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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents with worsening symptoms of shortness of breath. Upon examination of her cardiovascular system, you find a collapsing pulse. Her apex beat is hyperkinetic and displaced to the side. During auscultation, you detect an early diastolic murmur that is most pronounced when the patient is sitting forward and exhaling.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Mitral stenosis
Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve fails to close tightly, resulting in the backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle during ventricular diastole. This valvular lesion presents with various clinical symptoms and signs.
The clinical symptoms of aortic regurgitation include exertional dyspnea, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. These symptoms are experienced by patients during physical activity, while lying flat, and during episodes of sudden nighttime breathlessness, respectively.
On the other hand, the clinical signs of aortic regurgitation can be observed during physical examination. These signs include a collapsing pulse, widened pulse pressure, hyperkinetic laterally displaced apex beat, and a thrill in the aortic area. Additionally, an early diastolic murmur can be heard, which is loudest at the lower left sternal edge when the patient is sitting forward and exhaling.
Aortic regurgitation is also associated with several eponymous signs, which are named after the physicians who first described them. These signs include Corrigan’s sign, which is characterized by visible and forceful neck pulsation. De Musset’s sign refers to head nodding in time with the heartbeat. Quincke’s sign is the observation of visible nail bed capillary pulsation. Duroziez’s sign is the presence of a diastolic murmur heard proximal to femoral artery compression. Traube’s sign is the perception of a pistol shot sound over the femoral arteries. The Lighthouse sign is the blanching and flushing of the forehead. Becker’s sign is the pulsation seen in retinal vessels. Rosenbach’s sign is the presence of a pulsatile liver. Lastly, Muller’s sign refers to pulsations of the uvula.
In summary, aortic regurgitation is a valvular lesion that leads to the incomplete closure of the aortic valve. It manifests with various clinical symptoms, signs, and eponymous findings, which can be identified through careful examination and observation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 72 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his daughter due to sudden confusion, severe headache, and problems with coordination. Upon initial assessment at triage, the patient's blood pressure is found to be significantly elevated at 224/126 mmHg. You suspect the presence of hypertensive encephalopathy. What is the primary treatment option for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Labetalol
Explanation:The primary treatment option for hypertensive encephalopathy, a condition characterized by sudden confusion, severe headache, and coordination problems due to significantly elevated blood pressure, is labetalol.
Further Reading:
A hypertensive emergency is characterized by a significant increase in blood pressure accompanied by acute or progressive damage to organs. While there is no specific blood pressure value that defines a hypertensive emergency, systolic blood pressure is typically above 180 mmHg and/or diastolic blood pressure is above 120 mmHg. The most common presentations of hypertensive emergencies include cerebral infarction, pulmonary edema, encephalopathy, and congestive cardiac failure. Less common presentations include intracranial hemorrhage, aortic dissection, and pre-eclampsia/eclampsia.
The signs and symptoms of hypertensive emergencies can vary widely due to the potential dysfunction of every physiological system. Some common signs and symptoms include headache, nausea and/or vomiting, chest pain, arrhythmia, proteinuria, signs of acute kidney failure, epistaxis, dyspnea, dizziness, anxiety, confusion, paraesthesia or anesthesia, and blurred vision. Clinical assessment focuses on detecting acute or progressive damage to the cardiovascular, renal, and central nervous systems.
Investigations that are essential in evaluating hypertensive emergencies include U&Es (electrolyte levels), urinalysis, ECG, and CXR. Additional investigations may be considered depending on the suspected underlying cause, such as a CT head for encephalopathy or new onset confusion, CT thorax for suspected aortic dissection, and CT abdomen for suspected phaeochromocytoma. Plasma free metanephrines, urine total catecholamines, vanillylmandelic acid (VMA), and metanephrine may be tested if phaeochromocytoma is suspected. Urine screening for cocaine and/or amphetamines may be appropriate in certain cases, as well as an endocrine screen for Cushing’s syndrome.
The management of hypertensive emergencies involves cautious reduction of blood pressure to avoid precipitating renal, cerebral, or coronary ischemia. Staged blood pressure reduction is typically the goal, with an initial reduction in mean arterial pressure (MAP) by no more than 25% in the first hour. Further gradual reduction to a systolic blood pressure of 160 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg over the next 2 to 6 hours is recommended. Initial management involves treatment with intravenous antihypertensive agents in an intensive care setting with appropriate monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is found to have a diagnosis of Lown-Ganong-Levine (LGL) syndrome.
Which of the following statements about LGL syndrome is NOT true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is caused by an accessory pathway for conduction
Explanation:Lown-Ganong-Levine (LGL) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conducting system of the heart. It is classified as a pre-excitation syndrome, similar to the more well-known Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome. However, unlike WPW syndrome, LGL syndrome does not involve an accessory pathway for conduction. Instead, it is believed that there may be accessory fibers present that bypass all or part of the atrioventricular node.
When looking at an electrocardiogram (ECG) of a patient with LGL syndrome in sinus rhythm, there are several characteristic features to observe. The PR interval, which represents the time it takes for the electrical signal to travel from the atria to the ventricles, is typically shortened and measures less than 120 milliseconds. The QRS duration, which represents the time it takes for the ventricles to contract, is normal. The P wave, which represents the electrical activity of the atria, may be normal or inverted. However, what distinguishes LGL syndrome from other pre-excitation syndromes is the absence of a delta wave, which is a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex.
