy skin on the back of the neck. The irregular, smooth pink patch measures around 3 cm in diameter and is not palpable. The parents mention that it becomes more noticeable when the baby cries. What is the probable diagnosis for this skin lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salmon patch

      Explanation:

      Understanding Salmon Patches in Newborns

      Salmon patches, also known as stork marks or stork bites, are a type of birthmark that can be found in approximately 50% of newborn babies. These marks are characterized by their pink and blotchy appearance and are commonly found on the forehead, eyelids, and nape of the neck. While they may cause concern for new parents, salmon patches typically fade over the course of a few months. However, marks on the neck may persist. These birthmarks are caused by an overgrowth of blood vessels and are completely harmless. It is important for parents to understand that salmon patches are a common occurrence in newborns and do not require any medical treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 45 - A 20-year-old woman has been experiencing recurrent painful mouth ulceration for several years....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman has been experiencing recurrent painful mouth ulceration for several years. The ulcers typically heal in just over a week, and she remains symptom-free until the next recurrence. She denies any associated symptoms or rash, and her father had a similar history as a teenager. She doesn't smoke and denies excessive alcohol use or drug use. Although there is no dental or periodontal disease, she has three discrete, 4-mm-round ulcers with inflammatory haloes on the buccal mucosa.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apthous ulcers

      Explanation:

      There are several types of oral ulcers that can occur. Recurrent aphthous ulcers are the most common, affecting up to 66% of people at some point in their life. These ulcers appear on movable oral tissue and can recur frequently. Treatment options include topical corticosteroids, antimicrobial mouthwash, and topical analgesics. Herpes simplex stomatitis is another type of oral ulcer that mostly affects children and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. Symptoms include fever, malaise, and painful intraoral vesicles that can lead to ulcers. Oral candidiasis, or thrush, presents as white patches on the oral mucosa and tongue that can be wiped off to reveal a raw, erythematous base. Oral hairy leukoplakia is a white patch on the side of the tongue with a hairy appearance that is caused by Epstein-Barr virus and usually occurs in immunocompromised individuals. Oral lichen planus presents as a symmetrical, white, lace-like pattern on the buccal mucosa, tongue, and gums, and may be accompanied by erosions and ulcers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 46 - A 2-year-old girl is presented to the GP by her mother who has...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old girl is presented to the GP by her mother who has noticed a peculiar lump on her neck. The mother is uncertain about the duration of the lump. The lump is situated in the anterior triangle, just in front of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, and has a soft texture. The lump is mobile but doesn't transilluminate.

      After a biopsy, cholesterol crystals are discovered in the extracted fluid. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Branchial cyst

      Explanation:

      Branchial cysts are a type of neck lump that are present from birth and typically appear in the front of the neck, near the sternocleidomastoid muscle. These cysts are lined with either squamous or columnar cells and may contain fluid that includes cholesterol crystals. They develop when the second and third branchial arches fail to fuse properly during fetal development. Cystic hygromas, lipomas, and thyroglossal cysts are different types of neck lumps that are located in different areas and do not typically contain cholesterol crystals.

      Understanding Branchial Cysts: A Developmental Defect of the Neck

      A branchial cyst is a non-cancerous growth that develops due to a defect in the branchial arches. It is filled with fluid and encapsulated by stratified squamous epithelium. These cysts may have a fistula and are prone to infection, which can cause them to enlarge following a respiratory tract infection. They typically present in late childhood or early adulthood as asymptomatic lateral neck lumps, usually located anterior to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. Although there is a slight male predisposition, they account for around 20% of paediatric neck masses.

      When examining a neck lump in children, it is important to consider and exclude other potential causes such as congenital, inflammatory, or neoplastic conditions. A branchial cyst can be diagnosed through ultrasound and fine-needle aspiration, and referral to an Ear Nose and Throat (ENT) specialist is necessary for treatment. Branchial cysts can be treated conservatively or surgically excised, and antibiotics are required for acute infections.

      In summary, understanding branchial cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. These developmental defects of the neck can present as asymptomatic lateral neck lumps and are prone to infection. With proper evaluation and management, branchial cysts can be effectively treated by ENT specialists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 47 - A 26-year-old female presents with complaints of an offensive, frothy, yellow discharge from...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents with complaints of an offensive, frothy, yellow discharge from the vagina accompanied by vulva itch and dysuria. During pelvic examination, punctuate mucosal haemorrhages are observed on the cervix. What is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Trichomonas Vaginalis Infection

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a protozoan that can cause malodorous frothy discharge in some individuals, but many are asymptomatic. The organism can be seen under microscopic examination of vaginal secretions in saline, where trophozoites with three flagella can be observed moving. In some cases, a ‘strawberry cervix’ with punctuate mucosal haemorrhages may be present. Treatment for trichomonas infection is typically metronidazole 400 mg BD for seven days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 48 - A 16-year-old mother brings her 8-month-old son to the emergency surgery, concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old mother brings her 8-month-old son to the emergency surgery, concerned about his breathing pattern. She thinks he may have asthma as he seems to be breathing faster than her 5-year-old nephew.

      The mother reports no cough or wheeze, and the child has no fever or rash. He is happily playing in the clinic room, and there are no developmental issues or family history of atopy.

      Upon clinical examination, there is no respiratory distress, and the chest is clear bilaterally. All other systems appear normal. The following are the child's observations:
      Heart Rate 125 beats per minute
      Respiratory Rate 32 breaths per minute
      Saturations 98% on air
      Temperature 37.2ºC

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure the mother findings are normal

      Explanation:

      A child under 1 typically has a normal respiratory rate of 30-40 breaths per minute. The AKT may test knowledge of normal ranges, and sometimes the best course of action is to do nothing.

      If a mother expresses concern about her child’s respiratory rate being higher than an older child’s, but the child’s rate is within the normal range for their age group (such as 34 breaths per minute), referral or medication would not be necessary and would be a misuse of resources.

      During a physical examination of a child, certain vital signs are checked to ensure that they fall within normal ranges. These ranges vary depending on the age of the child. For example, a heart rate of 110-160 beats per minute is considered normal for a child under the age of one, while a heart rate of 80-100 beats per minute is normal for a child over the age of 12. Similarly, systolic blood pressure, which measures the pressure in the arteries when the heart beats, and respiratory rate, which measures the number of breaths per minute, also have different normal ranges depending on the child’s age. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these normal ranges in order to identify any potential health concerns in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 49 - Oliver is a 25-year-old man, who was diagnosed with coeliac disease when he...

    Incorrect

    • Oliver is a 25-year-old man, who was diagnosed with coeliac disease when he was aged five having been referred to the paediatricians with failure to thrive and anaemia.

      He is very aware of foods that may cause problems, but wants to know if there are any drinks that should be avoided when he goes out clubbing with friends.

      Which one of the following drinks can he safely ingest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Whiskey

      Explanation:

      Coeliac Disease and Gluten-Free Alcohol

      Patients with coeliac disease must avoid consuming foodstuffs that contain gluten. This means that anything made with wheat, barley, and oats (in some cases) should be avoided. When it comes to alcohol, beers, lagers, stouts, and real ales, whether alcoholic or not, must be avoided due to their gluten content. However, there are now several gluten-free beers and lagers available in the market.

      On the other hand, wine, champagne, port, sherry, ciders, liqueurs, and spirits, including whiskey, are all gluten-free. Although whiskey is initially made from barley, the distilling process involved in its production removes the gluten, making it safe for coeliacs to consume. It is essential for individuals with coeliac disease to be mindful of their alcohol intake and to choose gluten-free options to avoid any adverse reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 50 - A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent headache that...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a persistent headache that has been bothering her for the past 5 months. She has been keeping a headache diary which shows that she experiences symptoms for approximately 20-25 days each month. The headache is usually felt on one side of her head, and she has been taking paracetamol 1g qds and ibuprofen 400mg tds daily to alleviate her symptoms. The doctor suspects that she may be suffering from medication overuse headache. What is the most appropriate course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abruptly stop analgesics

      Explanation:

      Understanding Medication Overuse Headache

      Medication overuse headache is a common cause of chronic daily headache that affects up to 1 in 50 people. It is characterized by headaches that occur for 15 days or more per month and are worsened by regular use of symptomatic medication. Patients who use opioids and triptans are at the highest risk of developing this condition. Additionally, there may be psychiatric comorbidity associated with medication overuse headache.

