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Question 1
Correct
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A woman aged 25 asks your practice nurse for advice on travel immunisations.
She is 16 weeks pregnant and is travelling to a rural part of Asia to visit her family as her father is very ill. She doesn't know what vaccinations she may have had as a child and the practice doesn't have any old records. The nurse wants to know if she can give the vaccines. Which vaccine should not be given to a pregnant woman?Your Answer: Cholera
Explanation:Vaccinations for Pregnant Women
It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of vaccinations for pregnant women. Live virus vaccines, such as the yellow fever vaccine, should not be given to pregnant women due to the theoretical risk of the fetus contracting the infection. However, if travel to a high-risk area is unavoidable, the individual risk from the disease and vaccine should be assessed. Inactivated viral or bacterial vaccines and toxoids, such as those for hepatitis A and B, cholera, and tetanus, are generally safe for pregnant women and may be given when clinically indicated. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You assess a 5 month old girl who was hospitalized due to a urinary tract infection and showed improvement after receiving antibiotics within 48 hours. She was discharged after 2 days. As per NICE guidelines, what follow-up (if any) should be scheduled?
Your Answer: Ultrasound within 6 weeks and DMSA in 4-6 months time
Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan within 6 weeks
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, if a child under 6 months old has a UTI that responds well to antibiotics within 48 hours, an ultrasound scan should be done within 6 weeks. However, if the UTI is atypical or recurrent, additional tests such as ultrasound during the acute infection, DMSA 4-6 months after the acute infection, and MCUG are recommended.
An atypical UTI may present with symptoms such as being seriously ill, poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, elevated creatinine, failure to respond to antibiotics within 48 hours, or non-E. coli organisms. Recurrent UTI is defined as having two or more episodes of UTI with acute pyelonephritis/upper urinary tract infection, one episode of UTI with acute pyelonephritis/upper urinary tract infection plus one or more episodes of UTI with cystitis/lower urinary tract infection, or three or more episodes of UTI with cystitis/lower urinary tract infection.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) in children require investigation to identify any underlying causes and potential kidney damage. Unlike in adults, the development of a UTI in childhood may indicate renal scarring. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends imaging the urinary tract for infants under six months who present with their first UTI and respond to treatment, within six weeks. Children over six months who respond to treatment do not require imaging unless there are features suggestive of an atypical infection, such as being seriously ill, having poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms.
Further investigations may include a urine microscopy and culture, as only 50% of children with a UTI have pyuria, making microscopy or dipstick of the urine inadequate for diagnosis. A static radioisotope scan, such as DMSA, can identify renal scars and should be done 4-6 months after the initial infection. Micturating cystourethrography (MCUG) can identify vesicoureteric reflux and is only recommended for infants under six months who present with atypical or recurrent infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 3
Incorrect
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What is one of the most common symptoms observed in individuals with Cow's milk protein intolerance?
Your Answer: Bloody diarrhoea
Correct Answer: Stridor
Explanation:Cow’s Milk and Soy Intolerance in Infants
Cow’s milk intolerance in infants can lead to anaphylactic responses, but it is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal effects and malabsorption, resulting in diarrhea. One of the most common symptoms of cow’s milk protein allergy (CMPA) is bloody stool. On the other hand, adverse reactions to soy have been reported in 10-35% of infants with CMPA. Soy may be considered as an alternative for infants over 6 months who refuse to drink extensively hydrolyzed formula and/or amino acid formula. However, soy formulations contain high concentrations of phytate, aluminum, and phytoestrogens (isoflavones), which may have undesired effects. Therefore, it is important to monitor infants for any adverse reactions when introducing soy-based formulas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female is worried about the unsightly appearance of her toenails. She has noticed a whitish discoloration that extends up the nail bed in several toes on both feet. After confirming a dermatophyte infection, she has been diligently cutting her nails and applying topical amorolifine, but with no improvement. What is the best course of treatment?