It is important to note that LGL syndrome predisposes individuals to paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), a rapid heart rhythm that originates above the ventricles. However, it does not increase the risk of developing atrial fibrillation or flutter, which are other types of abnormal heart rhythms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 45 year old female patient presents to the emergency department after calling 111 for guidance regarding recent chest discomfort. The patient is worried that she might be experiencing a heart attack. During the assessment, you inquire about the nature of the pain, accompanying symptoms, and factors that worsen or alleviate the discomfort, prior to conducting a physical examination. Which history would be most suggestive of a acute myocardial infarct (AMI)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radiation of the pain to the right arm
Explanation:The characteristic with the highest likelihood ratio for AMI is the radiation of chest pain to the right arm or both arms. Additionally, the history characteristics of cardiac pain also have a high likelihood ratio for AMI.
Further Reading:
Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).
The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.
There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.
The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.
The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.
The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a severe 'tearing' abdominal pain that radiates to her lower back. A diagnosis of aortic dissection is suspected.
Which of the following would be the LEAST likely risk factor for aortic dissection?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cannabis usage
Explanation:There is no known connection between the use of cannabis and aortic dissection. Some factors that are recognized as increasing the risk of aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, aortic coarctation, the use of sympathomimetic drugs like cocaine, Marfan syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, tertiary syphilis, and pre-existing aortic aneurysm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department.
Which ONE statement about the utilization of amiodarone in cardiac arrest is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It increases the duration of the action potential
Explanation:Amiodarone is a medication that is recommended to be administered after the third shock in a shockable cardiac arrest (Vf/pVT) while chest compressions are being performed. The prescribed dose is 300 mg, given as an intravenous bolus that is diluted in 5% dextrose to a volume of 20 mL. It is important to note that amiodarone is not suitable for treating PEA or asystole.
In cases where VF/pVT persists after five defibrillation attempts, an additional dose of 150 mg of amiodarone should be given. However, if amiodarone is not available, lidocaine can be used as an alternative. The recommended dose of lidocaine is 1 mg/kg. It is crucial to avoid administering lidocaine if amiodarone has already been given.
Amiodarone is classified as a membrane-stabilizing antiarrhythmic drug. It works by prolonging the duration of the action potential and the refractory period in both the atrial and ventricular myocardium. This medication also slows down atrioventricular conduction and has a similar effect on accessory pathways.
Additionally, amiodarone has a mild negative inotropic action, meaning it weakens the force of heart contractions. It also causes peripheral vasodilation through non-competitive alpha-blocking effects.
It is important to note that while there is no evidence of long-term benefits from using amiodarone, it may improve short-term survival rates, which justifies its continued use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70 year old male visits the emergency department with a complaint of increasing shortness of breath. You observe that the patient had moderate aortic regurgitation on an echocardiogram conducted 12 months ago.
What is a characteristic symptom of aortic regurgitation (AR)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Water hammer pulse
Explanation:A collapsing pulse, also known as a water hammer pulse, is a common clinical feature associated with aortic regurgitation (AR). In AR, the pulse rises rapidly and forcefully before quickly collapsing. This pulsation pattern may also be referred to as Watson’s water hammer pulse or Corrigan’s pulse. Heart sounds in AR are typically quiet, and the second heart sound (S2) may even be absent if the valve fails to fully close. A characteristic early to mid diastolic murmur is often present. Other typical features of AR include a wide pulse pressure, a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur in severe cases, a soft S1 and S2 (with S2 potentially being absent), a hyperdynamic apical pulse, and signs of heart failure such as lung creases, raised jugular venous pressure (JVP), and tachypnea.
Further Reading:
Valvular heart disease refers to conditions that affect the valves of the heart. In the case of aortic valve disease, there are two main conditions: aortic regurgitation and aortic stenosis.
Aortic regurgitation is characterized by an early diastolic murmur, a collapsing pulse (also known as a water hammer pulse), and a wide pulse pressure. In severe cases, there may be a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur due to partial closure of the anterior mitral valve cusps caused by the regurgitation streams. The first and second heart sounds (S1 and S2) may be soft, and S2 may even be absent. Additionally, there may be a hyperdynamic apical pulse. Causes of aortic regurgitation include rheumatic fever, infective endocarditis, connective tissue diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus, and a bicuspid aortic valve. Aortic root diseases such as aortic dissection, spondyloarthropathies like ankylosing spondylitis, hypertension, syphilis, and genetic conditions like Marfan’s syndrome and Ehler-Danlos syndrome can also lead to aortic regurgitation.
Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by a narrow pulse pressure, a slow rising pulse, and a delayed ESM (ejection systolic murmur). The second heart sound (S2) may be soft or absent, and there may be an S4 (atrial gallop) that occurs just before S1. A thrill may also be felt. The duration of the murmur is an important factor in determining the severity of aortic stenosis. Causes of aortic stenosis include degenerative calcification (most common in older patients), a bicuspid aortic valve (most common in younger patients), William’s syndrome (supravalvular aortic stenosis), post-rheumatic disease, and subvalvular conditions like hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM).
Management of aortic valve disease depends on the severity of symptoms. Asymptomatic patients are generally observed, while symptomatic patients may require valve replacement. Surgery may also be considered for asymptomatic patients with a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg and features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction. Balloon valvuloplasty is limited to patients with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance due to 'severe palpitations.' His heart rate is 180 bpm, and his rhythm strip is suggestive of supraventricular tachycardia. You plan to administer adenosine.
Which of the following is a contraindication to the use of adenosine?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recent severe asthma exacerbation
Explanation:Adenosine is a type of purine nucleoside that is primarily utilized in the diagnosis and treatment of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. Its main mechanism of action involves stimulating A1-adenosine receptors and opening acetylcholine-sensitive potassium channels. This leads to hyperpolarization of the cell membrane in the atrioventricular (AV) node and slows down conduction in the AV node by inhibiting calcium channels.
