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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about her mental health. She was involved in a serious car accident three months ago and has been avoiding driving ever since. She experiences flashbacks and nightmares and has become increasingly isolated and anxious. The doctor suspects post-traumatic stress disorder.
What is a diagnostic criterion for post-traumatic stress disorder?Your Answer: Anxiety
Correct Answer: Avoidance of people associated with the event
Explanation:Understanding the Diagnostic Criteria for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event that threatens physical integrity or life. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fifth edition (DSM-5), outlines the core diagnostic criteria for PTSD, which include recurrent intrusive symptoms such as memories, nightmares, and flashbacks. Additionally, individuals with PTSD may exhibit persistent avoidance of thoughts, feelings, or external factors associated with the traumatic event, as well as negative changes in mood or thoughts and changes in arousal or reactivity.
It is important to note that anxiety and depression often coexist with PTSD, but they are not diagnostic features. Similarly, substance abuse cannot be the primary cause of the disturbance in order for a PTSD diagnosis to be made. Recurrent early awakening, a symptom of dysthymia, is not part of the diagnostic criteria for PTSD.
Overall, understanding the diagnostic criteria for PTSD can help individuals and healthcare professionals identify and treat this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 49-year-old patient comes in with a severely tender and swollen big toe on their left foot. The area is very sensitive to touch and moving the toe causes pain. The patient reports no fever and is able to move their toe in all directions despite the discomfort. They have a history of chronic kidney disease and are currently taking ramipril for hypertension. Additionally, they have had a past duodenal ulcer. What is the initial medication recommended for treatment?
Your Answer: Colchicine
Explanation:Gout causes joint swelling, redness, and tenderness, which can be very painful. However, indomethacin and prednisolone should be avoided due to the individual’s history of duodenal ulcer. Naproxen can also worsen kidney function and exacerbate ulcer disease. While tramadol is an analgesic, it is not targeted specifically for joint disease. Colchicine is a suitable medication for treating gout in individuals with the mentioned co-morbidities.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman has chronic pancreatitis. She has lost weight and has diarrhoea that has become troublesome.
Select from the list the single most suitable preparation to relieve her diarrhoea.Your Answer: Pancreatin
Explanation:Gastrointestinal Medications: Pancreatin, Cholestyramine, Loperamide, Co-Phenotrope, and Ispaghula Husk
Pancreatin is a combination of digestive enzymes produced by the pancreas that aid in the breakdown of protein, fat, and starch. It is commonly used to treat conditions where the pancreas is not producing enough enzymes, such as pancreatitis, cystic fibrosis, or after surgical removal of the pancreas. Pancreatin should be taken with food or with medications that reduce stomach acid.
Cholestyramine is a medication that binds to bile in the gut, preventing its reabsorption. It is primarily used to treat itching in patients with advanced liver disease and to prevent diarrhea in individuals with Crohn’s disease who have had a portion of their small intestine removed.
Loperamide and co-phenotrope are anti-motility drugs that can be used to treat uncomplicated acute diarrhea in adults. These medications slow down the movement of the gut, allowing for more water to be absorbed and reducing the frequency of bowel movements.
Ispaghula husk is a bulk-forming laxative that absorbs water in the gut, increasing the bulk of stool and promoting regular bowel movements. It is commonly used to treat constipation and other bowel irregularities.
Overall, these medications can be effective in treating a variety of gastrointestinal conditions and symptoms. However, it is important to consult with a healthcare provider before starting any new medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman has been referred to the outpatient clinic due to declining renal function. After diagnosis, it is determined that she has AD polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). Her family history reveals that her mother died of a stroke at the age of 46, and her father is still alive. She is worried about the likelihood of passing on the disorder to her daughter. What is the chance that her daughter will inherit ADPKD?
Your Answer: 100%
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD) is a genetic condition that usually manifests between the ages of 30-50. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, meaning that if one parent has the condition, there is a 50% chance of passing it on to their child.
ADPKD is characterized by the development of cysts in the kidneys, which can lead to deteriorating renal function and hypertension. In addition to renal cysts, patients may also have hepatic and berry aneurysms. A maternal history of these conditions may be highly relevant in determining the risk of developing ADPKD.
It is important for individuals with a family history of ADPKD to undergo genetic testing and regular monitoring to detect and manage any potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old patient comes to you complaining of intense pain in their right shoulder. After an X-ray examination, it is discovered that they have a pathological fracture in their proximal humerus. Which primary solid tumor cancer groups are most prone to metastasizing to bone?
Your Answer: Breast, prostate, lung, kidney, thyroid
Correct Answer: Breast, lung, thyroid, colorectal, cervix
Explanation:Causes of Pathological Fractures in the Elderly
Pathological fractures are fractures that occur due to weakened bones caused by underlying medical conditions. While any type of bone tumour can cause pathological fractures, the majority of cases in the elderly are due to metastatic carcinomas. This is because as people age, their risk of developing cancer increases. Multiple myeloma, a type of cancer that affects the bone marrow, is also common in the elderly and has a high incidence of pathological fractures. Lymphoma, although uncommon, can also cause pathological fractures.
It is important to keep this information in mind when evaluating elderly patients who present with musculoskeletal problems such as shoulder or back pain. A thorough medical history and physical examination can help identify the underlying cause of the fracture and guide appropriate treatment. By understanding the common causes of pathological fractures in the elderly, healthcare providers can provide better care and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man is a frequent attendee at his General Practice Surgery with health worries. He has a strong family history of ischaemic heart disease and is worried he may have heart disease although he has no symptoms of this, no risk factors and his QRisk2 score is 2.5%. He has consulted several doctors in the practice with this concern in the past 12 months.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder
Correct Answer: Illness anxiety disorder
Explanation:Differentiating Illness Anxiety Disorder from Other Conditions
Illness anxiety disorder is a mental health condition characterized by excessive worry about having or acquiring a serious health condition. This preoccupation can lead to excessive health-seeking behavior or maladaptive avoidance techniques. It is important to differentiate illness anxiety disorder from other conditions with similar symptoms.
Somatic symptom disorder, for example, is a condition where the patient experiences distressing physical symptoms that cause persistent thoughts about the seriousness of the cause. However, the patient described in this case doesn’t have any physical symptoms.
Generalized anxiety disorder is another condition where excessive worry is present, but it is not specific to health concerns. In this case, the patient’s worries are focused solely on his own health.
Ischemic heart disease is unlikely as the patient has no symptoms or risk factors.
Obsessive-compulsive disorder is a condition where intrusive, recurrent thoughts and compulsive behaviors are present. However, there are no obsessions or compulsions described in this case.
Therefore, based on the patient’s symptoms and history, illness anxiety disorder is the most likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 7
Correct
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In a typical UK pediatric population, which childhood cancer type is most frequently observed?