Your Answer: Oral fluconazole
Correct Answer: Topical terbinafine
Explanation:Treatment for Fungal Nail Infection
If an adult has a confirmed fungal nail infection and self-care measures or topical treatment are not successful or appropriate, treatment with an oral antifungal agent should be offered. The first-line recommendation is Terbinafine because it is effective against both dermatophytes and Candida species. On the other hand, the ‘-azoles’ such as fluconazole do not have as much efficacy against dermatophytes. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent the spread of infection and improve the appearance of the affected nail.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of blurred vision in his left eye and difficulty reading, with lines appearing wavy. The GP suspects age-related macular degeneration. How urgently should the patient be referred for further assessment?
Your Answer: Routine - seen within 3 months
Correct Answer: Urgent - seen with 1 week
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Age-Related Macular Degeneration
If there is suspicion of age-related macular degeneration, it is crucial to refer the patient urgently for further assessment. Ideally, they should be seen within one week of referral, especially if they present with rapid visual distortion. The assessment should be conducted by a macular clinic, a local hospital eye service, or an optometrist who can refer to an ophthalmologist.
According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries, if there is a delay of more than one week in being seen by an optometrist or ophthalmologist, or if symptoms worsen while waiting to be seen, the patient should attend eye casualty, if available, as soon as possible, or seek other immediate medical attention to expedite urgent specialist assessment.
Once neovascular age-related macular degeneration is confirmed, treatment in secondary care should be given as soon as possible to prevent any visual loss. Therefore, urgent referral and assessment are crucial in managing age-related macular degeneration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl presents with a six-month history of constant snoring and seems to ‘talk through her nose.’ Her nose seems clear on anterior examination.
What is the most appropriate management intervention?Your Answer: Adenoidectomy
Correct Answer: A period of watchful waiting
Explanation:Management of Enlarged Adenoids in Children
Explanation:
Enlarged adenoids are a common condition in children, which usually resolve on their own by the age of eight years. In cases where there is no history of sleep apnea or significant impairment of hearing or speech, a period of watchful waiting for six months or longer is appropriate. Nasal corticosteroids are not effective in treating enlarged adenoids as they do not affect the postnasal space. Adenoidectomy may be considered if the problem persists despite the waiting period. Tonsillectomy is not necessary unless there are frequent throat infections. The use of an albuterol inhaler is not recommended as there is no indication of asthma in the child. Overall, careful monitoring and appropriate intervention can effectively manage enlarged adenoids in children. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient has recently obtained her driver's license. She is an insulin dependent diabetic and plans to embark on a lengthy road trip. She comprehends the significance of hypoglycemia symptoms and frequent blood sugar monitoring. She has been instructed to keep fast-acting carbohydrates with her at all times while driving but seeks guidance on when to pull over and consume a snack after checking her blood glucose levels.
At what blood glucose level should she have a snack?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 mmol/litre
Explanation:Practical Management of Insulin in AKT Exam
Questions about the practical management of insulin are common in the AKT exam, but have been poorly answered in previous exams. Therefore, it is likely to be a recurrent theme. To ensure that you are adequately prepared, we have extracted the learning points from the reference sources used by examiners.
The guidance suggests that drivers should ensure that their blood glucose is above 5 mmol/litre when driving, but they should stop driving if it drops below 4 mmol/litre. If the blood glucose drops below 5 mmol/litre, they are advised to take a snack. Therefore, it is important to clarify which threshold applies when answering questions related to this topic.
Learning points that may be tested include the advice about testing frequency, thresholds for driving, thresholds for taking a snack or stopping driving, and when the journey can be safely resumed. Don’t worry, we have questions that will test you on all of these learning points.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You are concerned that alcohol seems to form a big part of a student's life. Although you have never observed any drinking while they are studying, there are often frequent references to it. They say it is just a reward to start winding down after classes. There have been no obvious problems with their academic performance. You are aware there is a fine-wine cellar at home. The only time you have witnessed drunkenness is late at night at parties when your student is with hard-drinking friends. There have been episodes of abstinence in the past – often very public, and once involving sponsorship.