When administering adenosine, it is given rapidly through an intravenous bolus, followed by a saline flush. The initial dose for adults is 6 mg, and if necessary, additional doses of 12 mg or 18 mg can be given at 1-2 minute intervals until the desired effect is observed. It is important to note that the latest ALS guidelines recommend 18 mg for the third dose, while the BNF/NICE guidelines suggest 12 mg.
One of the advantages of adenosine is its very short half-life, which is less than 10 seconds. This means that its effects are rapid, typically occurring within 10 seconds. However, the duration of action is also short, lasting only 10-20 seconds. Due to its short half-life, any side effects experienced are usually brief. These side effects may include a sense of impending doom, facial flushing, dyspnea, chest discomfort, and a metallic taste.
There are certain contraindications to the use of adenosine. These include 2nd or 3rd degree AV block, sick sinus syndrome, long QT syndrome, severe hypotension, decompensated heart failure, chronic obstructive lung disease, and asthma. It is important to exercise caution when administering adenosine to patients with a heart transplant, as they are particularly sensitive to its effects. In these cases, a reduced initial dose of 3 mg is recommended, followed by 6 mg and then 12 mg.
It is worth noting that the effects of adenosine can be potentiated by dipyridamole, a medication commonly used in combination with adenosine. Therefore, the dose of adenosine should be adjusted and reduced in patients who are also taking dipyridamole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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While examining a 68-year-old man, you detect an ejection systolic murmur. The murmur does not radiate, and his pulse character is normal.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic sclerosis
Explanation:Aortic sclerosis is a condition that occurs when the aortic valve undergoes senile degeneration. Unlike aortic stenosis, it does not result in any obstruction of the left ventricular outflow tract. To differentiate between aortic stenosis and aortic sclerosis, the following can be used:
Feature: Aortic stenosis
– Symptoms: Can be asymptomatic, but may cause angina, breathlessness, and syncope if severe.
– Pulse: Slow rising, low volume pulse.
– Apex beat: Sustained, heaving apex beat.
– Thrill: Palpable thrill in the aortic area can be felt.
– Murmur: Ejection systolic murmur loudest in the aortic area.
– Radiation: Radiates to carotids.Feature: Aortic sclerosis
– Symptoms: Always asymptomatic.
– Pulse: Normal pulse character.
– Apex beat: Normal apex beat.
– Thrill: No thrill.
– Murmur: Ejection systolic murmur loudest in the aortic area.
– Radiation: No radiation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman comes in with severe, crushing chest pain that spreads to her left shoulder and jaw. The pain has improved after receiving GTN spray under the tongue and intravenous morphine.
What other medication should be recommended at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:This particular patient has a high risk of experiencing an acute coronary syndrome. Therefore, it is recommended to administer aspirin at a dosage of 300 mg and clopidogrel at a dosage ranging from 300-600 mg.
Further Reading:
Acute Coronary Syndromes (ACS) is a term used to describe a group of conditions that involve the sudden reduction or blockage of blood flow to the heart. This can lead to a heart attack or unstable angina. ACS includes ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non-ST segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina (UA).
The development of ACS is usually seen in patients who already have underlying coronary heart disease. This disease is characterized by the buildup of fatty plaques in the walls of the coronary arteries, which can gradually narrow the arteries and reduce blood flow to the heart. This can cause chest pain, known as angina, during physical exertion. In some cases, the fatty plaques can rupture, leading to a complete blockage of the artery and a heart attack.
There are both non modifiable and modifiable risk factors for ACS. non modifiable risk factors include increasing age, male gender, and family history. Modifiable risk factors include smoking, diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity.
The symptoms of ACS typically include chest pain, which is often described as a heavy or constricting sensation in the central or left side of the chest. The pain may also radiate to the jaw or left arm. Other symptoms can include shortness of breath, sweating, and nausea/vomiting. However, it’s important to note that some patients, especially diabetics or the elderly, may not experience chest pain.
The diagnosis of ACS is typically made based on the patient’s history, electrocardiogram (ECG), and blood tests for cardiac enzymes, specifically troponin. The ECG can show changes consistent with a heart attack, such as ST segment elevation or depression, T wave inversion, or the presence of a new left bundle branch block. Elevated troponin levels confirm the diagnosis of a heart attack.
The management of ACS depends on the specific condition and the patient’s risk factors. For STEMI, immediate coronary reperfusion therapy, either through primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolysis, is recommended. In addition to aspirin, a second antiplatelet agent is usually given. For NSTEMI or unstable angina, the treatment approach may involve reperfusion therapy or medical management, depending on the patient’s risk of future cardiovascular events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman with Marfan syndrome presents with a severe tearing chest pain that spreads to her back. A diagnosis of aortic dissection is suspected.
Which SINGLE statement regarding aortic dissection is FALSE?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An inter-arm blood pressure differential of greater than 10 mmHg is a highly sensitive predictor
Explanation:Acute aortic dissection is characterized by the rapid formation of a false, blood-filled channel within the middle layer of the aorta. It is estimated to occur in 3 out of every 100,000 individuals per year.
Patients with aortic dissection typically experience intense chest pain that spreads to the area between the shoulder blades. The pain is often described as tearing or ripping and may also extend to the neck. Sweating, paleness, and rapid heartbeat are commonly observed at the time of presentation. Other possible symptoms include focal neurological deficits, weak pulses, fainting, and reduced blood flow to organs.
A significant difference in blood pressure between the arms, greater than 20 mmHg, is a highly sensitive indicator. If the dissection extends backward, it can involve the aortic valve, leading to the early diastolic murmur of aortic regurgitation.
Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, aortic coarctation, the use of sympathomimetic drugs like cocaine, Marfan syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, tertiary syphilis, and pre-existing aortic aneurysm.
Aortic dissection can be classified according to the Stanford classification system:
– Type A affects the ascending aorta and the arch, accounting for 60% of cases. These cases are typically managed surgically and may result in the blockage of coronary arteries and aortic regurgitation.
– Type B begins distal to the left subclavian artery and accounts for approximately 40% of cases. These cases are usually managed with medication to control blood pressure. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with palpitations and is found to have atrial fibrillation. You are requested to evaluate his ECG.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the ECG findings in atrial fibrillation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Some impulses are filtered out by the AV node
Explanation:The classic ECG features of atrial fibrillation include an irregularly irregular rhythm, the absence of p-waves, an irregular ventricular rate, and the presence of fibrillation waves. This irregular rhythm occurs because the atrial impulses are filtered out by the AV node.
In addition, Ashman beats may be observed in atrial fibrillation. These beats are characterized by wide complex QRS complexes, often with a morphology resembling right bundle branch block. They occur after a short R-R interval that is preceded by a prolonged R-R interval. Fortunately, Ashman beats are generally considered harmless.
The disorganized electrical activity in atrial fibrillation typically originates at the root of the pulmonary veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 45 year old man comes to the emergency department after intentionally overdosing on his digoxin medication. He informs you that he consumed approximately 50 tablets of digoxin shortly after discovering that his wife wants to end their marriage and file for divorce. Which of the following symptoms is commonly seen in cases of digoxin toxicity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Yellow-green vision
Explanation:One of the signs of digoxin toxicity is yellow-green vision. Other clinical features include feeling generally unwell, lethargy, nausea and vomiting, loss of appetite, confusion, and the development of arrhythmias such as AV block and bradycardia.
Further Reading:
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, digoxin toxicity can occur, and plasma concentration alone does not determine if a patient has developed toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include feeling generally unwell, lethargy, nausea and vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia.
ECG changes seen in digoxin toxicity include downsloping ST depression with a characteristic Salvador Dali sagging appearance, flattened, inverted, or biphasic T waves, shortened QT interval, mild PR interval prolongation, and prominent U waves. There are several precipitating factors for digoxin toxicity, including hypokalaemia, increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, and diltiazem.
Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of digoxin specific antibody fragments, also known as Digibind or digifab. Arrhythmias should be treated, and electrolyte disturbances should be corrected with close monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to note that digoxin toxicity can be precipitated by hypokalaemia, and toxicity can then lead to hyperkalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with an episode of atrial fibrillation (AF) that began a few hours ago. This is his first-ever episode, and he has no significant medical history.
Which of the following accurately characterizes the type of AF he has experienced?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute
Explanation:In order to gain a comprehensive understanding of AF management, it is crucial to familiarize oneself with the terminology used to describe its various subtypes. These terms help categorize different episodes of AF based on their characteristics and outcomes.
Acute AF refers to any episode that occurs within the previous 48 hours. It can manifest with or without symptoms and may or may not recur. On the other hand, paroxysmal AF describes episodes that spontaneously end within 7 days, typically within 48 hours. While these episodes are often recurrent, they can progress into a sustained form of AF.
Recurrent AF is defined as experiencing two or more episodes of AF. If the episodes self-terminate, they are classified as paroxysmal AF. However, if the episodes do not self-terminate, they are categorized as persistent AF. Persistent AF lasts longer than 7 days or has occurred after a previous cardioversion. To terminate persistent AF, electrical or pharmacological intervention is required. In some cases, persistent AF can progress into permanent AF.
Permanent AF, also known as Accepted AF, refers to episodes that cannot be successfully terminated, have relapsed after termination, or where cardioversion is not pursued. This subtype signifies a more chronic and ongoing form of AF.
By understanding and utilizing these terms, healthcare professionals can effectively communicate and manage the different subtypes of AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are called to cardiac arrest in the resus area of your Emergency Department. As part of your management, a dose of amiodarone is administered.
Amiodarone should be administered at which of the following points during a pediatric VF arrest?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: After the 3rd shock
Explanation:Amiodarone is recommended to be administered after the third shock in a shockable cardiac arrest (Vf/pVT) while performing chest compressions. The prescribed dose is 300 mg, which should be given as an intravenous bolus. To ensure proper administration, the medication should be diluted in 20 mL of 5% dextrose solution.
In cases where VF/pVT continues after five defibrillation attempts, an additional dose of 150 mg of Amiodarone should be administered. It is important to note that Amiodarone is not suitable for treating PEA or asystole, and its use is specifically indicated for shockable cardiac arrest situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents with complaints of fatigue and difficulty breathing. During the examination, you observe a pansystolic murmur that is most prominent at the apex and radiates to the axilla. The murmur is more pronounced during expiration.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral regurgitation
Explanation:Patients with mitral regurgitation can go for extended periods without experiencing any symptoms. They may have a normal exercise tolerance and show no signs of congestive cardiac failure. However, when cardiac failure does occur, patients often complain of breathlessness, especially during physical exertion. They may also experience fatigue, difficulty breathing while lying flat (orthopnoea), and sudden episodes of difficulty breathing at night (paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea).
In terms of clinical signs, mitral regurgitation can be identified through various indicators. These include a displaced and volume loaded apex beat, which can be felt during a physical examination. A palpable thrill may also be detected at the apex. Additionally, a pansystolic murmur, which is loudest at the apex and radiates to the axilla, can be heard. This murmur is typically most pronounced when the patient holds their breath during expiration. Furthermore, a soft first heart sound and signs of left ventricular failure may be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Your hospital’s oncology department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker test for use in risk stratification of patients with suspected breast cancer. The test will use estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR), and human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2).
