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Question 1
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A 56-year-old woman with a history of hypertension visits the surgery with a complaint of hoarseness that has been present for 3 weeks. The hoarseness started after she had an upper respiratory tract infection 7 weeks ago. She is in good health and doesn't smoke. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Urgent referral to ear, nose and throat
Explanation:Hoarseness can be caused by various factors such as overusing the voice, smoking, viral infections, hypothyroidism, gastro-oesophageal reflux, laryngeal cancer, and lung cancer. It is important to investigate the underlying cause of hoarseness, and a chest x-ray may be necessary to rule out any apical lung lesions.
If laryngeal cancer is suspected, it is recommended to refer the patient to an ENT specialist through a suspected cancer pathway. This referral should be considered for individuals who are 45 years old and above and have persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck. Early detection and treatment of laryngeal cancer can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 2
Correct
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You are examining a 3-month-old infant and observe a patch of blotchy skin on the back of the neck. The irregular, smooth pink patch measures around 3 cm in diameter and is not palpable. The parents mention that it becomes more noticeable when the baby cries. What is the probable diagnosis for this skin lesion?
Your Answer: Salmon patch
Explanation:Understanding Salmon Patches in Newborns
Salmon patches, also known as stork marks or stork bites, are a type of birthmark that can be found in approximately 50% of newborn babies. These marks are characterized by their pink and blotchy appearance and are commonly found on the forehead, eyelids, and nape of the neck. While they may cause concern for new parents, salmon patches typically fade over the course of a few months. However, marks on the neck may persist. These birthmarks are caused by an overgrowth of blood vessels and are completely harmless. It is important for parents to understand that salmon patches are a common occurrence in newborns and do not require any medical treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue and joint pain in her lower limbs. Upon examination, both of her knees are warm and swollen, with tenderness upon palpation of the joint. The joints exhibit crepitus and painful active and passive movement, but there is no ligamental instability. Which of the following findings would indicate an inflammatory cause of joint pain, rather than osteoarthritis, in this patient?
Your Answer: Swelling and warmth
Explanation:Distinguishing Between Inflammatory Arthritis and Osteoarthritis: Symptoms and Signs
When it comes to joint pain, it can be difficult to determine whether it is caused by inflammatory arthritis or osteoarthritis. However, there are certain symptoms and signs that can help distinguish between the two.
Swelling and warmth are more likely to be associated with inflammatory arthritis, as it is characterized by the presence of synovial fluid and inflammation. On the other hand, osteoarthritis is more commonly associated with bony joint enlargement and tenderness, rather than swelling and warmth.
Crepitus, or joint cracking and popping, can occur in both types of arthritis, but is more common in osteoarthritis due to joint-space narrowing. Joint instability can also occur in all types of arthritis, but is most commonly caused by injury or trauma that has damaged ligaments.
Painful range of motion is another symptom that can occur in both inflammatory arthritis and osteoarthritis. However, it can be managed with analgesia and physiotherapy.
In summary, understanding the symptoms and signs of inflammatory arthritis and osteoarthritis can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents with pain at the elbow which she has been aware of for the last two weeks.
Which of the following would be consistent with a diagnosis of tennis elbow?Your Answer: Pain on pronation of the forearm
Correct Answer: Pain on wrist extension against resistance
Explanation:Understanding Tennis Elbow
Tennis elbow, also known as lateral epicondylitis, is a condition caused by overuse or strain of the extensor muscles in the forearm. It is most commonly seen in individuals in their fourth decade of life. Symptoms include pain in the lateral epicondyle region during resisted extension of the fingers and wrist.
Management of tennis elbow involves reducing strenuous activity for at least six weeks, with or without the use of a wrist splint. Local injection with corticosteroid and anaesthetic agents may also be an option. Surgical treatment is only considered for those with persistent symptoms that do not respond to other forms of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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If a 6-year-old boy is diagnosed with absence seizures, what is the likelihood that he will become seizure-free by the time he turns 17?
Your Answer: 40-45%
Correct Answer: 90-95%
Explanation:Absence seizures have a favorable prognosis.