      According to the 2008 SIGN guidelines, the management of medication overuse headache involves abruptly withdrawing simple analgesics and triptans, which may initially worsen headaches. On the other hand, opioid analgesics should be gradually withdrawn. However, withdrawal symptoms such as vomiting, hypotension, tachycardia, restlessness, sleep disturbances, and anxiety may occur when medication is stopped. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before discontinuing any medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 51 - A 67-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of thoracic back pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of thoracic back pain at night. He reports that the pain has been present for a few months and has recently worsened over the past two weeks. He denies any other symptoms and states that he generally feels well. He has no history of limb weakness, walking difficulties, pins and needles, or bladder and bowel problems. Additionally, he has never had any previous back injuries.
      The patient's medical history includes childhood asthma, mild osteoarthritis of the fingers and knees, and prostate cancer three years ago.
      Upon examination, there is tenderness over the thoracic spine area, and he experiences discomfort on flexion. Straight leg raising is normal, and there are no neurological abnormalities in the limbs.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to oncology

      Explanation:

      Metastatic Spinal Cord Compression: A Medical Emergency

      Metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) is a medical emergency that should be considered in all cancer patients with back pain. Back pain is the most common sign, occurring in 90% of cases and may pre-date neurological changes by a considerable length of time. However, once neurological symptoms and signs are present, such as leg weakness, increased reflexes, a sensory ‘level’ and sphincter disturbance, the prognosis for recovery with treatment (surgery or radiotherapy) is much poorer.

      NICE guidelines on metastatic spinal cord compression (CG75) advise contacting the MSCC coordinator urgently (within 24 hours) to discuss the care of patients with cancer and any symptoms suggestive of spinal metastases. These symptoms include pain in the middle or upper spine, progressive lower spinal pain, severe unremitting lower spinal pain, spinal pain aggravated by straining, localised spinal tenderness, or nocturnal spinal pain preventing sleep.

      It is worth noting that 77% of people diagnosed with MSCC have an established diagnosis of cancer, where 23% present with MSCC as the first presentation of malignancy. This medical emergency can occur in any area of the spine, and prompt recognition and treatment are essential for the best possible outcome. Therefore, it is crucial to contact the MSCC coordinator immediately to discuss the care of patients with cancer and symptoms suggestive of spinal metastases who have any neurological symptoms or signs suggestive of MSCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 52 - A 28-year-old woman presents as an emergency to her GP with acute vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents as an emergency to her GP with acute vomiting which began some 3-4 h after attending an afternoon meeting. Cream cakes were served during the coffee break.
      Select from the list the most likely causative organism of this acute attack of vomiting.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bacterial Food Poisoning: Causes and Symptoms

      Bacterial food poisoning is a common problem that can result from consuming contaminated food or water. Among the different types of bacteria that can cause food poisoning, Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, Yersinia, Campylobacter, and Salmonella are the most common. Each of these bacteria has its own unique characteristics and symptoms.

      Staphylococcus aureus is known to multiply rapidly in foods that are rich in carbohydrates and salt, such as dairy products, ice cream, cold meats, or mayonnaise. It produces a heat-stable endotoxin that causes nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea within 1-6 hours of ingestion.

      Bacillus cereus infection is associated with slow-cooked food and reheated rice. The bacterium produces an emetic toxin that leads to vomiting within 1-5 hours. It can be difficult to distinguish from other short-term bacterial foodborne intoxications such as by Staphylococcus aureus.

      Yersinia infection results in diarrhea some 3-10 days after contact and presents with bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. The organism is acquired usually by insufficiently cooked pork or contaminated water, meat, or milk.

      Campylobacter infection has an incubation period of 2-5 days and results in flu-like symptoms, abdominal pain, and diarrhea. It is the most common bacterium that causes food poisoning in the UK.

      Salmonella infection normally leads to a picture of acute gastroenteritis with fever, abdominal cramps, and diarrhea between 12-36 hours after the ingestion of infected food. Infection occurs from a wide variety of infected foods that usually look and smell normal.

      It is important for registered medical practitioners to notify the “proper officer” at their local council or local health protection team of suspected cases of food poisoning. By understanding the causes and symptoms of bacterial food poisoning, individuals can take steps to prevent infection and seek prompt medical attention if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 53 - A 62-year-old man presents with difficulty walking. He has a previous medical history...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man presents with difficulty walking. He has a previous medical history of diabetes and cervical spondylosis that required surgical decompression seven years ago. He drinks 30 units of alcohol a week. On examination, there is fasciculation, wasting and weakness of the left deltoid and biceps. There is also bilateral upper limb-girdle weakness. There is fasciculation and wasting of the gluteals and quadriceps, with weakness of the hip flexors. Reflexes are brisk in the upper and lower limbs. Plantars are up-going. There is no sensory loss.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Motor neurone disease

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this case is motor neurone disease, which is characterized by the degeneration of neurones in the motor cortex, motor cranial nuclei, and anterior horn cells. This condition presents with a combination of upper and lower motor neurone signs, such as weakness, spasticity, hyper-reflexia, up-going plantars, wasting, and fasciculation. However, there are no sensory changes.

      Alcohol can cause an acute alcoholic myopathy after binge drinking, which can lead to acute renal tubular necrosis due to the precipitation of myoglobin in the renal tubules. Chronic myopathy associated with gradual progressive weakness and atrophy, usually involving the hip and shoulder girdle without myoglobinuria, can also occur.

      Diabetic amyotrophy is a diabetic proximal neuropathy that causes weakness, wasting, and pain, typically in the quadriceps, and progresses distally.

      Cervical spondylosis can result in nerve root compression (radiculopathy) or cord compression (myelopathy). Radiculopathy presents with unilateral neck, shoulder, or arm pain, possibly with changes in sensation or weakness in related muscles. Myelopathy results in progressive spastic quadriparesis and sensory loss with decreased position and vibration sense, and a sensory level develops.

      Syringomyelia is characterized by a fluid-filled tubular cyst (syrinx) within the central spinal cord, usually in the cervical region. The syrinx enlarges, compressing the corticospinal and spinothalamic tracts and the anterior horn cells. This condition typically presents in the 20s and 30s, and progress is slow. Symptoms depend on the site of the lesion, but early signs often include wasting and weakness of the hands, with decreased pain and temperature sensation in the trunk and arms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 54 - A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon examination, his...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon examination, his blood pressure is found to be 190/110 mmHg. Routine blood tests show:

      - Sodium: 146 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 2.5 mmol/L
      - Bicarbonate: 34 mmol/L
      - Urea: 5.2 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 78 µmol/L

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. It was previously believed that adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome, was the most common cause of this condition. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is responsible for up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two causes as it determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This test should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone. If the results are positive, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia.

      The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is managed with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone. It is important to accurately diagnose and manage primary hyperaldosteronism to prevent complications such as cardiovascular disease and stroke.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 55 - A 52-year-old female presents to you with recent test results. She had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old female presents to you with recent test results. She had a fall a few months ago resulting in a Colles' fracture of her right wrist. A DEXA scan has confirmed that she has osteoporosis. She mentions that she has lost over a stone in weight in the past year despite having a good appetite and wonders if her weight loss could be contributing to her 'thin bones'. She also reports a change in bowel habit with looser stools, but no rectal bleeding or alternating bowel habit. She experiences frequent hot flashes and sweating episodes, and her periods have become less frequent. On examination, her blood pressure is 136/84 mmHg, pulse rate is 98 bpm regular, and she is apyrexial. Palpating her radial pulse reveals palmar erythema, warm peripheries, and a slight tremor. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender with no palpable masses, and per rectal examination is normal.

      What investigation would confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests

      Explanation:

      Secondary Causes of Osteoporosis

      There are various secondary causes that should be considered when diagnosing osteoporosis. While primary osteoporosis occurs naturally with age and menopause, certain risk factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, family history, and low body mass index can exacerbate bone density loss. However, secondary causes can be treated specifically, making it important to identify them.

      Endocrine causes such as hyperthyroidism, hyperparathyroidism, hypogonadism, Cushing’s syndrome, and premature menopause can lead to osteoporosis. Inflammatory causes like rheumatoid arthritis and inflammatory bowel disease, iatrogenic causes such as the use of steroids, anticonvulsants, and heparin, malignant causes like myeloma and leukaemias, and gastrointestinal causes like malabsorption problems can also contribute to osteoporosis.