How long after tumor formation do ER levels start to increase?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.5 hours
Explanation:The timing of the initial rise, peak, and return to normality of various cardiac enzymes can serve as a helpful guide. Creatine kinase, the main cardiac isoenzyme, typically experiences an initial rise within 4-8 hours, reaches its peak at 18 hours, and returns to normal within 2-3 days. Myoglobin, which lacks specificity due to its association with skeletal muscle damage, shows an initial rise within 1-4 hours, peaks at 6-7 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Troponin I, known for its sensitivity and specificity, exhibits an initial rise within 3-12 hours, reaches its peak at 24 hours, and returns to normal within 3-10 days. HFABP, or heart fatty acid binding protein, experiences an initial rise within 1.5 hours, peaks at 5-10 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Lastly, LDH, predominantly found in cardiac muscle, shows an initial rise at 10 hours, peaks at 24-48 hours, and returns to normal within 14 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 56-year-old individual who arrives at the ER complaining of chest discomfort and increasing swelling. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, you discover that they underwent an echocardiogram a year ago, which revealed moderate-severe tricuspid regurgitation. Which of the following heart murmurs is commonly associated with tricuspid regurgitation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low-frequency pansystolic murmur
Explanation:Tricuspid regurgitation is characterized by a continuous murmur that spans the entire systolic phase of the cardiac cycle. This murmur is best audible at the lower left sternal edge and has a low frequency. Interestingly, the intensity of the murmur increases during inspiration and decreases during expiration, a phenomenon referred to as Carvallo’s sign.
Further Reading:
Tricuspid regurgitation (TR) is a condition where blood flows backwards through the tricuspid valve in the heart. It is classified as either primary or secondary, with primary TR being caused by abnormalities in the tricuspid valve itself and secondary TR being the result of other conditions outside of the valve. Mild TR is common, especially in young adults, and often does not cause symptoms. However, severe TR can lead to right-sided heart failure and the development of symptoms such as ascites, peripheral edema, and hepatomegaly.
The causes of TR can vary. Primary TR can be caused by conditions such as rheumatic heart disease, myxomatous valve disease, or Ebstein anomaly. Secondary TR is often the result of right ventricular dilatation due to left heart failure or pulmonary hypertension. Other causes include endocarditis, traumatic chest injury, left ventricular systolic dysfunction, chronic lung disease, pulmonary thromboembolism, myocardial disease, left to right shunts, and carcinoid heart disease. In some cases, TR can occur as a result of infective endocarditis in IV drug abusers.
Clinical features of TR can include a pansystolic murmur that is best heard at the lower left sternal edge, Carvallo’s sign (murmur increases with inspiration and decreases with expiration), an S3 heart sound, and the presence of atrial arrhythmias such as flutter or fibrillation. Other signs can include giant C-V waves in the jugular pulse, hepatomegaly (often pulsatile), and edema with lung crepitations or pleural effusions.
The management of TR depends on the underlying cause and the severity of the condition. In severe cases, valve repair or replacement surgery may be necessary. Treatment may also involve addressing the underlying conditions contributing to TR, such as managing left heart failure or pulmonary hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 72 year old male patient has arrived at the emergency department after injuring himself in a fall. Upon reviewing the patient's medical history, you discover that he was diagnosed with mitral stenosis last year. You advise the medical students to assess the patient for indications of this condition.
What is a typical symptom observed in individuals with mitral stenosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malar flush
Explanation:One of the clinical features of mitral stenosis is malar flush, which refers to a reddening or flushing of the cheeks. Other clinical features include a mid-late diastolic murmur that is best heard during expiration, a loud S1 heart sound with an opening snap, a low volume pulse, atrial fibrillation, and signs of pulmonary edema such as crepitations or the presence of white or pink frothy sputum.
Further Reading:
Mitral Stenosis:
– Causes: Rheumatic fever, Mucopolysaccharidoses, Carcinoid, Endocardial fibroelastosis
– Features: Mid-late diastolic murmur, loud S1, opening snap, low volume pulse, malar flush, atrial fibrillation, signs of pulmonary edema, tapping apex beat
– Features of severe mitral stenosis: Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
– Investigation findings: CXR may show left atrial enlargement, echocardiography may show reduced cross-sectional area of the mitral valveMitral Regurgitation:
– Causes: Mitral valve prolapse, Myxomatous degeneration, Ischemic heart disease, Rheumatic fever, Connective tissue disorders, Endocarditis, Dilated cardiomyopathy
– Features: pansystolic murmur radiating to left axilla, soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex beat with heave
– Signs of acute MR: Decompensated congestive heart failure symptoms
– Signs of chronic MR: Leg edema, fatigue, arrhythmia (atrial fibrillation)
– Investigation findings: Doppler echocardiography to detect regurgitant flow and pulmonary hypertension, ECG may show signs of LA enlargement and LV hypertrophy, CXR may show LA and LV enlargement in chronic MR and pulmonary edema in acute MR. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department.
Which ONE statement about the utilization of amiodarone in cardiac arrest is NOT true?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It should be administered as an infusion of 300 mg over 20-60 minutes
Explanation:Amiodarone is a medication that is recommended to be administered after the third shock in a shockable cardiac arrest (Vf/pVT) while chest compressions are being performed. The prescribed dose is 300 mg, given as an intravenous bolus that is diluted in 5% dextrose to a volume of 20 mL. It is important to note that amiodarone is not suitable for treating PEA or asystole.
