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  • Question 1 - A 72 year old male patient has arrived at the emergency department after...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old male patient has arrived at the emergency department after injuring himself in a fall. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, you discover that he was diagnosed with mitral stenosis last year. You advise the medical students to assess the patient for indications of this condition.

      What is a typical symptom observed in individuals with mitral stenosis?

      Your Answer: Loud second heart sound

      Correct Answer: Malar flush

      Explanation:

      One of the clinical features of mitral stenosis is malar flush, which refers to a reddening or flushing of the cheeks. Other clinical features include a mid-late diastolic murmur that is best heard during expiration, a loud S1 heart sound with an opening snap, a low volume pulse, atrial fibrillation, and signs of pulmonary edema such as crepitations or the presence of white or pink frothy sputum.

      Further Reading:

      Mitral Stenosis:
      – Causes: Rheumatic fever, Mucopolysaccharidoses, Carcinoid, Endocardial fibroelastosis
      – Features: Mid-late diastolic murmur, loud S1, opening snap, low volume pulse, malar flush, atrial fibrillation, signs of pulmonary edema, tapping apex beat
      – Features of severe mitral stenosis: Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
      – Investigation findings: CXR may show left atrial enlargement, echocardiography may show reduced cross-sectional area of the mitral valve

      Mitral Regurgitation:
      – Causes: Mitral valve prolapse, Myxomatous degeneration, Ischemic heart disease, Rheumatic fever, Connective tissue disorders, Endocarditis, Dilated cardiomyopathy
      – Features: pansystolic murmur radiating to left axilla, soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex beat with heave
      – Signs of acute MR: Decompensated congestive heart failure symptoms
      – Signs of chronic MR: Leg edema, fatigue, arrhythmia (atrial fibrillation)
      – Investigation findings: Doppler echocardiography to detect regurgitant flow and pulmonary hypertension, ECG may show signs of LA enlargement and LV hypertrophy, CXR may show LA and LV enlargement in chronic MR and pulmonary edema in acute MR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 2 - You are asked to assess an older patient who has fainted. They have...

    Correct

    • You are asked to assess an older patient who has fainted. They have a bradyarrhythmia evident on their ECG, and you determine to administer a dose of atropine.
      Which ONE statement about the use of atropine is accurate?

      Your Answer: It blocks the effects of the vagus nerve on both the SA and AV nodes

      Explanation:

      Atropine acts as an antagonist to the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors. This means that it blocks the effects of the vagus nerve on both the SA node and the AV node, resulting in increased sinus automaticity and improved AV node conduction.

      The side effects of atropine are dependent on the dosage and may include dry mouth, nausea and vomiting, blurred vision, urinary retention, and tachyarrhythmias. Elderly patients may also experience acute confusion and hallucinations.

      Atropine is recommended for use in cases of sinus, atrial, or nodal bradycardia or AV block when the patient’s hemodynamic condition is unstable due to the bradycardia. According to the ALS bradycardia algorithm, an initial dose of 500 mcg IV is suggested if any adverse features such as shock, syncope, myocardial ischemia, or heart failure are present. If this initial dose is unsuccessful, additional 500 mcg doses can be administered at 3-5 minute intervals, with a maximum dose of 3 mg. It is important to avoid doses exceeding 3 mg as they can paradoxically slow the heart rate.

      Asystole during cardiac arrest is typically caused by primary myocardial pathology rather than excessive vagal tone. Therefore, there is no evidence supporting the routine use of atropine in the treatment of asystole or PEA. Consequently, atropine is no longer included in the non-shockable part of the ALS algorithm.

      Aside from its use in cardiac conditions, atropine also has other applications. It can be used topically in the eyes as a cycloplegic and mydriatic, to reduce secretions during anesthesia, and in the treatment of organophosphate poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 3 - You evaluate a 45-year-old Asian man with a heart murmur. During auscultation, you...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 45-year-old Asian man with a heart murmur. During auscultation, you observe a loud first heart sound and a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex. Upon examination, you observe that he has plum-red discoloration of his cheeks.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      The clinical symptoms of mitral stenosis include shortness of breath, which tends to worsen during exercise and when lying flat. Tiredness, palpitations, ankle swelling, cough, and haemoptysis are also common symptoms. Chest discomfort is rarely reported.

      The clinical signs of mitral stenosis can include a malar flush, an irregular pulse if atrial fibrillation is present, a tapping apex beat that can be felt as the first heart sound, and a left parasternal heave if there is pulmonary hypertension. The first heart sound is often loud, and a mid-diastolic murmur can be heard.

      The mid-diastolic murmur of mitral stenosis is a rumbling sound that is best heard at the apex, in the left lateral position during expiration, using the bell of the stethoscope.