Your Answer: Leukaemia
Explanation:Childhood Cancer Statistics
Brain and central nervous system tumours account for 21% of all childhood cancers, followed by lymphoma at 10%, neuroblastoma at 7%, and Wilms’ tumours at 5%. Leukaemia is the most common childhood cancer, making up 31% of all cases. These statistics highlight the need for continued research and funding to improve treatment options and outcomes for children with cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 8
Correct
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A 50-year-old lady has had a borderline smear which tests positive for Human papillomavirus.
What is the most appropriate next step, based on UK guidance?Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy
Explanation:Referral for Colposcopy in HPV Positive and Abnormal Cytology Cases
According to national guidelines and summarised in NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, individuals who test positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) and have abnormal cytology should be referred for colposcopy. This means that if a woman has a borderline smear and is also HPV positive, she should be referred for colposcopy.
In this case, we have a 45-year-old female who would normally have cervical smears every 3 years. However, due to the presence of HPV positive and borderline smear, she requires further investigation through colposcopy. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure early detection and treatment of any potential cervical abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is a recognized phase in the Cycle of Change?
Your Answer: precontemplation
Correct Answer: Recirculation
Explanation:The Cycle of Change: Understanding the Stages of Personal Transformation
The Cycle of Change is a model that illustrates the different stages individuals go through when making changes in their lives. The first stage is precontemplation, where the person is not yet aware that a problem exists. The next stage is contemplation, where the person begins to recognize the issue and considers making a change. The third stage is action, where the person takes steps towards making the change. The fourth stage is maintenance, where the person works to sustain the change. However, it is important to note that relapse can occur, which is a full return to the old behavior.
Understanding the Cycle of Change can be helpful in personal transformation, as it allows individuals to recognize where they are in the process and what steps they need to take to move forward. By acknowledging the different stages and potential setbacks, individuals can better prepare themselves for the challenges that come with making significant changes in their lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 10
Correct
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A 55-year-old man has recently read about prostate cancer and asks whether he should undergo a digital rectal examination to assess his prostate.
For which of the following would it be most appropriate to conduct a digital rectal examination (DRE) to assess prostate size and consistency?Your Answer: In a patient with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS)
Explanation:Prostate Cancer Screening and Testing: Important Considerations
In patients with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), it is important to consider the possibility of locally advanced prostate cancer causing obstructive LUTS. Therefore, a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test and digital rectal exam (DRE) should be offered to men with obstructive symptoms.
While family history is a significant risk factor for prostate cancer, a grandfather’s history of the disease may not be as significant as a first-degree relative’s (father or brother) history.
If a man presents with symptoms of urinary tract infection, it is important to investigate and treat the infection before considering any PSA testing. Prostate cancer typically doesn’t cause symptoms of urinary tract infection.
Currently, there is no formal screening program for prostate cancer. However, men may choose to request a PSA test after being informed of the potential benefits and risks. It is important to note that DRE alone should not be used for screening.
Prior to testing for PSA, it is recommended to perform DRE at least a week prior as it can falsely elevate PSA levels.
Key Considerations for Prostate Cancer Screening and Testing
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 65-year-old lady with polymyalgia rheumatica who is currently responding well to 5 mg prednisolone daily. As she has not had any fractures previously, she underwent a DXA scan which shows a lumbar spine T score of â2.5 and hip T score of â2.6.
She visits your clinic to discuss the scan results and seek advice on treatment options. What would be your recommended management plan?Your Answer: Treatment with alendronate, ibandronate or risedronate should be considered until the steroid dose is reduced to below 5 mg per day
Correct Answer: As her steroid dose is now less than 7.5 mg she doesn't need bone-sparing therapy
Explanation:Management of Osteoporosis in Patients with T Score Criteria
Patients who fit the criteria for diagnosis of osteoporosis based on T score should be managed with a generic bisphosphonate as the first line of treatment. This is regardless of whether they have suffered an osteoporotic fracture or not. If a patient doesn’t tolerate a weekly preparation, there are monthly and intermittent IV preparations available. It is important to note that early intervention is key in preventing further bone loss and reducing the risk of fractures. Therefore, prompt management of osteoporosis is crucial in maintaining bone health and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has developed gradually increasing breathlessness on minimal exertion over two months. Her vital capacity is 3 litres when sitting and 1.4 litres when lying. Physical examination reveals mild bilateral ptosis. There are no other abnormal neurological findings.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Motor neurone disease
Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Neuromuscular Disorders: Symptoms and Characteristics
Myasthenia gravis is a neuromuscular disorder that affects both eyes and respiratory muscles, causing bilateral ptosis and respiratory muscle weakness. Unlike other disorders, initial weakness is not limited to a single muscle group. GuillainâBarrĂ© syndrome, on the other hand, presents with an ascending pattern of progressive symmetrical weakness, starting in the lower extremities and progressing to involve the arms, trunk, cranial nerves, and muscles of respiration. Motor neurone disease typically affects the upper and lower motor neurons, leading to progressive weakness of the bulbar, limb, thoracic, and abdominal muscles. Myotonic dystrophy is a chronic, slowly progressive disease that affects muscle wasting, cataracts, heart conduction defects, endocrine changes, and myotonia. Polymyositis is an inflammatory myopathy that causes symmetrical proximal muscle weakness in the upper and lower limbs, with involvement of the thighs, trunk, shoulders, hips, and upper arms over time. Ocular muscles are never involved in the generalised type of the disease.
Understanding Neuromuscular Disorders and Their Characteristics
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes to your clinic after discovering she is pregnant. She was diagnosed with hypothyroidism two years ago and has been taking levothyroxine 75mcg od, which has kept her condition stable. Additionally, she has been taking folic acid 400mcg od for the past 8 months. Her last blood test, taken 4 months ago, showed the following results:
TSH 1.6 mU/l
You decide to order a repeat TSH and free T4 measurement. What is the most appropriate course of action now?Your Answer: Keep levothyroxine at 75mcg od + increase folic acid to 5mg od
Correct Answer: Increase levothyroxine to 100 mcg od
Explanation:If a woman has hypothyroidism, it is recommended to promptly raise the dosage of levothyroxine and closely observe her TSH levels.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.
Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.
*source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman presents with a complaint of 'pain in his right elbow' for the last six to eight weeks. He points to his elbow and triceps area when asked to identify the main site of his symptoms. He has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes, angina and osteoarthritis affecting his knees.
He reports that the pain is worse at night and he is unable to lie on the affected side as this aggravates his pain. He feels that his arm is stiff and sore to move. He cannot remember a specific trigger for the symptoms. He is a retired plumber and tells you that about 10 years ago he was treated with a steroid injection for tennis elbow which seemed to settle things.
