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  • Question 1 - A 12-year-old girl is brought to see you during an out-of-hours shift.
    She has...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl is brought to see you during an out-of-hours shift.
      She has a past history of asthma and usually takes salbutamol 100 mcg 2 puffs as required and beclomethasone 100 mcg twice a day. Her usual peak flow is 280. She has been on her current inhalers for over a year with no problems or flare-ups.Over the last two days she has become increasingly wheezy and this seems to have been triggered by an upper respiratory tract infection.
      On examination, she has a temperature of 37.5℃, and has a widespread polyphonic wheeze on auscultation of the chest. Her peak flow rate is measured at 190. Oxygen saturations are 97% in air. There is no respiratory distress.
      She receives six puffs of salbutamol via a spacer and following this feels much better, with a PEFR of 260. The child is monitored in the department for a further hour and remains stable with her chest sounding clear.
      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Advise use of salbutamol two to four puffs 4 hourly until acute infection resolved

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Asthma Exacerbation in Children

      This article discusses the appropriate management of acute asthma exacerbation in children. In cases where the exacerbation is caused by an upper respiratory tract infection, symptom control and short-term measures are crucial. Adding long-acting beta agonists or leukotriene receptor antagonists is not recommended during acute exacerbation.

      Hospital referral is not necessary if the child has no worrying features, no respiratory distress, and good oxygen saturations. However, advice on worsening should be given in case of relapse. Steroid treatment should be considered with any acute exacerbation, with oral prednisolone 1-2 mg/kg up to a maximum of 40 mg per day for three to five days.

      Doubling the inhaled beclomethasone is not the correct answer. Instead, regular use of salbutamol during the current illness should be advised to prevent relapse and improve symptoms acutely. Delivery through a spacer device should also be encouraged. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage acute asthma exacerbation in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      59.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 26-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner, complaining of long-standing back pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner, complaining of long-standing back pain, with no red flags. On examination, he has tenderness bilaterally in the lower lumbar area and reduced lumbar spine range of movement. He is found to be positive for human leukocyte antigen B27 (HLA-B27) antigen and an X-ray of his sacroiliac joints shows bilateral erosions.
      Which single feature most supports a diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis (AS) above another cause of back pain?

      Your Answer: Limited lumbar spine motion on physical examination

      Correct Answer: Bilateral erosion of sacroiliac joints on X-ray

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ankylosing Spondylitis: Diagnostic Indicators and Symptoms

      Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is a type of inflammatory arthritis that primarily affects the spine and other joints. It is more commonly diagnosed in men aged 20-30 years. Symptoms of AS may take up to 8-10 years to become evident on an X-ray film, but when present, they are diagnostic. However, earlier in the disease course, indirect evidence of sacroiliitis and spondylitis may be detected, including sacroiliac joint tenderness and limited spinal movement, which are nonspecific. Advanced-stage AS is characterized by stiffness of the spine, kyphosis, and a stooped posture. This article discusses the diagnostic indicators and symptoms of AS, including back stiffness, limited lumbar spine motion, presence of HLA-B27 antigen, and tenderness in the lower lumbar area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      27.4
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  • Question 3 - What is a true statement about the intranasal flu vaccine for children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about the intranasal flu vaccine for children?

      Your Answer: Having a previous severe reaction to a wasp or bee sting is a contraindication

      Correct Answer: It is a live vaccine

      Explanation:

      The live vaccine for influenza is administered intranasally.

      influenza vaccination is recommended in the UK between September and early November, as the influenza season typically starts in the middle of November. There are three types of influenza virus, with types A and B accounting for the majority of clinical disease. Prior to 2013, flu vaccination was only offered to the elderly and at-risk groups. However, a new NHS influenza vaccination programme for children was announced in 2013, with the children’s vaccine given intranasally and annually after the first dose at 2-3 years. It is important to note that the type of vaccine given to children and the one given to the elderly and at-risk groups is different, which explains the different contraindications.

      For adults and at-risk groups, current vaccines are trivalent and consist of two subtypes of influenza A and one subtype of influenza B. The Department of Health recommends annual influenza vaccination for all people older than 65 years and those older than 6 months with chronic respiratory, heart, kidney, liver, neurological disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, asplenia or splenic dysfunction, or a body mass index >= 40 kg/m². Other at-risk individuals include health and social care staff, those living in long-stay residential care homes, and carers of the elderly or disabled person whose welfare may be at risk if the carer becomes ill.

      The influenza vaccine is an inactivated vaccine that cannot cause influenza, but a minority of patients may develop fever and malaise that lasts 1-2 days. It should be stored between +2 and +8ºC and shielded from light, and contraindications include hypersensitivity to egg protein. In adults, the vaccination is around 75% effective, although this figure decreases in the elderly. It takes around 10-14 days after immunisation before antibody levels are at protective levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      26
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  • Question 4 - A 28 year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of persistent itching....

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of persistent itching. She has a past medical history of eczema and uses emollients regularly, but to no avail. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant. During the physical examination, there are signs of excoriation on her hands, but no apparent visible dermatitis. What is the most crucial test to request?

      Your Answer: Skin scrapings

      Correct Answer: Liver function tests

      Explanation:

      Pruritus is a common occurrence during pregnancy, affecting up to 25% of women. It can be caused by various factors such as eczema, polymorphic eruption of pregnancy, or changes in circulation due to skin stretching. However, if pruritus is present without a rash, it may indicate obstetric cholestasis, a serious condition that can lead to complications like prematurity, meconium passage, postpartum hemorrhage, and even stillbirth. Therefore, liver function tests and bile acid tests are crucial in diagnosing this condition. Additionally, pruritus can also be a symptom of iron deficiency anemia, so a full blood count should also be considered.

      Jaundice During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, jaundice can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common liver diseases during pregnancy is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which affects around 1% of pregnancies and is usually seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include itching, especially in the palms and soles, and raised bilirubin levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief, and women are typically induced at 37 weeks. However, this condition can increase the risk of stillbirth.

      Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is a rare complication that can occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. ALT levels are typically elevated. Supportive care is the initial management, and delivery is the definitive management once the patient is stabilized.

      Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may also be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets, can also cause jaundice during pregnancy. It is important to monitor liver function tests and seek medical attention if any symptoms of jaundice occur during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 5 - What is the most useful investigation to differentiate between the types of cardiomyopathy...

    Correct

    • What is the most useful investigation to differentiate between the types of cardiomyopathy from the given list?

      Your Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Four Types of Cardiomyopathy

      Cardiomyopathy is a group of heart muscle disorders that affect the structure and function of the heart. There are four major types of cardiomyopathy: dilated, hypertrophic, restrictive, and arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy. Each type is characterized by specific features such as ventricular dilation, hypertrophy, restrictive filling, and fibro-fatty changes in the right ventricular myocardium.

      While dilated and hypertrophic cardiomyopathies are the most common types, a familial cause has been identified in a significant percentage of patients with these conditions. On the other hand, restrictive cardiomyopathy is usually not familial.

      To diagnose cardiomyopathy, a full cardiological assessment is necessary. Transthoracic Doppler echocardiography can confirm the diagnosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, distinguish between restrictive cardiomyopathy and constrictive pericarditis, and assess the severity of ventricular dysfunction in dilated cardiomyopathies. Coronary angiography can help exclude coronary artery disease as the cause of dilated cardiomyopathy.

      A normal ECG is uncommon in any form of cardiomyopathy, and cardiomegaly on a chest X-ray may be present in all types. Brain natriuretic peptide is a marker of ventricular dysfunction but cannot differentiate between cardiomyopathies.

      In summary, understanding the different types of cardiomyopathy and their diagnostic tools is crucial in managing and treating this group of heart muscle disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 6 - A 70-year old man complains of neck pain, tingling in his fingertips, and...