      For instance, a woman of menopausal age with osteoporosis confirmed on DEXA scanning following a Colles’ fracture reports weight loss, looser stools, sweating episodes, and oligomenorrhoea. Clinical examination reveals a modest tachycardia, warm peripheries, palmar erythema, and a tremor. In this case, hyperthyroidism is suspected as the cause of osteoporosis at a relatively young age and the signs and symptoms elicited. Therefore, thyroid function tests will confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 56 - A 25-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of redness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of redness and pain in his left eye for the past two days. He also reports mild sensitivity to light and blurred vision. He wears contact lenses daily and is in good health otherwise.

      Upon examination, the left eye appears red with swelling of the eyelid, conjunctival inflammation, and excessive tearing. However, ocular movement is normal.

      What are the most frequently implicated organisms in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      If someone has contact lens associated keratitis, it is important to consider the possibility of a Pseudomonas infection. In the UK, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most frequently encountered bacterial pathogen in cases of contact lens associated keratitis.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea, which is the clear, dome-shaped surface that covers the front of the eye. While there are various causes of keratitis, microbial keratitis is a particularly serious form of the condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. Bacterial keratitis is often caused by Staphylococcus aureus, while Pseudomonas aeruginosa is commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic keratitis are also possible, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections, environmental factors like photokeratitis, and contact lens-related issues like contact lens acute red eye (CLARE).

      Symptoms of keratitis typically include a painful, red eye, photophobia, and a gritty sensation or feeling of a foreign body in the eye. In some cases, hypopyon may be seen. If a person is a contact lens wearer and presents with a painful red eye, an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp, meaning same-day referral to an eye specialist is usually required to rule out microbial keratitis.

      Management of keratitis typically involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics like quinolones and cycloplegic agents for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. It is important to seek urgent evaluation and treatment for microbial keratitis to prevent these potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 57 - A 25-year-old male is admitted to the acute medical unit after a paracetamol...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male is admitted to the acute medical unit after a paracetamol overdose. He later admits to multiple episodes of impulsive self-harm and overdoses. He reports that his recent overdose was triggered by a fight with his mom and concerns that she will no longer want to see him. He describes long-standing feelings of emptiness and doesn't like the way he looks.

      What is the most probable personality disorder underlying this behavior?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for the patient described is borderline personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsive behavior, fear of abandonment, and unstable self-image. Patients often experience feelings of emptiness and engage in self-harm. Childhood trauma or abuse is often associated with the development of this disorder.

      Narcissistic personality disorder is not the correct diagnosis. This disorder is characterized by an exaggerated sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and entitlement.

      Paranoid personality disorder is also not the correct diagnosis. Patients with this disorder are suspicious of others and may see hidden meanings in things or believe in conspiracy theories.

      Dependent personality disorder is not the correct diagnosis either. Patients with this disorder struggle to make decisions and require reassurance and support from others. They fear being alone and cope best in relationships. However, there is no evidence of this in the patient described.

      Personality disorders are a set of maladaptive personality traits that interfere with normal functioning in life. They are categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes odd or eccentric disorders such as paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders such as antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes anxious and fearful disorders such as obsessive-compulsive, avoidant, and dependent. These disorders affect around 1 in 20 people and can be difficult to treat. However, psychological therapies such as dialectical behaviour therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions have been shown to help patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 58 - A 22-year-old female patient presents to you after missing a dose of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female patient presents to you after missing a dose of her combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She is currently on day 10 of her packet and missed the pill approximately 26 hours ago. The patient reports taking all other pills on time and has not experienced any recent vomiting or diarrhoea. She had unprotected sexual intercourse 12 hours ago and is now seeking advice on whether she requires emergency contraception.

      What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No emergency contraception required

      Explanation:

      If a patient on the combined oral contraceptive pill misses two or more pills and has had unprotected sexual intercourse during the pill-free period or week 1 of the pill packet, emergency contraception should be considered. However, if the patient has only missed one pill, like in this case where the patient missed one pill on day 9, emergency contraception is not necessary. A pregnancy test is also not required at this point. However, if the patient had missed two pills and had a history of erratic pill-taking, a pregnancy test would be recommended before prescribing emergency contraception.

      If the patient had missed two pills during days 1-7 of the pill packet and had unprotected sex during this time, emergency contraception should be offered. The choice of emergency contraception depends on various factors such as the timing of the unprotected intercourse event, other medications the patient may be taking, and their preferences. EllaOne (ulipristal acetate) can be used up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse, while Levonelle (levonorgestrel) can be used up to 96 hours after unprotected intercourse.

      Offering to insert a copper coil to prevent pregnancy would be inappropriate in this case as emergency contraception is not required. However, if the patient is having trouble remembering to take their pill correctly and wishes to consider a long-acting contraceptive, options such as intrauterine devices, subnormal contraceptive implants, and the contraceptive injection can be discussed. It is important to note that the contraceptive injection cannot be used as a form of emergency contraception.

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 59 - A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents in the early evening with symptoms that have progressively worsened during the day. Her temperature is 39 oC and she has a cough, stridor, drooling of saliva and respiratory distress.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute epiglottitis

      Explanation:

      Acute Epiglottitis and Croup: Two Respiratory Conditions in Children

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but life-threatening condition that causes inflammation of the epiglottis and surrounding soft tissues. It is most common in children between the ages of 2 and 8 and is often caused by Haemophilus influenza type b. Throat examination with a tongue depressor should be avoided, and urgent referral for laryngoscopy is necessary. Intubation may be required in over 30% of patients, and prophylactic intubation may be carried out in those with dyspnoea or stridor.

      Croup, on the other hand, is a relatively mild and self-limiting condition that causes a barking cough and stridor. It is typically associated with viral upper respiratory infections and affects children between 6 months and 3 years of age. Symptoms are often worse at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 60 - A 65-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of dizziness. She experiences sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of dizziness. She experiences sudden onset dizziness and nausea when she rolls over in bed in the morning, which goes away after about 20 seconds if she keeps her head still. After these episodes, she feels unsteady and light-headed for several hours. The patient has a history of recurrent otitis media and her family has a history of otosclerosis.

      What is the most crucial initial test that needs to be done?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre

      Explanation:

      The presence of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss are key indicators for the diagnosis of Meniere’s disease, which is a common cause of dizziness. Other factors such as recurrent otitis media and family history of otosclerosis may be misleading. Audiometry is a recommended test for Meniere’s disease, while CT head is useful for otosclerosis and MRI scan is the preferred diagnostic tool for acoustic neuroma.

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common cause of vertigo that occurs suddenly when there is a change in head position. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 55 and is less common in younger patients. Symptoms of BPPV include dizziness and vertigo, which can be accompanied by nausea. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds and can be triggered by rolling over in bed or looking upwards. A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre, which is indicated by vertigo and rotatory nystagmus, can confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.

      Fortunately, BPPV has a good prognosis and usually resolves on its own within a few weeks to months. Treatment options include the Epley manoeuvre, which is successful in around 80% of cases, and vestibular rehabilitation exercises such as the Brandt-Daroff exercises. While medication such as Betahistine may be prescribed, it tends to have limited effectiveness. However, it is important to note that around half of individuals with BPPV may experience a recurrence of symptoms 3-5 years after their initial diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 61 - A 57-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of blurred vision on...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of blurred vision on his right side for several days. He reports seeing a cobweb-like opacity that moves around. When he closes his right eye, the opacity disappears. His visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes, and he has not experienced any visual field loss. Upon examination with an ophthalmoscope after dilatation, his retina appears normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitreous detachment

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Vitreous Detachment: This condition is characterized by flashing lights and a mobile opacity in the visual field of one eye. A slit-lamp examination can reveal the opacity, which may be a sign of a retinal tear. Urgent referral to Eye Casualty is necessary to evaluate the retina and prevent retinal detachment.

      Cataract: Cataracts cause a stable reduction in vision and appear as grey, white, or yellow-brown opacities in the lens.

      Corneal Erosion: Often caused by trauma, a corneal erosion is painful and can be detected with fluorescein stain.

      Macular Degeneration: This condition causes distortion of the central visual field and is visible on an Amsler chart. It is slowly progressive over months or years.

      Retinal Detachment: Symptoms include photopsia, floaters, and a curtain descending over the field of vision. Macular involvement results in severe reduction in visual acuity. An obvious detachment appears as an elevation of the retina, which appears grey with dark blood vessels that may lie in folds. Comparing the suspected area with an adjacent normal area can help detect any change in retinal transparency. Vitreous haemorrhage may also occur.

      Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 62 - A 27-year-old female patient complains of painful and heavy periods. She experiences heavy...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female patient complains of painful and heavy periods. She experiences heavy bleeding for approximately 6 days and severe cramps for the first 3 days. She doesn't wish to use contraception as she is getting married soon and intends to start a family. Her full blood count is within normal limits. What is the initial treatment option that is suitable for managing her heavy bleeding and pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mefenamic acid

      Explanation:

      Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

      Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of more than 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. Prior to the 1990s, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has since shifted.

      To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women, and a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged if symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality. If contraception is not required, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.

      For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. A flowchart can be used to guide the management of menorrhagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 63 - Which of the following medications, when taken with Tamoxifen, may decrease its efficacy...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following medications, when taken with Tamoxifen, may decrease its efficacy and are commonly prescribed to women for anxiety, depression, and hot flashes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Drug Interactions with Tamoxifen

      Tamoxifen is a medication used to treat breast cancer, and its effectiveness is dependent on the bioactivation process catalyzed by the cytochrome CYP2D6. However, studies have shown that certain drugs can inhibit CYP2D6, leading to a decrease in the clinical effectiveness of tamoxifen.

      Among the drugs that can inhibit CYP2D6, paroxetine and fluoxetine are considered strong inhibitors. Therefore, concomitant use of these drugs with tamoxifen should be avoided. Other drugs have not been shown to have this problem and can be used safely with tamoxifen. It is important to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure the best possible treatment outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 64 - Samantha is 14 weeks pregnant with her second child. She has a history...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is 14 weeks pregnant with her second child. She has a history of gestational diabetes during her previous pregnancy. Her midwife arranged an oral glucose tolerance test, but she missed the appointment to review the results.

      The following results were obtained:

      - Fasting glucose: 5.8 mmol/l
      - 2-hour plasma glucose: 7.5 mmol/l

      What is the interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gestational diabetes as fasting glucose >5.6 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      A diagnosis of gestational diabetes is likely as the fasting glucose level exceeds 5.6 mmol/l.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.

      To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.

      For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.

      Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 65 - A 39-year-old teacher is being evaluated after starting an antidepressant. She initially presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old teacher is being evaluated after starting an antidepressant. She initially presented with various symptoms of depression and a PHQ-9 score of 18. She has experienced several significant life events leading up to her diagnosis.

      She is married with a daughter in college, but has a strong support system from her family. You decided to initiate treatment with sertraline 50 mg, but she reports no improvement in her depression and your assessment agrees.

      Despite the lack of effectiveness in her treatment thus far, she appears to be tolerating the medication without any adverse effects.

      Based on NICE guidelines for depression treatment, at what point in her treatment would you consider increasing the dosage if she has not responded?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Six to eight weeks

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Depression: Considerations for Medication Adjustment

      When treating depression, it is important to monitor the patient’s response to medication. If there is no improvement within three to four weeks, it may be necessary to increase the dose or switch to a different antidepressant. However, if there is some improvement at four weeks, it is recommended to continue treatment for an additional two to four weeks before making any further changes.

      In this particular case, the patient is tolerating the medication well and has support from her husband. Therefore, the focus should be on adjusting the medication. This recommendation is based on NICE guidance on Depression in adults (CG90) and is supported by other publications. By closely monitoring the patient’s response and making appropriate adjustments, healthcare providers can help improve outcomes for those struggling with depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 66 - Is it true that Isoniazid inhibits the P450 system?

    Important for me

    Less...

    Incorrect

    • Is it true that Isoniazid inhibits the P450 system?

      Important for me

      Less important

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      The P450 system is inhibited by isoniazid.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 67 - A 55-year-old man comes to see you along with a support worker. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man comes to see you along with a support worker. He has a background of Down syndrome and cardiac surgery as a child. He sometimes struggles to communicate with others but can do this with help from his support worker.
      He has been having rectal bleeding, abdominal pain, and looser stools for four months. He has a normal abdominal examination but refuses a per rectum (PR) examination.
      You want to make an urgent 2-week-wait referral for a colonoscopy, but he says that he doesn't want any more tests.
      You explain that the test is for cancer, from which he could die if not treated. After discussing this for some time, he tells you that he doesn't want to have any tests done at all, even if this meant he were to die.
      What would be the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Agree not to request a colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Capacity Assessment and Decision Making: A Case Study

      In this case study, a man has been presented with the option of undergoing a colonoscopy. However, he has the capacity to refuse the test and has demonstrated his ability to understand the relevant information, weigh it up, and communicate his decision. It is important to consider whether his capacity is fluctuating and whether the decision can wait until capacity returns. Additionally, even if a person lacks capacity for one decision, it doesn’t mean they lack capacity for all decisions.

      Booking him in with another GP for a second opinion would not be necessary and could be distressing for him. A further capacity assessment is also not necessary as he has already demonstrated his capacity to make this decision. Ignoring his capacity and requesting the investigation regardless would be incorrect.

      Finally, an independent mental-capacity advocate (IMCA) is not required in this scenario as the man has the necessary support to make his decision and is able to represent himself. It is important to involve the person in the decision-making process, even if they lack capacity, and to assess capacity on a case-by-case basis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 68 - A 50-year-old woman who is a non-smoker complains of rib pain. A bone...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman who is a non-smoker complains of rib pain. A bone scan reveals multiple lesions highly indicative of metastases. Physical examination is unremarkable except for unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy. An excision biopsy of an affected lymph node confirms the presence of adenocarcinoma. What investigation should be given priority to identify the primary site of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mammography

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Cancer of Unknown Primary Site

      Cancers of unknown primary site make up a small percentage of all cancers and can present in various locations such as bones, lymph nodes, lungs, and liver. If the presentation is in the axillary lymph node, an occult breast primary may be the cause, and mammography should be the first investigation. If the mammogram is negative, other tests can identify alternative occult sites. Identifying the primary site is crucial for guiding treatment and determining prognosis, even in metastatic disease. However, some investigations may not be appropriate for certain presentations. Cancer antigen-125 (CA-125) is not a diagnostic tool for ovarian cancer, and colonoscopy and gastroscopy are unlikely to be useful for identifying the primary site in cases of metastases to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Instead, Virchow’s nodes in the left supraclavicular area may be sentinel lymph nodes for abdominal cancer, particularly gastric cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 69 - A 57-year-old man presents with weakness of the long flexors of the thumb...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents with weakness of the long flexors of the thumb and index finger and inability to pronate his forearm on one side. There is no history of trauma.
      Identify the nerve that is most likely to be affected.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior interosseous nerve

      Explanation:

      Anterior Interosseous Nerve: Function, Symptoms, and Treatment

      The anterior interosseous nerve is a motor nerve that branches off from the median nerve just below the antecubital fossa. It runs along the interosseous membrane between the ulna and radius and ends in the pronator quadratus muscle at the wrist. Its primary function is to supply the flexor pollicis longus, the lateral half of the flexor digitorum profundus, and the pronator quadratus.

      However, the nerve can be affected by direct penetrating injury or compression, leading to a condition known as anterior interosseous syndrome. This condition causes weakness in the interphalangeal joint of the thumb and the distal interphalangeal joints of the index and middle fingers, as the flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus are weakened.