There is no focal tenderness around the elbow which has a full range of movement and appears normal to examination. What is the next most appropriate approach in this patient?Your Answer: Suggest a corticosteroid injection to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus
Correct Answer: Examine his shoulder
Explanation:Importance of Examining Joints Above and Below in Orthopaedic Cases
This case emphasizes the significance of examining the joints above and below when an orthopaedic issue arises. The patient reports experiencing pain in the elbow and triceps region, with a history of tennis elbow. However, there are no clinical indications that suggest a recurrence of this problem.
In such cases, it is crucial to examine the shoulder as well. For instance, if the patient is diabetic and has a stiff or sore arm with nocturnal pain in the upper arm, it could be a frozen shoulder. Therefore, examining the joints above and below the affected area is essential to identify the root cause of the problem and provide appropriate treatment. Proper examination and diagnosis can help prevent further complications and ensure a speedy recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A rather embarrassed 27-year-old man is seen at the out-of-hours centre complaining of dysuria and discharge from his penis. This started about a week earlier and is increasingly uncomfortable. He is normally fit and well. You send a urethral swab for microscopy and culture and urine sample for NAAT & microscopy & culture. The results come back showing a few pus cells in his urine but no growth on either culture & negative NAAT.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: nonspecific urethritis
Explanation:Common Genitourinary Conditions and Diagnostic Methods
Chronic prostatitis is a condition that often results in pain in the perineal area. Gonorrhoea, on the other hand, can be diagnosed through a nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) using urine samples in men or through a positive culture of urethral discharge. Urinary tract infections (UTIs) can be detected through a midstream urine culture. Meanwhile, balanitis xerotica et obliterans is a chronic condition characterized by atrophic white patches on the foreskin and glans penis. These conditions can be diagnosed through various diagnostic methods, which are essential in determining the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a medical history of chronic heart failure due to ischaemic cardiomyopathy is being evaluated. He was released from the hospital two weeks ago after experiencing a heart attack. An echocardiogram conducted during his hospitalization revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%, but no valve abnormalities were detected.
Despite his current regimen of furosemide, ramipril, carvedilol, aspirin, and simvastatin, he continues to experience shortness of breath with minimal exertion, such as walking 30 meters. On examination, his chest is clear, and there is minimal peripheral edema. What is the most appropriate next step in managing his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add an aldosterone antagonist
Explanation:The 2010 NICE guidelines have been revised to recommend the use of both angiotensin-2 receptor blockers and hydralazine in combination with a nitrate as second-line treatments for heart failure, in addition to aldosterone antagonists. However, considering the patient’s recent myocardial infarction, the most appropriate option would be an aldosterone antagonist, as per the NICE guidelines. For further information, please refer to the guidelines.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old Caucasian man has been diagnosed with mild hypertension following ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. Despite reducing caffeine, increasing exercise and losing 4 kg, his BP has not reduced. Investigations reveal:
- Hb 131 g/L (135 - 180)
- WCC 5.4 Ă109/L (4 - 10)
- PLT 200 Ă109/L (150 - 400)
- Sodium 140 mmol/L (134 - 143)
- Potassium 4.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Creatinine 100 ”mol/L (60 - 120)
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Antihypertensive Therapy Guidelines
Guidelines for Antihypertensive therapy recommend different treatments based on age and ethnicity. For individuals under 55 years old, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor is the first line of treatment. If an ACE inhibitor is not tolerated, a low-cost angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) can be offered. However, ACE inhibitors and ARBs should not be combined to treat hypertension.
For individuals over 55 years old, or of African or Caribbean origin of any age, a calcium-channel blocker (CCB) is recommended. If a CCB is not suitable, a thiazide-like diuretic can be offered. It is important to note that ACE inhibitors and ARBs should not be routinely prescribed to pregnant women.
Overall, it is important to establish whether or not a patient is diabetic before determining the appropriate Antihypertensive therapy. Following these guidelines can help effectively manage hypertension and reduce the risk of associated complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A patient who is an intravenous drug user has contracted hepatitis C. What percentage of such patients in their age group will develop chronic hepatitis C infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 55-85%
Explanation:Develop a persistent infection.
Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.
After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.
The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a sleep disorder. He reports experiencing a creeping, crawling sensation in his legs, which is so intense that he feels the need to constantly rub his legs together to relieve the sensation. He also has an irresistible urge to move around. He feels chronically sleep deprived, only able to sleep in the early hours of the morning and often falling asleep during the day. He recently started taking thyroxine replacement and has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and steatohepatitis, for which he takes amlodipine, ramipril, and gliclazide. On examination, his blood pressure is 145/82 mmg, and his respiratory, cardiovascular, and neurological examinations are normal. What is the most likely factor in his medical history associated with his presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Restless Legs Syndrome: Causes and Treatment
Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a condition characterized by an irresistible urge to move the legs, often accompanied by uncomfortable sensations. While RLS may be idiopathic, it can also be caused by underlying conditions such as hypothyroidism, anaemias, renal failure, polyneuropathies, rheumatoid arthritis, Sjögren’s syndrome, and amyloidosis. Treating any underlying secondary cause can improve symptoms, as can dopamine agonists. However, clinicians may dismiss the seriousness of RLS in the absence of demonstrable neurology, despite the significant impact on quality of life that sleep disturbance can have. It is important to recognize and address RLS to improve patients’ overall well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man is seen for follow up regarding his dyspepsia.
He was found to be positive for Helicobacter pylori on serological testing and received eradication therapy. He also underwent an upper GI endoscopy last year which did not reveal any focal pathology. Despite this, he still experiences reflux symptoms, and you decide to retest him for Helicobacter pylori.
What is the most appropriate method of retesting?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Saliva assay
Explanation:Retesting for Helicobacter pylori after Eradication Therapy
The NICE guidelines on Dyspepsia (CG184) provide recommendations for retesting patients who have received eradication therapy for Helicobacter pylori. The first-line tests for detecting H. pylori are the stool antigen test and the urea breath test, while serological testing can be used if locally validated. However, serology is not appropriate for retesting as it remains positive due to past exposure. Saliva assays are inconsistent in accuracy, and gastric biopsy is invasive and costly.
If a patient tests positive for H. pylori and receives eradication therapy, retesting may be necessary. Currently, there is insufficient evidence to recommend stool antigen testing as a test of eradication. Therefore, NICE recommends retesting via the urea breath test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of severe pain and swelling around her vagina, making it difficult for her to sit, walk or have sexual intercourse. Upon examination, the left side of the labia majora appears red and inflamed, and a 4 cm tender, warm, tense mass is present at the four o'clock position in the vulvar vestibule. The patient is treated with marsupialisation.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bartholin's abscess
Explanation:Marsupialisation is the definitive treatment for Bartholin’s abscess, which presents with sudden pain and difficulty urinating. On examination, a hard mass with surrounding cellulitis is found at the site of the Bartholin’s glands in the vulvar vestibule. The abscess is caused by infection of the Bartholin’s cyst. Bartholin’s cyst, on the other hand, is caused by a buildup of mucous secretions from the Bartholin’s glands and is typically asymptomatic unless it grows larger. Inclusion cysts, which are caused by vaginal wall trauma, are usually small and found on the posterior vaginal wall. Skene’s gland cysts, which form when the duct is obstructed, may cause dyspareunia or urinary tract infection symptoms. Vesicovaginal fistulas, which allow urine to continuously discharge into the vaginal tract, require surgical treatment.