Which of the following principles is APPLICABLE in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suggesting that drinking at the end of a hard day is a just reward may be a form of denial
Explanation:Myths and Misconceptions about Alcohol Abuse in the Medical Field
1. Drinking at the end of a hard day is a just reward. This common explanation for excessive alcohol consumption may be a form of denial and can lead to dependence on alcohol to relieve stress or difficult emotions.
2. Alcohol abuse is incompatible with proper functioning as a doctor. While alcohol abuse can certainly have negative effects on a doctor’s performance, some individuals with alcohol dependence may not show signs of the problem in their workplace.
3. Becoming drunk in the presence of other heavy-drinking medical colleagues doesn’t suggest an alcohol problem. Any form of alcohol abuse is still abuse, regardless of the setting or company in which it takes place.
4. Having been able to give up alcohol on several occasions demonstrates an ability to control alcohol consumption. Briefly giving up alcohol doesn’t necessarily demonstrate control, as evidenced by the fact that the individual in question resumed drinking.
5. People who drink expensive wines and spirits are not abusers of alcohol. Alcohol abuse can occur with any type of alcohol, and it is the quantity and pattern of consumption that are important factors to consider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You assess a 52-year-old patient with hypertension who has been taking 2.5mg of ramipril for a month. He reports experiencing a persistent tickly cough that is causing him to lose sleep at night. Despite this, his blood pressure is now under control.
What recommendations would you provide to him?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop the ramipril and prescribe candesartan
Explanation:When patients are unable to tolerate ACE inhibitors due to the common side effect of a dry, persistent cough, angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs) should be considered as an alternative. For individuals under the age of 55 who experience intolerance to ACE inhibitors, prescribing medications such as candesartan, an ARB, may be the next appropriate step.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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One of your elderly patients with COPD is about to commence long-term oxygen therapy. What is the most suitable method to administer this oxygen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oxygen concentrator supplied via Home Oxygen Order Form
Explanation:The prescription for oxygen is now done through the Home Oxygen Order Form instead of the FP10. Private companies are now responsible for providing the oxygen supply instead of the local pharmacy.
Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients
Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.
To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.
Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).
Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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This is the full blood count result of a 72-year-old male who presents with fatigue and weakness:
Hb 110 g/L (130-180)
RBC 3.8 ×1012/L (4.5-5.5)
Haematocrit 0.35 (0.40-0.52)
MCV 92 fL (80-100)
MCH 30 pg (27-32)
Platelets 180 ×109/L (150-450)
WBC 4.5 ×109/L (4-11)
Neutrophils 2.5 ×109/L (1.5-7.0)
Lymphocytes 1.5 ×109/L (1.0-4.0)
Monocytes 0.3 ×109/L (0.2-1.0)
Eosinophils 0.1 ×109/L (0.0-0.4)
Basophils 0.1 ×109/L (0.0-0.1)
He is brought into the clinic by his wife who is concerned that her husband has been feeling very tired and weak lately. Examination reveals no abnormalities on chest, abdominal or respiratory examination. Neurological examination is normal.
What is the most likely cause of this blood picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:Delayed Grief Reaction and Elevated MCV in a Patient
This patient is exhibiting signs of a delayed grief reaction following the recent death of her husband. Her FBC shows a normal picture, except for an elevated MCV, which suggests alcohol excess. Macrocytosis caused by folate or B12 deficiency would typically result in anemia alongside the macrocytosis. Hypothyroidism can also cause macrocytosis, but the patient’s weight loss contradicts this diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You come across a 16-year-old student who has been experiencing vertigo for the past 2 days. She complains of feeling like the room is spinning and experiencing nausea. She has been suffering from a severe cold for the last 10 days but denies any other symptoms. Upon examination and hearing tests, you suspect that she has vestibular neuronitis.