In cases where VF/pVT persists after five defibrillation attempts, an additional dose of 150 mg of amiodarone should be given. However, if amiodarone is not available, lidocaine can be used as an alternative. The recommended dose of lidocaine is 1 mg/kg. It is crucial to avoid administering lidocaine if amiodarone has already been given.
Amiodarone is classified as a membrane-stabilizing antiarrhythmic drug. It works by prolonging the duration of the action potential and the refractory period in both the atrial and ventricular myocardium. This medication also slows down atrioventricular conduction and has a similar effect on accessory pathways.
Additionally, amiodarone has a mild negative inotropic action, meaning it weakens the force of heart contractions. It also causes peripheral vasodilation through non-competitive alpha-blocking effects.
It is important to note that while there is no evidence of long-term benefits from using amiodarone, it may improve short-term survival rates, which justifies its continued use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Your hospital’s cardiology department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker test for use risk stratification of patients with a suspected acute coronary syndrome. The test will use troponin I, myoglobin and heart-type fatty acid-binding protein (HFABP).
How long after heart attack do troponin I levels return to normal?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3-10 days
Explanation:The timing of the initial rise, peak, and return to normality of various cardiac enzymes can serve as a helpful guide. Creatine kinase, the main cardiac isoenzyme, typically experiences an initial rise within 4-8 hours, reaches its peak at 18 hours, and returns to normal within 2-3 days. Myoglobin, which lacks specificity due to its association with skeletal muscle damage, shows an initial rise within 1-4 hours, peaks at 6-7 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Troponin I, known for its sensitivity and specificity, exhibits an initial rise within 3-12 hours, reaches its peak at 24 hours, and returns to normal within 3-10 days. HFABP, or heart fatty acid binding protein, experiences an initial rise within 1.5 hours, peaks at 5-10 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Lastly, LDH, predominantly found in cardiac muscle, shows an initial rise at 10 hours, peaks at 24-48 hours, and returns to normal within 14 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents after experiencing a syncopal episode earlier in the day. She fainted while jogging on the treadmill at her local gym. She regained consciousness quickly and currently feels completely fine. Upon examination, she has a slim physique, normal heart sounds without any additional sounds or murmurs, clear lungs, and a soft abdomen. She is originally from Thailand and mentions that her mother passed away suddenly in her 30s.
Her ECG reveals:
- Right bundle branch block pattern
- Downward-sloping 'coved' ST elevation in leads V1-V3
- Widespread upward-sloping ST depression in other leads
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brugada syndrome
Explanation:Brugada syndrome is a genetic disorder that is passed down from one generation to another in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by abnormal findings on an electrocardiogram (ECG) and can lead to sudden cardiac death. The cause of death in individuals with Brugada syndrome is typically ventricular fibrillation, which occurs as a result of specific defects in ion channels that are determined by our genes. Interestingly, this syndrome is more commonly observed in South East Asia and is actually the leading cause of sudden unexplained cardiac death in Thailand.
One of the key features seen on an ECG that is consistent with Type 1 Brugada syndrome is a pattern known as right bundle branch block. Additionally, there is a distinct downward sloping coved ST elevation observed in leads V1-V3. These specific ECG findings help to identify individuals who may be at risk for developing Brugada syndrome and experiencing its potentially fatal consequences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old female smoker presents with intense chest discomfort. Her ECG indicates an acute myocardial infarction and she is immediately taken to the cath lab. Angiography reveals a blockage in the left anterior descending artery.
Which area of the heart is most likely affected in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right ventricle
Explanation:A summary of the vessels involved in different types of myocardial infarction, along with the corresponding ECG leads and the location of the infarction.
For instance, an anteroseptal infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by ECG leads V1-V3. Similarly, an anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V3-V4.
In cases of anterolateral infarctions, both the left anterior descending artery and the left circumflex artery are involved, and this is reflected in ECG leads V5-V6. An extensive anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V1-V6.
Lateral infarcts involving the left circumflex artery are indicated by leads I, II, aVL, and V6. Inferior infarctions, on the other hand, involve either the right coronary artery (in 80% of cases) or the left circumflex artery (in 20% of cases), and this is shown by leads II, III, and aVF.
In the case of a right ventricular infarction, the right coronary artery is involved, and this is indicated by leads V1 and V4R. Lastly, a posterior infarction involving the right coronary artery is shown by leads V7-V9.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 65 year old male is brought to the emergency department following a fall which occurred while the patient was getting out of bed. The patient complains of feeling dizzy as he got out of bed before experiencing tunnel vision and briefly losing consciousness. The patient is certain he only blacked out for a few seconds as the time on the bedside clock had not changed. The patient informs you that he has had several similar episodes over the past few months when getting out of bed, but most of the time he only feels dizzy and doesn't faint. He denies any loss of bladder or bowel control or biting his tongue. An ECG is performed which shows normal sinus rhythm. You note the patient takes the following medication:
Lisinopril 10 mg OD
Fluoxetine 20 mg OD
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Orthostatic hypotension
Explanation:Orthostatic hypotension is a condition where patients feel lightheaded and may experience tunnel vision when they stand up from a lying down position. These symptoms are often worse in the morning. The patient’s history of recurrent episodes after being in a supine position for a long time strongly suggests orthostatic hypotension. There are no signs of epilepsy, such as deja-vu or jambs vu prodrome, tongue biting, loss of bladder or bowel control, or postictal confusion. The normal ECG and consistent timing of symptoms make postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome (PAF) less likely. There are no neurological deficits to suggest a transient ischemic attack (TIA). The prodromal symptoms, such as tunnel vision and lightheadedness, align more with orthostatic hypotension rather than vasovagal syncope, which typically occurs after long periods of standing and is characterized by feeling hot and sweaty. Although carotid sinus syndrome could be considered as a differential diagnosis, as the patient’s head turning on getting out of bed may trigger symptoms, it is not one of the options.