Understanding Bartholin’s Abscess
Bartholin’s glands are two small glands situated near the opening of the vagina. They are typically the size of a pea, but they can become infected and swell, resulting in a Bartholin’s abscess. This condition can be treated in a variety of ways, including antibiotics, the insertion of a word catheter, or a surgical procedure called marsupialization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You see a 49-year-old gentleman with a change in bowel habit. He has had routine blood tests which were all normal. He reports no rectal bleeding. On examination, his abdomen is soft, non-tender and the rectal examination was normal.
What would be the most appropriate next step in your management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer using a suspected lower gastrointestinal cancer pathway
Explanation:Faecal Occult Blood Tests for Colorectal Cancer Screening
Faecal occult blood tests are recommended by NICE for patients who exhibit symptoms that may indicate colorectal cancer but are unlikely to have the disease. These tests are also used for routine screening. However, it is crucial to consider the criteria for suspected lower GI cancer referrals when deciding to use this test. For instance, if a patient is 60 years or older and has experienced a change in bowel habit, they should be referred using a suspected lower GI cancer pathway instead of undergoing a faecal occult blood test. Proper screening and referral protocols can help ensure timely and accurate diagnosis and treatment of colorectal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old male patient complains of experiencing tinnitus in his left ear for the past two weeks. He describes the sound as a buzz but denies any other accompanying ear symptoms. Upon examination, Otoscopy, Rinne, and Weber tests are all normal. What is the recommended course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ENT
Explanation:An urgent referral to ENT is necessary for a patient experiencing unilateral tinnitus, even if their examination appears normal. This is because it could be a sign of an acoustic neuroma and requires further investigation.
While an audiogram could provide additional information, it would not alter the management plan for a GP, which would still involve an urgent referral.
CBT, reassurance, and white noise may be appropriate for chronic bilateral tinnitus, but not for this patient with unilateral tinnitus.
Tinnitus is a condition where a person perceives sounds in their ears or head that do not come from an external source. It affects approximately 1 in 10 people at some point in their lives and can be distressing for patients. While it is sometimes considered a minor symptom, it can also be a sign of a serious underlying condition. The causes of tinnitus can vary, with some patients having no identifiable underlying cause. Other causes may include Meniere’s disease, otosclerosis, conductive deafness, positive family history, sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss, acoustic neuroma, hearing loss, drugs, and impacted earwax.
To assess tinnitus, an audiologist may perform an audiological assessment to detect any underlying hearing loss. Imaging may also be necessary, with non-pulsatile tinnitus generally not requiring imaging unless it is unilateral or there are other neurological or ontological signs. Pulsatile tinnitus, on the other hand, often requires imaging as there may be an underlying vascular cause. Management of tinnitus may involve investigating and treating any underlying cause, using amplification devices if associated with hearing loss, and psychological therapy such as cognitive behavioural therapy or joining tinnitus support groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presented with persistent dyspepsia and was referred for a gastroscopy. The test confirmed a duodenal ulcer and a positive urease test. After completing the H. pylori eradication regimen of lansoprazole, amoxicillin and clarithromycin for seven days, she returned to her GP with ongoing epigastric pain. What is the most appropriate way to determine the successful eradication of H. pylori?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: [13C] urea breath test
Explanation:Non-Invasive Tests for Confirming Eradication of H. pylori Infection
After completing eradication therapy for H. pylori infection, routine retesting is not recommended unless there are persistent symptoms. In such cases, the [13C] urea breath test is a sensitive and non-invasive option for detecting the presence of H. pylori bacteria. This test involves administering a drink containing urea labelled with an uncommon isotope and detecting the presence of isotope-labelled carbon dioxide in exhaled breath after 30 minutes. Faecal antigen testing can also be used as a second-line option if the urea breath test is not available. Blood serology testing is not recommended as it remains positive for several months after successful eradication. Endoscopy and histology or CLO test are invasive and costly options that are not justified when accurate non-invasive tests are available. Testing should occur at least four weeks after stopping antibiotics and two weeks after stopping proton pump inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are requested by the practice nurse to assess a mother who has brought in her 12-week-old baby who appears unwell. The mother is concerned because the baby seems to have a fever.
Upon examination, you observe that the baby has an upper respiratory tract infection. The family members have recently had a cold. Although the baby is pyrexial at 37.8°C, you cannot detect any indications of lower respiratory tract infection.
What is the appropriate course of action for managing this baby?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The mother should be advised to give the child paracetamol for as long as it appears distressed
Explanation:Fever Management in Children
A fever over 38°C is an indication for admission. However, antipyretics should only be administered if the child appears distressed by the fever, rather than for the sole aim of reducing body temperature. It is important to note that antipyretic agents do not prevent febrile convulsions and should not be used specifically for this purpose. When using paracetamol or ibuprofen in children with fever, it is recommended to continue only as long as the child appears distressed and to consider changing to the other agent if the distress is not alleviated. It is not recommended to give both agents simultaneously, and only consider alternating these agents if the distress persists or recurs before the next dose is due.
In most cases, fever of this nature is viral in origin, and specific antibacterial intervention is not required. Cold sponging is also not effective in reducing fever. It is important to note that while a significant percentage of children suffer from febrile fits, these do not usually predispose the patient to the development of epilepsy later. The risk is very small, one to two in one hundred in the general population and one in fifty for the febrile convulsion group. Proper management of fever in children is crucial to ensure their well-being and prevent any unnecessary complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with visual issues. He has recently developed a blind spot in the visual field of his left eye. The problem appeared overnight and has worsened slightly since then. He has also experienced mild pain behind his left eye, which intensifies when he moves it. He has noticed that colors, particularly red, appear washed-out. When he covers his left eye, his right eye's vision seems normal. He has been feeling generally lethargic for the past few days but is otherwise healthy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Optic neuritis
Explanation:Optic neuritis, characterized by visual loss, eye pain, and red desaturation, is a typical indication of multiple sclerosis (MS) and is often the first symptom. Early MS may also cause lethargy, which is a nonspecific symptom.
It is highly unlikely for a 34-year-old to have temporal arteritis.
Understanding Optic Neuritis: Causes, Features, Investigation, Management, and Prognosis
Optic neuritis is a condition that causes a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days. It is often associated with multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. Other features of optic neuritis include poor discrimination of colors, pain that worsens with eye movement, relative afferent pupillary defect, and central scotoma.
To diagnose optic neuritis, an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast is usually performed. High-dose steroids are the primary treatment for optic neuritis, and recovery typically takes 4-6 weeks.