      Mitral stenosis is typically caused by rheumatic heart disease, and it is more common in females, with about two-thirds of patients being female.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 4 - A 32 year old male attends the emergency department due to sharp chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old male attends the emergency department due to sharp chest pain that has come on gradually over the past 48 hours. The patient reports he has general muscle aches and feels more fatigued than usual. The patient indicates the pain is retrosternal and worsens with deep inspiration and lying supine. On auscultation of the chest, a rub is audible that resembles the sound of squeaky leather. The rhythm is regular and quiet heart sounds are noted. Observations are shown below:

      Blood pressure: 112/68 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 92 bpm
      Respiratory rate: 18 rpm
      Temperature: 37.4ºC
      Oxygen saturations: 98% on air

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pericarditis

      Explanation:

      Pericardial friction rub is a common finding in pericarditis and is often described as a sound similar to squeaking leather. This patient exhibits symptoms that are consistent with acute pericarditis, including flu-like illness with muscle pain and fatigue, chest pain that worsens when lying down and improves when sitting up or leaning forward, and the presence of a pleural rub. The gradual onset of symptoms rules out conditions like pulmonary embolism or acute myocardial ischemia. It is important to note that while the pericardial rub is often considered part of the classic triad of clinical features, it is only present in about one-third of patients. Additionally, the rub may come and go, so repeated examinations may increase the chances of detecting this sign.

      Further Reading:

      Pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium, which is the protective sac around the heart. It can be acute, lasting less than 6 weeks, and may present with chest pain, cough, dyspnea, flu-like symptoms, and a pericardial rub. The most common causes of pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, bacterial infections, uremia, trauma, and autoimmune diseases. However, in many cases, the cause remains unknown. Diagnosis is based on clinical features, such as chest pain, pericardial friction rub, and electrocardiographic changes. Treatment involves symptom relief with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and patients should avoid strenuous activity until symptoms improve. Complicated cases may require treatment for the underlying cause, and large pericardial effusions may need urgent drainage. In cases of purulent effusions, antibiotic therapy is necessary, and steroid therapy may be considered for pericarditis related to autoimmune disorders or if NSAIDs alone are ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance due to 'severe palpitations.' Her heart rate is 180 bpm, and her rhythm strip is suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia. You plan to administer adenosine.
      Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to the use of adenosine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History of heart transplant

      Explanation:

      Adenosine is a type of purine nucleoside that is primarily utilized in the diagnosis and treatment of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. Its main mechanism of action involves stimulating A1-adenosine receptors and opening acetylcholine-sensitive potassium channels. This leads to hyperpolarization of the cell membrane in the atrioventricular (AV) node and slows down conduction in the AV node by inhibiting calcium channels.

      When administering adenosine, it is given rapidly through an intravenous bolus, followed by a saline flush. The initial dose for adults is 6 mg, and if necessary, additional doses of 12 mg or 18 mg can be given at 1-2 minute intervals until the desired effect is observed. It is important to note that the latest ALS guidelines recommend 18 mg for the third dose, while the BNF/NICE guidelines suggest 12 mg.

      One of the advantages of adenosine is its very short half-life, which is less than 10 seconds. This means that its effects are rapid, typically occurring within 10 seconds. However, the duration of action is also short, lasting only 10-20 seconds. Due to its short half-life, any side effects experienced are usually brief. These side effects may include a sense of impending doom, facial flushing, dyspnea, chest discomfort, and a metallic taste.

      There are certain contraindications to the use of adenosine. These include 2nd or 3rd degree AV block, sick sinus syndrome, long QT syndrome, severe hypotension, decompensated heart failure, chronic obstructive lung disease, and asthma. It is important to exercise caution when administering adenosine to patients with a heart transplant, as they are particularly sensitive to its effects. In these cases, a reduced initial dose of 3 mg is recommended, followed by 6 mg and then 12 mg.

      It is worth noting that the effects of adenosine can be potentiated by dipyridamole, a medication commonly used in combination with adenosine. Therefore, the dose of adenosine should be adjusted and reduced in patients who are also taking dipyridamole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have atrial fibrillation....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have atrial fibrillation. You are requested to evaluate his ECG.
      Which of the following statements is correct regarding the ECG findings in atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Some impulses are filtered out by the AV node

      Explanation:

      The classic ECG features of atrial fibrillation include an irregularly irregular rhythm, the absence of p-waves, an irregular ventricular rate, and the presence of fibrillation waves. This irregular rhythm occurs because the atrial impulses are filtered out by the AV node.

      In addition, Ashman beats may be observed in atrial fibrillation. These beats are characterized by wide complex QRS complexes, often with a morphology resembling right bundle branch block. They occur after a short R-R interval that is preceded by a prolonged R-R interval. Fortunately, Ashman beats are generally considered harmless.