What is a correct statement about vestibular neuronitis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hearing is normal in vestibular neuronitis
Explanation:Understanding Vestibular Neuronitis
Vestibular neuronitis is a type of vertigo that typically occurs after a viral infection. It is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo that can last for hours or days, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Horizontal nystagmus is also a common symptom, but there is no hearing loss or tinnitus.
It is important to differentiate vestibular neuronitis from other conditions such as viral labyrinthitis and posterior circulation stroke. The HiNTs exam can be used to distinguish between these conditions.
Treatment for vestibular neuronitis typically involves medication to alleviate symptoms, such as buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine for severe cases, or a short course of oral medication for less severe cases. Vestibular rehabilitation exercises are also recommended for patients who experience chronic symptoms.
Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for vestibular neuronitis can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is pregnant for the first time. She presents with a diffuse dark pigmentation over both cheeks.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chloasma
Explanation:Common Skin Pigmentation Disorders and Their Characteristics
Chloasma, also known as melasma, is a skin condition characterized by hyperpigmentation in sun-exposed areas, particularly the face. The exact cause of chloasma is unknown, but it is believed to be related to hormonal activity, as it occurs more frequently in women and can worsen during pregnancy or with the use of oral contraceptives. Treatment options include avoiding prolonged sun exposure and using a sunblock, as well as topical depigmenting agents like hydroxyquinone.
Acanthosis nigricans is a skin condition characterized by thickening and pigmentation of the major flexures, and is commonly seen in patients with stomach cancer, insulin-resistant diabetes, and obesity.
Pityriasis alba is a skin condition characterized by white dry patches on the cheeks of dark-skinned atopic individuals.
Pityriasis versicolor is a skin condition characterized by brown or white scaly patches on the trunk, and is caused by a yeast infection.
Post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation can occur after any inflammatory condition and is most common in dark-skinned individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A father brings in his seven-month-old daughter who has been fussy lately and he suspects she may be teething. He has been using over-the-counter pain relief and giving her teething rings to chew on, but he is worried that she may need additional treatment.
Upon examination, the baby is found to have normal vital signs and no fever, and the diagnosis of teething is confirmed.
What would be the best course of action at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure the mother and tell her to continue existing treatments
Explanation:It is not recommended to prescribe oral choline salicylate gels to teething children as it may increase the risk of Reye’s syndrome. However, in this case, reassurance is appropriate as the child’s symptoms are mild and self-limiting. Simple measures such as allowing the child to bite on a cool, clean object and administering paracetamol/ibuprofen suspension for those aged three months and older can be helpful. It is not recommended to use topical anaesthetics or herbal teething powders as they may have adverse effects.
Teething: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment Options
Teething is the process of primary tooth eruption in infants, which typically begins around 6 months of age and is usually complete by 30 months of age. It is characterized by a subacute onset of symptoms, including gingival irritation, parent-reported irritability, and excessive drooling. These symptoms occur in approximately 70% of all children and are equally prevalent in boys and girls, although girls tend to develop their teeth sooner than boys.
During examination, teeth can typically be felt below the surface of the gums prior to breaking through, and gingival erythema will be noted around the site of early tooth eruption. Treatment options include chewable teething rings and simple analgesia with paracetamol or ibuprofen. However, topical analgesics or numbing agents are not recommended, and oral choline salicylate gels should not be prescribed due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome.
It is important to note that teething doesn’t cause systemic symptoms such as fevers or diarrhea, and these symptoms should be treated as warning signs of other systemic illness. Additionally, teething necklaces made from amber beads on a cord are a common naturopathic treatment for teething symptoms but represent a significant strangulation and choking hazard. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid their use.
In conclusion, teething is a clinical diagnosis that can be managed with simple interventions. However, it is essential to be aware of potential hazards and to seek medical attention if systemic symptoms are present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old patient is admitted to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain, polyuria and polydipsia which have particularly worsened over 72 hours. His parents called an ambulance when he became confused and unwell. After an initial workup, he is given a new diagnosis of type I diabetes and is found to be in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). His father tells the admitting doctor that the patient’s maternal grandparents both have diabetes.