      Treatment for compression includes rest, immobilization, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and possibly steroid injections or nerve release and repair. While spontaneous recovery is possible, seeking medical attention is recommended for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 70 - A 67-year-old man presents with a recent diagnosis of angina pectoris. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with a recent diagnosis of angina pectoris. He is currently on aspirin, simvastatin, atenolol, and nifedipine, but is still experiencing frequent use of his GTN spray. What would be the most suitable course of action for further management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add isosorbide mononitrate MR and refer to cardiology for consideration of PCI or CABG

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, if a patient needs a third anti-anginal medication, they should be referred for evaluation of a more permanent solution such as PCI or CABG. Although ACE inhibitors may be beneficial for certain patients with stable angina, they would not alleviate his angina symptoms.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 71 - A 30-year-old woman presents with malaise, fever, malar rash, two swollen joints and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with malaise, fever, malar rash, two swollen joints and the following results: ANA positive, double-stranded DNA antibody (anti-dsDNA) positive, rheumatoid factor positive and reduced C3, C4 complement levels. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Screening Tests

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a complex autoimmune disease that can affect multiple organs in the body. It is more common in women, especially those aged between 15 and 35. SLE is characterized by the presence of antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and autoantibodies, which can be detected through screening tests such as ESR, ANA, and anti-dsDNA antibodies. However, the diagnosis of SLE requires the presence of at least four out of 11 criteria specified by the American College of Rheumatology, including rash, joint swelling, ANA positivity, and autoantibodies. The course of SLE is unpredictable, with periods of illness alternating with remissions. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and screening tests for SLE is crucial for early detection and management of this complex disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 72 - A 60-year-old man has been experiencing difficulty concentrating on tasks and remembering recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has been experiencing difficulty concentrating on tasks and remembering recent events. Clinical examination and laboratory tests are normal. Mental status examination shows emotional lability, difficulty in naming common objects and a recall of only one out of three objects after 5 minutes.
      What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s dementia

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Most Common Causes of Dementia in Older Adults

      The symptoms presented by the patient are highly indicative of Alzheimer’s dementia, which is the most prevalent cause of dementia in their age group. This type of dementia is characterized by a gradual onset of memory impairment and the absence of any focal neurological disease. On the other hand, alcohol-related dementia is less likely as there is no history of excessive alcohol intake. Cerebrovascular disease is also an uncommon cause of dementia, and it often has a more sudden onset with evidence of focal neurological or vascular disease. If the deterioration is gradual, it tends to progress in a stepwise manner. Depression may cause difficulty in concentration, but it doesn’t impair short-term memory. It is important to note that aging alone doesn’t cause cognitive function problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 73 - A 50-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease complains of myalgia....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease complains of myalgia. He has been taking aspirin, simvastatin, and atenolol for a long time. A creatine kinase test is performed due to his statin use, and the results show:

      Creatine kinase 1,420 u/l (< 190 u/l)

      The patient's symptoms appeared after starting a new medication. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the elevated creatine kinase level?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      The interaction between statins and erythromycin/clarithromycin is significant and frequent, and in this case, the patient has experienced statin-induced myopathy due to clarithromycin.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 74 - As an ST1 doctor at the local genitourinary medicine clinic, you encounter a...

    Incorrect

    • As an ST1 doctor at the local genitourinary medicine clinic, you encounter a 17-year-old female patient who has tested positive for Chlamydia. However, when she is asked about her previous or current partner, she refuses to provide any details. What would be the most suitable course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treat her and explore the reasons why she doesn't want to tell her previous or current partner

      Explanation:

      In this scenario, it is important to prioritize confidentiality and empathy.

      It is crucial to treat the patient with respect and care, regardless of whether she is willing to disclose the names of her previous partners. Refusing to treat her or threatening to disclose her information to her parents is unethical and unacceptable.

      Instead, it is important to have an open and non-judgmental conversation with the patient to understand her concerns and reasons for not disclosing her partners. This approach may help to build trust and alleviate her fears.

      On the other hand, simply providing her with a tablet of azithromycin to give to her partner is not a recommended solution. This approach doesn’t address the underlying issues and may not effectively prevent the spread of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 75 - A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with hypertension and has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has been diagnosed with hypertension and has a history of chronic heart failure due to alcoholic cardiomyopathy (NYHA class I). Which medication should be avoided due to contraindication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Medications to Avoid in Patients with Heart Failure

      Patients with heart failure need to be cautious when taking certain medications as they may exacerbate their condition. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone, are contraindicated as they cause fluid retention. Verapamil should also be avoided due to its negative inotropic effect. NSAIDs and glucocorticoids should be used with caution as they can also cause fluid retention. However, low-dose aspirin is an exception as many patients with heart failure also have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin outweigh the risks. Class I antiarrhythmics, such as flecainide, should also be avoided as they have a negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these medications and their potential effects on patients with heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 76 - A 27 year-old female patient, who is not pregnant, reports experiencing dysuria, urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year-old female patient, who is not pregnant, reports experiencing dysuria, urinary frequency, and low abdominal pain for the past two days. She denies having a fever or loin pain and is not currently menstruating. Upon conducting a urine dip, it was discovered that she has 3+ leucocytes, nitrites, and 2+ blood. The patient has no prior history of UTI. What is the appropriate course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Send a urine sample for culture and treat with oral antibiotics for 3 days

      Explanation:

      For women with haematuria and suspected UTI, NICE recommends urine culture and sensitivity to confirm infection. Treatment with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for 3 days is recommended, which may be extended to 5-10 days in certain cases. After treatment, urine should be re-tested for blood. Persistent haematuria requires urgent referral to exclude urological cancer. For non-visible haematuria in women under 50, urine albumin/creatinine ratio and serum creatinine levels should be measured. Referral to a renal physician is necessary if there is proteinuria or declining eGFR, and referral to a urologist is needed if eGFR is normal and there is no proteinuria.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 77 - A 56-year-old man is prescribed topical fusidic acid for a small patch of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is prescribed topical fusidic acid for a small patch of impetigo on his chin. He has a history of heart disease and recently underwent a cardiac procedure. After seven days of treatment, there has been no improvement in his symptoms. On examination, a persistent small, crusted area is noted on the right side of his chin. While waiting for swab results, what is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical mupirocin

      Explanation:

      In light of the recent hospitalization and the ineffectiveness of fusidic acid, it is important to consider the possibility of MRSA. The most suitable treatment option in this case would be topical mupirocin.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 78 - A 50-year-old male with diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male with diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. During the appointment, he mentions feeling down and confesses to increased alcohol consumption and recreational drug use. His current medications include metformin, gliclazide, sitagliptin, ramipril, simvastatin, and vardenafil. As his healthcare provider, you know that there are certain recreational substances that should be avoided when taking vardenafil. Which of the following substances is contraindicated with the use of vardenafil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amyl nitrite

      Explanation:

      Cautionary Measures When Prescribing Phosphodiesterase Type 5 Inhibitors

      In clinical practice, it is important to exercise caution when prescribing phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors (PDE5i) in combination with nitrates. This is because the combination can lead to life-threatening hypotension due to excessive vasodilation. As such, co-prescription of PDE5i and nitrates is contraindicated.

      When considering the use of PDE5i, it is important to determine whether the patient is taking nitrates regularly or as needed (PRN). Patients who are on regular daily nitrates should avoid PDE5i altogether. On the other hand, patients who use PRN nitrate medications, such as sublingual GTN spray, should avoid taking sildenafil or vardenafil within 24 hours and tadalafil within 48 hours of using the nitrate.

      While recreational substances are not without their health risks, amyl nitrite, also known as poppers, is of particular concern when used with PDE5i. Amyl nitrite is a nitrite-containing compound that can have the same fatal hypotensive effect as prescribed nitrates when used in combination with PDE5i.

      In summary, caution should be exercised when prescribing PDE5i in combination with nitrates, and consideration should be given to the patient’s nitrate use pattern. Patients should also be advised to avoid recreational substances, particularly amyl nitrite, when using PDE5i.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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  • Question 79 - A 9-year-old girl develops widespread purpuric spots and is presented to the General...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl develops widespread purpuric spots and is presented to the General Practitioner by her parents. She has recently been unwell with a sore throat, which resolved without antibiotics. She is otherwise well but is found to have a platelet count of 20 × 109/l (normal range 150–400 × 109/l). The rest of her full blood count is normal, as is her erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monitor symptoms and avoid contact sports

      Explanation:

      Management of Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura in Children

      Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a self-limiting disorder that commonly occurs in children following an infection or immunization. Treatment is based on clinical symptoms rather than platelet count alone. In children with severe thrombocytopenia, who are often asymptomatic, avoiding antiplatelets and non-contact sports and reporting any change in symptoms urgently is recommended. Splenectomy is rarely indicated and only used in life-threatening bleeding or severe symptoms present for 12-24 months. High-dose dexamethasone is a second-line treatment used when first-line treatments, such as prednisolone, have failed. Platelet transfusions are rarely used in emergency management. Prednisolone is the first-line management if significant symptoms or a clinical need to raise the platelet count are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 80 - A 54-year-old man with hypertension and obesity has been diagnosed with obstructive sleep...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with hypertension and obesity has been diagnosed with obstructive sleep apnoea after a visit to the sleep clinic. His AHI falls under the mild category with 12 apnoea/hypopnoea events/hour, and his Epworth score indicates mild excessive daytime sleepiness. As a group 1 driver, he is concerned about the impact on his driving and when he should inform the DVLA. When is it necessary to notify the DVLA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: All stages

      Explanation:

      If a person has obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) and is a group 1 driver, they must inform the DVLA if they experience excessive daytime sleepiness (measured by an Epworth score of 11 or higher). However, if the OSA is mild (with an apnoea/hypopnoea index score of 5-15/hour) and doesn’t cause excessive daytime sleepiness, there is no need to notify the DVLA. For those with moderate or severe OSA, the DVLA must be informed and the individual must ensure that their symptoms are under control before driving.

      Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome

      Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition that causes interrupted breathing during sleep due to a blockage in the airway. This can lead to a range of health problems, including daytime somnolence, respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. Partners of those with OSAHS often complain of excessive snoring and periods of apnoea.

      To assess sleepiness, patients may complete the Epworth Sleepiness Scale questionnaire, and undergo the Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) to measure the time it takes to fall asleep in a dark room. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies (polysomnography), which measure a range of physiological factors such as EEG, respiratory airflow, thoraco-abdominal movement, snoring, and pulse oximetry.

      Management of OSAHS includes weight loss and the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as a first-line treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices, such as mandibular advancement, may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS without daytime sleepiness. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, they may be considered in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 81 - A 70-year-old man with heart failure complains of increasing shortness of breath. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with heart failure complains of increasing shortness of breath. During examination, his peripheral oedema has worsened since his last visit (pitting to mid shins, previously to ankles). He has bibasal crackles on auscultation of his lungs; his blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg but his heart rate and oxygen saturations are within normal limits. His current medication includes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, loop diuretic and beta-blocker.
      What is the most appropriate management to alleviate symptoms and decrease mortality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for a Patient with Worsening Heart Failure

      When a patient with worsening heart failure is already on the recommended combination of an ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and loop diuretic, adding low-dose spironolactone can further reduce cardiovascular mortality. However, it is important to monitor renal function and potassium levels. Stopping beta-blockers suddenly can cause rebound ischaemic events and arrhythmias, so reducing the dose may be a better option if spironolactone therapy doesn’t improve symptoms. Adding digoxin can help reduce breathlessness, but it has no effect on mortality. If the patient has an atherosclerotic cause of heart failure, adding high-intensity statins like simvastatin may be appropriate for secondary prevention. Stopping ACE inhibitors is not recommended as they have a positive prognostic benefit in chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 82 - Ms. Smith, a 28-year-old woman who is currently 12 weeks into her first...

    Incorrect

    • Ms. Smith, a 28-year-old woman who is currently 12 weeks into her first pregnancy, presents with symptoms of vaginal thrush. After addressing her concerns, she inquires about pregnancy supplements. Ms. Smith has been taking a branded pregnancy multivitamin but wonders if it is necessary to continue taking it now that she is past the first trimester due to the cost. She is generally healthy, not taking any regular medications, and is receiving midwife-led care as her pregnancy has been deemed low risk. Additionally, there is no family history of spina bifida.

      What guidance should be provided to Ms. Smith?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Folic acid preconception and until 12 weeks gestation, vitamin D throughout the whole pregnancy (except summer months)

      Explanation:

      Vitamin D supplementation has been a topic of interest for several years, and recent releases have provided some clarity on the matter. The Chief Medical Officer’s 2012 letter and the National Osteoporosis Society 2013 UK Vitamin D guideline recommend that certain groups take vitamin D supplements. These groups include pregnant and breastfeeding women, children aged 6 months to 5 years, adults over 65 years, and individuals who are not exposed to much sun, such as housebound patients.

      Testing for vitamin D deficiency is not necessary for most people. The NOS guidelines suggest that testing may be appropriate for patients with bone diseases that may be improved with vitamin D treatment, such as osteomalacia or Paget’s disease, and for patients with musculoskeletal symptoms that could be attributed to vitamin D deficiency, such as bone pain. However, patients with osteoporosis should always be given calcium/vitamin D supplements, and individuals at higher risk of vitamin D deficiency should be treated regardless of testing. Overall, vitamin D supplementation is recommended for certain groups, while testing for deficiency is only necessary in specific situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 83 - In your morning clinic, a 25-year-old man presents with a complaint about his...

    Incorrect

    • In your morning clinic, a 25-year-old man presents with a complaint about his penis. He reports noticing some lesions on his glans penis for the past few days and stinging during urination. After taking his sexual history, he reveals that he has had sex with two women in the last 3 months, both times with inconsistent condom use. Additionally, he mentions experiencing sticky, itchy eyes and a painful, swollen left knee.

      During the examination, you observe a well-defined erythematous plaque with a ragged white border on his penis.

      What is the name of the lesion on his penis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Circinate balanitis

      Explanation:

      A man with Reiter’s syndrome and chronic balanitis is likely to have Circinate balanitis, which is characterized by a well-defined erythematous plaque with a white border on the penis. This condition is caused by a sexually transmitted infection and requires evaluation by both a sexual health clinic and a rheumatology clinic. Zoon’s balanitis, on the other hand, is a benign condition that affects uncircumcised men and presents with orange-red lesions on the glans and foreskin. Erythroplasia of Queyrat is an in-situ squamous cell carcinoma that appears as red, velvety plaques and may be asymptomatic. Squamous cell carcinoma can also occur on the penis and may present as papillary or flat lesions, often associated with lichen planus or lichen sclerosus.

      Understanding Balanitis: Causes, Assessment, and Treatment

      Balanitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glans penis and sometimes extending to the underside of the foreskin. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including bacterial and candidal infections, autoimmune conditions, and poor hygiene. Proper assessment of balanitis involves taking a thorough history and conducting a physical examination to determine the cause and severity of the condition. In most cases, diagnosis is made clinically based on the history and examination, but in some cases, a swab or biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment of balanitis involves a combination of general and specific measures. General treatment includes gentle saline washes and proper hygiene practices, while specific treatment depends on the underlying cause of the condition. For example, candidiasis is treated with topical clotrimazole, while bacterial balanitis may be treated with oral antibiotics. Dermatitis and circinate balanitis are managed with mild potency topical corticosteroids, while lichen sclerosus and plasma cell balanitis of Zoon may require high potency topical steroids or circumcision.

      Understanding the causes, assessment, and treatment of balanitis is important for both children and adults who may be affected by this condition. By taking proper hygiene measures and seeking appropriate medical treatment, individuals with balanitis can manage their symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 84 - A neonate presents with a cleft palate and posterior displacement of the tongue....

    Incorrect

    • A neonate presents with a cleft palate and posterior displacement of the tongue. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pierre-Robin syndrome

      Explanation:

      Pierre-Robin syndrome is diagnosed in a baby who has micrognathia and a cleft palate. The baby is positioned in a prone position to alleviate upper airway obstruction. There is no familial history of similar conditions.

      Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that presents with microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, or trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is a condition that causes learning difficulties, macrocephaly, a long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome presents with a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome presents with hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, a friendly and extroverted personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Finally, Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, presents with a characteristic cry due to larynx and neurological problems, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly, micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Pierre-Robin syndrome has many similarities with Treacher-Collins syndrome, but the latter is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 85 - After the implementation of revalidation, how frequently will physicians be required to provide...

    Incorrect

    • After the implementation of revalidation, how frequently will physicians be required to provide proof to evaluate their ability to practice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Every 5 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding Revalidation for UK Doctors

      Revalidation is a process introduced in 2012 that changed the way UK doctors are licensed and certified. Previously, doctors automatically received their license to practice if they paid their annual fee and had no limitations on their registration. However, with revalidation, doctors are required to prove their fitness to practice every five years to continue working as a doctor. This process combines relicensing and recertification, and annual appraisals will continue as before, with a focus on progress towards the revalidation portfolio.

      The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) is creating an ePortfolio for the process, which will contain various elements such as a description of work, special circumstances, previous appraisals, personal development plans, continuing professional development, significant event audits, formal complaints, probity/health statements, multi-source/colleague feedback, patient questionnaire surveys, and clinical audit/quality improvement projects.

      To meet the requirements for revalidation, doctors must earn at least 50 learning credits per year, with one credit for each hour of education. However, if the education leads to improvements in patient care, it will count as two credits. The ePortfolio will be submitted electronically for review by a Responsible Officer, who will be based in one of the 27 Area Teams. The Responsible Officer will be advised by a GP assessor and a trained lay person.