      The disorganized electrical activity in atrial fibrillation typically originates at the root of the pulmonary veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 7 - You conduct a cardiovascular examination on a 62-year-old man who complains of shortness...

    Incorrect

    • You conduct a cardiovascular examination on a 62-year-old man who complains of shortness of breath. He informs you that he has a known heart valve issue. During auscultation, you observe a significantly split second heart sound (S2).
      What is the most probable cause of this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Explanation:

      The second heart sound (S2) is created by vibrations produced when the aortic and pulmonary valves close. It marks the end of systole. It is normal to hear a split in the sound during inspiration.

      A loud S2 can be associated with certain conditions such as systemic hypertension (resulting in a loud A2), pulmonary hypertension (resulting in a loud P2), hyperdynamic states (like tachycardia, fever, or thyrotoxicosis), and atrial septal defect (which causes a loud P2).

      On the other hand, a soft S2 can be linked to decreased aortic diastolic pressure (as seen in aortic regurgitation), poorly mobile cusps (such as calcification of the aortic valve), aortic root dilatation, and pulmonary stenosis (which causes a soft P2).

      A widely split S2 can occur during deep inspiration, right bundle branch block, prolonged right ventricular systole (seen in conditions like pulmonary stenosis or pulmonary embolism), and severe mitral regurgitation. However, in the case of atrial septal defect, the splitting is fixed and does not vary with respiration.

      Reversed splitting of S2, where P2 occurs before A2 (paradoxical splitting), can occur during deep expiration, left bundle branch block, prolonged left ventricular systole (as seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy), severe aortic stenosis, and right ventricular pacing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have atrial fibrillation....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have atrial fibrillation. You are requested to evaluate his ECG.
      Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the ECG in atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ashman beats have a poor prognosis

      Explanation:

      The classic ECG features of atrial fibrillation include an irregularly irregular rhythm, the absence of p-waves, an irregular ventricular rate, and the presence of fibrillation waves. This irregular rhythm occurs because the atrial impulses are filtered out by the AV node.

      In addition, Ashman beats may be observed in atrial fibrillation. These beats are characterized by wide complex QRS complexes, often with a morphology resembling right bundle branch block. They occur after a short R-R interval that is preceded by a prolonged R-R interval. Fortunately, Ashman beats are generally considered harmless.

      The disorganized electrical activity in atrial fibrillation typically originates at the root of the pulmonary veins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old woman presents with severe central chest pain. An ECG is performed,...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents with severe central chest pain. An ECG is performed, which shows ST elevation in the anterolateral leads. She was given aspirin and morphine upon arrival. Her observations are as follows: SaO2 99% on air, HR 89 bpm, and BP 149/87 mmHg. Upon discussion with the cardiology team, a decision is made to perform an urgent percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).
      Which of the following medications could you also consider administering to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bivalirudin

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of an acute myocardial infarction. It is important to provide pain relief as soon as possible. One option for pain relief is GTN, which can be taken sublingually or buccally. However, if there is suspicion of an acute myocardial infarction, it is recommended to offer intravenous opioids such as morphine.

      Aspirin should be offered to all patients with unstable angina or NSTEMI as soon as possible and should be continued indefinitely, unless there are contraindications such as a bleeding risk or aspirin hypersensitivity. A loading dose of 300 mg should be administered promptly after presentation.

      For patients without a high bleeding risk who do not have coronary angiography planned within 24 hours of admission, fondaparinux should be administered. However, for patients who are likely to undergo coronary angiography within 24 hours, unfractionated heparin can be offered as an alternative to fondaparinux. In cases of significant renal impairment (creatinine above 265 micromoles per litre), unfractionated heparin with dose adjustment guided by clotting function monitoring can also be considered as an alternative to fondaparinux.

      Routine administration of oxygen is no longer recommended, but it is important to monitor oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry as soon as possible, preferably before hospital admission. Supplemental oxygen should only be offered to individuals with an oxygen saturation (SpO2) of less than 94% who are not at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, with a target SpO2 range of 94-98%. For individuals with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who are at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure, a target SpO2 range of 88-92% should be aimed for until blood gas analysis is available.

      Bivalirudin, a specific and reversible direct thrombin inhibitor (DTI), is recommended by NICE as a possible treatment for adults with STEMI who are undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.