    Correct

    • A 70-year old man complains of neck pain, tingling in his fingertips, and gradual weakness in his legs. After undergoing an MRI scan of his spine, he is diagnosed with degenerative cervical myelopathy caused by a C4/5 disc prolapse. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Cervical decompressive surgery

      Explanation:

      Specialist spinal services (neurosurgery or orthopaedic spinal surgery) should urgently assess all patients with degenerative cervical myelopathy due to the importance of early treatment. The timing of surgery is crucial as any existing spinal cord damage can be permanent. Early treatment, within 6 months of diagnosis, offers the best chance of a full recovery. However, most patients are presenting too late, with an average of over 5 appointments before diagnosis, representing more than 2 years in one study.

      Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment that has been shown to prevent disease progression. Close observation is an option for mild stable disease, but anything progressive or severe requires surgery to prevent further deterioration. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services as manipulation can cause more spinal cord damage.

      To ensure good outcomes for patients, prompt diagnosis and onward referral are crucial. National initiatives are underway to raise awareness of the condition and improve referral times. None of the other listed options in this question control the patient’s primary pathology.

      Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 7 - As part of a tutorial on pruritus, you plan to use cases from...

    Incorrect

    • As part of a tutorial on pruritus, you plan to use cases from both yourself and GP registrars who frequently prescribe antihistamines for itchy conditions. Your goal is to determine the scenario in which a non-sedating antihistamine would be most effective. Please select the ONE option that best fits this scenario.

      Your Answer: A 50-year-old woman with a 5 cm diameter local reaction 48 hours after a wasp sting

      Correct Answer: A 15-year-old girl with acute urticaria

      Explanation:

      Antihistamines: Uses and Limitations in Various Skin Conditions

      Urticaria, Chickenpox, atopic eczema, local reactions to insect stings, and general pruritus are common skin conditions that may benefit from antihistamines. However, the effectiveness of antihistamines varies depending on the underlying cause and the individual’s response.

      For a 15-year-old girl with acute urticaria, non-sedating H1 antihistamines are the first-line treatment. If the first antihistamine is not effective, a second one may be tried.

      A 4-year-old girl with Chickenpox may benefit from emollients and sedating antihistamines to relieve pruritus. Calamine lotion may also be used, but its effectiveness decreases as it dries.

      Antihistamines are not routinely recommended for atopic eczema, but a non-sedating antihistamine may be tried for a month in severe cases or when there is severe itching or urticaria. Sedating antihistamines may be used for sleep disturbance.

      For a 50-year-old woman with a local reaction to a wasp sting, antihistamines are most effective when used immediately after the sting. After 48 hours, they are unlikely to have a significant impact on the local reaction.

      Finally, for a 65-year-old man with general pruritus but no rash, antihistamines may be prescribed, but their effectiveness is limited as histamine may not be the main cause of the pruritus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 8 - A 36-year-old woman has been having occasional pins and needles in her right...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman has been having occasional pins and needles in her right hand for the last month. During your neurological assessment, you try to elicit the triceps reflex by positioning her arm across her chest and tapping the triceps tendon with a reflex hammer. What nerve (and its corresponding nerve root) are you evaluating?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve C7

      Explanation:

      The triceps reflex arc is formed by the components of the radial nerve, which primarily derives from the C7 nerve root and innervates the triceps muscle. The triceps muscle, with its three heads of origin (long, lateral, and medial), is the chief extensor of the forearm and attaches to the olecranon of the ulna.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      23
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  • Question 9 - Which one of the following statements regarding B-type natriuretic peptide is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding B-type natriuretic peptide is incorrect?

      Your Answer: Acts as a diuretic

      Correct Answer: The positive predictive value of BNP is greater than the negative predictive value

      Explanation:

      The negative predictive value of BNP for ventricular dysfunction is good, but its positive predictive value is poor.

      B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.

      BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 3-year-old male presents with fever, nausea, and painful urination at the clinic....

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old male presents with fever, nausea, and painful urination at the clinic. What is the best method to collect a urine sample?

      Your Answer: Clean-catch urine

      Explanation:

      The advice given in the NICE guidelines regarding urine collection has been criticised for being impractical.

      Urinary Tract Infection in Children: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are more common in boys until 3 months of age, after which the incidence is substantially higher in girls. At least 8% of girls and 2% of boys will have a UTI in childhood. The presentation of UTIs in childhood depends on age. Infants may experience poor feeding, vomiting, and irritability, while younger children may have abdominal pain, fever, and dysuria. Older children may experience dysuria, frequency, and haematuria. Features that may suggest an upper UTI include a temperature of over 38ºC and loin pain or tenderness.

      According to NICE guidelines, a urine sample should be checked in a child if there are any symptoms or signs suggestive of a UTI, with unexplained fever of 38°C or higher (test urine after 24 hours at the latest), or with an alternative site of infection but who remain unwell (consider urine test after 24 hours at the latest). A clean catch is the preferable method for urine collection. If not possible, urine collection pads should be used. Invasive methods such as suprapubic aspiration should only be used if non-invasive methods are not possible.

      Infants less than 3 months old should be referred immediately to a paediatrician. Children aged more than 3 months old with an upper UTI should be considered for admission to the hospital. If not admitted, oral antibiotics such as cephalosporin or co-amoxiclav should be given for 7-10 days. Children aged more than 3 months old with a lower UTI should be treated with oral antibiotics for 3 days according to local guidelines, usually trimethoprim, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporin, or amoxicillin. Parents should be asked to bring the children back if they remain unwell after 24-48 hours. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not given after the first UTI but should be considered with recurrent UTIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      34.8
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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to you complaining of experiencing electric shock sensations and dizziness in her arms and legs for the past three days. She has a medical history of chronic pain, depression, and schizophrenia. When you inquire about her medications and drug use, she seems hesitant to provide a clear response.

      What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

      Correct Answer: SSRI discontinuation syndrome

      Explanation:

      SSRI discontinuation syndrome can cause symptoms such as dizziness, electric shock sensations, and anxiety when SSRIs are suddenly stopped or reduced. It is possible that the woman in question has decided to stop taking her antidepressants. On the other hand, alcohol withdrawal typically results in anxiety, tremors, and sweating. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare reaction that can occur with antipsychotic use and may cause fever, confusion, and muscle rigidity. Opiate withdrawal may cause anxiety, sweating, and gastrointestinal symptoms like diarrhea and vomiting.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 12 - Which chromosomal disorder can result in females being affected by X-linked recessive conditions?...

    Incorrect

    • Which chromosomal disorder can result in females being affected by X-linked recessive conditions?

      Your Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Edwards' syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding X Linked Recessive Disorders

      Females are typically not symptomatic of X linked recessive disorders, but they can be carriers. This is because they have two X chromosomes, and the healthy X chromosome can compensate for the mutated one. However, if a female has Turner’s syndrome, which is characterized by a single X chromosome, she can be affected by X linked disorders if she inherits a mutation on that chromosome.

      It is important to understand the underlying genetic problem that causes various diagnoses. Down’s syndrome is caused by trisomy 21, Edwards’ syndrome by trisomy 18, and Patau’s syndrome by trisomy 13. Klinefelter’s syndrome, which is characterized by an extra X chromosome, only occurs in males and can be ruled out for females. Knowing these genetic factors can aid in understanding the inheritance and manifestation of these disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
      14.2
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  • Question 13 - Barbara is a 78-year-old woman who lives alone and manages most activities of...

    Incorrect

    • Barbara is a 78-year-old woman who lives alone and manages most activities of daily living independently. Her GP wants to assess her frailty with a view to identifying the need for extra support.

      Which of the below is most useful for that assessment?