The prognosis for optic neuritis is dependent on the number of white-matter lesions found on an MRI. If there are more than three lesions, the five-year risk of developing multiple sclerosis is approximately 50%. Understanding the causes, features, investigation, management, and prognosis of optic neuritis is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female has been referred for management of a chronic ulcer above the left medial malleolus. The ankle-brachial pressure index readings are as follows:
Right 0.98
Left 0.98
The ulcer has been treated with standard dressings by the District Nurse. What is the most suitable approach to increase the chances of healing the ulcer?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Compression bandaging
Explanation:Compression bandaging is recommended for the management of venous ulceration, as the ankle-brachial pressure index readings suggest that the ulcers are caused by venous insufficiency rather than arterial issues.
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.
The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl presents with failure to thrive. Previously, her parents had no concerns about her health. However, over the past few months, she has become increasingly fussy and her bowel movements have changed, with her now having up to three strong-smelling stools per day. During the examination, her abdomen is soft but slightly distended, and there is noticeable wasting of the thigh muscles. When plotted on a growth chart, her weight was following the 50th percentile until around 2 years of age but has now dropped below the 5th percentile. What is the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Coeliac Disease in Children
Coeliac disease is a condition that affects young children, typically presenting by the age of 2 with failure to thrive. This occurs when gluten is introduced into their diet through the consumption of cereals. Symptoms include irritability, abdominal distention, buttock wasting, and abnormal stools due to malabsorption. Children can also present later on in childhood with anaemia or failure to thrive with very subtle or no gastrointestinal symptoms.
Diagnosis requires a jejunal biopsy for histological confirmation, and treatment is with a gluten-free diet. There appears to be a genetic link, and first-degree relatives of people with coeliac disease have a 1 in 10 chance of having the disease. Patients with coeliac disease also have a higher risk of type 1 diabetes, thyroid disease, and other autoimmune diseases.
It is important to consider offering testing (by tTG antibody testing) to first-degree relatives because a strict gluten-free diet is essential in reducing the associated risk of GI malignancy, especially lymphoma, in people with coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a study on the use of masks in public places to reduce viral upper respiratory tract infections among elderly individuals. The study found that the treatment group, who wore a mask, had fewer cases compared to the control group who did not wear a mask. The absolute risk in the control group was 0.5 whereas the absolute risk in the treatment group was 0.3.
What is the number needed to treat for elderly individuals in this study?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:The formula for calculating the number needed to treat is to divide one by the absolute risk reduction. The absolute risk reduction is determined by subtracting the absolute risk in the control group from the absolute risk in the treatment group. For example, if the absolute risk in the control group is 0.3 and the absolute risk in the treatment group is 0.5, the absolute risk reduction would be 0.2. Therefore, the number needed to treat would be one divided by 0.2, which equals five.
Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old African American male comes to his doctor complaining of muscle weakness and bone pain all over his body. Upon conducting tests, the following results are obtained:
Calcium 2.05 mmol/l
Phosphate 0.68 mmol/l
ALP 270 U/l
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:Osteomalacia may be indicated by bone pain, tenderness, and proximal myopathy (resulting in a waddling gait), as evidenced by low levels of calcium and phosphate and elevated alkaline phosphatase.
Understanding Osteomalacia: Causes, Features, Investigation, and Treatment
Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by the softening of bones due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. While rickets is the term used for this condition in growing children, osteomalacia is the preferred term for adults. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, diet, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited factors, liver disease, and coeliac disease.
The features of osteomalacia include bone pain, bone/muscle tenderness, fractures (especially femoral neck), proximal myopathy, and a waddling gait. To investigate this condition, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels (in around 30% of patients), and raised alkaline phosphatase (in 95-100% of patients). X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.
The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium is inadequate. By understanding the causes, features, investigation, and treatment of osteomalacia, individuals can take steps to prevent and manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old woman comes to the surgery complaining of severe back pain that has been bothering her for the past five days. She has a history of breast cancer and osteoarthritis. The pain is located in the lower thoracic area and spreads to the front of her chest. Coughing and sneezing exacerbate the pain. She has not experienced any changes in her bowel or urinary habits. During the examination, there is diffuse tenderness in the lower thoracic region. The peri-anal sensation is normal, and the lower limb reflexes are brisk. What is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral dexamethasone + immediate oncological assessment
Explanation:Neoplastic Spinal Cord Compression: An Oncological Emergency
Neoplastic spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that affects around 5% of cancer patients. The majority of cases are due to vertebral body metastases, which are more common in patients with lung, breast, and prostate cancer. The earliest and most common symptom is back pain, which may worsen when lying down or coughing. Other symptoms include lower limb weakness and sensory changes such as numbness and sensory loss. The neurological signs depend on the level of the lesion, with lesions above L1 resulting in upper motor neuron signs in the legs and a sensory level, while lesions below L1 cause lower motor neuron signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes tend to be increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.
Urgent MRI is recommended within 24 hours of presentation according to the 2019 NICE guidelines. High-dose oral dexamethasone is used for management, and urgent oncological assessment is necessary for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery. Proper management is crucial to prevent further damage to the spinal cord and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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Question 32
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the Statement of Fitness for Work is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The advice you offer on returning to work may be ignored by employers
Explanation:Understanding the Statement of Fitness for Work
The Statement of Fitness for Work, previously known as sick notes, was introduced in 2010 to reflect the fact that most patients do not need to be fully recovered before returning to work. This statement allows doctors to advise that a patient may be fit for work taking account of the following advice. It replaces the Med3 and Med5 forms and has resulted in the withdrawal of the Med4, Med6, and RM 7 forms due to the replacement of Incapacity Benefit with the Employment and Support Allowance.
Telephone consultations are now an acceptable form of assessment, and there is no longer a box to indicate that a patient is fit for work. Instead, doctors can state if they need to reassess the patient’s fitness for work at the end of the statement period. The statement provides increased space for comments on the functional effects of the condition, including tick boxes for simple things that may help a patient return to work.
The statement can be issued on the day of assessment or at a later date if it would have been reasonable to issue it on the day of assessment. It can also be issued after consideration of a written report from another doctor or registered healthcare professional.
There are four tick boxes on the form that represent common approaches to aid a return to work, including a phased return to work, altered hours, amended duties, and workplace adaptations. Patients may self-certify for the first seven calendar days using the SC1 or SC2 form, depending on their eligibility to claim statutory sick pay.
It is important to note that the advice on the statement is not binding on employers, and doctors can still advise patients that they are not fit for work. However, the Statement of Fitness for Work provides a more flexible approach to returning to work and recognizes that many patients can return to work with some adjustments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 33
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about tuning fork tests used for hearing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A false negative Rinne occurs in conductive deafness
Explanation:Tuning Forks for Hearing and Vibration Testing
A tuning fork is a useful tool for testing both hearing and vibration. However, not all tuning forks are created equal. A 128 tuning fork is suitable for testing vibration, but it is not reliable for hearing. For hearing tests, the 512 cps fork is the best option, although a compromise frequency of 256 can also be used. It’s important to note that compromise frequencies are less effective for both hearing and vibration.