      For more information, please refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and diagnosis of chest pain of recent onset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old female smoker presents with an episode of acute right-sided chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female smoker presents with an episode of acute right-sided chest pain. She describes the pain as being ‘extremely severe’, and it is aggravated by movement and coughing. The pain radiates to her neck and shoulder on the affected side. Her vital signs are within normal limits, and her oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On examination, she exhibits localized tenderness around the 4th rib on the right-hand side. Her lung fields are clear, and her heart sounds are normal.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tietze’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Tietze’s syndrome is an uncommon condition that leads to localized pain and tenderness in one or more of the upper four ribs, with the second and third ribs being the most commonly affected. The exact cause of this syndrome is still unknown, although it has been suggested that it may be linked to repeated small injuries to the chest wall.

      The pain experienced in Tietze’s syndrome is typically aggravated by movement, sneezing, and coughing, and it can also extend to the neck or shoulder on the affected side. In some cases, a firm swelling can be felt over the cartilage of the affected rib. While the pain usually diminishes after a few weeks or months, the swelling may persist.

      Treatment for Tietze’s syndrome involves the use of pain-relieving medications, such as NSAIDs. In more severe or persistent cases, local steroid injections may be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 11 - You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department.
      Which ONE statement about the utilization of amiodarone in cardiac arrest is NOT true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It should be administered as an infusion of 300 mg over 20-60 minutes

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a medication that is recommended to be administered after the third shock in a shockable cardiac arrest (Vf/pVT) while chest compressions are being performed. The prescribed dose is 300 mg, given as an intravenous bolus that is diluted in 5% dextrose to a volume of 20 mL. It is important to note that amiodarone is not suitable for treating PEA or asystole.

      In cases where VF/pVT persists after five defibrillation attempts, an additional dose of 150 mg of amiodarone should be given. However, if amiodarone is not available, lidocaine can be used as an alternative. The recommended dose of lidocaine is 1 mg/kg. It is crucial to avoid administering lidocaine if amiodarone has already been given.

      Amiodarone is classified as a membrane-stabilizing antiarrhythmic drug. It works by prolonging the duration of the action potential and the refractory period in both the atrial and ventricular myocardium. This medication also slows down atrioventricular conduction and has a similar effect on accessory pathways.

      Additionally, amiodarone has a mild negative inotropic action, meaning it weakens the force of heart contractions. It also causes peripheral vasodilation through non-competitive alpha-blocking effects.

      It is important to note that while there is no evidence of long-term benefits from using amiodarone, it may improve short-term survival rates, which justifies its continued use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 12 - A 55-year-old woman comes in with severe chest pain in the center of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes in with severe chest pain in the center of her chest. Her ECG reveals the following findings:
      ST elevation in leads I, II, aVF, and V6
      Reciprocal ST depression in leads V1-V4 and aVR
      Prominent tall R waves in leads V2-V3
      Upright T waves in leads V2-V3
      Based on these findings, which blood vessel is most likely affected in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      This ECG indicates changes that are consistent with an acute inferoposterior myocardial infarction (MI). There is ST elevation in leads I, II, aVF, and V6, along with reciprocal ST depression in leads V1-V4 and aVR. Additionally, there are tall dominant R waves in leads V2-V3 and upright T waves in leads V2-V3. Based on these findings, the most likely vessel involved in this case is the right coronary artery.

      To summarize the vessels involved in different types of myocardial infarction see below:
      ECG Leads – Location of MI | Vessel involved
      V1-V3 – Anteroseptal | Left anterior descending
      V3-V4 – Anterior | Left anterior descending
      V5-V6 – Anterolateral | Left anterior descending / left circumflex artery
      V1-V6 – Extensive anterior | Left anterior descending
      I, II, aVL, V6 – Lateral | Left circumflex artery
      II, III, aVF – Inferior | Right coronary artery (80%), Left circumflex artery (20%)
      V1, V4R – Right ventricle | Right coronary artery
      V7-V9 – Posterior | Right coronary artery

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with complaints of headaches, blurry vision, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with complaints of headaches, blurry vision, and occasional chest pain over the past few weeks. During her fundoscopic examination, retinal hemorrhages and bilateral papilledema are observed. Her initial vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 89, blood pressure of 228/134, oxygen saturation of 98% on room air, blood glucose level of 8.2, and a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15/15.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malignant hypertension

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis in this particular case is malignant (accelerated) hypertension. The patient’s blood pressure is greater than 220/110, and they also have retinal haemorrhages and papilloedema. During the examination, it is important to look for other features such as the presence of a 3rd heart sound, ankle oedema, bilateral basal crepitations, and any focal neurological deficit.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 14 - You are requested to evaluate a 62-year-old individual who has arrived with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 62-year-old individual who has arrived with complaints of chest discomfort. The nurse has handed you the ECG report, as the ECG machine has indicated 'anterior infarction' in its comments.

      Which leads would you anticipate observing ST elevation in an acute anterior STEMI?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: V3-V4

      Explanation:

      The leads V3 and V4 represent the anterior myocardial area.