      Before recommending a doctor for revalidation, the Responsible Officer must be confident that the doctor has participated in an annual appraisal process, submitted appropriate supporting information to their appraisals, and has no unresolved issues regarding their fitness to practice. Overall, revalidation ensures that UK doctors continue to provide safe and effective care to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 86 - Which one of the following entries on a birth certificate would never be...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following entries on a birth certificate would never be acceptable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1a: Cardiac arrest. 2: Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Cardiac arrest cannot be listed as the sole cause of death on a death certificate as it is a method of dying and requires further clarification.

      While the use of old age is discouraged, it may be listed on a death certificate for patients over the age of 80 if specific criteria are met (refer to the provided link).

      The only acceptable abbreviations for HIV and AIDS should be used on a death certificate.

      Death Certification in the UK

      There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.

      When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.

      Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 87 - A 26-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance on how to prevent acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man visits the clinic seeking guidance on how to prevent acute mountain sickness (AMS) during his upcoming Andes expedition. He specifically asks for advice other than gradual ascent. What would be the most suitable recommendation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acetazolamide (Diamox)

      Explanation:

      There is evidence to suggest that Acetazolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor, can be effective in preventing AMS. It is worth noting that there seems to be a link between physical fitness and the likelihood of developing AMS.

      Altitude-related disorders are caused by chronic hypobaric hypoxia at high altitudes and can be classified into three types: acute mountain sickness (AMS), high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE), and high altitude cerebral edema (HACE). AMS is a self-limiting condition that typically occurs above 2,500-3,000m and presents with symptoms such as headache, nausea, and fatigue. Physical fitness may increase the risk of AMS, and gaining altitude at a rate of no more than 500m per day is recommended. Acetazolamide is a commonly used medication to prevent AMS, and descent is the recommended treatment.

      HAPE and HACE are potentially fatal conditions that affect a minority of people above 4,000m. HAPE presents with pulmonary edema symptoms, while HACE presents with headache, ataxia, and papilloedema. The management of both conditions involves descent and the use of medications such as dexamethasone and nifedipine for HAPE, and dexamethasone for HACE. Oxygen may also be used if available. The effectiveness of different treatments for these conditions has only been studied in small trials, but they all seem to work by reducing systolic pulmonary artery pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 88 - Sarah is a 50-year-old woman who has recently started experiencing pain in her...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 50-year-old woman who has recently started experiencing pain in her fingers bilaterally when exposed to cold temperatures. She has also observed that her fingers change colour from white to blue and then red. Apart from blepharitis, she has no significant medical history. However, she does report some stiffness in her hands upon waking up.

      What would be the optimal approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to rheumatology

      Explanation:

      Patients who are suspected to have secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon should be referred to secondary care, particularly if they exhibit joint stiffness and dry eyes. Rheumatology, not orthopaedics, is the appropriate specialty for referral.

      To manage Raynaud’s symptoms, it is important to keep the hands and feet warm. If lifestyle changes are not effective, nifedipine (not amlodipine) may be considered as a treatment option.

      If an underlying autoimmune disease is present, prednisolone may be prescribed as a treatment.

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.

      If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 89 - A 25-year-old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant complains of painful urination and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant complains of painful urination and an itchy rash. During examination, a red, tender, vesicular rash is observed on her vulva. A urine dipstick reveals the presence of both white cells and blood. What is the most effective treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral aciclovir

      Explanation:

      The use of gel can provide relief from symptoms. However, the main goal of treatment is to minimize the risk of transmission to the newborn during delivery. This risk is particularly high if the woman experiences primary genital herpes simplex during the last six weeks of pregnancy. In such cases, a caesarean section is the recommended method of delivery.

      The herpes simplex virus (HSV) comes in two strains: HSV-1 and HSV-2. It was once believed that HSV-1 caused cold sores and HSV-2 caused genital herpes, but there is now significant overlap between the two. Symptoms of a primary infection may include severe gingivostomatitis, while cold sores and painful genital ulceration are also common. Treatment options include oral aciclovir and chlorhexidine mouthwash for gingivostomatitis, topical aciclovir for cold sores (although the evidence for its effectiveness is limited), and oral aciclovir for genital herpes. Pregnant women with herpes should be treated with suppressive therapy, and those who experience a primary attack during pregnancy after 28 weeks gestation should have an elective caesarean section. The risk of transmission to the baby is low for women with recurrent herpes. Pap smear images can show the cytopathic effect of HSV, including multinucleation, marginated chromatin, and molding of the nuclei.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 90 - A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.

    Currently,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.

      Currently, he is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. However, his blood pressure remains consistently around 160/92 mmHg.

      What antihypertensive medication would you recommend adding to improve this patient's hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Hypertension Management in Type 2 Diabetes

      This patient with type 2 diabetes has poorly controlled hypertension, but is currently tolerating his medication well. The recommended antihypertensive for diabetes is an ACE inhibitor, which can be combined with a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine. Beta-blockers should be avoided for routine hypertension treatment in diabetic patients. Methyldopa is used for hypertension during pregnancy, while moxonidine is used when other medications have failed. If blood pressure control is still inadequate, a thiazide diuretic can be added to the current regimen of ramipril and amlodipine. Proper management of hypertension is crucial in diabetic patients to prevent complications and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 91 - A 55-year-old smoker requests more antibiotics for a left-sided earache. He had seen...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old smoker requests more antibiotics for a left-sided earache. He had seen a locum for tonsillitis three weeks ago, which was mainly on the left side, and was prescribed penicillin V. On examination, his ears appear normal.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Examine the pharynx

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Different Ear Conditions

      Examination of the Pharynx for Unilateral Ear Pain

      If a patient presents with unilateral ear pain and a normal appearance of the ear, it is important to examine the pharynx and tonsils. Tonsillar carcinoma may cause referred pain and present with unilateral tonsillar enlargement. Prognosis is poor, but surgery and radiotherapy may be helpful.

      No Antibiotics Needed for Unresolved Symptoms

      If a patient’s symptoms have not improved despite initial treatment, a delayed prescription for antibiotics will not help and may delay diagnosis. Further investigation should be considered.

      Exercises for Eustachian Tube Dysfunction

      Eustachian tube dysfunction may cause muffled sounds or a popping/clicking sensation. Treatment may include exercises such as swallowing, yawning, or chewing gum to help open the Eustachian tube.

      Topical Antibiotics for Otitis Externa

      Otitis externa may cause a swollen and erythematous ear canal with discharge or debris. Topical antibiotics such as neomycin or ciprofloxacin may be prescribed to treat this condition. However, the appearance of a normal ear canal and tympanic membrane doesn’t indicate a need for topical antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 92 - A 38-year-old man presents with a pigmented skin lesion. His partner urged him...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents with a pigmented skin lesion. His partner urged him to come and see you as she noticed that the lesion has recently changed and grown in size. There is no history of inflammation, oozing or change in sensation.

      On examination, there is a 9 mm diameter pigmented skin lesion on his back. The lesion is asymmetrical with an irregular notched border, it is evenly pigmented.

      Using the 7-point weighted checklist recommended by NICE for evaluating pigmented skin lesions, what is the score of this patient's skin lesion based on the above clinical description?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Referral for Suspected Cancer

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the ‘7-point weighted checklist’ to evaluate pigmented skin lesions for potential cancer. The checklist includes major features such as changes in size, irregular shape, and irregular color, which score 2 points each, and minor features such as largest diameter of 7 mm or more, inflammation, oozing, and change in sensation, which score 1 point each. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred for further evaluation. However, clinicians should always refer lesions they strongly suspect to be cancerous, even if the score is less than 3. For example, a lesion with a score of 5 due to change in size, irregular shape, and a diameter of 9 mm would warrant referral for further evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 93 - You are about to start a patient in their 70s on lisinopril for...

    Incorrect

    • You are about to start a patient in their 70s on lisinopril for hypertension. Which one of the following conditions is most likely to increase the risk of side-effects?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      ACE inhibitors pose a significant risk of profound hypotension in patients with aortic stenosis. However, the co-prescription of bendroflumethiazide, a weak diuretic, is commonly used and doesn’t increase the risk of hypotension as seen with high-dose loop diuretics such as furosemide 80 mg bd. Patients with chronic kidney disease stage 2, which is characterized by a glomerular filtration rate of > 60 mL/min/1.73 m², are unlikely to experience significant side effects.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 94 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy and currently taking sodium valproate...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy and currently taking sodium valproate is found to have a urinary tract infection. Which antibiotic should be avoided if possible?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Quinolones: Antibiotics that Inhibit DNA Synthesis

      Quinolones are a type of antibiotics that are known for their bactericidal properties. They work by inhibiting DNA synthesis, which makes them effective in treating bacterial infections. Some examples of quinolones include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.