When conducting lateralizing tests, the Weber test is commonly used. However, it is less reliable than the Rinne test. False negative Rinne results can occur in cases of sensorineural deafness. Therefore, it’s important to choose the appropriate tuning fork for the specific test being conducted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents for a cervical smear. Her previous three smears have all been negative. However, her latest smear reveals mild dyskaryosis. The local cervical screening programme includes human papillomavirus (HPV) testing as part of the screening process, and her sample has tested 'positive' for high-risk HPV. What is the next best course of action for her management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colposcopy
Explanation:HPV Testing in Cervical Screening
The use of HPV testing in cervical screening has been studied to determine if it can improve the accuracy of identifying women who need further investigation and treatment. Currently, only a small percentage of women referred for colposcopy actually require treatment as low-grade abnormalities often resolve on their own. By incorporating HPV testing, women with borderline or mild dyskaryosis who test negative for high-risk HPV can simply return to routine screening recall, while those who test positive are referred for colposcopy.
HPV testing is also used as a test of cure for women who have been treated for cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. Those with normal, borderline, or mild dyskaryosis smear results who are HPV negative can return to three-yearly recall. This approach ensures that women receive appropriate follow-up care while minimizing unnecessary referrals and treatments. Overall, the use of HPV testing in cervical screening has the potential to improve the accuracy and efficiency of the screening process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 35
Incorrect
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What is the correct order of relative potency, from least to most potent, for these opioid analgesics, considering that diamorphine is typically administered parenterally while the others are usually given orally?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Codeine, morphine, oxycodone, diamorphine
Explanation:Understanding the Potencies of Opioid Analgesics
It is crucial to have a good understanding of the relative potencies of opioid analgesics as patients may need to switch from one opioid to another or from one route of administration to another.
Codeine is the weakest opioid on the list and is often prescribed alone or in combination with paracetamol in co-codamol preparations.
Oxycodone is twice as potent as oral morphine salts for the same dose. When converting between the two, the dose of oral morphine needs to be halved to provide the equivalent dose of oxycodone.
Diamorphine is the most potent opioid listed and is typically administered subcutaneously to palliate terminal symptoms. To convert from oral morphine to subcutaneous diamorphine, the 24-hour oral morphine dose should be divided by 3 to give an approximate equivalent 24-hour dose of diamorphine. To convert from oral oxycodone to subcutaneous diamorphine, the 24-hour oxycodone dose should be divided by 1.5. For example, oxycodone 7.5 mg equals 5 mg diamorphine.
Understanding the potencies of opioid analgesics is essential for healthcare professionals to provide safe and effective pain management for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 36
Incorrect
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An 84-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of proximal muscle pain and stiffness along with elevated inflammatory markers on blood tests. After being diagnosed with polymyalgia rheumatica, what medication's inadequate response would lead to considering an alternative diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:If patients with polymyalgia rheumatica do not respond well to steroids, it is important to consider other possible diagnoses. While alendronic acid is necessary for bone protection during long-term steroid use, it will not alleviate symptoms. Amitriptyline is better suited for chronic or neuropathic pain rather than inflammatory conditions. Aspirin and naproxen may provide some relief due to their anti-inflammatory properties, but the response will not be as significant as with prednisolone.
Understanding Polymyalgia Rheumatica
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a condition commonly seen in older individuals that is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it doesn’t appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects individuals over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, with symptoms appearing in less than a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats. Weakness is not considered a symptom of PMR.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are typically normal. Treatment for PMR involves the use of prednisolone, with a typical dose of 15mg/od. Patients usually respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for PMR can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 37
Incorrect
-
A father brings his 10-year-old daughter to the GP surgery with heel pain. It started two-weeks ago on both heels. The pain is localised to the heel and is worse following exercise and gets better on resting. There is no reported swelling, stiffness or redness. There are no other joint complaints. She is well in herself with no temperature symptoms, night sweats or weight loss. There is no history of trauma. She is an active child and plays for the soccer team at school.
On examination, her gait and range of movements of her ankle joints are normal. Her temperature is 37.2ÂșC. Apart from mild swelling over both heels, there is no redness on the heel or other swellings of the foot joints. There is no tenderness on palpation of the Achilles tendon and the plantar aspect of the foot. Pain is elicited on squeezing the sides of both heels.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcaneal apophysitis
Explanation:Sever’s disease, also known as calcaneal apophysitis, should be considered as a possible cause of heel pain in children and adolescents. It is characterized by swelling and irritation of the growth plate in the heel, and is often seen in active kids who are going through a growth spurt. Tenderness and swelling in the affected area are common symptoms.
Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the connective tissue supporting the arch of the foot. It typically presents as unilateral pain and tenderness in the plantar aspect of the foot, which was not observed in this case. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the child’s symptoms.
Osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer that usually affects the edges of long bones, such as the femur. It can cause bone pain and interfere with normal activities, but is often accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever, weight loss, and fatigue. Since the child did not exhibit these symptoms, osteosarcoma is an unlikely diagnosis.
Achilles tendinitis is a condition that often develops after an injury, and is characterized by pain and swelling in the Achilles or ankle joints. However, since there was no history of trauma in this case, Achilles tendinitis is also an unlikely cause of the child’s symptoms.
Understanding Calcaneal Apophysitis (Sever Disease)
Calcaneal apophysitis, commonly known as Sever disease, is a condition that causes heel pain in active children. It is an overuse injury that occurs when the growth plate in the heel bone becomes inflamed due to repetitive stress. This condition is most common in children between the ages of 8 and 14 who participate in sports that involve running and jumping.
The pain associated with Sever disease is typically felt in the back or bottom of the heel and can be severe enough to limit a child’s activity level. Rest, ice, and stretching exercises are often recommended as initial treatment options. In some cases, orthotics or heel lifts may be prescribed to help alleviate symptoms.
It is important for parents and coaches to be aware of the signs and symptoms of Sever disease, as early intervention can prevent the condition from worsening and potentially causing long-term damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy complains of two months of widespread muscle aches and joint pains in his knees and ankles. In the last four weeks, he has experienced recurrent fevers reaching up to 39.5ÂșC that resolve spontaneously without the use of antipyretics. His mother also notes the emergence of a transient pink rash during the fevers. What is the MOST PROBABLE diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease
Explanation:Symptoms of Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis
Systemic Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) is characterized by joint symptoms, high fevers that quickly return to normal, and a salmon pink rash. Other symptoms include lymph node enlargement, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, and serositis (pericarditis, pleuritis, peritonitis).