      Your Answer: Number of falls in the last 12 months

      Correct Answer: Gait speed

      Explanation:

      To accurately assess frailty, it is recommended to use specific methods such as the Gait Speed Test, self-reported health status, or the PRISMA-7 questionnaire. These standardized assessments can provide valuable information about a patient’s level of frailty. For example, the Gait Speed Test can indicate frailty if a patient takes longer than 5 seconds to walk 4 meters. While weight loss may be a sign of frailty, weight alone is not a reliable indicator. Other methods of assessing frailty are not commonly used and may not provide accurate results.

      Understanding Multimorbidity: Definition, Prevalence, Risk Factors, Complications, Assessment, and Management

      Multimorbidity is a growing public health issue that refers to the presence of two or more long-term health conditions. In 2017, NICE issued guidelines to identify and manage multimorbidity among patients. The most common comorbid conditions include hypertension, depression, anxiety, chronic pain, prostate disorders, thyroid disorders, and coronary artery disease. Risk factors for multimorbidity include increasing age, female sex, low socioeconomic status, tobacco and alcohol usage, lack of physical activity, and poor nutrition and obesity.

      Complications of multimorbidity include decreased quality of life and life expectancy, increased treatment burden, mental health issues, polypharmacy, and negative impact on carers’ welfare. The assessment of multimorbidity involves identifying patients who may benefit from a multimorbidity approach, establishing the extent of disease burden, investigating how treatment burden affects daily activities, assessing social circumstances and health literacy, and evaluating frailty.

      Management of multimorbidity aims to reduce treatment burden and optimise care. This involves maximising the benefits of existing treatments, offering alternative follow-up arrangements, reducing the number of high-risk medications, considering a ‘bisphosphonate holiday,’ using screening tools such as STOPP/START, stopping the use of medications in patients with peptic ulcer disease, developing an individualised management plan, promoting self-management, and supporting carers and families of patients. Regular medication reviews are recommended to ensure that treatments are optimised.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old woman developed nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps 4 hours after consuming...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman developed nausea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps 4 hours after consuming a salad and a hamburger at a nearby restaurant. She subsequently experienced watery diarrhea a few hours later. Which single organism is most likely responsible for her illness?

      Your Answer: Yersinia enterocolitica

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Common Types of Food Poisoning and Their Symptoms

      Food poisoning can be caused by various bacteria and toxins that contaminate food. Here are some common types of food poisoning and their symptoms:

      1. Staphylococcal food poisoning: This type of food poisoning is caused by preformed enterotoxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus. Symptoms include profuse vomiting and watery diarrhea, which can occur 1-6 hours after eating contaminated food.

      2. Yersinia infection: This type of food poisoning is usually associated with improperly cooked meat. Symptoms may appear 3-10 days after ingestion of contaminated food.

      3. Listeria monocytogenes infection: This type of food poisoning can develop from 2 to 70 days after eating contaminated food. Symptoms include mild flu-like symptoms with diarrhea and vomiting, but the elderly, pregnant women, newborns, and immunosuppressed individuals are at risk of more serious consequences.

      4. Vibrio vulnificus-associated food poisoning: This type of food poisoning is caused by contaminated seafood, particularly oysters or undercooked shellfish. Symptoms usually appear 1-7 days after ingestion.

      5. Clostridium perfringens infection: This type of food poisoning is caused by spores that can grow into new cells if cooked food is not promptly served or refrigerated. Symptoms include diarrhea and abdominal pain, but not fever or vomiting. Outbreaks are often linked to institutions or events with catered food.

      It is important to handle and cook food properly to prevent food poisoning. If you experience symptoms of food poisoning, seek medical attention immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old Indian man with recently diagnosed atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old Indian man with recently diagnosed atrial fibrillation is started on warfarin. He visits the GP clinic after 5 days with unexplained bruising. His INR is measured and found to be 4.5. He has a medical history of epilepsy, depression, substance abuse, and homelessness. Which medication is the most probable cause of his bruising from the following options?

      Your Answer: Heroin

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      Sodium valproate is known to inhibit enzymes, which can lead to an increase in warfarin levels if taken together. The patient’s medical history could include any of the listed drugs, but the question is specifically testing knowledge of enzyme inhibitors. Rifampicin and St John’s Wort are both enzyme inducers, while heroin (diamorphine) doesn’t have any effect on enzyme activity.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.

      Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.

      It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 16 - A 54-year-old woman with established type 2 diabetes presents for her annual review....

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman with established type 2 diabetes presents for her annual review. Her HbA1c has been stable on the maximal dose of metformin for the past few years and her BP has always been well controlled. She doesn't take any other regular medications. Her HbA1c result 1 year ago was 52 mmol/mol.

      The results of her most recent review are as follows:

      HbA1c 59 mmol/mol
      eGFR 91 ml/min/1.73m² (>90 ml/min/1.73m²)
      Urine albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) 2 mg/mmol (<3 mg/mmol)
      BMI 25 kg/m²
      QRISK score 6.8%

      According to NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in managing her diabetes?

      Your Answer: Sulfonylurea

      Explanation:

      For a patient with T2DM on metformin whose HbA1c has increased to 58 mmol/mol, the appropriate second-line option would depend on the individual clinical scenario. In this case, the correct answer is sulfonylurea, which would be suitable for a patient with a normal BMI, no history of established cardiovascular disease or heart failure, and not at an increased risk of CVD based on their QRISK score.

      GLP-1 mimetic would not be a suitable second-line option but could be considered if triple therapy with metformin and two other oral hypoglycemic agents was not effective or tolerated, provided certain criteria are met.

      Repaglinide is not the correct answer as it is a meglitinide that is typically used as initial treatment if metformin is contraindicated or not tolerated.

      SGLT-2 inhibitor could be an appropriate option if certain NICE criteria are met. However, in the absence of established cardiovascular disease, heart failure, or an increased risk of CVD, a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea can be offered as dual therapy with metformin in the first instance, as there is no indication that these would be inappropriate based on the patient’s history.

      NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.

      Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.

      Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      25.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Your next patient is a 32-year-old teacher who has come for their annual...

    Incorrect

    • Your next patient is a 32-year-old teacher who has come for their annual review. Until around two years ago they used just a salbutamol inhaler as required. Following a series of exacerbations, they were started on a corticosteroid inhaler and currently takes Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) 400mcg bd. The patient reports that their asthma control has been 'good' for the past six months or so. They have had to use their asthma inhaler twice over the past six months, both times after going for a long jog. Their peak flow today is 520 l/min which is 90% of the best value recorded 5 years ago but up from the 510 l/min recorded 12 months ago. Their inhaler technique is good. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Make no changes

      Correct Answer: Decrease the Clenil dose to 200mcg bd

      Explanation:

      If asthma is well controlled, it is advisable to reduce the treatment, as per the guidelines of the British Thoracic Society.

      Stepping Down Asthma Treatment: BTS Guidelines

      The British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommends that asthma treatment should be reviewed every three months to consider stepping down treatment. However, the guidelines do not suggest a strict move from one step to another but rather advise taking into account the duration of treatment, side-effects, and patient preference. When reducing the dose of inhaled steroids, the BTS suggests doing so by 25-50% at a time.

      Patients with stable asthma may only require a formal review once a year. However, if a patient has recently had an escalation of asthma treatment, they are likely to be reviewed more frequently. It is important to follow the BTS guidelines to ensure that patients receive the appropriate level of treatment for their asthma and to avoid unnecessary side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a painful, persistent erection...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a painful, persistent erection that has lasted for six hours and doesn't subside. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer: Sickle cell disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Priapism: Causes and Types

      Priapism is a medical condition characterized by prolonged and painful erections that can last for several hours. There are two types of priapism: low-flow (ischaemic) and high-flow (arterial). Low-flow priapism is the most common type and is often associated with sickle cell disease, leukaemia, thalassemia, and other medical conditions. It is caused by the inadequate return of blood from the penis, resulting in a rigid erection. High-flow priapism, on the other hand, is less common and is usually caused by a ruptured artery from a blunt injury to the penis or perineum.