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 15 - A 32 year old with a documented peanut allergy is currently receiving treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old with a documented peanut allergy is currently receiving treatment for an anaphylactic reaction. What are the most likely cardiovascular manifestations that you would observe in a patient experiencing an episode of anaphylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypotension and tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis, also known as anaphylactic shock, is characterized by certain symptoms similar to other types of shock. These symptoms include low blood pressure (hypotension), rapid heart rate (tachycardia), irregular heart rhythm (arrhythmia), changes in the electrocardiogram (ECG) indicating reduced blood flow to the heart (myocardial ischemia), such as ST elevation, and in severe cases, cardiac arrest.

      Further Reading:

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.

      In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.

      Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.

      The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.

      Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
      https://www.resus.org.uk/sites/default/files/2021-05/Emergency%20Treatment%20of%20Anaphylaxis%20May%202021_0.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 16 - You are called to a VF cardiac arrest in the resus area of...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to a VF cardiac arrest in the resus area of your Pediatric Emergency Department.
      Epinephrine should be administered at which of the following points during a pediatric VF arrest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After the 3rd shock once chest compressions have been resumed

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline is recommended to be administered after the third shock in a shockable cardiac arrest (Vf/pVT) once chest compressions have been resumed. The recommended dose is 1 mg, which can be administered as either 10 mL of a 1:10,000 solution or 1 mL of a 1:1000 solution.

      Subsequently, adrenaline should be given every 3-5 minutes, alternating with chest compressions. It is important to administer adrenaline without interrupting chest compressions to ensure continuous circulation and maximize the chances of successful resuscitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 17 - Whilst assessing a patient in the Emergency Department, you observe a pansystolic murmur.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst assessing a patient in the Emergency Department, you observe a pansystolic murmur.
      Which of the following is NOT a potential cause of a pansystolic murmur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Aortic stenosis leads to the presence of a murmur during the ejection phase of the cardiac cycle. This murmur is most audible at the right second intercostal space and can be heard extending into the right neck.

      Mitral regurgitation, on the other hand, produces a high-pitched murmur that occurs throughout the entire systolic phase of the cardiac cycle. This murmur is best heard at the apex of the heart and can be heard radiating into the axilla.

      Tricuspid regurgitation is characterized by a blowing murmur that occurs throughout the entire systolic phase of the cardiac cycle. This murmur is most clearly heard at the lower left sternal edge.

      Ventricular septal defect results in a harsh murmur that occurs throughout the entire systolic phase of the cardiac cycle. This murmur is best heard at the third or fourth left intercostal space and can be heard radiating throughout the praecordium.

      Aortopulmonary shunts are an extremely rare cause of a murmur that occurs throughout the entire systolic phase of the cardiac cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is found to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is found to have a diagnosis of Lown-Ganong-Levine (LGL) syndrome.
      Which of the following statements about LGL syndrome is NOT true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is caused by an accessory pathway for conduction

      Explanation:

      Lown-Ganong-Levine (LGL) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conducting system of the heart. It is classified as a pre-excitation syndrome, similar to the more well-known Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. However, unlike WPW syndrome, LGL syndrome does not involve an accessory pathway for conduction. Instead, it is believed that there may be accessory fibers present that bypass all or part of the atrioventricular node.

      When looking at an electrocardiogram (ECG) of a patient with LGL syndrome in sinus rhythm, there are several characteristic features to observe. The PR interval, which represents the time it takes for the electrical signal to travel from the atria to the ventricles, is typically shortened and measures less than 120 milliseconds. The QRS duration, which represents the time it takes for the ventricles to contract, is normal. The P wave, which represents the electrical activity of the atria, may be normal or inverted. However, what distinguishes LGL syndrome from other pre-excitation syndromes is the absence of a delta wave, which is a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex.

      It is important to note that LGL syndrome predisposes individuals to paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), a rapid heart rhythm that originates above the ventricles. However, it does not increase the risk of developing atrial fibrillation or flutter, which are other types of abnormal heart rhythms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 19 - A 68 year old man is brought to the emergency department due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old man is brought to the emergency department due to sudden difficulty breathing. Bedside echocardiography reveals significant mitral regurgitation. What is a common clinical characteristic of mitral regurgitation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 3rd heart sound

      Explanation:

      Mitral regurgitation is characterized by several clinical features. One of the main signs is a pansystolic murmur that can be heard throughout the entire systolic phase of the cardiac cycle. This murmur often radiates to the left axilla. Another notable feature is a soft S1 heart sound, which is the first heart sound heard during the cardiac cycle. Additionally, a 3rd heart sound, also known as an added sound, can be detected in patients with mitral regurgitation. As the condition progresses to moderate to severe levels, signs such as a laterally displaced apex beat with a heave may become apparent.