Oligoarticular JIA may also cause joint symptoms, but it doesn’t explain the fever or rash. Osgood-Schlatter disease typically presents with knee pain, but it doesn’t account for the other symptoms reported in this scenario. Osteochondritis Dissecans may cause aching and swollen joints that worsen with activity, but it doesn’t explain the fevers or pink rash. Septic arthritis is less likely in this case since there is no specific joint that is red and swollen, and the child doesn’t appear to be generally unwell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 39
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old nursing home resident presents with a severely itchy rash. Upon examination, red linear lesions are observed on the wrists and elbows, while red papules are present on the penis. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical permethrin
Explanation:Although lichen planus can have similar symptoms, scabies is more likely to cause intense itching. Additionally, lichen planus is less frequently seen in older individuals, as it typically affects those between the ages of 30 and 60.
Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.
The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.
Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 40
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man is using intravenous heroin every day. He has not disclosed this before and has not sought support for this in the past. He requests methadone substitution from his general practitioner.
What is the single most appropriate action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer referral to specialist drug-abuse service
Explanation:Managing Opioid Dependence: Recommended Actions for GPs
As a GP, managing patients with opioid dependence can be challenging. Here are some recommended actions to help you provide the best care for your patients:
1. Offer referral to a specialist drug-abuse service. NICE advises that doctors assess and manage people with opioid dependence within their competence and confidence, which for the majority would mean referral to a specialist service. Here, they have an MDT who can effectively assess, treat, and follow up patients like this.
2. Prescribe methadone at a dose indicated in the British National Formulary (BNF). It is possible for a GP to prescribe methadone, but this should only be done if they have received higher-level training, or they feel confident to do so and have input from a shared-care multidisciplinary team (MDT).
3. Avoid prescribing a reducing course of dihydrocodeine. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises that dihydrocodeine should not be used in detoxification, except in specific circumstances within specialist care.
4. Avoid performing urine toxicology unless you are confident in managing this situation. Urine toxicology would not be of any benefit here if you are not confident in managing this situation.
5. Avoid arranging weekly review. This man is requesting care which requires specialist input, so arranging review in a week would only cause unnecessary delay.
By following these recommended actions, you can help your patients manage their opioid dependence effectively and safely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 41
Incorrect
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The nurse at your clinic is faced with a situation where a mother has brought in her 14-week-old son for his vaccinations. The vaccinations include one injection against diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, polio and haemophilus influenza type b, one injection against meningococcal b and an oral application for rotavirus. The mother has given her consent for the immunisations, but the nurse is unsure about the appropriate way to obtain consent. What would be a suitable method of obtaining consent in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Verbal consent from the mother
Explanation:According to the Green Book, a mother has parental responsibility for her children and written consent is not required for immunizations. Both parents’ consent is not necessary, but consent should be obtained before each immunization is administered.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
When it comes to obtaining consent in children, the General Medical Council has provided guidelines. For children aged 16 and above, they can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to decide. However, for those under 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines their capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
In terms of providing contraceptives to patients under 16, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and their physical or mental health is likely to suffer without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency for contraception and Gillick competency for general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused. For consistency over competence in children, it is crucial to follow these guidelines when obtaining consent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of feeling constantly fatigued. She denies any symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, blurred vision, abdominal pain, or vomiting, and has no known medical conditions. Her mother and maternal aunt were both diagnosed with diabetes around her age and manage it with tablets. On examination, her BMI is 23 kg/m2, and urinalysis is unremarkable. Blood tests reveal an HbA1c of 50 mmol/mol (normal range: 20-42 mmol/mol). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY)
Explanation:Diagnosing Hyperglycaemia: Understanding the Different Types of Diabetes
Hyperglycaemia, or high blood sugar, can be caused by various types of diabetes. One uncommon form is maturity-onset diabetes of the young (MODY), which typically occurs before the age of 25 and is characterised by a slow onset of symptoms, absence of obesity and ketosis, and autosomal-dominant inheritance with multiple possible genetic mutations responsible.
To rule out other types of diabetes, it is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Gestational diabetes, which occurs during pregnancy, is unlikely in this case as the patient is not known to be pregnant and typically affects those with a BMI of 30 or more. Steroid-induced diabetes, which can occur with prolonged steroid use for medical conditions such as Addison’s disease or asthma, is also unlikely as the patient has no pre-existing medical conditions for which she would be prescribed steroids.
Type I diabetes mellitus (TIDM) commonly occurs in young, slim individuals with a family history of TIDM or other autoimmune conditions and is treated with insulin. However, in this case, the patient has very few symptoms of diabetes, a normal urinalysis, and a family history of diabetes treated with tablets rather than insulin. Type II diabetes mellitus (TIIDM), which commonly occurs in older individuals who are overweight but is increasingly more common in younger individuals due to childhood obesity, is also less likely as the patient is young, has a normal BMI, and has a family history of diabetes treated with tablets at a young age.
In conclusion, based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history, the most likely diagnosis is MODY. Understanding the different types of diabetes and their characteristic features can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management of hyperglycaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to you with his wife due to infertility issues after being married for 8 years. Upon examination, you notice that he is tall, thin, and has bilateral gynaecomastia. Your colleague has conducted some initial tests, and one of them has come back with elevated levels of urinary gonadotrophins. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Disorders and Andropause
Gaucher’s and Marfan syndrome are genetic disorders that do not typically present with infertility. Noonan’s syndrome, on the other hand, is associated with short stature. Klinefelter’s syndrome is a sex chromosome disorder that affects approximately 1 in 400 to 1 in 600 male births, typically with 47 XXY, XXXYY, or XXYY.
Andropause is a term used to describe the gradual decrease in serum testosterone concentration that occurs with age. However, this decrease usually doesn’t occur until after the age of 50. It is important to note that while these conditions may affect fertility and hormone levels, there are various treatments and management options available to individuals who may be affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 44
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How should the medication 'methotrexate 15 mg weekly' be entered on the repeat medication screen for a patient who was previously taking a lower dose and has completed all necessary monitoring as per shared care protocol, based on a letter received from the rheumatology department of the local hospital?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate tablets 2.5 mg (six per week)
Explanation:Methotrexate Dosage Policy
Methotrexate is only available in 10 mg and 2.5 mg strengths, with no 5 mg formulation. However, there have been cases where two different strengths were co-prescribed, leading to potential medication errors. One patient received 10 mg tablets instead of the required 2.5 mg tablets, prompting a complaint and highlighting the need for caution. To prevent such incidents, it is recommended that only one strength of methotrexate is prescribed.