      Stuttering priapism is a distinct condition that is characterized by repetitive and painful episodes of prolonged erections. It is a type of low-flow priapism and is often associated with sickle cell disease. The duration of the erectile episodes in stuttering priapism is generally shorter than in the low-flow ischaemic type.

      Other medical conditions that can cause priapism include glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, Fabry’s disease, neurologic disorders, such as spinal cord lesions and spinal cord trauma, and neoplastic diseases, such as prostate, bladder, testicular, and renal cancer and myeloma. Many drugs can also cause priapism, but nearly 50% of cases are idiopathic.

      In conclusion, priapism is a serious medical condition that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding the causes and types of priapism can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      38.3
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  • Question 19 - A 60-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer is found to have a corrected...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman with advanced breast cancer is found to have a corrected serum calcium level of 3.2 mmol/L (normal reference range 2.62-2.8 mmol/L). Her presenting symptoms were worsening fatigue and mild confusion.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate measure to recommend?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital or hospice

      Explanation:

      Managing Hypercalcemia in Palliative Care: Admission, Treatment, and Diet Recommendations

      Hypercalcemia, a rise in serum calcium levels, can cause a range of symptoms including weakness, anorexia, nausea, and constipation. Severe cases can lead to delirium, seizures, and coma. While some patients may not experience symptoms, hypercalcemia can be an emergency in palliative care. In cases where treatment is not appropriate, fluid replacement and bisphosphonates can alleviate distressing symptoms. However, symptomatic or moderate to severe hypercalcemia requires immediate admission to a hospital or hospice for management with intravenous fluids and bisphosphonates. A low calcium diet is unnecessary, and good hydration is the first-line treatment for mild asymptomatic hypercalcemia. Thiazide diuretics should be avoided as they can exacerbate hypercalcemia, as can lack of mobility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A father brings his 3-year-old home-schooled daughter to a pediatrician concerned about her...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 3-year-old home-schooled daughter to a pediatrician concerned about her developmental progress, particularly her physical abilities. He mentions that his friends' children her age are able to climb stairs, throw a ball, dress themselves partially, and ride a tricycle. However, his daughter is unable to do any of these things. During the examination, she is only able to stack four blocks and can draw a straight line. She speaks in 2-word phrases, with no being a common response, and imitates frequently. Based on her abilities, what is her developmental age?

      Your Answer: 2-years-old

      Explanation:

      The milestones of development are categorized into gross motor skills, fine motor skills, vision, speech and hearing, and social behavior and play. For children who are -years old, they should be able to run, climb stairs, construct a tower using 6 cubes, replicate a vertical line, use 2-word phrases, eat with a spoon, dress themselves with a hat and shoes, and engage in play activities with other children.

      Fine Motor and Vision Developmental Milestones

      Fine motor and vision developmental milestones are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. At three months, a baby can reach for objects and hold a rattle briefly if given to their hand. They are visually alert, particularly to human faces, and can fix and follow to 180 degrees. By six months, they can hold objects in a palmar grasp and pass them from one hand to another. They become visually insatiable, looking around in every direction. At nine months, they can point with their finger and develop an early pincer grip. By 12 months, they have a good pincer grip and can bang toys together.

      In terms of bricks, a 15-month-old can build a tower of two, while an 18-month-old can build a tower of three. A two-year-old can build a tower of six, and a three-year-old can build a tower of nine. When it comes to drawing, an 18-month-old can make circular scribbles, while a two-year-old can copy a vertical line. A three-year-old can copy a circle, a four-year-old can copy a cross, and a five-year-old can copy a square and triangle.

      It’s important to note that hand preference before 12 months is abnormal and may indicate cerebral palsy. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and caregivers to monitor a child’s development and ensure they are meeting their milestones appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      30.4
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old former paratrooper has joined your practice. He lost his leg during...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old former paratrooper has joined your practice. He lost his leg during a tour of duty in Afghanistan when he was shelled by opposing forces and witnessed the death of two of his colleagues.

      In recent months, he has been experiencing flashbacks, and his wife has noticed that he has become emotionally distant and insensitive towards her. He has also been struggling with sleep and concentration, and has been prone to sudden outbursts of anger.

      You suspect that he may be suffering from PTSD and have recommended that he seek psychiatric help. Although he has declined counseling, he is interested in learning more about medication options, having seen the positive effects of sertraline on his wife's depression a few years ago.

      According to NICE guidelines, which antidepressant is recommended as a second-line treatment for PTSD after psychological therapy has been refused or proven ineffective?

      Your Answer: Dosulepin

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      NICE’s Guidance on Drug Treatments for PTSD in Adults

      According to the latest guidance from the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated in 2018, drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, should not be offered to prevent PTSD in adults. However, for those with a diagnosis of PTSD who prefer drug treatment, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, may be considered and should be reviewed regularly.

      In addition, antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD who have disabling symptoms and behaviors, such as severe hyperarousal or psychotic symptoms, and have not responded to other drug or psychological treatments. It is important to note that antipsychotic treatment should be started and reviewed regularly by a specialist.

      Overall, NICE’s guidance emphasizes the importance of individualized treatment plans for adults with PTSD, taking into account their preferences and response to previous treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      46.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - You are asked to complete a DS1500 form for a patient with advanced...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to complete a DS1500 form for a patient with advanced cancer who is in their 80s.
      Which of the following applies to completion of the DS1500 form?

      Your Answer: You can complete a DS1500 form for terminally ill patients with 12 months or less to live

      Correct Answer: MacMillan nurses, nurse specialists and practice nurses can complete the DS1500

      Explanation:

      DS1500 Form for Terminally Ill Patients

      A DS1500 form can be requested by a patient or their representative if the patient is deemed to be terminally ill. This form is specifically designed for patients who have six months or less to live, allowing them to apply for DWP benefits under special rules. In some cases, a representative may request the form if the patient is unaware of their diagnosis and/or prognosis.

      The completed DS1500 can either be given to the patient or their representative or can be sent directly to the DWP. MacMillan nurses, nurse specialists, and practice nurses can complete the form, but only GPs and GMC registered consultants may claim a fee. The fee for completing the DS1500 can be claimed by a GP or GMC registered consultant using the DS1500 fee form.

      Overall, the DS1500 form is an important tool for terminally ill patients and their families to access the necessary benefits and support during a difficult time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Leadership And Management
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An 85-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of tingling and numbness...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of tingling and numbness in both feet, which has worsened over a period of six months. She has hypercholesterolaemia, ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and diabetes. She is currently taking amlodipine, aspirin, atorvastatin, gliclazide, metformin, ramipril and sitagliptin. She doesn't drink alcohol.
      On examination, she has altered pinprick sensation over both feet and absent ankle reflexes. Femoral pulses are present, but those in the feet are absent.
      What is the most likely cause of this patient's neurological symptoms?

      Your Answer: Diabetes

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Symmetrical Polyneuropathy: Causes and Risk Factors

      Chronic symmetrical polyneuropathy is a condition characterized by weakness and sensory symptoms such as burning and tingling. The most common cause of this condition is diabetic neuropathy, which is directly related to the duration of diabetes and poor blood sugar control. However, certain drugs such as isoniazid, vincristine, phenytoin, nitrofurantoin, gold, and excess vitamin B6 can also cause polyneuropathy.

      Hyperlipidemia and hypertension are also associated with peripheral neuropathy, but they are not as common as diabetic neuropathy. Peripheral vascular disease, which is characterized by reduced blood flow to the limbs, can also increase the risk of polyneuropathy, especially in patients with diabetes and ischemic disease.