      The mechanism of action of quinolones involves inhibiting topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. However, bacteria can develop resistance to quinolones through mutations to DNA gyrase or by using efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of quinolones inside the cell.

      While quinolones are generally safe, they can have adverse effects. For instance, they can lower the seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy and cause tendon damage, including rupture, especially in patients taking steroids. Additionally, animal models have shown that quinolones can damage cartilage, which is why they are generally avoided in children. Quinolones can also lengthen the QT interval, which can be dangerous for some patients.

      Quinolones should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Overall, understanding the mechanism of action, mechanism of resistance, adverse effects, and contraindications of quinolones is important for their safe and effective use in treating bacterial infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 95 - A 32-year-old woman is experiencing perennial rhinitis and has found relief from antihistamines...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is experiencing perennial rhinitis and has found relief from antihistamines and an intranasal corticosteroid. She is seeking a refill and has questions about her condition, including why she doesn't only experience symptoms in the summer like some of her acquaintances. She is also curious about the possibility of testing. What is the most suitable explanation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mainly adults have this condition

      Explanation:

      Understanding Perennial Rhinitis: Causes and Diagnosis

      Perennial rhinitis is a condition that occurs throughout the year, and it is more common in adults than in children. While seasonal rhinitis is more likely to affect older children and adolescents, perennial rhinitis is persistent and can be caused by various allergens, including house-dust mites, feathers, animal dander, or allergens at work.

      Skin-prick testing is the most sensitive way to investigate the condition, as it measures specific IgE antibodies in the blood. However, it may not always be sensitive enough, and other tests, such as patch testing, may be indicated.

      It is important to note that not all cases of perennial rhinitis have an allergic cause, but the response to medication can often provide clues. If an allergic cause is suspected, avoidance measures may be considered to manage symptoms.

      Overall, understanding the causes and diagnosis of perennial rhinitis can help individuals manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 96 - A 42-year-old woman with a medical history of asthma, Down syndrome, and hypothyroidism...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a medical history of asthma, Down syndrome, and hypothyroidism is seeking information about necessary tests and treatment. What is the typical presentation of thyroid disease in individuals with Down syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Using clinical features for diagnosis of hypothyroidism is unreliable

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions and Clarifications about Hypothyroidism in Down Syndrome

      There are several misconceptions about hypothyroidism in individuals with Down syndrome. One common misconception is that clinical features alone can be used to diagnose hypothyroidism. However, this is unreliable as symptoms can be caused by other conditions. Biochemical markers are essential for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

      Another misconception is that borderline blood abnormalities with a free T4 level less than 10 are an indication for treatment. However, treatment should only be started if hypothyroidism is confirmed with biochemical markers and not based on borderline results.

      It is also important to note that screening tests for thyroid disease in individuals with Down syndrome are recommended every 1-2 years, not every three years as in the general population. This is because thyroid disease is more common in individuals with Down syndrome, with hypothyroidism being the most common.

      Additionally, while individuals with Down syndrome are at an increased risk for both hypo- and hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism is much more common. Contrary to another misconception, the risk of thyroid disease in individuals with Down syndrome actually increases with age, rather than diminishing.

      Overall, it is important to have accurate information about hypothyroidism in individuals with Down syndrome to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 97 - A 23-year-old female student presents with generalised pruritus of six weeks duration.

    She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female student presents with generalised pruritus of six weeks duration.

      She has little other history of note and has otherwise been well. This itching has deteriorated over this time and is particularly worse at night. She has been unaware of any rashes and denies taking any prescribed drugs. There is no history of atopy.

      She shares a flat with her boyfriend and drinks approximately 12 units per week and smokes cannabis occasionally.

      On examination, there is little of note except there are some scratch marks over the shoulders and back and she has some erythema between the fingers. Otherwise cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examination is normal.

      Which of the following therapies would be most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scabies: Symptoms and Treatment

      Scabies is a highly contagious disease caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is commonly found in sexually active individuals. The disease is characterized by generalised pruritus, and it is important to carefully examine the finger spaces for burrows.

      The most effective treatments for scabies include permethrin cream, topical benzyl benzoate, and malathion. While permethrin cream doesn’t directly alleviate pruritus, it helps to kill the mite, which is the root cause of the disease. Patients should be advised that it may take some time for the itching to subside as the allergic reaction to the mite abates. Additionally, it is important to apply the cream to all areas below the neck, not just where the rash is present.

      In summary, scabies is a highly contagious disease that can cause significant discomfort. However, with proper treatment and care, patients can effectively manage their symptoms and prevent the spread of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 98 - A 20-year-old patient comes in requesting to start taking a combined oral contraceptive...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old patient comes in requesting to start taking a combined oral contraceptive pill. During the consultation, she mentions having experienced migraine with aura in the past. She asks why the combined oral contraceptive pill is not recommended for her. How should you respond?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Significantly increased risk of ischaemic stroke

      Explanation:

      Managing Migraine in Relation to Hormonal Factors

      Migraine is a common neurological condition that affects many people, particularly women. Hormonal factors such as pregnancy, contraception, and menstruation can have an impact on the management of migraine. In 2008, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines on the management of migraine, which provide useful information on how to manage migraine in relation to these hormonal factors.

      When it comes to migraine during pregnancy, paracetamol is the first-line treatment, while NSAIDs can be used as a second-line treatment in the first and second trimester. However, aspirin and opioids such as codeine should be avoided during pregnancy. If a patient has migraine with aura, the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill is absolutely contraindicated due to an increased risk of stroke. Women who experience migraines around the time of menstruation can be treated with mefenamic acid or a combination of aspirin, paracetamol, and caffeine. Triptans are also recommended in the acute situation. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is safe to prescribe for patients with a history of migraine, but it may make migraines worse.

      In summary, managing migraine in relation to hormonal factors requires careful consideration and appropriate treatment. The SIGN guidelines provide valuable information on how to manage migraine in these situations, and healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 99 - A 35-year-old homeless Romanian man presents to his General Practitioner with a persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old homeless Romanian man presents to his General Practitioner with a persistent cough that has lasted for the last four weeks, with breathlessness at rest. He sometimes does casual work as a labourer, but he is finding that he is unable to keep up with this work due to his breathlessness and generally feels fatigued and 'not well'.
      On further questioning, he reports night sweats and weight loss over the past 4-6 weeks. He is a non-smoker and is not on regular medication. He requests a course of antibiotics to make his cough better so he can get back to work.
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis (TB)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Respiratory Conditions: Differential Diagnosis of a Persistent Cough

      A persistent cough can be a symptom of various respiratory conditions, making it important to consider a differential diagnosis. In the case of a homeless patient from Romania, the most likely diagnosis is pulmonary tuberculosis (TB), given the patient’s risk factors and symptoms of weight loss, night sweats, malaise, and breathlessness. To investigate this, three sputum samples and a chest X-ray should be arranged.

      While lung cancer can also present with similar symptoms, the patient’s young age and non-smoking status make this less likely. Asthma is unlikely given the absence of environmental triggers and the presence of additional symptoms. Bronchiectasis is also an unlikely diagnosis, as it is characterized by copious mucopurulent sputum production, which is not described in this case. Pulmonary fibrosis is rare in patients under 50 years old and doesn’t typically present with night sweats.

      In summary, a persistent cough can be indicative of various respiratory conditions, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the most likely diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 100 - A 26-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of feeling tired and experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of feeling tired and experiencing episodes of dizziness. During the examination, the GP observes an absent pulse in the patient's left radial artery. The following blood test results are obtained:

      - Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l
      - Potassium (K+): 4.1 mmol/l
      - Urea: 2.3 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 77 µmol/l
      - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 66 mm/hr

      Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Takayasu's arteritis

      Explanation:

      Takayasu’s arteritis is a type of vasculitis that affects the large blood vessels, often leading to blockages in the aorta. This condition is more commonly seen in young women and Asian individuals. Symptoms may include malaise, headaches, unequal blood pressure in the arms, carotid bruits, absent or weak peripheral pulses, and claudication in the limbs during physical activity. Aortic regurgitation may also occur in around 20% of cases. Renal artery stenosis is a common association with this condition. To diagnose Takayasu’s arteritis, vascular imaging of the arterial tree is necessary, which can be done through magnetic resonance angiography or CT angiography. Treatment typically involves the use of steroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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