Most Local Health Boards (LHBs) and Primary Care Trusts (PCTs) advise that dosages in primary care should be multiples of the 2.5 mg formulation. This policy aims to reduce the risk of errors and ensure consistent dosing. Patients should also be advised to double-check their prescription and request slips to avoid confusion. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help ensure safe and effective use of methotrexate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 45
Incorrect
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One option needs to be selected from the following tumour types that are NOT hormone responsive.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal cell
Explanation:Hormonal Therapy for Metastatic Cancer: A Review of Treatment Options
Hormonal therapy has been used in the treatment of various types of metastatic cancer, but its effectiveness varies depending on the cancer type. In renal cell cancer, hormonal therapy has not shown promising results. However, medroxyprogesterone acetate may be used to treat cancer-related anorexia or loss of appetite.
For metastatic/locally advanced carcinoma of the prostate, testosterone ablation with orchidectomy or anti-androgens can produce a clinical remission in the majority of cases.
In breast cancer, anti-oestrogen therapy with tamoxifen can be effective for oestrogen-receptor positive tumours, which make up 60% of breast tumours.
In metastatic endometrial cancer, progestogens may be effective in 30% of cases.
For high-risk thyroid cancer, thyroxine can be used to suppress thyroid-stimulating hormone.
Overall, hormonal therapy can be a useful treatment option for certain types of metastatic cancer, but it is important to consider the specific cancer type and individual patient factors when determining the most appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 46
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A 65-year-old woman presents reporting that she experiences vaginal pressure when she strains. She has a history of mild cognitive impairment and severe osteoarthritis. She has very poor mobility in her back, wrists and hands. Her body mass index is 35 kg/m2. Examination reveals a moderate uterine prolapse with a cystocele and a rectocele. The patient reports that she is still sexually active. She reports she cannot reliably attend follow-up at the surgery.
Why would a ring pessary likely be contraindicated in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inability to attend follow-up care
Explanation:Considerations for Ring Pessary Use in Patients with Specific Conditions
Ring pessaries are a non-surgical option for managing pelvic organ prolapse. However, certain patient factors must be considered before recommending this treatment.
Inability to attend follow-up care is a significant concern for patients using ring pessaries. These devices need to be changed every six months, and patients with poor mobility may require assistance from a healthcare provider. Failure to change the pessary can lead to infection and other complications. Therefore, patients who cannot attend follow-up appointments may not be suitable candidates for ring pessary use.
Obesity is a risk factor for pelvic organ prolapse, but it is not a contraindication for ring pessary use. In fact, weight loss may help alleviate the condition along with pessary use.
Age is not a barrier to pessary insertion. In fact, ring pessaries are often used in older or frailer patients where surgery is less desirable.
Sexual activity is not a contraindication for ring pessary use. Patients can leave the pessary in during intercourse, but some may find it uncomfortable. In such cases, the ring can be removed and reinserted after intercourse, or an alternative type of pessary can be tried.
Mild cognitive impairment doesn’t preclude pessary use, but patients may require additional follow-up to ensure the device is removed and replaced every six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old sexually active female who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill presents with breakthrough bleeding between her periods.
She has been on the same pill for almost three years and noticed breakthrough bleeding for the first time two months ago. She denies post-coital bleeding. On further questioning she has not missed any pills and has had no recent illnesses or medical problems.
What is the most probable reason for her breakthrough bleeding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlamydia infection
Explanation:Breakthrough Bleeding on Combined Oral Contraceptive
In patients experiencing breakthrough bleeding while on the combined oral contraceptive, it is crucial to check their compliance and potential illness. However, if these factors are not the cause, breakthrough bleeding may indicate an alternative issue and prompt further investigation for gynaecological causes. This is especially true for patients who have been taking the pill for an extended period.
To assess potential gynaecological causes, a pelvic examination and swabs are necessary. It is also important to ensure that the patient’s smear is up-to-date and to take one if overdue. While cervical cancer is rare in this age group, swabs should be taken to check for chlamydial cervicitis, the most common cause of breakthrough bleeding in young sexually active women.
Additionally, it is crucial to consider the possibility of pregnancy and perform a pregnancy test. However, in cases where compliance and regular usage of the combined pill are confirmed, the likelihood of pregnancy is remote. Proper investigation and assessment can help identify the underlying cause of breakthrough bleeding and ensure appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP at 37 weeks of pregnancy complaining of urinary frequency and urgency. She reports feeling generally well, with good fetal movements and no vaginal bleeding. Her vital signs are within normal limits, with a temperature of 37.4ÂșC, heart rate of 85 bpm, respiratory rate of 18/min, and blood pressure of 120/75 mmHg.
Upon performing a urine dipstick test, leukocytes are detected while nitrites, blood, and ketones are absent.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treat with seven days of amoxicillin
Explanation:For a pregnant woman in the third trimester with a UTI, the recommended antibiotic treatment is amoxicillin for seven days. Nitrofurantoin is the first-line antibiotic, but it should be avoided later in pregnancy due to potential harm to the baby. Cefalexin is also an appropriate second-line option. It is important to obtain a urine sample for testing before starting treatment and to confirm cure with a follow-up test. Hospital admission is not necessary unless there are signs of sepsis or pyelonephritis or pregnancy complications. Empirical therapy should be initiated promptly, and treatment can be adjusted based on sensitivity results if necessary.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of an extremely tender right testicle that started four hours ago. There was no history of trauma or concurrent medical illness.
During the examination, the right testicle was found to be retracted and lying horizontally, but it was too painful to palpate fully. The left hemiscrotum appeared normal.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Torsion
Explanation:Torsion: A Serious Condition with Limited Treatment Window
A short history of severe pain without any other symptoms should be considered as torsion. It is crucial to note that even if other symptoms are present, torsion should not be overlooked as there is only a limited time frame for treatment. A horizontal-lying testis is a typical indication of torsion, although it may not always be visible. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing torsion and preventing any long-term damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man is being discharged from the hospital after a flare-up of ulcerative proctosigmoiditis. His symptoms improved after a 5-day course of intravenous corticosteroids, which had since been tapered down to oral prednisolone before discharge.
He contacts you, concerned that he was not informed by the discharging team whether he should continue taking prednisolone to prevent a relapse or not. He is running out of medication soon and is unsure of what to do. You reach out to the on-call gastroenterologist for guidance.
What would be the recommended first-line treatment for maintaining remission?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Daily rectal +/- oral mesalazine
Explanation:The first-line treatment for maintaining remission in patients with ulcerative colitis who have proctitis or proctosigmoiditis is a daily rectal aminosalicylate, with the addition of an oral aminosalicylate if necessary. Topical and/or oral aminosalicylates are also the first-line treatment for inducing and maintaining remission in mild-moderate ulcerative colitis, with the route of administration depending on the location of the disease. If aminosalicylates fail to induce remission, a short-term course of oral or topical corticosteroids may be added. Severe colitis requires hospital admission and treatment with IV corticosteroids, with the addition of IV ciclosporin if necessary. Surgery is the last resort. Twice-weekly corticosteroid enemas, daily azathioprine, and daily low-dose oral prednisolone for 3 months are not correct treatments for maintaining remission in ulcerative colitis.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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