      Further Reading:

      Mitral Stenosis:
      – Causes: Rheumatic fever, Mucopolysaccharidoses, Carcinoid, Endocardial fibroelastosis
      – Features: Mid-late diastolic murmur, loud S1, opening snap, low volume pulse, malar flush, atrial fibrillation, signs of pulmonary edema, tapping apex beat
      – Features of severe mitral stenosis: Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
      – Investigation findings: CXR may show left atrial enlargement, echocardiography may show reduced cross-sectional area of the mitral valve

      Mitral Regurgitation:
      – Causes: Mitral valve prolapse, Myxomatous degeneration, Ischemic heart disease, Rheumatic fever, Connective tissue disorders, Endocarditis, Dilated cardiomyopathy
      – Features: pansystolic murmur radiating to left axilla, soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex beat with heave
      – Signs of acute MR: Decompensated congestive heart failure symptoms
      – Signs of chronic MR: Leg edema, fatigue, arrhythmia (atrial fibrillation)
      – Investigation findings: Doppler echocardiography to detect regurgitant flow and pulmonary hypertension, ECG may show signs of LA enlargement and LV hypertrophy, CXR may show LA and LV enlargement in chronic MR and pulmonary edema in acute MR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 20 - A 60-year-old woman with a history of congestive cardiac failure is experiencing severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman with a history of congestive cardiac failure is experiencing severe central chest pain when reclining. The pain is relieved by assuming an upright position. She has a documented history of severe coronary artery disease.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decubitus angina

      Explanation:

      Decubitus angina typically occurs in individuals who have congestive heart failure and significant coronary artery disease. When the patient assumes a lying position, the heightened volume of blood within the blood vessels puts stress on the heart, leading to episodes of chest pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 21 - A 68 year old is brought to the emergency department by his son....

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old is brought to the emergency department by his son. The patient complained of feeling sick. On checking the patient's medication the son believes he may have taken an excessive amount of digoxin tablets over the past few days. You are worried about digoxin toxicity. What ECG characteristics are linked to digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Downsloping ST depression

      Explanation:

      One way to assess for digoxin toxicity is by examining the patient’s electrocardiogram (ECG) for specific characteristics. In the case of digoxin toxicity, ECG findings may include downsloping ST depression, prolonged QT interval, tall tented T-waves, and possibly delta waves. However, a short PR interval (< 120ms) is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Further Reading: Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, digoxin toxicity can occur, and plasma concentration alone does not determine if a patient has developed toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include feeling generally unwell, lethargy, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. ECG changes seen in digoxin toxicity include downsloping ST depression with a characteristic Salvador Dali sagging appearance, flattened, inverted, or biphasic T waves, shortened QT interval, mild PR interval prolongation, and prominent U waves. There are several precipitating factors for digoxin toxicity, including hypokalaemia, increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, and diltiazem. Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of digoxin specific antibody fragments, also known as Digibind or digifab. Arrhythmias should be treated, and electrolyte disturbances should be corrected with close monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to note that digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by hypokalaemia, and toxicity can then lead to hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 22 - A 42-year-old Caucasian man presents with gradually worsening shortness of breath on exertion...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old Caucasian man presents with gradually worsening shortness of breath on exertion that has been ongoing for the past four weeks. The breathlessness is worse when lying flat, and he has noticed his ankles have become swollen. This morning he had a small amount of blood in his sputum. He is currently 32 weeks pregnant, and his pregnancy is progressing normally. On examination, you note that he has a tapping apex beat and a low-volume pulse. On auscultation, you note a loud first heart sound and a mid-diastolic murmur at the apex.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      The clinical symptoms of mitral stenosis include shortness of breath, which tends to worsen during exercise and when lying flat. Tiredness, palpitations, ankle swelling, cough, and haemoptysis are also common symptoms. Chest discomfort is rarely reported.

      The clinical signs of mitral stenosis can include a malar flush, an irregular pulse if atrial fibrillation is present, a tapping apex beat that can be felt as the first heart sound, and a left parasternal heave if there is pulmonary hypertension. The first heart sound is often loud, and a mid-diastolic murmur can be heard best at the apex in the left lateral position during expiration using the bell of the stethoscope.

      Mitral stenosis is typically caused by rheumatic heart disease, with about two-thirds of patients being female. During pregnancy, the increase in plasma volume can lead to elevated left atrial and pulmonary venous pressures. This can exacerbate any symptoms related to mitral stenosis and potentially result in pulmonary edema, as seen in this case.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 23 - A 67 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67 year old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of dizziness, difficulty breathing, and heart palpitations. The patient reports that these symptoms began six hours ago. Upon examination, the patient's vital signs are as follows:

      - Blood pressure: 118/76 mmHg
      - Pulse rate: 86 bpm
      - Respiration rate: 15 bpm
      - Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed, confirming the presence of atrial fibrillation. As part of the treatment plan, you need to calculate the patient's CHA2DS2-VASc score.