Absence seizures, also known as petit mal, are a type of epilepsy that is commonly observed in children. This form of generalised epilepsy typically affects children between the ages of 3-10 years old, with girls being twice as likely to be affected as boys. Absence seizures are characterised by brief episodes that last only a few seconds and are followed by a quick recovery. These seizures may be triggered by hyperventilation or stress, and the child is usually unaware of the seizure. They may occur multiple times a day and are identified by a bilateral, symmetrical 3Hz spike and wave pattern on an EEG.
The first-line treatment for absence seizures includes sodium valproate and ethosuximide. The prognosis for this condition is generally good, with 90-95% of affected individuals becoming seizure-free during adolescence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male contacts his GP at 2PM to schedule his blood tests following a recent visit to his psychiatrist. The psychiatrist has raised his dosage of lithium and requested that the GP arrange for lithium levels to be checked at the appropriate time after taking the medication. The patient took his first increased dose of lithium at 10AM (two hours ago).
When should the GP schedule the blood test to be taken?Your Answer: 10 hours
Correct Answer: 8 hours
Explanation:Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate or cAMP formation.
Common adverse effects of lithium include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, and nephrotoxicity. It may also cause thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, and hyperparathyroidism.
Monitoring of patients on lithium therapy is crucial to prevent toxicity. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until concentrations are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every 3 months. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 7
Correct
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A father brings his 14-year-old son to see you. The boy is a high achiever and is about to take his 'GCSEs'.
In recent months he has broken up with his girlfriend, has lost interest in his usual hobbies, and has lost a stone in weight so that his BMI is now 17. He cries frequently, struggles to focus on his school work, and is not interested in playing video games, one of his favourite pastimes.
His father feels he is depressed, and you are inclined to agree.
Which of the following symptoms would make you suspect this was more than a straightforward depression?Your Answer: Feelings of guilt
Explanation:Anorexia Nervosa and Disproportionate Body Image Perception
Disproportionate perception of one’s body image, often characterized by the belief of being overweight, is a common feature of anorexia nervosa. This condition is often accompanied by symptoms of depression, but treating it with antidepressants alone may not yield significant improvement. It is important to consider alternative diagnoses, especially in age groups where depression is not prevalent.
In summary, anorexia nervosa is a serious condition that affects one’s perception of their body image. It is crucial to seek appropriate treatment and consider other potential diagnoses to ensure proper care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 8
Correct
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You are evaluating a study on the use of masks in public places to reduce viral upper respiratory tract infections among elderly individuals. The study found that the treatment group, who wore a mask, had fewer cases compared to the control group who did not wear a mask. The absolute risk in the control group was 0.5 whereas the absolute risk in the treatment group was 0.3.
What is the number needed to treat for elderly individuals in this study?Your Answer: 5
Explanation:The formula for calculating the number needed to treat is to divide one by the absolute risk reduction. The absolute risk reduction is determined by subtracting the absolute risk in the control group from the absolute risk in the treatment group. For example, if the absolute risk in the control group is 0.3 and the absolute risk in the treatment group is 0.5, the absolute risk reduction would be 0.2. Therefore, the number needed to treat would be one divided by 0.2, which equals five.
Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A psychologist wants to evaluate the effectiveness of cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) in reducing symptoms of anxiety in a group of 50 patients. She administers an anxiety questionnaire to the patients before starting the therapy and records their scores. After six months of CBT, she repeats the questionnaire to see if there is any change in anxiety levels. The differences in anxiety scores before and after therapy are not normally distributed.
What statistical analysis should she use to analyze her findings?Your Answer: Mann-Whitney U test
Correct Answer: Wilcoxon signed-rank test
Explanation:The appropriate statistical test for analyzing non-parametric data before and after an intervention, such as the psychiatrist’s collection of PHQ-9 scores, is the Wilcoxon signed-rank test. This is because the data is not normally distributed and the paired student’s t-test cannot be used. The unpaired student’s t-test is not appropriate for paired data sets, while the Mann-Whitney U test is useful for comparing unpaired sets of non-parametric data.
Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 10
Correct
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A 30-year-old male presents with bilateral gynaecomastia. He reports a noticeable increase in breast tissue over the past several months. His medical history includes a congenital right-sided crypto-orchidism, which was corrected with orchidopexy during childhood. He also experiences migraines and uses sumatriptan as needed. What is the probable underlying cause of his current symptoms?