Which of the following most reliably suggests that a patient presenting with diabetes has the type 1 variety?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: History of recent weight loss
Explanation:Understanding the Factors that Differentiate Type I and Type II Diabetes
Type I diabetes is characterized by the autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, which produce insulin. This results in absolute insulin deficiency, leading to the use of fat and muscle for energy and rapid weight loss. On the other hand, type II diabetes is associated with insulin resistance, but some insulin is still being produced and is at least partially effective. Factors that differentiate the two types include the presence of diabetic retinopathy, family history of diabetes, hypertriglyceridaemia, and onset age. Recent weight loss is a better predictor of type I diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man who has not received measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccine presents with temperature of 38.5oC, headache, orchitis and unilateral parotitis.
Select the single most appropriate initial response.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise symptomatic treatment only
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Mumps
Mumps is a viral infection that is usually diagnosed clinically without the need for further investigations. However, in cases where meningitis is present without parotitis, mumps-specific antibodies in the serum can confirm the diagnosis. Salivary IgM against mumps can also be detected, but it may take several days for antibody levels to rise. If the initial test is negative, it is recommended to repeat the test.
There is no specific treatment for mumps, but symptomatic relief can be achieved with paracetamol and ibuprofen. Meningism, which occurs in about 10% of patients, is usually mild and self-limiting, even without parotitis. Orchitis, which occurs in approximately 25% of post-pubertal men, can be mistaken for testicular torsion in someone of this age. However, based on the given symptoms, hospital admission is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 67-year old man with hypertension visited his general practitioner after an ambulatory blood pressure monitor showed a daytime average blood pressure of 155/98 mmHg. Despite taking optimal doses of ramipril and amlodipine with good adherence, which medication should be introduced to his treatment plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Indapamide
Explanation:To improve the management of hypertension that is not well-controlled despite the use of an ACE inhibitor and a calcium channel blocker, it is recommended to include a thiazide-like diuretic.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman, who is typically healthy, presents to the clinic with complaints of itchy and sticky eyelids, particularly in the morning. She denies any pain or vision changes and has not attempted any self-treatment. Upon examination, there are red, inflamed, and crusted eyelid margins, but no asymmetry. Visual acuity is normal. What is the best course of action for managing her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eyelid hygiene
Explanation:Blepharitis is a chronic condition that can be effectively managed with good lid hygiene techniques. Referral to a specialist is not usually necessary, but immediate ophthalmological assessment is recommended if there are symptoms of corneal disease, sudden onset visual loss, or persistent localised disease despite optimal treatment. Antibiotics should only be prescribed if there are clear signs of staphylococcal infection, and corticosteroids should only be initiated by an ophthalmologist in secondary care due to their potential adverse effects. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of both common and less common eye conditions that require urgent action.
Understanding Blepharitis
Blepharitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the eyelid margins. It can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection. Patients with rosacea are more prone to developing blepharitis. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, and any problem affecting these glands can lead to dry eyes and irritation.
Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness and discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Staphylococcal blepharitis may cause swollen eyelids, styes, and chalazions. Secondary conjunctivitis may also occur.
Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin using hot compresses twice a day and mechanical removal of debris from the lid margins through lid hygiene. A mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water can be used for cleaning. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in patients with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You see a 26-year-old male patient with erectile dysfunction. He is typically healthy and doesn't take any regular medications. He is a non-smoker and drinks alcohol in moderation.
You proceed to gather a more comprehensive history of his issue and conduct a thorough psychosexual evaluation.
Which of the following history findings would indicate a psychogenic origin rather than an organic cause for his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A history of premature ejaculation
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a person is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for satisfactory sexual performance. The causes of ED can be categorized into organic, psychogenic, or mixed, and can also be caused by certain medications.