Further Reading:
Blackouts, also known as syncope, are defined as a spontaneous transient loss of consciousness with complete recovery. They are most commonly caused by transient inadequate cerebral blood flow, although epileptic seizures can also result in blackouts. There are several different causes of blackouts, including neurally-mediated reflex syncope (such as vasovagal syncope or fainting), orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure upon standing), cardiovascular abnormalities, and epilepsy.
When evaluating a patient with blackouts, several key investigations should be performed. These include an electrocardiogram (ECG), heart auscultation, neurological examination, vital signs assessment, lying and standing blood pressure measurements, and blood tests such as a full blood count and glucose level. Additional investigations may be necessary depending on the suspected cause, such as ultrasound or CT scans for aortic dissection or other abdominal and thoracic pathology, chest X-ray for heart failure or pneumothorax, and CT pulmonary angiography for pulmonary embolism.
During the assessment, it is important to screen for red flags and signs of any underlying serious life-threatening condition. Red flags for blackouts include ECG abnormalities, clinical signs of heart failure, a heart murmur, blackouts occurring during exertion, a family history of sudden cardiac death at a young age, an inherited cardiac condition, new or unexplained breathlessness, and blackouts in individuals over the age of 65 without a prodrome. These red flags indicate the need for urgent assessment by an appropriate specialist.
There are several serious conditions that may be suggested by certain features. For example, myocardial infarction or ischemia may be indicated by a history of coronary artery disease, preceding chest pain, and ECG signs such as ST elevation or arrhythmia. Pulmonary embolism may be suggested by dizziness, acute shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and risk factors for venous thromboembolism. Aortic dissection may be indicated by chest and back pain, abnormal ECG findings, and signs of cardiac tamponade include low systolic blood pressure, elevated jugular venous pressure, and muffled heart sounds. Other conditions that may cause blackouts include severe hypoglycemia, Addisonian crisis, and electrolyte abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are summoned to a cardiac arrest in the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department. The patient is experiencing ventricular fibrillation, and adrenaline is being administered as part of the cardiac arrest protocol.
Which ONE statement is accurate regarding the utilization of adrenaline in this arrest?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is no evidence of long-term benefit from its use
Explanation:Adrenaline is recommended to be administered after the third shock in a shockable cardiac arrest (Vf/pVT) once chest compressions have been resumed. The recommended dose is 1 mg, which can be administered as either 10 mL of 1:10,000 or 1 mL of 1:1000 concentration. Subsequently, adrenaline should be given every 3-5 minutes, alternating with chest compressions, and it should be administered without interrupting the compressions. While there is no evidence of long-term benefit from the use of adrenaline in cardiac arrest, some studies have shown improved short-term survival, which justifies its continued use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25 year old female is brought to the emergency department with a gunshot wound to the abdomen. You observe that the patient is breathing rapidly and her neck veins are distended. The trachea is centrally located. Her vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 88/56 mmHg
Heart rate: 127 bpm
Respiration rate: 28 rpm
SpO2: 99% on 15L oxygen
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac tamponade
Explanation:Cardiac tamponade is characterized by several classical signs, including distended neck veins, muffled heart sounds, and hypotension. When neck veins are distended, it suggests that the right ventricle is not filling properly. In cases of trauma, this is often caused by the compression of air (tension pneumothorax) or fluid (blood in the pericardial space). One important distinguishing feature is the deviation of the trachea.
Further Reading:
Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, leading to compromised blood flow. Classic clinical signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Diagnosis is typically done through a FAST scan or an echocardiogram.
Management of cardiac tamponade involves assessing for other injuries, administering IV fluids to reduce preload, performing pericardiocentesis (inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity to drain fluid), and potentially performing a thoracotomy. It is important to note that untreated expanding cardiac tamponade can progress to PEA cardiac arrest.
Pericardiocentesis can be done using the subxiphoid approach or by inserting a needle between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. Echo guidance is the gold standard for pericardiocentesis, but it may not be available in a resuscitation situation. Complications of pericardiocentesis include ST elevation or ventricular ectopics, myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema, and acute ventricular dilatation.
It is important to note that pericardiocentesis is typically used as a temporary measure until a thoracotomy can be performed. Recent articles published on the RCEM learning platform suggest that pericardiocentesis has a low success rate and may delay thoracotomy, so it is advised against unless there are no other options available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You are treating a 68 year old male who has been brought into the resuscitation bay by the ambulance crew. The patient was at home when he suddenly experienced dizziness and difficulty breathing. The ambulance crew presents the patient's ECG to you. You are considering administering atropine to address the patient's bradyarrhythmia. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the use of atropine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Up to 6 doses of 500 mcg can be given every 3-5 minutes
Explanation:When treating adults with bradycardia, it is recommended to administer a maximum of 6 doses of atropine 500 mcg. These doses can be repeated every 3-5 minutes. The total cumulative dose of atropine should not exceed 3 mg in adults.
Further Reading:
Causes of Bradycardia:
– Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
– Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
– Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
– Hypothermia
– Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
– Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
– Head injury: Cushing’s response
– Infections: Endocarditis
– Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosisPresenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
– Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
– Syncope
– Breathlessness
– Weakness
– Chest pain
– NauseaManagement of Bradycardia:
– Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
– Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
– Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
– Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
– Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolateBradycardia Algorithm:
– Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are overseeing the care of a 68-year-old man who has presented to the ER after experiencing a sudden onset of dizziness and difficulty breathing. Upon examination, the patient's heart rate is found to be 44 beats per minute, indicating bradycardia. Which of the following factors increases the risk of developing asystole?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mobitz II AV block
Explanation:Having Mobitz II AV block increases the risk of developing asystole. Other risk factors for asystole include recent asystole, third degree AV block (complete heart block) with a broad QRS complex, and a ventricular pause lasting longer than 3 seconds.