Your Answer: Drug-induced
Explanation:Gynaecomastia and Testicular Tumour
This man is likely to have a testicular tumour as the cause of his gynaecomastia. While bilateral breast cancer in a male his age is highly unusual, gynaecomastia can develop due to the hormonal influence of a tumour. Sumatriptan doesn’t cause gynaecomastia, and Mondor’s disease is a thrombophlebitis of the superficial veins of the breast or chest wall. Physiological changes of puberty occur during puberty and not in the mid-20s, making testicular tumour the most likely option.
The patient’s history of crypto-orchidism is a risk factor for the development of testicular cancer, and he is in the typical age range. However, it should be noted that only a minority of testicular cancers present with gynaecomastia. According to the American Family Physician, approximately 10% of males present with gynaecomastia from tumours that secrete beta human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG). Therefore, further investigation and genital examination are necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the accurate statement about pertussis infection?
Your Answer: Sleep is usually undisturbed
Correct Answer: doesn't occur in the neonatal period
Explanation:Pertussis: Symptoms and Complications
Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is a respiratory condition that can manifest at any time. Patients with pertussis experience paroxysms of coughing during waking hours, but unlike many respiratory conditions, sleep is usually undisturbed. An inspiratory whoop may not be present, and complete apnoea may occur. A useful feature in the history taking is that patients typically do not experience disturbed sleep. Additionally, there is typically a lymphocytosis present.
It is important to note that asthma in the mother is not a contraindication for pertussis. However, complications can arise from the disease, such as hemiplegia and convulsions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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As the school day is ending, you receive a call from the principal's office. One of the students who was leaving the building has suddenly become sick and vomited in the hallway. What is a crucial step in cleaning the affected area?
Your Answer: Reusable work equipment that is soiled must be bagged up and destroyed
Correct Answer: Wash the affected surface clean with detergent before disinfecting
Explanation:Dealing with a Chlorine Spill in a Medical Facility
When a chlorine spill occurs in a medical facility, it is crucial to take immediate action to prevent harm to staff and patients. The first step is to erect a barrier and put up signage to alert others to the problem. Even if the surgery is closed, other staff members may be in the building, and they need to be aware of the danger.
Chlorine-releasing disinfectant is suitable for use in cleaning up the spill. Any residue should be scraped into closable containers before being washed clean with detergent and then disinfected. It is important to use closable containers and bags labeled ‘clinical waste’ to bag up any contaminated material that needs laundry or disposal.
Reusable work equipment can be disinfected or sterilized to prevent further contamination. By following these steps, medical facilities can effectively deal with a chlorine spill and ensure the safety of everyone in the building.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 13
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman requests reduction mammoplasty because she is convinced her breasts are grossly large and misshapen. She dresses in elaborate clothing to hide her shape and, although she swims well, has stopped going to the pool. Physical examination reveals breasts well within the normal range of size and shape.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Body dysmorphic disorder
Explanation:Understanding Body Dysmorphic Disorder: Differentiating it from Other Mental Health Conditions
Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD) is a mental health condition characterized by a preoccupation with an imagined defect in appearance or excessive concern with a slight physical anomaly. To diagnose BDD, the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5) criteria should be followed. It is important to differentiate BDD from other mental health conditions such as agoraphobia, generalized anxiety disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and schizoaffective disorder. By understanding the unique features of BDD, proper diagnosis and treatment can be provided to those who are affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A parent is concerned about her 9-month-old child’s prominent ears.
Your Answer: Delay operation until the age of 13
Correct Answer: Delay operation until the age of 8
Explanation:Prominent Ears: Causes, Diagnosis, and Treatment Options
Prominent ears affect a small percentage of the population and are usually inherited. This condition arises due to the lack or malformation of cartilage during ear development in the womb, resulting in abnormal helical folds or lateral growth. While some babies are born with normal-looking ears, the problem may arise within the first three months of life.
Before six months of age, the ear cartilage is soft and can be molded and splinted. However, after this age, surgical correction is the only option. Pinnaplasty or otoplasty can be performed on children from the age of five, but the ideal age for the procedure is around eight years old. This allows enough time to see if the child perceives the condition as a problem, while also avoiding potential teasing or bullying at school.