Symptoms that indicate a psychogenic cause of ED include a sudden onset, early loss of erection, self-stimulated or waking erections, premature ejaculation or inability to ejaculate, relationship problems or changes, major life events, and psychological issues.
On the other hand, symptoms that suggest an organic cause of ED include a gradual onset and normal ejaculation.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the most useful investigation to differentiate between the types of cardiomyopathy from the given list?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:Understanding the Four Types of Cardiomyopathy
Cardiomyopathy is a group of heart muscle disorders that affect the structure and function of the heart. There are four major types of cardiomyopathy: dilated, hypertrophic, restrictive, and arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy. Each type is characterized by specific features such as ventricular dilation, hypertrophy, restrictive filling, and fibro-fatty changes in the right ventricular myocardium.
While dilated and hypertrophic cardiomyopathies are the most common types, a familial cause has been identified in a significant percentage of patients with these conditions. On the other hand, restrictive cardiomyopathy is usually not familial.
To diagnose cardiomyopathy, a full cardiological assessment is necessary. Transthoracic Doppler echocardiography can confirm the diagnosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, distinguish between restrictive cardiomyopathy and constrictive pericarditis, and assess the severity of ventricular dysfunction in dilated cardiomyopathies. Coronary angiography can help exclude coronary artery disease as the cause of dilated cardiomyopathy.
A normal ECG is uncommon in any form of cardiomyopathy, and cardiomegaly on a chest X-ray may be present in all types. Brain natriuretic peptide is a marker of ventricular dysfunction but cannot differentiate between cardiomyopathies.
In summary, understanding the different types of cardiomyopathy and their diagnostic tools is crucial in managing and treating this group of heart muscle disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 9-year-old girl who complains of throat itching and mild swelling of her lips after consuming a mango. She has no other symptoms and no breathing difficulties. She has noticed similar symptoms after eating various fruits during the summer. Samantha has a history of hay fever and takes regular antihistamines. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral allergy syndrome
Explanation:Oral allergy syndrome is closely associated with pollen allergies and exhibits seasonal fluctuations. It occurs when allergens in certain foods cross-react with pollens, causing the body to react to the food proteins as if they were pollen. This results in a localized reaction around the mouth, such as an itchy mouth or throat, and sometimes hives. As the patient experiences symptoms with various fruits, it is not a pure kiwi allergy. Urticaria is characterized by an itchy rash triggered by an allergen, but there is no mention of a rash in this case. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that causes swelling of the throat and tongue, as well as breathing difficulties. However, since there is only mild lip swelling and no breathing difficulties, anaphylaxis is unlikely.
Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome
Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.
It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.
OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.
In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about conditions that affect the eyelids is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlamydial infections may cause entropion
Explanation:Common Misconceptions about Eye Conditions
Entropion and Chlamydial Infections: Contrary to popular belief, entropion is not usually caused by scarring below the eye, but rather by weakness of the small muscles around the eyelid, which is more common in older individuals. Additionally, chlamydial infections may cause entropion, but it is typically associated with trachoma, not inclusion conjunctivitis.
Bell’s Palsy and Facial Nerve Palsy: Bell’s palsy doesn’t always resolve completely, and some patients may experience long-term sequelae such as facial asymmetry and drooling of saliva. Facial nerve palsy doesn’t cause an inability to open the eyes fully, but rather poor eyelid closure, which may require surgery.
Ptosis: Ptosis can be congenital or acquired, and the most common cause of congenital ptosis is myogenic, not neurogenic. Acquired ptosis is usually due to aponeurotic causes, such as involution with age or a disinsertion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You receive a 'friend request' on Facebook from a patient of a similar age to yourself who you had a consult with earlier that day. What would be the most appropriate course of action to take?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decline friendship request and write a polite letter to the patient explaining it would be inappropriate
Explanation:The General Medical Council has issued specific guidelines regarding the use of social media by doctors. According to these guidelines, if a patient contacts a doctor through their private profile regarding their care or other professional matters, the doctor should make it clear that they cannot mix social and professional relationships. The text implies that there is a risk of blurring boundaries if a doctor finds a patient attractive and receives a friend request from them. Therefore, it would be appropriate to decline the request. However, this doesn’t warrant removing the patient from the practice list. As long as professional boundaries are maintained, the patient can continue to receive care from the doctor.