Further Reading:
Causes of Bradycardia:
– Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
– Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
– Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
– Hypothermia
– Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
– Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
– Head injury: Cushing’s response
– Infections: Endocarditis
– Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosisPresenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
– Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
– Syncope
– Breathlessness
– Weakness
– Chest pain
– NauseaManagement of Bradycardia:
– Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
– Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
– Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
– Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
– Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolateBradycardia Algorithm:
– Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 72 year old male attends the emergency department complaining of feeling lightheaded, experiencing shortness of breath, and having irregular heartbeats. He states that these symptoms started six hours ago. Upon listening to his chest, clear lung fields are detected but an irregularly irregular pulse is observed. The patient has type 2 diabetes, which is currently controlled through diet. The only medications he takes are:
- Lisinopril 2.5 mg once daily
- Simvastatin 20 mg once daily
There is no history of heart disease, vascular disease, or stroke. The recorded observations are as follows:
- Blood pressure: 148/92 mmHg
- Pulse rate: 86 bpm
- Respiration rate: 15 bpm
- Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air
An ECG is performed, confirming atrial fibrillation. As part of the management, you need to calculate the patient's CHA2DS2-VASc score.
What is this patient's score?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:The patient is currently taking 20 mg of Atorvastatin once daily. They do not have a history of heart disease, vascular disease, or stroke. Their blood pressure is 148/92 mmHg, pulse rate is 86 bpm, and respiration rate is 1.
Further Reading:
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is the most common sustained cardiac arrhythmia, affecting around 5% of patients over the age of 70-75 years and 10% of patients aged 80-85 years. While AF can cause palpitations and inefficient cardiac function, the most important aspect of managing patients with AF is reducing the increased risk of stroke.
AF can be classified as first detected episode, paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent. First detected episode refers to the initial occurrence of AF, regardless of symptoms or duration. Paroxysmal AF occurs when a patient has 2 or more self-terminating episodes lasting less than 7 days. Persistent AF refers to episodes lasting more than 7 days that do not self-terminate. Permanent AF is continuous atrial fibrillation that cannot be cardioverted or if attempts to do so are deemed inappropriate. The treatment goals for permanent AF are rate control and anticoagulation if appropriate.
Symptoms of AF include palpitations, dyspnea, and chest pain. The most common sign is an irregularly irregular pulse. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is essential for diagnosing AF, as other conditions can also cause an irregular pulse.
Managing patients with AF involves two key parts: rate/rhythm control and reducing stroke risk. Rate control involves slowing down the irregular pulse to avoid negative effects on cardiac function. This is typically achieved using beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. If one drug is not effective, combination therapy may be used. Rhythm control aims to restore and maintain normal sinus rhythm through pharmacological or electrical cardioversion. However, the majority of patients are managed with a rate control strategy.
Reducing stroke risk in patients with AF is crucial. Risk stratifying tools, such as the CHA2DS2-VASc score, are used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy. Anticoagulation is recommended for patients with a score of 2 or more. Clinicians can choose between warfarin and novel oral anticoagulants (NOACs) for anticoagulation.
Before starting anticoagulation, the patient’s bleeding risk should be assessed using tools like the HAS-BLED score or the ORBIT tool. These tools evaluate factors such as hypertension, abnormal renal or liver function, history of bleeding, age, and use of drugs that predispose to bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are treating a 68 year old male who has been brought into the resuscitation bay by the ambulance crew. The patient was at home when he suddenly experienced dizziness and difficulty breathing. The ambulance crew presents the patient's ECG to you. You plan on administering atropine to address the patient's bradyarrhythmia.
According to the resuscitation council, what is the maximum recommended total dose of atropine that should be administered?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3mg
Explanation:When treating adults with bradycardia, a maximum of 6 doses of atropine 500 mcg can be administered. Each dose is given intravenously every 3-5 minutes. The total dose should not exceed 3mg.
Further Reading:
Causes of Bradycardia:
– Physiological: Athletes, sleeping
– Cardiac conduction dysfunction: Atrioventricular block, sinus node disease
– Vasovagal & autonomic mediated: Vasovagal episodes, carotid sinus hypersensitivity
– Hypothermia
– Metabolic & electrolyte disturbances: Hypothyroidism, hyperkalaemia, hypermagnesemia
– Drugs: Beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, digoxin, amiodarone
– Head injury: Cushing’s response
– Infections: Endocarditis
– Other: Sarcoidosis, amyloidosisPresenting symptoms of Bradycardia:
– Presyncope (dizziness, lightheadedness)
– Syncope
– Breathlessness
– Weakness
– Chest pain
– NauseaManagement of Bradycardia:
– Assess and monitor for adverse features (shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, heart failure)
– Treat reversible causes of bradycardia
– Pharmacological treatment: Atropine is first-line, adrenaline and isoprenaline are second-line
– Transcutaneous pacing if atropine is ineffective
– Other drugs that may be used: Aminophylline, dopamine, glucagon, glycopyrrolateBradycardia Algorithm:
– Follow the algorithm for management of bradycardia, which includes assessing and monitoring for adverse features, treating reversible causes, and using appropriate medications or pacing as needed.
https://acls-algorithms.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/Website-Bradycardia-Algorithm-Diagram.pdf -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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