While some prominent ears may become less visible over time, it is best not to delay corrective procedures. Younger ears tend to produce better results after surgery, and waiting too long may increase the risk of bullying at school. Overall, understanding the causes, diagnosis, and treatment options for prominent ears can help individuals make informed decisions about their care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old new mother is brought to the surgery by her concerned partner. Their baby daughter is six days old.
For the last 48 hours the mother has been very tearful, anxious and irritable. The partner has read about postnatal depression and is worried as she seemed so happy in the first days after the birth. The baby is formula-fed and is thriving.
When asked, she feels exhausted, and is in some discomfort following the delivery. She doesn't feel depressed but says it is very unusual for her to be so emotional and crying all the time.
What is your diagnosis?Your Answer: Puerperal psychosis
Correct Answer: Postnatal depression
Explanation:Understanding Postpartum Mood Disorders
Baby blues are a common experience for new mothers, affecting between 50-70% of women. This short-lived disturbance of mood typically begins between the third and sixth day post-delivery and resolves within 10 days. While it can cause anxiety, it doesn’t indicate an anxiety disorder and doesn’t affect a mother’s ability to function. Supportive treatment is all that is required.
Postnatal depression is a more serious condition, affecting 10-15% of pregnancies with the highest incidence occurring three months postpartum. Symptoms may include persistent feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and a loss of interest in activities. Treatment may involve therapy, medication, or a combination of both.
Puerperal psychosis is a rare but severe condition affecting 1-2 in 1000 births. Symptoms may include delusions, hallucinations, and clouding of consciousness. Delusions may be centered around the baby, putting the child at risk of harm or neglect. This condition is typically managed in a specialist mother and baby unit.
It’s important for new mothers to be aware of these postpartum mood disorders and seek help if they experience symptoms. With proper treatment and support, women can recover and enjoy the joys of motherhood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old boy has a temperature of 38.5°C. You first saw the child two days ago and the child has been febrile since then. He now has a faint erythematous macular rash that blanches on pressure. The parents are anxious.
Which option would be MOST IMPORTANT in making the decision to admit the child to hospital?Your Answer: The presence of a blanching erythematous rash
Correct Answer: Increasing family anxiety
Explanation:Identifying Red Flags in Febrile Children
Febrile illness in children can be a cause of concern for parents and healthcare providers. While most cases are self-limiting and resolve without complications, some may require urgent medical attention. It is important to identify red flags that indicate a potentially serious underlying condition.
Factors that may increase family anxiety include a history of serious illness or death due to feverish illness, other illnesses affecting the child or family members, and parental instinct. Parents should not ignore their intuition and seek medical advice if they are concerned.
While there are no set rules about how long a fever should last, parents should seek further advice if their child has been febrile for five days without resolution. In infants aged 0-3 months, a temperature of >38°C is a red flag, while a temperature of >39°C in infants aged 3-6 months is an amber flag. After six months of age, the temperature alone is no longer an indicator of intermediate or high risk.
Reduced fluid intake, dry mucous membranes, reduced urine output, and reduced skin turgor are amber warning signs that require medical attention. A blanching erythematous rash is likely to indicate a viral infection and is not a cause for concern. However, non-blanching petechiae and patches in a sick child suggest meningococcal disease and require urgent medical attention.
In conclusion, identifying red flags in febrile children is crucial for timely diagnosis and management of potentially serious conditions. Parents should seek medical advice if they are concerned about their child’s health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 17
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman presents with fatigue over the past two weeks. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. She has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica and ischemic heart disease. After conducting screening blood tests, the full blood count results are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 129 g/l
- Platelets (Plt): 158 * 109/l
- White blood cells (WBC): 19.0 * 109/l
- Neutrophils (Neuts): 4.2 * 109/l
- Lymphocytes (Lymphs): 14.1 * 109/l
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
Explanation:It is highly probable that chronic lymphocytic leukemia is the cause of lymphocytosis in an elderly patient. Neutrophilia is typically caused by steroids. An elderly person experiencing a significant lymphocytosis due to a viral illness would be uncommon.