      It is important to identify the underlying cause of chronic symmetrical polyneuropathy to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications. Patients with this condition may experience reduced sensation and balance issues, making it crucial to manage their symptoms and prevent falls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A woman is worried about her risk of breast cancer. When should she...

    Incorrect

    • A woman is worried about her risk of breast cancer. When should she be referred to the local breast services?

      Your Answer: A woman whose mother was diagnosed with breast cancer aged 46 years

      Correct Answer: A woman whose father has been diagnosed with breast cancer aged 56 years

      Explanation:

      Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.

      For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You come across a 55-year-old man who needs a refill of his prescription....

    Correct

    • You come across a 55-year-old man who needs a refill of his prescription. Upon reviewing his medication list, you notice that two of his medications fall under schedule 3 controlled drugs as per The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001. What medications are likely to be on his list?

      Your Answer: Buprenorphine, tramadol and levothyroxine

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is buprenorphine, tramadol, and levothyroxine because only buprenorphine and tramadol are classified as schedule 3 drugs according to The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001. Zopiclone is classified as schedule 4, morphine as schedule 2, and diazepam as schedule 4, making them all incorrect answers.

      Controlled drugs are medications that have the potential for abuse and are regulated by the 2001 Misuse of Drugs Regulations act. The act divides these drugs into five categories or schedules, each with its own rules on prescribing, supply, possession, and record keeping. When prescribing a controlled drug, certain information must be present on the prescription, including the patient’s name and address, the form and strength of the medication, the total quantity or number of dosage units to be supplied, the dose, and the prescriber’s name, signature, address, and current date.

      Schedule 1 drugs, such as cannabis and lysergide, have no recognized medical use and are strictly prohibited. Schedule 2 drugs, including diamorphine, morphine, pethidine, amphetamine, and cocaine, have recognized medical uses but are highly addictive and subject to strict regulations. Schedule 3 drugs, such as barbiturates, buprenorphine, midazolam, temazepam, tramadol, gabapentin, and pregabalin, have a lower potential for abuse but are still subject to regulation. Schedule 4 drugs are divided into two parts, with part 1 including benzodiazepines (except midazolam and temazepam) and zolpidem, zopiclone, and part 2 including androgenic and anabolic steroids, hCG, and somatropin. Schedule 5 drugs, such as codeine, pholcodine, and Oramorph 10 mg/5ml, have a low potential for abuse and are exempt from most controlled drug requirements.

      Prescriptions for controlled drugs in schedules 2, 3, and 4 are valid for 28 days and must include all required information. Pharmacists are generally not allowed to dispense these medications unless all information is present, but they may amend the prescription if it specifies the total quantity only in words or figures or contains minor typographical errors. Safe custody requirements apply to schedules 2 and 3 drugs, but not to schedule 4 drugs. The BNF marks schedule 2 and 3 drugs with the abbreviation CD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old man presents with an acute red eye.

    Of the following conditions which...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with an acute red eye.

      Of the following conditions which is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Optic neuritis

      Correct Answer: Closed angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Causes of Acute Red Eye

      There are several causes of acute red eye, with glaucoma being the most likely to present with this symptom. Other possible causes include anterior uveitis, corneal ulcers, conjunctivitis, scleritis and episcleritis, and subconjunctival haemorrhage. It is important to note that optic neuritis presents with a specific type of central visual loss known as a central scotoma, while retinal vein occlusion, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage typically present as visual loss or disturbance. Understanding the various causes of acute red eye can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A contingency table is created for a new blood protein marker to screen...

    Incorrect

    • A contingency table is created for a new blood protein marker to screen for breast cancer in women aged between 40 and 60 years:

      Breast cancer present Breast cancer absent
      New test positive 25 30
      New test negative 20 900

      What is the positive predictive value of the new test?

      Your Answer: 723/743

      Correct Answer: 19/39

      Explanation:

      The positive predictive value can be calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the sum of true positives and false positives. In this case, the positive predictive value is 19 out of 39, or approximately 0.487.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of pain in his right flank, nephrotic syndrome, elevated blood urea, collateral abdominal veins, and gross haematuria. During the examination, a mass is detected in the right lumbar region. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)

      Correct Answer: Renal-cell carcinoma (RCC)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Clinical Features of Renal-Cell Carcinoma

      Renal-cell carcinoma (RCC) is a highly vascular tumor that can obstruct the renal veins. The classic triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass is present in this case, which is suggestive of RCC. However, other conditions may also present with similar clinical features.

      Renal papillary necrosis may cause flank pain and haematuria, but an abdominal mass would be unlikely. Polyarteritis nodosa can cause renal failure, hypertension, or both, but a renal mass would not be present, and frank haematuria would be unusual.

      Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is characterized by loin pain and hypertension, with enlarged and palpable kidneys bilaterally. Renal amyloidosis is most likely to present as nephrotic syndrome, but it would be unlikely to cause flank pain or a renal mass.

      Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat patients presenting with clinical features of RCC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 20-year-old female patient visits the GP with a complaint of a painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female patient visits the GP with a complaint of a painful ulcer in her genital area. She has recently returned from her gap year in Thailand where she engaged in unprotected sexual activities with multiple partners. During the examination, the GP observes a sharp undermined border around the ulcer and painful lymph node enlargement in her left inguinal area.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Genital herpes

      Correct Answer: Chancroid

      Explanation:

      Chancroid should be considered as a possible cause of genital ulcers if the patient has a history of foreign travel, especially if accompanied by painful swelling of the inguinal lymph nodes on one side.

      Chancroid is a disease commonly found in tropical regions that causes painful ulcers in the genital area with a distinct, jagged border. It is often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin on one side.

      Behcet’s disease is a condition that affects multiple systems in the body and is characterized by oral and genital ulcers, as well as anterior uveitis. It can also cause thrombophlebitis, deep vein thrombosis, arthritis, neurological symptoms such as aseptic meningitis, and abdominal pain, diarrhea, and colitis.

      Primary genital herpes typically presents with multiple painful ulcers and fever. Subsequent outbreaks are usually less severe and localized to one area.

      It is important to consider non-infectious causes such as psoriasis, which can cause a sore, itchy, and red plaque in the genital area. On examination, the area will appear shiny, flat, and smooth, and psoriatic scales are not typically present in the genital area.

      Understanding Chancroid

      Chancroid is a disease that is commonly found in tropical regions and is caused by a bacterium called Haemophilus ducreyi. This disease is characterized by the development of painful ulcers in the genital area, which are often accompanied by painful swelling of the lymph nodes in the groin area on one side of the body. The ulcers are typically defined by a sharp, ragged border that appears to be undermined.

      Chancroid is a sexually transmitted disease that can be easily spread through sexual contact with an infected person. Treatment typically involves a course of antibiotics, which can help to clear up the infection and prevent further spread of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 67-year-old woman comes to see her GP with concerns about some small...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to see her GP with concerns about some small spots on her shoulder. She reports seeing small lesions with several tiny blood vessels emanating from the center. During the examination, you can press on them, causing them to turn white and then refill from the middle.

      What is the condition associated with this type of lesion?

      Your Answer: Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia

      Correct Answer: Liver failure

      Explanation:

      When differentiating between spider naevi and telangiectasia, it is important to note that spider naevi fill from the centre when pressed, while telangiectasia fill from the edge. A woman presenting with a small lesion surrounded by tiny blood vessels radiating from the middle that refills from the centre is likely to have a spider naevus. This condition is commonly associated with liver failure, making it the most likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Spider Naevi

      Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be found on the upper part of the body and blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are more common in childhood, with around 10-15% of people having one or more of these lesions.

      To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge.

