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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 50 year old woman comes in with a 3 cm breast lump. After undergoing a mammogram, biopsy, and CT scan for staging, it is discovered that she has a single ER+ve, HER2-ve tumor that is confined to the breast. What is the next step in her management?
Your Answer: Tamoxifen
Correct Answer: Wide local excision
Explanation:Breast cancer is primarily treated with surgery, with wide local excision (also known as breast conserving surgery) being the preferred option for tumours that are smaller than 4 cm.
Breast cancer management varies depending on the stage of the cancer, type of tumor, and patient’s medical history. Treatment options may include surgery, radiotherapy, hormone therapy, biological therapy, and chemotherapy. Surgery is typically the first option for most patients, except for elderly patients with metastatic disease who may benefit more from hormonal therapy. Prior to surgery, an axillary ultrasound is recommended for patients without palpable axillary lymphadenopathy, while those with clinically palpable lymphadenopathy require axillary node clearance. The type of surgery offered depends on various factors, such as tumor size, location, and type. Breast reconstruction is also an option for patients who have undergone a mastectomy.
Radiotherapy is recommended after a wide-local excision to reduce the risk of recurrence, while mastectomy patients may receive radiotherapy for T3-T4 tumors or those with four or more positive axillary nodes. Hormonal therapy is offered if tumors are positive for hormone receptors, with tamoxifen being used in pre- and perimenopausal women and aromatase inhibitors like anastrozole in postmenopausal women. Tamoxifen may increase the risk of endometrial cancer, venous thromboembolism, and menopausal symptoms. Biological therapy, such as trastuzumab, is used for HER2-positive tumors but cannot be used in patients with a history of heart disorders. Chemotherapy may be used before or after surgery, depending on the stage of the tumor and the presence of axillary node disease. FEC-D is commonly used in the latter case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Correct
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What is the most accurate definition of informed consent?
Your Answer: A process of shared decision making based on mutual respect and participation
Explanation:Informed Consent in Medical Practice
Informed consent is a crucial process in medical practice that involves providing patients with comprehensive information about the potential benefits and risks of a particular course of action. This process enables patients to make informed decisions about their healthcare and treatment options. It is important to note that informed consent does not involve putting the best interests of the patient first, as this is a fundamental principle that every doctor adheres to in their practice. Rather, informed consent is about ensuring that patients have all the necessary information to make decisions that align with their best interests.
While obtaining a second opinion can be helpful in some cases, it is not a requirement for informed consent. The primary goal of informed consent is to ensure that patients have a clear of their options and the potential outcomes of each option. This allows them to make informed decisions that are based on their individual needs and preferences.
In summary, informed consent is a critical process that enables patients to make informed decisions about their healthcare. It involves providing patients with comprehensive information about the potential benefits and risks of a particular course of action and obtaining their permission to proceed. By prioritizing patient autonomy and ensuring that patients have all the necessary information, doctors can help patients make decisions that align with their best interests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Miscellaneous
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has just been diagnosed with schizophrenia. His family is concerned about the long-term outlook of the illness. What factor is linked to the poorest prognosis for poorly managed schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Sudden onset
Correct Answer: Gradual onset
Explanation:Schizophrenia with a gradual onset is indicative of a poor prognosis, whereas the other options suggest a better outcome. Although some studies have linked high intelligence with a higher risk of suicide, generally, individuals with higher intelligence have a more favorable prognosis for schizophrenia.
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that can have varying prognosis depending on certain factors. Some indicators associated with a poor prognosis include a strong family history of the disorder, a gradual onset of symptoms, a low IQ, a prodromal phase of social withdrawal, and a lack of an obvious precipitant. These factors can contribute to a more severe and chronic course of the illness, making it more difficult to manage and treat. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia and their loved ones to be aware of these indicators and seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman who has just been diagnosed with osteoporosis is prescribed oral bisphosphonates. She expresses concern about the potential side-effects of the medication.
What is the most frequent side-effect she may encounter?Your Answer: Oesophagitis
Explanation:Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent bone loss and treat conditions such as Paget’s disease, hypercalcaemia, and metastatic bone disease. However, they can cause side-effects such as oesophagitis, gastritis, and osteonecrosis of the jaw. Patients are advised to take bisphosphonates with a full glass of water and remain upright for 30-60 minutes after ingestion to reduce the risk of upper gastrointestinal symptoms. Other side-effects include fever, myalgias, and arthralgias, which are more common with intravenous bisphosphonate therapy. Hypercalcaemia is not a common side-effect, and bisphosphonates can actually help treat it. Atrial fibrillation and femoral shaft fractures are not commonly associated with bisphosphonate use, but osteonecrosis of the jaw is a rare but well-known side-effect that can be reduced with antibiotic prophylaxis before dental interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 20-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a red and irritated left eye with watering and discharge that has been going on for four days. He wakes up in the morning with his eyes stuck together and notices thick yellowish mucoid material. He denies any contact with sick people or exposure to similar symptoms and has not had an upper respiratory tract infection recently. The patient has a medical history of asthma, allergic rhinosinusitis, and eczema, and he takes loratadine, a salbutamol inhaler, a beclomethasone inhaler, and topical emollients. He wears contact lenses. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bacterial conjunctivitis
Explanation:The presence of purulent discharge is indicative of bacterial conjunctivitis, which is the correct diagnosis for this patient. They are experiencing red, sore eyes with stickiness and have a history of atopy, but the lack of bilateral itching and swollen eyelids makes allergic conjunctivitis less likely. Blepharitis is also an unlikely diagnosis as there is no mention of eyelid swelling or discomfort. Keratitis is not a probable diagnosis as there is no mention of photophobia or eye pain, and examination findings that may be present with keratitis are not mentioned.
Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.
For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 6
Correct
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During the ward round you notice that a 75-year-old man, who was admitted last night with community acquired pneumonia, is not on any prophylaxis for venous thromboembolism. His background history is significant for hypertension, chronic kidney disease stage 4 and one previous deep venous thrombosis 10 years ago.
On his admission bloods his creatinine clearance is 20 mL/min. His electrocardiogram shows sinus rhythm.
What is the most appropriate course of action regarding his need for venous thromboembolism prophylaxis?Your Answer: She should be prescribed unfractionated heparin
Explanation:Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects
Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.
Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman is brought to the hospital due to an acute overdose of her lithium medication, which she takes for bipolar affective disorder and self-harming tendencies. Upon admission, she displayed symptoms of vomiting, tremors, and first-degree heart block. Her lithium levels were measured at 3.6 mmol/l and after eight hours, it decreased to 3.0 mmol/l.
What is the estimated time for the lithium levels to drop to an undetectable level in the serum from the initial value of <0.25 mmol/l?Your Answer: 96 hours
Explanation:Serum Value of Lithium Over Time
The serum value of lithium can be used to monitor the levels of the drug in a patient’s bloodstream. Based on a reduction of one sixth in an 8-hour period, it would take 16 hours for the serum value to drop to 1.8 mmol/l, representing a 50% reduction (half-life). Using a crude half-life of 24 hours, after 12 hours the serum value of lithium would be approximately 2.7 mmol/l, after 24 hours it would be approximately 1.8 mmol/l, and after 48 hours it would be approximately 0.9 mmol/l. It would take 96 hours for the serum values to fall below 0.25 mmol/l. Monitoring the serum value of lithium over time can help healthcare professionals adjust dosages and ensure safe and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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How would you describe March fracture?
Your Answer: Spiral fracture of the tibia
Correct Answer: Stress fracture of the neck of the second metatarsal
Explanation:March Fracture: A Common Injury in Active Individuals
March fracture is a type of stress fracture that affects the metatarsals, commonly seen in individuals who engage in repetitive activities such as running or walking. This injury is often observed in army recruits, nurses, and runners. One of the primary symptoms of March fracture is the development of a tender lump on the back of the foot, which can be felt just below the midshaft of a metatarsal bone, usually the second one.
While early radiology tests may not show any abnormalities, later tests may reveal a hairline fracture or the formation of callus in more severe cases. Fortunately, March fracture does not cause any displacement, so there is no need for reduction or splinting. Instead, normal walking is encouraged, and the forefoot may be supported with elastoplast to alleviate pain.
It typically takes around five to six weeks for the pain to subside, as the fracture heals and unites. the symptoms and treatment options for March fracture can help individuals who engage in repetitive activities take the necessary precautions to prevent this common injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 9
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl and her mother rush to the Emergency department due to the girl's sudden onset of breathlessness and facial puffiness. The girl has a history of eczema and is currently taking oral contraceptives. Despite being well prior to this incident, she is now visibly distressed and experiencing laboured breathing with stridor but no wheezing. What is the most probable reason for her breathlessness?
Your Answer: Angio-oedema
Explanation:Noisy Breathing and Atopy in Adolescents
The presence of noisy breathing in an adolescent may indicate the possibility of stridor, which can be caused by an allergic reaction even in an otherwise healthy individual. The history of atopy, or a tendency to develop allergic reactions, further supports the diagnosis of angio-oedema. The sudden onset of symptoms also adds to the likelihood of this diagnosis.
While asthma is a possible differential diagnosis, it typically presents with expiratory wheezing. However, if the chest is silent, it may indicate a severe and life-threatening form of asthma. Therefore, it is important to consider all possible causes of noisy breathing and atopy in adolescents to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman urgently schedules an appointment due to a two-day history of increasing soreness, redness, and discharge from her left eye. She describes a gritty sensation in the affected eye but denies any foreign body exposure. The patient is otherwise healthy and admits to wearing contact lenses for up to 16 hours daily but has stopped since the onset of symptoms and is using glasses instead. Upon examination, the left eye appears inflamed with excessive tearing, while the right eye is normal. There are no abnormalities in the periorbital tissues, and visual acuity is normal with glasses. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Prescribe chloramphenicol eye drops
Correct Answer: Refer for same day ophthalmology assessment
Explanation:If a patient who wears contact lenses complains of a painful, red eye, it is important to refer them to an eye casualty department to rule out microbial keratitis. While conjunctivitis is the most common cause of a red eye, it can usually be treated with antibiotic eye drops in primary care. However, contact lens wearers are at a higher risk of developing microbial keratitis, which can lead to serious complications such as vision loss. Distinguishing between the two conditions requires a slit-lamp examination, which is why same-day referral to ophthalmology is necessary. Contact lenses should not be used, and medical treatment is required. It is important to note that steroid eye drops should not be prescribed for acute red eye from primary care, and artificial tears are not appropriate for this type of infection.
Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea
Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.
Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.
Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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