Understanding Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is caused by the abnormal growth of B-cells, a type of white blood cell. CLL is the most common form of leukaemia in adults and is often asymptomatic, meaning it may be discovered incidentally during routine blood tests. However, some patients may experience symptoms such as weight loss, anorexia, bleeding, infections, and lymphadenopathy.
To diagnose CLL, doctors typically perform a full blood count to check for lymphocytosis, a condition where there is an abnormally high number of lymphocytes in the blood. Patients may also have anaemia or thrombocytopenia, which can occur due to bone marrow replacement or autoimmune hemolytic anaemia. A blood film may also be taken to look for smudge cells, which are abnormal lymphocytes that appear broken or fragmented.
The key investigation for CLL diagnosis is immunophenotyping, which involves using a panel of antibodies specific for CD5, CD19, CD20, and CD23. This test helps to identify the type of lymphocyte involved in the cancer and can confirm the diagnosis of CLL. With early detection and proper treatment, patients with CLL can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 45-year-old male presents at your clinic following a recent admission at the cardiac unit of the local general hospital. He suffered a myocardial (MI) infarction three weeks ago and has been recovering well physically, but he cries a lot of the time.
You find evidence of low mood, anhedonia and sleep disturbance.
The man feels hopeless about the future and has fleeting thoughts of suicide. He has suffered from depression in the past which responded well to antidepressant treatment.
Which antidepressant would you choose from the following based on its demonstrated safety post-myocardial infarction?Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Sertraline for Depression in Patients with Recent MI or Unstable Angina
Sertraline is a medication that is both effective and well-tolerated for treating depression in patients who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction (MI) or unstable angina. In addition to its antidepressant properties, sertraline has been found to inhibit platelet aggregation. This makes it a valuable treatment option for patients who are at risk for blood clots and other cardiovascular complications. With its dual benefits, sertraline can help improve both the mental and physical health of patients who have experienced a cardiac event.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 19
Correct
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A 65-year-old gentleman visits the clinic to discuss the findings of his recent spirometry test. He has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath for the past six months. Previously, he could walk comfortably to the pub at the far end of the village to meet his old friends from the steelworks, but he has been struggling to keep up with them for some time. He quit smoking four years ago after smoking 20 cigarettes a day since his 20s. He occasionally uses a salbutamol inhaler, which he has been prescribed for the past two years.
What is the recommended course of action for this patient's treatment, as per the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries guidelines?Your Answer: Formoterol 12 micrograms 1 puff BD
Explanation:Spirometry and Management of COPD
In spirometry, a ratio of FEV1/FVC less than 0.7 indicates the presence of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). A diagnosis of stage 3 (severe) COPD is made when FEV1 is between 30-49% predicted. Smoking cessation is crucial in managing COPD. If a person prescribed with a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) or short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA) remains breathless or experiences exacerbations, a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) or long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be offered. It is recommended to discontinue treatment with a SAMA if prescribing a LAMA. A regular LAMA is preferred over a regular SAMA four times daily. It is important to note that this approach differs from the PCRS approach, which categorizes treatment based on phenotypic groups for patients with predominant breathlessness, exacerbations, or COPD with asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 20
Correct
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Which of the following patients is most likely to require screening for hepatocellular carcinoma?
Your Answer: A 45-year-old man with liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C
Explanation:Hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is a type of cancer that ranks third in terms of prevalence worldwide. The most common cause of HCC globally is chronic hepatitis B, while chronic hepatitis C is the leading cause in Europe. The primary risk factor for developing HCC is liver cirrhosis, which can result from various factors such as hepatitis B & C, alcohol, haemochromatosis, and primary biliary cirrhosis. Other risk factors include alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, hereditary tyrosinosis, glycogen storage disease, aflatoxin, certain drugs, porphyria cutanea tarda, male sex, diabetes mellitus, and metabolic syndrome.
HCC often presents late and may exhibit features of liver cirrhosis or failure such as jaundice, ascites, RUQ pain, hepatomegaly, pruritus, and splenomegaly. In some cases, it may manifest as decompensation in patients with chronic liver disease. Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) are also common. High-risk groups such as patients with liver cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis B & C or haemochromatosis, and men with liver cirrhosis secondary to alcohol should undergo screening with ultrasound (+/- AFP).