      Spider naevi can also be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. It is important to understand the characteristics and associations of spider naevi for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 25-year-old male student attends the blood transfusion service wishing to donate blood....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male student attends the blood transfusion service wishing to donate blood. He is currently well, has never had a serious illness and weighs 70 kg. He spent the summer doing voluntary work in Ghana and returned three months ago. He also had his ears pierced three years ago and had a tattoo put on his left arm three years ago. He is not acceptable as a donor.
      What is the reason for his rejection for blood donation in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Travel to an endemic malaria area

      Explanation:

      Blood Donation Eligibility Criteria

      To ensure the safety of blood transfusions, there are certain eligibility criteria that potential donors must meet. Here are some corrections to common misconceptions:

      Travel to an endemic malaria area: Donors must wait six months after traveling to an endemic malaria area before donating blood. If they fell ill abroad or were resident for more than six months in Sub-Saharan Africa, they must wait even longer.

      Age: Donors must be between 17 and 66 years old (up to 70 if they have given blood before). If they are over 70 years old, they need to have given blood in the last two years to continue donating.

      Body piercing and tattoo: Donors are deferred if they have had body piercing or a tattoo in the previous four months.

      Underweight: Donors should weigh at least 50 kg. For other contraindications, please refer to the provided link.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 50-year-old man who has smoked for 35 years has several other symptoms.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man who has smoked for 35 years has several other symptoms.

      Which symptom according to NICE guidance supports the diagnosis of Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Childhood asthma

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Risk Factors for COPD

      A diagnosis of COPD should be considered in patients who are over 35 years old and have a risk factor, typically smoking. If a patient presents with one or more of the following symptoms, they should be evaluated for COPD: exertional breathlessness, chronic cough, regular sputum production, frequent winter bronchitis, or wheeze. However, chest pain and haemoptysis are uncommon and should lead to consideration of an alternative diagnosis. It is important to recognize these symptoms and risk factors in order to diagnose and treat COPD early, which can improve patient outcomes and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - During a 4-week baby check, you observe a flat, pink-colored, vascular skin lesion...

    Incorrect

    • During a 4-week baby check, you observe a flat, pink-colored, vascular skin lesion measuring 30x20mm over the baby's nape. The lesion blanches on pressure and has been present since birth without any significant changes. The baby is developing normally. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salmon patch

      Explanation:

      Salmon patches are a type of birthmark caused by excess blood vessels, but they typically go away on their own. If a person has a flat birthmark that was present from birth, it could only be a port-wine stain or a salmon patch. Salmon patches are more common and often appear as a pink discoloration on the back of the neck. Atopic dermatitis, a type of eczema, doesn’t appear at birth but may develop later in life, often on the neck and other areas that bend. Strawberry birthmarks, on the other hand, usually appear shortly after birth and are raised above the skin’s surface. They can either disappear, shrink, or remain the same over time.

      Understanding Salmon Patches in Newborns

      Salmon patches, also known as stork marks or stork bites, are a type of birthmark that can be found in approximately 50% of newborn babies. These marks are characterized by their pink and blotchy appearance and are commonly found on the forehead, eyelids, and nape of the neck. While they may cause concern for new parents, salmon patches typically fade over the course of a few months. However, marks on the neck may persist. These birthmarks are caused by an overgrowth of blood vessels and are completely harmless. It is important for parents to understand that salmon patches are a common occurrence in newborns and do not require any medical treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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  • Question 34 - A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus for 12 years has persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus for 12 years has persistent microalbuminuria.
      She is taking twice daily premixed insulin.
      On examination:
      Blood pressure 128/80 mmHg -
      HbA1c <48 mmol/mol (20-46)
      <6.5% (3.8-6.4)
      What would be the next most suitable treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoid excessive exercise

      Explanation:

      Management of Microalbuminuria in Type 1 Diabetes

      This patient with Type 1 diabetes has persistent microalbuminuria, putting them at risk of developing albuminuria and end-stage renal disease. Studies have shown that angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors can reduce the progression to albuminuria in hypertensive patients and also decrease microalbuminuria in normotensive Type 1 diabetics. However, since the patient’s HbA1c is satisfactory, there is no need to alter their current therapy. Metformin is not recommended for this type of patient, and there is no known benefit to dietary restriction or avoiding exercise in those with microalbuminuria. By managing microalbuminuria in Type 1 diabetes, patients can reduce their risk of developing more severe kidney disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - What is the correct statement about measuring the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR)?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement about measuring the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It doesn't need to be adjusted for different racial groups

      Explanation:

      Understanding Renal Function: Estimating Glomerular Filtration Rate

      Renal function is a crucial aspect of overall health, and it is typically measured by estimating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). There are various equations available to calculate GFR, but the Chronic Kidney Disease Epidemiology Collaboration (CKD-EPI) creatinine equation is recommended by NICE. This equation takes into account serum creatinine, age, gender, and race.

      It is important to note that laboratories often assume a standard body surface area, which can lead to inaccurate results in individuals with extreme muscle mass. For example, bodybuilders, amputees, and those with muscle wasting disorders may have an overestimated or underestimated GFR.

      Additionally, certain factors can affect serum creatinine levels and thus impact the accuracy of eGFR results. For instance, consuming a cooked meat meal can temporarily increase serum creatinine concentration, leading to a falsely lowered eGFR. Conversely, strict and long-term vegetarians may have a reduced baseline eGFR.

      If an eGFR result is less than 60 ml/min/1.73m2 in someone who has not been previously tested, it is recommended to confirm the result by repeating the test in two weeks.

      Finally, it is worth noting that creatinine clearance is sometimes used as a rough measurement of GFR, but it has limitations. This method involves a 24-hour urine collection and a serum creatinine measurement during that time period. However, accurate urine collection can be challenging, and this method tends to overestimate GFR and is time-consuming.

      Overall, understanding how to estimate GFR and interpret the results is crucial for assessing renal function and identifying potential health concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 36 - A 68-year-old man has terminal metastatic prostate cancer. His General Practitioner visits him...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has terminal metastatic prostate cancer. His General Practitioner visits him in the care home because he is no longer taking medication by mouth. He is bed-bound and in and out of consciousness. He appears comfortable, but his carers report that he has been intermittently in pain, particularly around personal care. He has a ‘just-in-case box’ of medications available but has not required anything for symptom control yet.
      Which of the following medication regimens is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stat dose of subcutaneous morphine

      Explanation:

      Managing Palliative Care Symptoms with Subcutaneous Medications

      To support anticipatory prescribing and access to palliative care medications for patients in the dying phase, ‘just-in-case’ boxes are produced in many areas. These boxes include subcutaneous medication for pain, nausea/vomiting, secretions, and agitation, along with syringes and water for injection. Proactive management of symptom control for patients is a key component of the Gold Standards Framework.

      When a patient experiences symptoms for the first time, giving subcutaneous stat doses over 24 hours is useful to assess their needs and guide the amount required in a subsequent continuous syringe driver. This approach is particularly helpful for opioid-naïve patients with intermittent pain, as it allows for a period of assessment to guide a starting dose.

      While a buprenorphine patch may be useful earlier in the course of illness, it has a relatively slow onset of action and is difficult to titrate to match rapidly changing pain. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like diclofenac are unlikely to be used for a sudden increase in pain or breakthrough pain that may occur in the last days of life.

      Levomepromazine is a common choice of antiemetic for end-of-life care and will likely be in the patient’s ‘just-in-case’ box. However, it is not the treatment of choice for pain. Overall, subcutaneous medications are an important tool for managing palliative care symptoms and improving the quality of life for patients in the dying phase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 37 - A 25-year-old man has had recurrent chest and sinus infections. He was originally...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has had recurrent chest and sinus infections. He was originally thought to be asthmatic, but his response to treatment has been poor. He does respond to antibiotics, but the courses he has had in the previous 12 months have totalled 2 months. Primary immunodeficiency is suspected.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate test?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immunoglobulin assay

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Variable Immunodeficiency: Prevalence, Diagnosis, and Delayed Treatment

      Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) is the most prevalent primary antibody deficiency, affecting approximately 1 in 25,000 individuals. However, due to its rarity, only a small fraction of healthcare professionals will encounter a patient with CVID during their career. This, coupled with a delay in diagnosis, increases the risk of irreversible lung damage and bronchiectasis.