      According to NICE guidelines, what is the usual threshold score for initiating anticoagulation in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, the usual threshold score for initiating anticoagulation in this case is 2.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained cardiac arrhythmia, affecting around 5% of patients over the age of 70-75 years and 10% of patients aged 80-85 years. While AF can cause palpitations and inefficient cardiac function, the most important aspect of managing patients with AF is reducing the increased risk of stroke.

      AF can be classified as first detected episode, paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent. First detected episode refers to the initial occurrence of AF, regardless of symptoms or duration. Paroxysmal AF occurs when a patient has 2 or more self-terminating episodes lasting less than 7 days. Persistent AF refers to episodes lasting more than 7 days that do not self-terminate. Permanent AF is continuous atrial fibrillation that cannot be cardioverted or if attempts to do so are deemed inappropriate. The treatment goals for permanent AF are rate control and anticoagulation if appropriate.

      Symptoms of AF include palpitations, dyspnea, and chest pain. The most common sign is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is essential for diagnosing AF, as other conditions can also cause an irregular pulse.

      Managing patients with AF involves two key parts: rate/rhythm control and reducing stroke risk. Rate control involves slowing down the irregular pulse to avoid negative effects on cardiac function. This is typically achieved using beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. If one drug is not effective, combination therapy may be used. Rhythm control aims to restore and maintain normal sinus rhythm through pharmacological or electrical cardioversion. However, the majority of patients are managed with a rate control strategy.

      Reducing stroke risk in patients with AF is crucial. Risk stratifying tools, such as the CHA2DS2-VASc score, are used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy. Anticoagulation is recommended for patients with a score of 2 or more. Clinicians can choose between warfarin and novel oral anticoagulants (NOACs) for anticoagulation.

      Before starting anticoagulation, the patient’s bleeding risk should be assessed using tools like the HAS-BLED score or the ORBIT tool. These tools evaluate factors such as hypertension, abnormal renal or liver function, history of bleeding, age, and use of drugs that predispose to bleeding.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 24 - A 60-year-old woman comes in with severe, crushing chest pain that spreads to...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman comes in with severe, crushing chest pain that spreads to her left shoulder and jaw. The pain has improved after receiving GTN spray under the tongue and intravenous morphine.
      What other medication should be recommended at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      This particular patient has a high risk of experiencing an acute coronary syndrome. Therefore, it is recommended to administer aspirin at a dosage of 300 mg and clopidogrel at a dosage ranging from 300-600 mg.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 25 - A 48 year old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of episodes...

    Incorrect

    • A 48 year old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of episodes of lightheadedness. She mentions that she is an avid jogger and noticed on her fitness tracker that her heart rate had dropped to 48 beats per minute. Which of the following characteristics would warrant drug intervention or transcutaneous pacing in a patient with bradycardia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myocardial ischaemia

      Explanation:

      Indications for drug treatment or pacing in patients with bradycardia include shock, syncope, myocardial ischemia, heart failure, and the presence of risk factors for asystole. If any of these adverse features are present, it is important to consider drug treatment or pacing. However, even if none of these adverse features are present, patients may still require drug treatment or pacing if they have risk factors for developing asystole, such as recent asystole, Mobitz II AV block, complete heart block with broad QRS, or a ventricular pause longer than 3 seconds.

      Further Reading:

      Causes of Bradycardia:
      – Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
      – Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
      – Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
      – Hypothermia
      – Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
      – Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
      – Head injury: Cushing’s response
      – Infections: Endocarditis
      – Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosis

      Presenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
      – Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
      – Syncope
      – Breathlessness
      – Weakness
      – Chest pain
      – Nausea

      Management of Bradycardia:
      – Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
      – Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
      – Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
      – Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
      – Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolate

      Bradycardia Algorithm:
      – Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
      https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf

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  • Question 26 - A 72 year old male presents with central chest pain radiating to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 72 year old male presents with central chest pain radiating to the jaw and left arm. The patient is sweating profusely and appears pale. The pain began 4 hours ago. ECG reveals 2-3 mm ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. 300 mg aspirin has been administered. Transporting the patient to the nearest coronary catheter lab for primary PCI will take 2 hours 45 minutes. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer fibrinolysis

      Explanation:

      Fibrinolysis is a treatment option for patients with ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) if they are unable to receive primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) within 120 minutes, but fibrinolysis can be administered within that time frame. Primary PCI is the preferred treatment for STEMI patients who present within 12 hours of symptom onset. However, if primary PCI cannot be performed within 120 minutes of the time when fibrinolysis could have been given, fibrinolysis should be considered. Along with fibrinolysis, an antithrombin medication such as unfractionated heparin (UFH), low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), fondaparinux, or bivalirudin is typically administered.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 27 - A 65 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old male presents to the emergency department with a 3 hour history of severe chest pain that radiates to his left arm and neck. On examination, his chest is clear and his heart sounds are normal with a regular rhythm. No carotid bruits are heard. The following observations are noted:

      Blood pressure: 150/90 mmHg
      Pulse rate: 88 bpm
      Respiration rate: 18 rpm
      Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air
      Temperature: 37.2ºC

      An ECG reveals normal sinus rhythm and a chest X-ray shows no abnormalities. The patient's pain subsides after receiving buccal GTN (glyceryl trinitrate). Cardiac enzyme tests are pending. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administer 300 mg oral aspirin

      Explanation:

      For patients suspected of having acute coronary syndromes (ACS), it is recommended that they receive 300 mg of aspirin and pain relief in the form of glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) with the option of intravenous opioids such as morphine. However, if the patient is pain-free after taking GTN, there is no need to administer morphine. The next steps in medical management or intervention will be determined once the diagnosis is confirmed.

      Further Reading:

      Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).

      The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.

      There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.

      The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.

      The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.

      The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.

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      • Cardiology
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  • Question 28 - You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to provide assistance with a 72-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to the resuscitation bay to provide assistance with a 72-year-old patient who is undergoing treatment for cardiac arrest. After three shocks, the patient experiences a return of spontaneous circulation.

      What are the recommended blood pressure goals following a return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) after cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mean arterial pressure 65-100 mmHg

      Explanation:

      After the return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC), there are two specific blood pressure targets that need to be achieved. The first target is to maintain a systolic blood pressure above 100 mmHg. The second target is to maintain the mean arterial pressure (MAP) within the range of 65 to 100 mmHg.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.

      After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.

      Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.

      Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.

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  • Question 29 - Your hospital’s cardiology department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker...

    Incorrect

    • Your hospital’s cardiology department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker test for use risk stratification of patients with a suspected acute coronary syndrome. The test will use troponin I, myoglobin and heart-type fatty acid-binding protein (HFABP).

      How long after heart attack do troponin I levels return to normal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3-10 days

      Explanation:

      The timing of the initial rise, peak, and return to normality of various cardiac enzymes can serve as a helpful guide. Creatine kinase, the main cardiac isoenzyme, typically experiences an initial rise within 4-8 hours, reaches its peak at 18 hours, and returns to normal within 2-3 days. Myoglobin, which lacks specificity due to its association with skeletal muscle damage, shows an initial rise within 1-4 hours, peaks at 6-7 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Troponin I, known for its sensitivity and specificity, exhibits an initial rise within 3-12 hours, reaches its peak at 24 hours, and returns to normal within 3-10 days. HFABP, or heart fatty acid binding protein, experiences an initial rise within 1.5 hours, peaks at 5-10 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Lastly, LDH, predominantly found in cardiac muscle, shows an initial rise at 10 hours, peaks at 24-48 hours, and returns to normal within 14 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 30 - A 42-year-old woman comes in with retrosternal central chest discomfort that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in with retrosternal central chest discomfort that has been ongoing for the past 48 hours. The discomfort intensifies with deep breaths and when lying flat, but eases when she sits upright. Additionally, the discomfort radiates to both of her shoulders. Her ECG reveals widespread concave ST elevation and PR depression. You strongly suspect a diagnosis of pericarditis.
      Which nerve is accountable for the pattern of her discomfort?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      Pericarditis refers to the inflammation of the pericardium, which can be caused by various factors such as infections (typically viral, like coxsackie virus), drug-induced reactions (e.g. isoniazid, cyclosporine), trauma, autoimmune conditions (e.g. SLE), paraneoplastic syndromes, uraemia, post myocardial infarction (known as Dressler’s syndrome), post radiotherapy, and post cardiac surgery.

      The clinical presentation of pericarditis often includes retrosternal chest pain that is pleuritic in nature. This pain is typically relieved by sitting forwards and worsened when lying flat. It may also radiate to the shoulders. Other symptoms may include shortness of breath, tachycardia, and the presence of a pericardial friction rub.

      The pericardium receives sensory supply from the phrenic nerve, which also provides sensory innervation to the diaphragm, various mediastinal structures, and certain abdominal structures such as the superior peritoneum, liver, and gallbladder. Since the phrenic nerve originates from the 4th cervical nerve, which also provides cutaneous innervation to the front of the shoulder girdle, pain from pericarditis can also radiate to the shoulders.

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