Management options for early-stage HCC include surgical resection, liver transplantation, radiofrequency ablation, transarterial chemoembolisation, and sorafenib, a multikinase inhibitor. Proper management and early detection are crucial in improving the prognosis of HCC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 56-year-old man visits his General Practice Surgery, requesting travel vaccinations at short notice. His daughter has been taken ill on her gap year and is in hospital in Thailand, and he wants to travel over there within a few days. He is on interferon and ribavirin for chronic asymptomatic hepatitis C infection, which was diagnosed six months ago. He was fully immunised as a child and was given some additional vaccinations on diagnosis with hepatitis C. He wants to know whether there is time to have any travel vaccinations before he travels.
Which of the following is the most appropriate vaccination to offer, which can be given up to the day of travel?Your Answer: Diphtheria, tetanus and pertussis (DTP)
Explanation:The patient is planning to travel to Borneo and needs to know which vaccinations are appropriate to receive before departure. The DTP vaccine, which protects against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, is recommended and can be given up to the day of travel. Rabies vaccination is also advised for those visiting areas where the disease is endemic, but it requires a course of three injections over 28 days and cannot be given within days of travel. Hepatitis A is a common disease in many parts of the world and can be contracted through contaminated food and water, but the patient’s known diagnosis of hepatitis C means that she has likely already been vaccinated against hepatitis A and B. Hepatitis B is generally given as a course of injections over six months, which is not feasible for the patient’s short timeline. Japanese Encephalitis is rare in travelers and requires two separate injections a month apart, which doesn’t fit with the patient’s schedule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding developmental dysplasia of the hip is true?
Your Answer: The Ortolani test attempts to dislocate an articulated femoral head
Correct Answer: 20% of cases are bilateral
Explanation:Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be screened for using ultrasound in infants with certain risk factors or through clinical examination using the Barlow and Ortolani tests. Other factors to consider include leg length symmetry, knee level when hips and knees are flexed, and restricted hip abduction in flexion. Ultrasound is typically used to confirm the diagnosis, but x-rays may be necessary for infants over 4.5 months old. Management options include the Pavlik harness for younger children and surgery for older ones. Most unstable hips will stabilize on their own within 3-6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is referred to the Endocrine Clinic with a complaint that his shoe size has gone up from size 9 to size 11 and his wedding ring no longer fits him. He is sweating a lot and his wife complains he is snoring more at night.
What is the most useful test for confirming a diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Serum insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) level
Correct Answer: Oral glucose tolerance test with growth-hormone measurements
Explanation:The most reliable test for diagnosing acromegaly is the 75 g oral glucose tolerance test, which measures growth hormone levels. In normal individuals, growth hormone levels decrease below 1.0 µg/l during the test, but in those with acromegaly, they remain elevated due to the antagonistic relationship between insulin and growth hormone. A random growth hormone level is not sufficient for diagnosis as there is a wide range of normal levels and secretion is episodic. MRI scans of the pituitary fossa may show abnormalities, but they are not specific to acromegaly. Serum insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) levels are a recommended initial screening test, as they are highly specific and a normal level usually excludes acromegaly. Skull X-rays may show an enlarged sella turcica, but this is not unique to acromegaly and cannot confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 25-year-old man complains of recurrent headaches. He experiences these headaches about 2-3 times a month, which are severe and located on the right side of his head. The headaches are throbbing in nature and last for approximately 8-12 hours. During these episodes, he finds it difficult to continue working and prefers to rest in a dark room. Paracetamol has not been effective in relieving his symptoms. What medication should be prescribed to decrease the frequency of these headaches?
Your Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:For the acute treatment of migraine, a combination of triptan and NSAID or triptan and paracetamol is recommended. Prophylaxis options include topiramate or propranolol. Based on the patient’s history, prophylaxis with propranolol or topiramate should be considered. Zolmitriptan is not indicated for prophylaxis, but can be used for acute treatment of migraine.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.
For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.
For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.
It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Correct
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You see a 40-year-old male patient with right sided facial paralysis. It started about 3 days ago and has slowly become worse. He is unable to raise his right forehead, close his right eye or move the right-hand side of his mouth. He has also noticed that his taste has been altered on the right-hand side of his tongue.