      Defects in humoral immunity account for 50% of primary immunodeficiencies, with combined humoral and cellular deficiencies making up 20-30% of cases. Inherited single-gene disorders are the most common cause of primary immune deficiencies. While many of these defects present in infancy and childhood, CVID typically presents after the age of five, with a peak in the second or third decade of life.

      A diagnosis of CVID is based on defective functional antibody formation, accompanied by decreased serum immunoglobulin levels (IgG and IgA), generally decreased serum IgM, and exclusion of other known causes of antibody deficiency. Identifying defective functional antibody formation may involve measuring the response to a vaccine such as the pneumococcal vaccine.

      Overall, understanding the prevalence, diagnosis, and delayed treatment of CVID is crucial in providing appropriate care for individuals with this rare but potentially debilitating condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 38 - A 62-year-old male who has been on long term chlorpromazine presents with repetitive...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male who has been on long term chlorpromazine presents with repetitive eye blinking. He reports he is unable to control this and is concerned about the underlying cause. Despite this, he is generally in good health and has no visual impairment. Upon examination, his face and eyes appear normal except for excessive rapid blinking.

      What is the probable reason for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

      Explanation:

      The correct term is tardive dyskinesia, which is characterized by abnormal involuntary choreoathetoid movements that occur late in patients who have been on conventional antipsychotics. Symptoms may include lip-smacking, jaw pouting, chewing, repetitive blinking, or tongue poking. This condition is often difficult to treat, but replacing the antipsychotic or trying tetrabenazine may provide some relief.

      Parkinsonism, which can also occur in patients taking conventional antipsychotics, presents with symptoms similar to those of Parkinson’s disease, such as tremor, blank facies, bradykinesia, and muscle rigidity. However, this option is incorrect as there is no mention of other symptoms in the stem, and repetitive blinking is not a typical symptom of Parkinsonism.

      While dry eyes may lead to eye twitching, repetitive blinking is unlikely, and other symptoms such as visual disturbance or watering of the eyes would be expected.

      Sjogren’s syndrome, which can cause dry eyes, is also an unlikely cause of repetitive involuntary blinking.

      Blepharospasm, which is characterized by involuntary twitching or contraction of the eyelid, is a focal dystonia that may last only a few days or be lifelong. While stress or fatigue may trigger it, the patient in the stem is more likely suffering from tardive dyskinesia due to extrapyramidal side effects of chlorpromazine, a typical antipsychotic.

      Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 39 - Sarah is an 80-year-old woman who visits your clinic with complaints of hearing...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is an 80-year-old woman who visits your clinic with complaints of hearing difficulty. During the examination, you observe that she has impacted earwax in both ear canals. You suggest using olive oil ear drops, but she informs you that she has previously tried them without success.

      What would be your next course of action in managing the earwax?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium bicarbonate ear drops

      Explanation:

      If using olive oil drops to remove impacted earwax is unsuccessful, an alternative option is to use sodium bicarbonate drops to soften the wax.

      It is important to note that Otomize ear spray contains neomycin, an antibiotic that can be harmful to patients with a perforated eardrum. Therefore, caution should be exercised when using these drops.

      While ear syringing is a possibility, it is recommended to soften the wax with drops for at least two weeks prior to attempting the procedure.

      Since the patient’s hearing is affected by the wax, a wait-and-see approach is not advisable. Referral to audiology is also unnecessary as the cause of the hearing loss is already known, and delaying treatment may worsen the condition.

      Understanding earwax and Its Impacts

      earwax is a natural substance produced by the body to protect the ear canal. However, it is not uncommon for earwax to become impacted, leading to a range of symptoms such as pain, hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. In such cases, treatment is necessary to alleviate the discomfort caused by the impacted earwax. Primary care options for treatment include ear drops or irrigation, also known as ‘ear syringing’. It is important to note that treatment should not be administered if there is a suspected perforation or if the patient has grommets. Ear drops such as olive oil, sodium bicarbonate 5%, and almond oil can be used to help alleviate the symptoms of impacted earwax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 40 - A sexually active 21-year-old Nigerian man presents with a 2-day history of small,...

    Incorrect

    • A sexually active 21-year-old Nigerian man presents with a 2-day history of small, painful ulcers on the glans penis and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Primary Genital Herpes Simplex Virus Infection from Other Genital Lesions

      Primary genital herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection caused by HSV type 2 is characterized by typical lesions. Unlike syphilis, which presents with a small, painless papule that quickly forms an ulcer, HSV lesions are usually painful and may be accompanied by flu-like symptoms. Enlarged lymph nodes are also common but are usually painful in HSV infection. In herpes zoster, vesiculation and ulceration occur in a dermatomal distribution, while scabies presents with a generalised itch and itchy nodules on the genitalia. Impetigo lesions are painless, superficial, and crusted or eroded, unlike the painful and often multiple lesions seen in primary genital HSV infection. Therefore, a careful examination and history-taking are essential to differentiate primary genital HSV infection from other genital lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 41 - One of the secretaries at your practice slips on loose carpet when coming...

    Incorrect

    • One of the secretaries at your practice slips on loose carpet when coming down the stairs in the surgery and hurts her back. Although she did not sustain any serious injury she took time off as sick leave as a result of this injury.

      According to Health & Safety law, for what duration of time would she need to be incapacitated for you to DOCUMENT the incident in your RIDDOR records?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 days

      Explanation:

      Understanding RIDDOR: Recording and Reporting Work-Related Injuries

      RIDDOR is a law that requires employers and those in control of work premises to report and keep records of work-related accidents, certain industrial diseases, and dangerous occurrences. When it comes to work-related injuries, employers must keep a record of any occupational accident that causes an employee to be away from work or incapacitated for more than three consecutive days, not including the day of the accident but including weekends or other rest days.

      It’s important to note that this threshold is for recording the incident, not reporting it. If an employee is incapacitated for seven days or more, the incident should be reported. By understanding the requirements of RIDDOR, employers can ensure they are meeting their legal obligations and promoting a safe working environment for their employees.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 42 - A 28-year-old woman is seen at home 12 weeks after a successful first...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is seen at home 12 weeks after a successful first pregnancy. She is tearful, has lost her appetite and is very anxious about her infant’s health. There are no features of delirium. She has a history of illicit drug use but denies current use. Her older brother has depression. There are no features to suggest infection and there are no focal neurological signs.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: postpartum depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health: Depression, Psychosis, and Maternity Blues

      Postpartum mental health can be a challenging experience for new mothers. Within the first year of pregnancy, postpartum depression can occur, which is similar to major depression at other times of life. However, postpartum psychosis is a severe mental illness that usually occurs suddenly within the first two weeks after delivery and is often associated with confusion and disorientation. While delusions of something being wrong with the baby are relatively common in postpartum psychosis, depression is also associated with anxiety about the baby.

      On the other hand, maternity blues is relatively common and occurs within a few days of delivery. It consists of irritability and tearfulness without features of a major depressive episode. It is essential to understand the differences between these conditions to provide appropriate support and treatment for new mothers.