Duties of a Doctor According to the General Medical Council
The General Medical Council has outlined the duties of a doctor in providing care to patients. The first and foremost duty is to prioritize the care of the patient. This includes protecting and promoting the health of patients and the public, providing a good standard of practice and care, and keeping professional knowledge and skills up to date. Doctors must also recognize and work within the limits of their competence and work with colleagues in the best interest of patients.
In addition to providing medical care, doctors must treat patients with respect and dignity. This includes treating patients politely and considerately and respecting their right to confidentiality. Doctors must also work in partnership with patients, listening to their concerns and preferences, providing information in a way they can understand, and respecting their right to make decisions about their treatment and care.
Finally, doctors must act with honesty, integrity, and without discrimination. They must act without delay if they believe that they or a colleague may be putting patients at risk and never abuse the trust of patients or the public’s trust in the profession.
Overall, the duties of a doctor are to provide the best possible care to patients while respecting their rights and acting with honesty and integrity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A menopausal woman in her early 50s comes to discuss a change in hormone replacement therapy (HRT) with you. She is experiencing PMS type symptoms, breast tenderness, and low mood with her current formulation. She finds it difficult to cope with the mood swings and the hot flashes are very troublesome despite wearing loose fitting clothing and opening windows at night. She doesn't have any risk factors preventing the use of HRT. She has never had any operations, has 2 grown up children by normal delivery, and uses no contraception.
Which of the following would be most appropriate to use instead?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tibolone
Explanation:Dealing with Progestogenic Side Effects of HRT
When a woman experiences progestogenic side effects from her current hormone replacement therapy (HRT), there are several options for managing the symptoms. However, the best solution is switching to Mirena and oestrogen therapy. The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (IUS), also known as Mirena, delivers progestogen locally to the uterus, resulting in low systemic levels of levonorgestrel. This can significantly reduce bleeding and amenorrhoea in women experiencing persistent progestogenic adverse effects from systemic HRT. The levonorgestrel-releasing IUS is also appropriate for women who require contraception along with HRT in the perimenopause or have heavy withdrawal bleeds on sequential HRT.
Oral oestrogen therapy alone is not suitable for women with an intact uterus as they require endometrial protection. Topical oestrogen therapy is generally used for women with vaginal atrophy and will not treat vasomotor symptoms. Tibolone can be used but is not as effective as combined HRT. The copper coil doesn’t offer endometrial protection. Therefore, the best viable option is oral oestrogen with protection afforded by the Mirena coil, which is licensed for this use.
It is important to note that management of side effects of HRT is an important topic that may appear in exams. It is advisable to read through references to be fully prepared to answer questions correctly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A General Practitioner receives a call from a patient's relative who is worried about the patient's possible manic episode due to bipolar disorder. What symptoms would be commonly observed in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lack of normal social inhibitions
Explanation:Symptoms of Mania in Bipolar Disorder
Mania is a common symptom of bipolar disorder, characterized by a period of elevated or irritable mood, increased energy, and other changes in behavior. Here are some common symptoms of mania:
Lack of normal social inhibitions: Manic episodes can lead to sexual indiscretions and loss of other normal social inhibitions, putting patients at risk of unplanned pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections.
Avoidance of pleasurable activities: Manic patients may engage in excessive spending and other pleasurable activities without considering the consequences.
Increased sleep: While reduced sleep is a common feature of mania, increased sleep can be a symptom of depression in bipolar disorder.
Power of concentration increased: Manic patients may experience distractibility and reduced concentration, rather than increased levels of concentration.