He is not particularly worried about it as it happened 12 months ago and you diagnosed Bell's palsy. He would like some more treatment as he feels it helped his recovery last time. He is normally fit and well and has no allergies.
You arrange to see the patient in your afternoon clinic to examine him.
Regarding Bell's palsy, which statement below is correct?Your Answer: A patient with a recurrent Bell's palsy needs urgent referral to ENT
Explanation:Referral to ENT is urgently needed for a patient experiencing recurrent Bell’s palsy. Treatment with corticosteroids is recommended for Bell’s palsy, as it has been shown to improve prognosis in meta-analyses. Antiviral treatments are not recommended. Loss of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue on the same side as the facial weakness may occur with Bell’s palsy, but doesn’t require urgent referral to ENT. It is important to note that a bilateral palsy is not a Bell’s palsy and requires urgent referral to ENT or neurology.
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 26
Correct
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Samantha is a five-year-old caucasian girl who visits her GP due to her mother's concern about her swollen tummy. She has no previous medical history and was born at full term. During the examination, she seems a little pale. A smooth mass is palpable in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. There is no tenderness in her abdomen, and her cardiovascular and respiratory examinations are normal. There is no significant family history to note.
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Urgent paediatric review within 48 hours
Explanation:A possible diagnosis for an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass in children is Wilms tumour, which is the most common renal malignancy in this age group. It typically presents as a unilateral mass in the abdomen. Therefore, it is crucial to arrange an urgent paediatric review within 48 hours for assessment and imaging, in accordance with NICE guidelines.
Delaying diagnosis by opting for an ultrasound scan within 2 weeks or a routine referral to paediatrics is not recommended. While a renal function test will be performed in secondary care, it will not alter the management of the patient.
It is worth noting that sickle cell disease can be diagnosed using haemoglobin electrophoresis, and it may present with splenomegaly (a left-sided mass). However, in the case of an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass in children, Wilms tumour should be considered as a potential diagnosis and prompt action should be taken.
Wilms’ Tumour: A Common Childhood Malignancy
Wilms’ tumour, also known as nephroblastoma, is a prevalent type of cancer in children, with a median age of diagnosis at 3 years old. It is often associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, hemihypertrophy, and a loss-of-function mutation in the WT1 gene on chromosome 11. The most common presenting feature is an abdominal mass, which is usually painless, but other symptoms such as haematuria, flank pain, anorexia, and fever may also occur. In 95% of cases, the tumour is unilateral, and metastases are found in 20% of patients, most commonly in the lungs.
If a child presents with an unexplained enlarged abdominal mass, it is crucial to arrange a paediatric review within 48 hours to rule out Wilms’ tumour. The management of this cancer typically involves nephrectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy if the disease is advanced. Fortunately, the prognosis for Wilms’ tumour is good, with an 80% cure rate.
Histologically, Wilms’ tumour is characterized by epithelial tubules, areas of necrosis, immature glomerular structures, stroma with spindle cells, and small cell blastomatous tissues resembling the metanephric blastema. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are essential for a successful outcome in children with Wilms’ tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 27
Correct
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A 28 year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of persistent itching. She has a past medical history of eczema and uses emollients regularly, but to no avail. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant. During the physical examination, there are signs of excoriation on her hands, but no apparent visible dermatitis. What is the most crucial test to request?
Your Answer: Liver function tests
Explanation:Pruritus is a common occurrence during pregnancy, affecting up to 25% of women. It can be caused by various factors such as eczema, polymorphic eruption of pregnancy, or changes in circulation due to skin stretching. However, if pruritus is present without a rash, it may indicate obstetric cholestasis, a serious condition that can lead to complications like prematurity, meconium passage, postpartum hemorrhage, and even stillbirth. Therefore, liver function tests and bile acid tests are crucial in diagnosing this condition. Additionally, pruritus can also be a symptom of iron deficiency anemia, so a full blood count should also be considered.
Jaundice During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, jaundice can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common liver diseases during pregnancy is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which affects around 1% of pregnancies and is usually seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include itching, especially in the palms and soles, and raised bilirubin levels. Ursodeoxycholic acid is used for symptomatic relief, and women are typically induced at 37 weeks. However, this condition can increase the risk of stillbirth.
Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is a rare complication that can occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. ALT levels are typically elevated. Supportive care is the initial management, and delivery is the definitive management once the patient is stabilized.
Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may also be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for Haemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets, can also cause jaundice during pregnancy. It is important to monitor liver function tests and seek medical attention if any symptoms of jaundice occur during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 28
Correct
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A 26-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of retrosternal burning after eating. He has no regular medication and is generally healthy. He has never smoked, but drinks 80 units of alcohol per week. Based on these factors, which is the most likely indication that he is dependent on alcohol?
Your Answer: Feels he needs more alcohol to have the same effect as it would have had last year
Explanation:Identifying Problem Drinking: Symptoms and Screening Tools
Problem drinking can have serious consequences on an individual’s health and daily life. Here are some common symptoms of alcohol dependence and screening tools that can help identify problem drinking:
– Tolerance: Needing more alcohol to achieve the same effect as before.
– Craving: Strong desire to drink.
– Loss of control: Inability to stop drinking once started.
– Withdrawal symptoms: Physical symptoms when not drinking.
– AUDIT questionnaire: Comprehensive screening tool for problem drinking.
– AUDIT-C: Shortened form of AUDIT questionnaire consisting of three questions.
– CAGE questionnaire: Screening tool for problem drinking with a score of 2 or more indicating high likelihood of problem drinking.
– Excessive alcohol consumption linked to over 200 medical conditions.
– Types of alcohol consumed do not impact dependence.
– Inability to fulfill responsibilities due to alcohol consumption is a feature of problem drinking.It is important to recognize the symptoms of problem drinking and utilize screening tools to identify and address the issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 29
Correct
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What is the most useful investigation to differentiate between the types of cardiomyopathy from the given list?
Your Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:Understanding the Four Types of Cardiomyopathy
Cardiomyopathy is a group of heart muscle disorders that affect the structure and function of the heart. There are four major types of cardiomyopathy: dilated, hypertrophic, restrictive, and arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy. Each type is characterized by specific features such as ventricular dilation, hypertrophy, restrictive filling, and fibro-fatty changes in the right ventricular myocardium.
While dilated and hypertrophic cardiomyopathies are the most common types, a familial cause has been identified in a significant percentage of patients with these conditions. On the other hand, restrictive cardiomyopathy is usually not familial.
To diagnose cardiomyopathy, a full cardiological assessment is necessary. Transthoracic Doppler echocardiography can confirm the diagnosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, distinguish between restrictive cardiomyopathy and constrictive pericarditis, and assess the severity of ventricular dysfunction in dilated cardiomyopathies. Coronary angiography can help exclude coronary artery disease as the cause of dilated cardiomyopathy.
A normal ECG is uncommon in any form of cardiomyopathy, and cardiomegaly on a chest X-ray may be present in all types. Brain natriuretic peptide is a marker of ventricular dysfunction but cannot differentiate between cardiomyopathies.
In summary, understanding the different types of cardiomyopathy and their diagnostic tools is crucial in managing and treating this group of heart muscle disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man comes to you with complaints of fatigue, overall weakness, and weight loss that have been going on for the past 4 months. He also reports experiencing pain in his second and third fingers for the past month and has been having increasing difficulty with erectile dysfunction. You suspect that he may have hereditary haemochromatosis and order blood tests.
What result would be most consistent with your suspected diagnosis?Your Answer: Ferritin - low; serum iron - high; total iron binding capacity - low; transferrin saturation - normal
Correct Answer: Ferritin - high; serum iron - high; total iron binding capacity - low; transferrin saturation - high
Explanation:Haemochromatosis is characterised by elevated levels of ferritin and transferrin saturation, along with a low total iron-binding capacity on iron studies. This hereditary disorder leads to an excessive accumulation of iron. Any options that do not show raised levels of ferritin and transferrin saturation can be excluded during initial screening. Transferrin is a plasma protein responsible for transporting iron, and its levels increase during iron deficiency to maximise iron utilisation. Total iron-binding capacity reflects the availability of iron-binding sites on transferrin, and its levels increase during iron deficiency and decrease during iron overload. Therefore, a low total iron-binding capacity is expected in haemochromatosis.
Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.
A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.
It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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