      It is worth noting that there is no mention of schizophrenia in this woman’s history or any suggestion of current illicit drug use. By understanding the different types of postpartum mental health conditions, we can better support new mothers and ensure they receive the care they need.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 43 - A 25-year-old woman is distressed about her acne vulgaris with papules, pustules and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is distressed about her acne vulgaris with papules, pustules and comedones. Her weight and periods are both normal. Identify the probable cause from the options provided.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacteria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Acne in Women: Causes and Treatments

      Acne is not just a teenage problem, especially for women. There are several factors that contribute to its development, including genetics, seborrhoea, sensitivity to androgen, P. acnes bacteria, blocked hair follicles, and immune system response. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is a less common cause of acne. Treatment options target these underlying causes, with combined oral contraceptives being a popular choice. Contrary to popular belief, diet and hygiene do not play a significant role in acne. The black color of blackheads is due to pigment in the hair follicle material. Understanding the causes and treatments of acne can help women manage this common skin condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 44 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with symptoms of a respiratory tract...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with symptoms of a respiratory tract infection, including cough, shortness of breath, confusion, and diarrhea. He has recently returned from a long-term stay at a hotel in Spain. During the examination, you note a temperature of 39.2°C and signs of consolidation in the right lower lobe. Blood tests reveal an elevated white count and a sodium level of 128. What is the most appropriate statement regarding this man's pneumonia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long-term lung damage is common

      Explanation:

      Legionnaires Disease: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Legionnaires disease is a severe form of pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila, a Gram-negative bacillus. The disease is usually acquired from infected water supplies in cooling towers and air conditioning units. Although it is difficult to acquire, with a low attack rate of 5%, elderly individuals, smokers, and those with pre-existing chest disease are at a higher risk of developing the condition.

      The symptoms of Legionnaires disease are similar to those of the flu, including high fever (usually above 40°C), myalgias, and confusion. Treatment involves the use of ciprofloxacin or macrolides, and recovery is usually complete. However, if left untreated, the mortality rate can be as high as 15-20%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 45 - You encounter a 50-year-old man who presents with a personal issue. He has...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 50-year-old man who presents with a personal issue. He has been experiencing difficulties with achieving and maintaining erections for the past year, with a gradual worsening of symptoms. He infrequently seeks medical attention and has no prior medical history.

      What is the predominant organic etiology for this particular symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vascular causes

      Explanation:

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection sufficient for sexual activity. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, and mixed, with certain medications also contributing to the condition.

      Organic causes of ED include vasculogenic, neurogenic, structural, and hormonal factors. Among these, vasculogenic causes are the most common and are often linked to cardiovascular disease, hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, smoking, and major pelvic surgery.

      The risk factors for ED are similar to those for cardiovascular disease and include obesity, diabetes, dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, hypertension, endothelial dysfunction, and lifestyle factors such as lack of exercise and smoking. Therefore, when evaluating a man with ED, it is important to screen for cardiovascular disease and obtain a thorough psychosexual history.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 46 - You have some pediatric patients on your list who come from low income...

    Incorrect

    • You have some pediatric patients on your list who come from low income groups and you want to encourage vitamin D supplementation.

      You have heard about the Healthy Start initiative.

      Which of the following are eligible for free vitamin supplements under the Healthy Start scheme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnant women in households in receipt of Income Support

      Explanation:

      The Healthy Start Scheme: Providing Nutritional Support for Low-Income Families

      The Healthy Start scheme is a UK-wide program that aims to provide a nutritional safety net for pregnant women and families with children under 4 years old who are living in very low-income and disadvantaged households. The scheme offers vouchers for basic healthy foods and coupons for Healthy Start vitamin supplements to eligible families.

      To be eligible for the scheme, pregnant women must be in a household that receives Income Support, Income-based Jobseeker’s Allowance, Income-related Employment and Support Allowance, or Child Tax Credit. Families with a child under 4 years old are only eligible if they live in households that receive the same benefits or tax credits.

      It is important to note that the Healthy Start scheme doesn’t specifically cover breastfeeding, but it does provide free vitamin supplements, including vitamin D, to women and children from eligible families. However, uptake of the Healthy Start vitamins among qualifying families is currently low.

      Overall, the Healthy Start scheme plays a crucial role in providing nutritional support to low-income families in the UK, helping to ensure that pregnant women and young children have access to the basic healthy foods and vitamins they need to thrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 47 - A 55-year-old smoker visits his GP clinic.

    As per the NICE guidelines for...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old smoker visits his GP clinic.

      As per the NICE guidelines for identifying and referring suspected cancer (NG12), which of the following symptoms would necessitate an urgent chest x-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suspected rib fracture

      Explanation:

      Referral and Assessment Guidelines for Lung Cancer

      Persistent haemoptysis, superior vena caval obstruction, and stridor are all red flags for possible lung cancer and require immediate referral to a cancer specialist. In addition, NICE NG12 recommends an urgent chest X-ray within two weeks for individuals aged 40 and over who have unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, especially if they have a history of smoking. For those with persistent or recurrent chest infections, finger clubbing, supraclavicular or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis, an urgent chest X-ray should also be considered. Early detection and referral can improve outcomes for individuals with lung cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 48 - A 25-year-old patient schedules a visit with her GP to ask for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient schedules a visit with her GP to ask for a prescription for orlistat. What is the most probable comorbid condition that would prevent the prescription of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Orlistat is a medication used to treat obesity by inhibiting gastrointestinal lipase and reducing fat absorption from the gut. However, it can cause loose stool or diarrhea if a low-fat diet is not followed strictly. It is crucial to consider the suitability of orlistat for patients taking critical medications like antiepileptics or the contraceptive pill. Orlistat can increase gut transit time, leading to reduced absorption and efficacy of critical medications. The BNF lists the combination of antiepileptics and orlistat as a red interaction.

      Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 49 - A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling tired and fatigued for...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling tired and fatigued for the past 2 weeks. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, epilepsy, and polycystic kidney disease. The results of his blood test reveal an abnormality in his electrolyte levels:

      - Na+ 129 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
      - K+ 4.6 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)

      Which medication among his prescriptions is the most likely culprit for this abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Proton pump inhibitors have been linked to the development of hyponatraemia, a significant electrolyte imbalance. The exact cause of this association is not fully understood, but it may be related to the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion. Conversely, tolvaptan is a medication utilized to manage hypernatraemia in individuals with polycystic kidney disease.

      Understanding Proton Pump Inhibitors

      Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are medications that work by blocking the H+/K+ ATPase in the stomach’s parietal cells. This action is irreversible and helps to reduce the amount of acid produced in the stomach. Examples of PPIs include omeprazole and lansoprazole.

      Despite their effectiveness in treating conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers, PPIs can have adverse effects. These include hyponatremia and hypomagnesemia, which are low levels of sodium and magnesium in the blood, respectively. Prolonged use of PPIs can also increase the risk of osteoporosis, leading to an increased risk of fractures. Additionally, there is a potential for microscopic colitis and an increased risk of C. difficile infections.

      It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of PPIs with your healthcare provider and to use them only as directed. Regular monitoring of electrolyte levels and bone density may also be necessary for those on long-term PPI therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 50 - You assess a 26-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with chronic plaque...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 26-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with chronic plaque psoriasis. He has responded positively to a 4-week course of a potent corticosteroid + vitamin D analogue topical treatment. The patient inquires if he can obtain more of the medication in case of future flare-ups. What is the most suitable answer regarding the use of topical corticosteroids?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He should aim for a 4 week break in between courses of topical corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to have a 4 week interval between courses of topical corticosteroids for patients with psoriasis.

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Urgent And Unscheduled Care (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/2) 50%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (0/2) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (1/3) 33%
Allergy And Immunology (0/1) 0%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Children And Young People (2/2) 100%
Mental Health (0/2) 0%
Genomic Medicine (0/1) 0%
Older Adults (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Kidney And Urology (1/2) 50%
End Of Life (1/1) 100%
Leadership And Management (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology And Breast (0/1) 0%
Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing (1/1) 100%
Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Passmed