Reduced energy levels: While manic patients may feel elated and full of energy, this often shifts into depression, where they feel sad and hopeless with low energy levels.
It is important to recognize these symptoms and seek appropriate treatment for bipolar disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old nursing student asks if she should be vaccinated against Chickenpox. She cannot recall having had the disease, although her mother tells her that she thinks her siblings have had it.
Select the single most appropriate course of action in this situation.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Test for varicella antibodies and, if negative, vaccinate her
Explanation:Chickenpox Immunisation for Healthcare Workers
Most children in the UK will develop Chickenpox during their childhood, and it is rare for a child to avoid the disease if their siblings have it. However, for healthcare workers, it is important to be immune to prevent the spread of the disease to patients, especially those who are immunocompromised. To determine immunity, a varicella antibody test should be conducted. If the test is negative, the individual should be vaccinated with a live attenuated vaccine, as recommended by the Green Book guidelines. It is important to note that the vaccine is contraindicated for those who are immunocompromised themselves. While there are currently no plans to make Chickenpox immunisation routine for British children, healthcare workers and those in contact with immunocompromised individuals should take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man, known to have been referred to ophthalmology and awaiting the appointment for his right pterygium, attends.
He was referred to the ophthalmologist by his Optician because the pterygium is encroaching on his visual axis. He is complaining of constant irritation, but there is no inflammation of the eye. There is no ocular pain or discharge.
What is the best next step of management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give the patient a short course of topical ocular lubricants
Explanation:Understanding Pterygium and When to Refer to an Ophthalmologist
Pterygium is a condition that can cause irritation and grittiness in the eye due to its irregular surface, which can lead to dryness in certain areas. If the pterygium encroaches on the visual axis, it can threaten the patient’s vision and requires referral to an ophthalmologist. Other reasons for referral include inducing irregular astigmatism, chronic inflammation, or being cosmetically unacceptable.
While waiting for an ophthalmology appointment, the best management for symptomatic relief is to use ocular lubricants. If there is evidence of acute inflammation, an ophthalmologist may prescribe topical steroids or NSAIDs. In some cases, surgery may be necessary.
It’s important to note that if a patient has not been referred and their pterygium encroaches on the visual axis, they should be referred to an ophthalmologist. Understanding when to refer patients with pterygium can help ensure they receive the appropriate care and management for their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 2-month-old baby is here for their initial vaccinations. What immunisations are recommended at this point?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: '6-1 vaccine' (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) + rotavirus + Men B
Explanation:The vaccine regimen includes immunization against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio, Haemophilus influenza type b, and hepatitis B, as well as vaccination against pneumococcus, rotavirus, and meningococcus B.
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.
The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male complains of low mood, numbness in his left hand especially at night, and has recently gained 8 kg in weight. He has noticed that his periods have become heavier over the last four months and now lasts for 8-11 days each month. There is a history of type 2 diabetes in his family. During examination, his BMI is 31.
What is the most suitable test to perform?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: LH/FSH ratio
Explanation:Hypothyroidism as a Possible Cause of Weight Gain, Menorrhagia, and Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
The combination of weight gain, menorrhagia, and carpal tunnel syndrome in a patient is highly suggestive of hypothyroidism. While the patient may also be at risk of type 2 diabetes due to her obesity, it is not the primary cause of her symptoms. The most common cause of hypothyroidism in the UK population is autoimmune lymphocytic thyroiditis. Treatment for this condition typically involves thyroid hormone replacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of wheals and urticaria. He is currently taking multiple medications.
Which medication is the most probable cause of his allergic reaction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Possible Causes of Urticarial Eruption
Urticaria, commonly known as hives, is a skin condition characterized by itchy, raised, and red welts. One of the most likely causes of an urticarial eruption is aspirin. However, other drugs are also frequently associated with this condition, including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), penicillin, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, thiazides, and codeine. It is important to identify the underlying cause of urticaria to prevent further episodes and manage symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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